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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 1

Which of the following statements is correct about the Quit India Movement?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 1

The Quit India Movement, launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, called for the end of British rule in India. It is also known as the "August Revolution" because of its significance in the Indian independence movement and the timing of its launch in August. The movement began with Gandhi's famous "Do or Die" speech and saw widespread participation from various sections of society. It was a turning point in India's struggle for freedom, and the British government realized that it would have to eventually leave India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding Viral Vector-based Vaccines:

  1. Viral Vector Vaccines use a weakened form of the deadly virus to create an immune response.

  2. Immune response involves both B cells and T cells.

  3. Previous exposure to the vector could reduce the effectiveness of the Vaccine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 2
  • Viral vector-based vaccines differ from most conventional vaccines in that they don‘t actually contain antigens, but rather use the body‘s own cells to produce them.

  • A viral vector vaccine uses a harmless version of a different virus, called a ―vector, to deliver information to the body that helps it protect you. For coronavirus, adenoviruses, a type of common cold virus, that attaches itself to cells and inject DNA that tells the cells to make coronavirus spike protein. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • By infecting cells and instructing them to make large amounts of antigen, which then trigger an immune response, the vaccine mimics what happens during natural infection with certain pathogens - especially viruses. This has the advantage of triggering a strong cellular immune response by T cells as well the production of antibodies by B cells.

  • ADVANTAGES OF VIRAL VECTOR-BASED VACCINES:

    • Well-established technology

    • Strong immune response

    • Immune response involves B cells and T cells; Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • But Viral vector vaccines are relatively complex to manufacture and previous exposure to the vector could reduce the effectiveness of the vaccine. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 3

With reference to the election disputes, consider the following statements:

  1. To decide an election petition related to Panchayat is vested in the High Court.

  2. Election disputes related to either House of Parliament or State Legislature can be determined by the Administrative Tribunals set up by law.

  3. The election dispute related to the Speaker of Lok Sabha is determined by High Court.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 3
  • For the decision of election disputes, the Constitution provides [Art.329] that the ordinary courts of the land will have no jurisdiction and that any question relating to an election can be agitated only by an election petition, as provided for by law.

  • Under the Representation of the People Act, the power to decide an election petition is vested in the High Court, with appeal to the Supreme Court.

  • By Art. 323B of the Constitution, as inserted by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976, power has been conferred on the appropriate Legislature to set up a Tribunal for the adjudication of disputes relating to elections of the Legislature concerned, by making law, and to provide in such law for the exclusion of all Courts (save that of the Supreme Court under Art. 136), to entertain any such matter. In short, when any such law is made in exercise of this power, the High Court will cease to have any jurisdiction over election disputes; they will be determined only by the Administrative Tribunal set up by law, with appeal from the decision of such Tribunal to the Supreme Court by special leave under Art. 136. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • In Art. 71 of the Constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and Vice-President is the Supreme Court. There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House of the People, so that any dispute relating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court, according to Art. 329(b). Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The election disputes related to Panchayats:

    • In the case of a village panchayat, the Munsiff‘s Court having jurisdiction over the place in which the headquarters of the panchayat is located; and

    • In the case of block panchayat or district panchayat the district court having jurisdiction over the place in which the headquarters of the panchayat concerned is located.

    • The Government shall, in consultation with the High Court notify the appropriate courts in the Gazette.

Hence statement 1 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 4

With reference to the National Savings Certificate, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a savings scheme backed by the government that can be purchased from any general post office in India.

  2. It provides guaranteed returns and tax rebates as per Income Tax Act, 1961.

  3. The National Savings certificate may be pledged or transferred as securities to the President of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 4
  • The National Savings Certificate (NSC) is a small savings scheme backed by the government which can be purchased from any general post office in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • NSC provides guaranteed returns, tax rebates as per section 80C of the IT Act, 1961 and NSC interest rates of 8.5% and 8.8% for NSC VIII (five years) and NSC IX (10 years) respectively. The interest, under this scheme, is compounded on a half-yearly basis. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The deposits can be opened with a Minimum of Rs.1000 and in multiple of Rs.100, no maximum limit and any number of accounts can be opened under the scheme. The deposit shall mature on the completion of five years from the date of the deposit (NSC VIII issue). NSC may be pledged or transferred as security, by submitting the prescribed application form at the concerned Post Office supported with an acceptance letter from the pledgee. Transfer/pledging can be made to the following authorities.-The President of India/Governor of the State, RBI/Scheduled Bank/Co-operative Society/Co-operative Bank.-Corporation (public/private)/Govt. Company/Local Authority.-Housing finance company. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • A pledged asset is a valuable possession that is transferred to a lender to secure a debt or loan. Hence pledging means the transfer of an asset from a debtor (the pledgor) to a creditor (the pledgee) to secure repayment for some debt or obligation and to the mutual benefit of both parties.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 5

Consider the following statements with reference to the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956:

  1. It provides for the establishment of River Boards.

  2. The Chairman and members of the Water Dispute Tribunals are nominated by the Chief Justice of India.

  3. In case of a dispute, a State can directly approach the Tribunal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 5
  • The Inter-State River Water Disputes are one of the most contentious issues in the Indian federalism today.

  • Constitutional Provisions:

    • Entry 17 of State List deals with water i.e. water supply, irrigation, canal, drainage, embankments, water storage and water power.

    • Entry 56 of Union List empowers the Union Government for the regulation and development of inter- state rivers and river valleys to the extent declared by Parliament to be ex pedient in the public interest.

    • According to Article 262, in case of disputes relating to waters: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley. Parliament may, by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as mentioned above. River Board Act, 1956: This empowered the GOI to establish Boards for Interstate Rivers and river valleys in consultation with State Governments. Till date, no river board has been created. Hence statement 1 is not correct. The resolution of water dispute is governed by the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.

    • According to its provisions, if a State Government makes a request regarding any water dispute and the Central Government is of opinion that the water dispute cannot be settled by negotiations, then a Water Disputes Tribunal is constituted for the adjudication of the water dispute. States can not directly approach the Tribunal in any case. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    • The Chairman and members of the Water Dispute Tribunals are nominated by Chief Justice of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • The tribunal has to be constituted within one year of the request.

    • The tribunal should give the award within 3 years and in some exceptional cases, within 5 years.

    • If the award is not immediately implemented, the concerned parties can seek clarification within three months.

    • The tribunal award will have the same force as an order or decree of the Supreme Court. The award is final and above the SC‘s jurisdiction.

  • However, the states could still approach SC through Article 136 (Special Leave Petition). Private persons could approach the SC under violation of Article 21 (Right to Life).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 6

With reference to the Polar vortex, consider the following statements:

  1. The term "vortex" refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.

  2. Polar vortex always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.

  3. The polar vortex is held in place by the Earth’s rotation and temperature differences between the Arctic and mid-latitudes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 6
  • In News: Chilly weather in Asia is due to the Polar vortex that brought extreme cold to the US last month.

  • Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.

    • The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.

    • It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.

    • The polar vortex is held in place by the Earth’s rotation and temperature differences between the Arctic and mid-latitudes.

      • When those variations in temperatures grow, the polar vortex can shift south.

      • This happens naturally, but scientists think that as the planet warms, shifts in the polar vortex are likely to become more frequent and pronounced.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding bhakti saint Kabir:

  1. He was a proponent of nirgun bhakti.

  2. His teachings are compiled in "Bijak".

  3. He considered asceticism and book knowledge important for knowledge of God.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 7
  • Kabir was a 15th-century Indian mystic poet, Sufi and saint born in Varanasi. There is a controversy regarding the birth year of the saint. Some people hold that it is 1398 when other says that it is 1440.

    • Kabir is also a proponent of Nirguna, the Supreme Being without form and properties. Hence statement 1 is correct.

    • Kabir‘s strong opposition to idolatry stems from this philosophy. He says, ―If worshipping a stone idol gets Hari then I will worship a mountain. Better is the grinding stone, which grinds and feeds the world. Kabir was Influenced and initiated to bhakti by Ramananda, saint of Vaishnava bhakti tradition. Kabir‘s spiritual teaching verses can be classified into three categories:

    • Ramaini: In the Ramaini, Kabir described the creation of the world and the wandering of the soul in it, he used doha and pada verses to express these.

    • Sakhi: In Sakhi (witness of truth), he analyzed events perceived through senses but grasped through the intellect;

    • Sabad: The Sabad collets the word of the Master. The greatest work of Kabir is known as Bijak, seeds of his teaching. In this collection of poems Kabir showed a new universal spiritual path, focused on the oneness of God without distinctions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • He considered neither asceticism nor book knowledge important for the true knowledge of God. The mission of Kabir was to preach a religion of love which would unite all caste and creeds. He rejected those features of Hinduism and Islam which were against this spirit and which were of no importance for the real spiritual welfare of the individual. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • Kabir strongly denounced the caste system, especially the practice of untouchability and emphasised the fundamental unity of man. He was opposed to all kinds of discrimination between human beings, whether on the basis of castes, or religion, race, family or wealth. He breathed his last at Maghar located in Purvanchal (Near Gorakhpur). It has a distinction of having both, a mausoleum and a temple dedicated to Sant Kabir.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 8

In the context of Magnetars, consider the following statements:

  1. Magnetars are a type of neutron stars with magnetic field stronger than that of the Earth.

  2. Alfven Waves are created due to the instabilities caused inside a magnetar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 8
  • Scientists have found the first clues to understand violent short duration flares from a compact star of rare category called magnetar located thirteen million light years away. A magnetar is an exotic type of neutron star, its defining feature that it has an ultra-powerful magnetic field. The field is about 1,000 times stronger than a normal neutron star and about a trillion times stronger than the Earth‘s. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • These compact stars with the most intense magnetic field known, of which only thirty have been spotted so far in our galaxy, suffer violent eruptions that are still little known due to their unexpected nature and their short duration. It is believed that eruptions in magnetars may be due to instabilities in their magnetosphere or to a kind of "earthquakes" (‖starquakes‖) produced in their crust, a rigid and elastic layer about a kilometer thick. ―Regardless of the trigger, in the magnetosphere of the star a type of waves will be created. These waves which are well known in the Sun, are called Alfvén waves and while bouncing back and forth between the points at the base of its lines of magnetic field, they interact with each other dissipating energy. Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 9

In the context of the history of planning in India, who among the following gave the Sarvodaya Plan in 1950?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 9
  • Though the planned economic development in India began in 1951 with the inception of the First Five Year Plan, theoretical efforts had begun much earlier, even prior to the independence. Setting up of National Planning Committee by Indian National Congress in 1938, The Bombay Plan & Gandhian Plan in 1944, Peoples Plan in 1945 (by post-war reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade Union), Sarvodaya Plan in 1950 by Jaiprakash Narayan stepped in this direction. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. In layman's terms, Sarvodaya means 'welfare for all.

  • Mahatma Gandhi coined the term 'Sarvodaya' from John Ruskin's book 'Unto the Last'. In 1954, Narayan left electoral politics, to focus on the Sarvodaya movement based on the Gandhian principle and the Bhoodan Yajna Movement, founded by Vinoba Bhave, which demanded that land be distributed among the landless. The plan emphasised small and cotton industries alongside agriculture and suggested freedom from foreign technology. It also stressed land reforms. Based on Gandhian techniques of constructive work by the community and trusteeship as well as the Sarvodaya concept of Acharya Vinoba Bhave, the plan also included foresight on self-dependent villages and decentralised participatory form of planning and economic progress. Some of the accepted ideas of the plan got their due importance when the Government of India, helmed by Jawaharlal Nehru, promoted the five-year plans.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 10

Which of the following is associated with the iron found in the upper Ganga valley for the first time?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 10
Painted Grey ware (PGW) is associated with the iron using people of the Later Vedic period and was used by the affluent section of the society.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 11

The Representation of People Act, 1950 provides for the criteria for the ordinary residence of candidates. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the criteria of ordinary residents?

  1. Any MP or MLA during his term of office will be considered as ordinarily resident in the constituency from where he is elected as a member.

  2. Any person serving the armed forces of the Union is considered as ordinarily resident at the place of service.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 11
According to Section 20 of the Representation of People Act, 1950:
  • A person shall not be deemed to be ordinarily resident in a constituency on the ground only that he owns, or is in possession of, a dwelling house therein. Mere ownership or possession of a building or other immovable property will not bestow upon the owner, the residential qualification. On the other hand, even persons living in sheds and persons living on pavements without any roof are eligible for enrolment provided they are ordinarily resident in the sheds or on pavements in a particular area, do not change the place of residence, and are otherwise identifiable.

  • Temporary periods of absence from this ordinary place of stay can be ignored. It is not necessary that the period of stay should be continuous for any particular length of time and should be without any break. Temporary absence on account of duty or employment or even for pleasure should not be considered to interrupt the concept of ordinary residence.

  • A member of Parliament or of the Legislature of a State shall not during the term of his office cease to be ordinarily resident in the constituency in the electoral roll of which he is registered as an elector at the time of his election as such member, by reason of his absence from that constituency in connection with his duties as such member. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • Inmates of jails, other legal custody, hospitals, beggar homes, asylums, etc. should not be included in the electoral rolls of the constituency in which such institutions are located.

  • Service Voters: Normally, the serving members of the armed forces of the Union or the central para- military forces, State Armed Police personnel posted outside the state, and the government servants posted outside India in Indian Missions/High Commissions are enrolled in their native places and not at their places of postings. They are called ̳Service Voters‘. Thus electors having a service qualification are entitled to get registered at their native places which maybe different from their ordinary residence. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Any person having a service qualification shall be deemed to be ordinarily resident on any date in the constituency in which, but for his having such service qualification, he would have been ordinarily resident on that date.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 12

Which of the following statements with regards to the Trench Farming is/are correct?

  1. It is a technique of growing vegetables during extreme winters.

  2. It harnesses solar heat to create suitable climatic conditions for growth of vegetables.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 12
  • ASSOCHAM suggested adoption of trench farming‘ to grow herbs, vegetables in Ladakh. Since farming season is very small in Ladakh, the farmers should be informed about alternatives to greenhouses, such as low tunnel technology or trench farming, to help them cultivate herbs and vegetables.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Trench is a simple structure for growing vegetables during extreme winters.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Trench cultivation harnesses soil and solar heat to create suitable climatic conditions for growth of leafy vegetables like spinach, fenugreek, coriander, lai etc. A suitable size of 30‘ x 10‘ x 3‘ with transparent UV stabilized 200 micron polythene sheets are used as the technology is low-cost and portable. The farmers can relocate the trench tunnel to whatever location they want. Significance The commercial cultivation of Indian and exotic vegetables and flowers can be taken up in large greenhouses to meet local demand in such hostile areas. The produce could be supplied to the rest of the country at a premium since India imports some of these vegetables from other countries.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 13

Which of the following operational criteria are used by IMD for declaring the withdrawal of monsoon from extreme north-western parts of India?

  1. Cessation of rainfall activity over the area for continuous 5 days.

  2. Establishment of a cyclone in the lower troposphere.

  3. Considerable reduction in moisture content.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 13
  • The current operational criteria used by IMD for declaring the withdrawal from extreme north-western parts of the country was adopted in 2006 and consist of the following major synoptic features which will be considered only after 1st September.

    • Cessation of rainfall activity over the area for continuous 5 days.

    • Establishment of anticyclone in the lower troposphere (850 hPa and below).

    • Considerable reduction in moisture content as inferred from satellite water vapour imageries and tephigrams.

Hence option (b) is correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 14

Which of the following factors may account for an increase in frothing in the Yamuna River?

  1. Presence of phosphates and surfactants in river water.

  2. Less amount of water during the winter season.

  3. Turbulence or fall of river water from barrages.

  4. Decomposing vegetation and presence of filamentous bacteria.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 14
  • The froth is a sign of a polluted river. The release of untreated or poorly treated effluents, including sewage from those parts of the city that are not connected to the sewerage network and industrial waste, could lead to frothing.

    • Phosphates and surfactants in untreated sewages from Delhi, Haryana and UP is another reason behind frothing in the river.

    • Phosphates are an ingredient used in many detergents. These compounds make cleaning a lot easier. Hence statement 1 is correct.

    • While phosphates and surfactants in the Yamuna river comprise 1%, the remaining 99% is air and water.

  • When the water gets disturbed by waves, natural waterfalls or artificial falls from river barrages, the fatty layer gets beaten into a froth. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • During the winter season when the river is in a lean phase and the water flow is less frothing may occur as the Pollutants are not diluted. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Industrial effluents, organic matter from decomposing vegetation and the presence of filamentous bacteria can also cause foam. Hence statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 15

Consider the following statements about the Chamber of Princes:

  1. It was inaugurated by Duke of Connaught at Red Fort, Delhi.

  2. All the states which enjoyed limited legislative and jurisdictional powers were directly represented.

  3. It was only an advisory and consultative body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 15
  • From 1905 onwards the Government of India followed a policy of cordial co-operation towards the Indian states. The growth of political unrest in British India put the Government of India on the defensive and the Government thought it expedient and prudent to utilise the support of Indian princes to counter progressive and revolutionary developments.

  • The authors of Montague-Chelmsford Reforms favoured the formation of a Council of Princes and made definite suggestions in the matter. These recommendations formed the nucleus for the formation of the Chamber of Princes, formally inaugurated in February 1921.

  • It was by a royal proclamation that the Chamber of Princes was instituted on 8 February 1921. The inauguration ceremony was performed by His Royal Highness the Duke of Connaught in the Diwan-i-am of Red Fort on behalf of His Majesty the King Emperor. Hence statement 1 is correct. For purposes of representation in the Chamber of Princes, the Indian states were divided into three categories:

    • 109 states which enjoyed full legislative and jurisdictional powers were represented directly. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

    • 127 states which enjoyed limited legislative and jurisdictional powers were represented by 12 members chosen from among themselves.

    • Remaining 326 states which could better be classed as jagirs or estates or feudal holdings.

    • The chamber of Princes was merely an advisory and consultative body. It had no concern with the internal affairs of individual states nor could it discuss matters concerning the existing rights of states or their freedom of action. Hence statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 16

Which of the following statements is/are correct about citizenship in India?

  1. Citizens by birth are only eligible for the office of the President of India.

  2. Citizens by birth are only eligible to vote and contest in the elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 16

The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to the aliens):

  • Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).

  • Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16).

  • Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19).

  • Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30).

  • Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly.

  • Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the State Legislature.

  • Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, the President of India, the Vice- President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, Governor of states, Attorney General of India and Advocate General of states.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 17

Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy was/were not part of the Original Constitution?

  1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children.

  2. State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.

  3. To secure the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 17
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 4 new Directive Principles to the original list.

They require the State:

  • To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).

  • To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).

  • To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).

  • To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).

The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject-matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a Fundamental Right under Article 21 A. The amended Directive requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children, until they complete the age of 6 years.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the National Emergency under Article 352?

  1. The President can declare Emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the Cabinet.

  2. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the President to limit the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 18
  • Under Article 352, the President can declare a National Emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

  • It may be noted that the President can declare a National Emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.

  • The President can also issue different Proclamations on the grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a Proclamation already issued by him and such Proclamation is in operation. This provision was added by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975. When a National Emergency is declared on the ground of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression’, it is known as ‘External Emergency’. On the other hand, when it is declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion’, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency’.

  • A Proclamation of National Emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part of it.

  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the President to limit the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part of India.

  • Originally, the Constitution mentioned ‘internal disturbance’ as the third ground for the Proclamation of a National Emergency, but the expression was too vague and had a wider connotation.

  • The President, however, can proclaim a National Emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the Cabinet. This means that the Emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the Cabinet and not merely on the advice of the Prime Minister.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 19

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the “Joint Sittings”?

  1. Joint sittings are not available to the State Assemblies with bicameral legislature.

  2. Joint sitting is summoned by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 19
  • Joint sitting is extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a Bill. A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following 3 situations, after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House:

    • If the Bill is rejected by the other House;

    • If the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill; or

    • If more than 6 months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the Bill by the other House, without the Bill being passed by it.

  • In the above three situations, the President can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill. It must be noted here that the provision of joint sitting is applicable to the Ordinary Bills or the Financial Bills only, and not to the Money Bills or the Constitutional Amendment Bills. In the case of a Money Bill, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by each House separately. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by the members present at the joint sitting, presides over the meeting. It is clear that the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting, as he is not a member of either House of the Parliament.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 20

The Supreme Court of India has exclusive original jurisdiction in which of the following matters?

  1. Dispute between two states.

  2. Writ Jurisdiction under Article 32.

  3. Disputes regarding the election of the President and the Vice-President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 20
  • As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation.

  • More elaborately, any dispute between:

(a) The Centre and one or more states; or

(b) The Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or

(c) Between two or more states.

  • In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. It decides the disputes regarding the election of the President and the Vice- President. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

  • The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as the guarantor and defender of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs, including Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto and Certiorari for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal. However, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive. The High Courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. It means, when the Fundamental Rights of a citizen are violated, the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the High Court or the Supreme Court directly.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 21

In the context of the Satavahanas, consider the following statements:

  1. They claimed to be Buddhists and promoted Mahayana form of Buddhism on a wide scale.

  2. The official language of Satavahanas was Sanskrit.

  3. The Satavahana social structure reflected traces of matrilineality.

  4. Most of the coins in the Satavahana dynasty were die-struck.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 21
  • The term ―Satvahana originated from the Prakrit which means driven by seven‖ which is an implication of the Sun God‘s chariot that is driven by seven horses as per Hindu mythology. The Satavahans claimed to be Brahmanas and worshipped gods like Vasudeva Krishna. The Satavahanas were also the first rulers to make land grants to Brahmanas. The Satavahana rule is accepted to exist between mid-first Century BCE and third century CE. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

    • They also patronized Buddhism by granting land to the monks. In their kingdom, the Mahayana form of Buddhism commanded a considerable following, especially amongst the artisan class. The Satavahana kingdom majorly comprised present Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Telangana. At times, their rule also included parts of Gujarat, Karnataka as well as Madhya Pradesh.

    • The kingdom had different capitals at different times. Two of the capitals were Amaravati and Pratishthana (Paithan). The earliest inscriptions of the Satavahans belong to the first century BCE when they defeated the Kanvas and established their power in parts of Central India. Their greatest competitors were the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India, who had established themselves in the upper Deccan and western India. The first king of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. The Satavahanas show traces of a matrilineal social structure. It was customary for their king to be named after his mother. Such names as Gautamiputra and Vashishthiputra indicate that in their society the mother enjoyed a great deal of importance. Sometimes an inscription is issued both under the authority of the king and his mother. But succession to the throne passed to the male member. So, the social structure was only partially matrilineal. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    • The official language of Satavahanas was Prakrit. All inscriptions were composed in Prakrit and written in the Brahmi script. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Satavahana Coins: The coins of the Satavahanas have been excavated from Deccan, western India, Vidarbha, Western and Eastern Ghats, etc.

    • Most of the coins in the Satavahana dynasty were die-struck. Cast-coins too existed in the Satavahana empire and there were multiple combinations of techniques that were used to cast coins. Hence statement 4 is correct.

    • There were silver, copper, lead and potin coins in the Satavahana empire.

    • The portrait coins were mostly in silver and some were in lead too. Dravidian language and Brahmi script were used on portrait coins.

    • There were punch-marked coins too that were circulated alongside the Satavahana dynasty.

    • The importance of maritime trade was derived from the images of ships present on the Satavahana coins.

    • Many Satavahana coins bore the names of ̳Satakarni‘ and ̳Pulumavi.‘

    • Satavahana coins were of different shapes – round, square, rectangular, etc.

    • Many symbols have appeared on the Satavahana coins, the major ones of which are: chaitya symbol, chakra, conch shell symbol, lotus, swastik, ship, animal motifs etc.

  • The Naneghat inscriptions in the Naneghat caves indicate that they are the work of Satavahana rulers who came into prominence after the fall of the Mauryan empire. It is believed that a powerful woman ruler Naganika, the wife of Satakarni (180–170 BCE) of the Satavahana family commissioned the cave, the statues, and the inscriptions. Inscriptions in the cave mention her and her family members. The central figure of the inscription is Naganika, perhaps the first woman in India‘s recorded history who has determined the political affairs of a state, even having her own coinage.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 22

Which of the following are the objectives laid down in the National Forest Policy, 1988 of India?

  1. Checking soil erosion and denudation in the catchment areas of rivers and lakes.

  2. Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and coastal tracts.

  3. Encouraging the involvement of women to achieve the objectives and minimize pressure on existing forests.

  4. Meeting the requirements of fuel-wood, fodder and minor forest produce of the rural and tribal populations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 22
  • National Forest Policy,1988: The National Forest Policy of 1988 was launched with the principal aim of ensuring environmental stability and maintenance of ecological balance, including atmospheric equilibrium which is essential for the sustenance of all life forms - plant, animal, and human.

  • The basic objectives that should govern the National Forest Policy - are the following:

    • Maintenance of environmental stability through preservation and, where necessary, restoration of the ecological balance that has been adversely disturbed by serious depletion of the forests of the country.

    • Conserving the natural heritage of the country by preserving the remaining natural forests with the vast variety of flora and fauna, which represent the remarkable biological diversity and genetic resources of the country.

    • Checking soil erosion and denudation in the catchment areas of rivers, lakes, reservoirs in the "interest of soil and water conservation, for mitigating floods and droughts and for the retardation of siltation of reservoirs. Hence option 1 is correct.

    • Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts. Hence option 2 is correct.

    • Increasing substantially the forest/tree cover in the country through massive afforestation and social forestry programs, especially on all denuded, degraded, and unproductive lands.

    • Meeting the requirements of fuel-wood, fodder, minor forest produce, and small timber of the rural and tribal populations.

    • Increasing the productivity of forests to meet essential national needs.

    • Encouraging efficient utilization of forest produce and maximizing substitution of wood. Hence option 4 is correct.

    • Creating a massive people's movement with the involvement of women, for achieving these objectives and to minimize pressure on existing forests. Hence option 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 23

The Oath or Affirmations of which of the following office bearers are mentioned in the Third Schedule of Indian Constitution?

  1. President of India

  2. Vice-President of India

  3. Speaker of Lok Sabha

  4. Union Minister of State

  5. Member of Parliament

  6. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

  7. Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 23

The third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for the following office bearers:

  • Union Ministers of India

  • Union Ministers of a State

  • Parliament Election Candidates

  • Members of Parliament (MPs)

  • Supreme Court Judges

  • Comptroller and Auditor General

  • State Ministers

  • State Legislature Elections‘ Candidates

  • State Legislature Members

  • High Court Judges

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 24

The State Reorganisation Act, 1956 contains provisions related to which of the following matters?

  1. Establishment of Zonal Council

  2. Inter-state river water disputes

  3. All India Services

  4. High Courts

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 24
  • After independence there was a growing demand for reorganisation of the States on more rational basis in the context of not only from financial, economic and administrative management of independent India but also due to the growing importance of regional languages.

  • For the first time, the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was constituted in 1953 to go into this problem and to recommend the principles and broad guidelines on which the States can be reorganised. The Commission submitted its report in September, 1955.

  • The Commission was appointed by Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru. SRC was headed by S. Fazal Ali and had two members namely M. Panikkar & H. N. Kunzru To give effect to the scheme of reorganisation which emerged from the consideration of the proposals contained in the Report, the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, was enacted by the Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution of India.

  • The Constitution(7th Amendment ) Act, 1956 – implemented the scheme of States reorganisation. It has added Article 350 A which is designed to implement one of the States Reorganisation Commission‘s important recommendations regarding safeguards for linguistic minorities in the States after reorganisation.

  • The new States formed as a result of the reorganisation of States in 1956 are Andhra Pradesh, Bombay, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Madras, Mysore, Punjab and Rajasthan.

  • SRA, 1956 also provided for the following:

    • Amendment to First & Fourth Schedule

    • Provision of High Courts for the new States

    • Zonal Council

    • Delimitation of Constituencies

    • All India Services

    • Services under State Public Service Commission

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (SC):

  1. A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitutional treaty, agreement, and engagement comes under Original Jurisdiction.

  2. Cases involving interpretation of the Constitution in civil and criminal matters come under the Appellate Jurisdiction.

  3. Appeal by Special Leave is available in matters of civil and criminal cases but not in constitutional.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 25
  • The Constitution has conferred a very extensive jurisdiction and vast powers on the Supreme Court.

  • Original Jurisdiction:

    • As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute between: the Centre and one or more states; or the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or between two or more states.

    • In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal.

    • Further, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:

  • A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extent to such a dispute.

  • Inter-state water disputes.

  • Matters referred to the Finance Commission.

  • Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states. Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states. Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.

  • Appellate Jurisdiction:

    • The Supreme Court is primarily a court of appeal and hears appeals against the judgements of the lower courts. It enjoys a wide appellate jurisdiction. The Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be divided under three heads:

  • Cases involving interpretation of the Constitution-civil, criminal or otherwise. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Civil cases, irrespective of any constitutional question.

  • Criminal cases, irrespective of any constitutional question.

  • Appeal by Special Leave:

    • The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:

      • It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.

      • It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory.

      • It may be related to any matter—constitutional, civil, criminal, income- tax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

      • It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (of course, except a military court).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 26

Arrange the following water bodies from North to South direction.

  1. Pangong Tso

  2. Hanle

  3. Tsokar

  4. Tso Moriri

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 26
Recently, the district administration of Ladakh designated six hamlets within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary as a dark-sky reserve.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India bestows privileges to the members of the Parliament and its Committees, but no such privileges have been bestowed upon the members of State Legislative Assembly.

  2. The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978, resulted in the codification of the Parliamentary Privileges for the members of the Parliament and its Committees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 27
  • The Constitution of India bestows privileges to the members of the Parliament and its Committees, and also to the members of the State Legislative Assembly and its Committees, respectively under Articles 105 and 194.

  • The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978, did not provide for the codification of the Parliamentary Privileges.

  • Constitutional Provisions – Parliamentary Privileges:

    • Parliamentary Privileges (Articles 105 and 194) are special rights, immunities, exceptions enjoyed by the members of the two Houses of the Parliament and their Committees.

    • These rights are also given to those individuals who speak and participate in any Committee of the Parliament, which includes the Attorney General of India and the Union Ministers.

    • The President, who is an integral part of the Parliament, does not enjoy these privileges.

  • Article 105 (3) was amended by the Constitution 44th Amendment and now has two aspects:

    • Powers, privileges and immunities of each Houses of the Parliament, its members and Committees shall be such as may be defined by the Parliament by law in time.

    • Till such powers, privileges and immunities are defined by the Parliament, shall be the same as that was enjoyed by the House of Commons as on 26th January, 1950.

  • Article 105 (3) has avoided direct reference to the House of Commons, but effectively such privileges continue till the Parliament frames a law. The Parliament has not yet codified its privileges.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 28

The Constitution of India secures independence of the High Court Judges through which of the following provisions?

  1. Manner of removal of the Judges of the High Court.

  2. Salary, allowances or pension of the High Court Judge shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.

  3. Restriction on discussion in the State Legislature with respect to the conduct of any Judge of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 28
  • Judicial independence of the High Court is secured through the following provisions:

    • Manner of removal of the Judges of the High Court – Article 217(1)(b) – A Judge may be removed from his office by the President in the manner provided in Clause (4) of Article 124 for the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

    • Article 124(4) – A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office, except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of the Parliament, supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

    • Article 221 – Salaries, etc., of the Judges – (1) There shall be paid to the Judges of each High Court such salaries as may be determined by the Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such salaries as are specified in the Second Schedule.

  • Every Judge shall be entitled to such allowances and to such rights in respect of leave of absence and pension as may from time to time be determined by or under law made by the Parliament and, until so determined, to such allowances and rights as are specified in the Second Schedule:

    • Provided that neither the allowances of a Judge nor his rights in respect of leave of absence or pension shall be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.

    • Article 211 – Restriction on discussion in the Legislature – No discussion shall take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 29

The Panchayats receive funds from which of the following sources?

  1. Local body grants, as recommended by the Central Finance Commission.

  2. Funds for the implementation of the Centrally Sponsored Schemes.

  3. Funds released by the State Governments on the recommendations of the State Finance Commissions.

  4. Funds allocated to the Panchayats by NITI Aayog.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 29
  • NITI Aayog does not have any financial powers to allocate funds, which the Planning Commission used to have under Article 282.

  • The Panchayats receive funds from 3 sources:

    • Local body grants, as recommended by the Central Finance Commission.

    • Funds for the implementation of the Centrally Sponsored Schemes.

    • Funds released by the State Governments on the recommendations of the State Finance Commissions.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 30

Often heard in news, Bering strait lies between -

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 30
  • Recently, the IndAusECTA Agreement, which was signed last year, has come into force after Ratification and Exchange of Written Instruments.

  • Option d is correct: The Bering Strait is a strait between the Pacific and Arctic oceans, separating the Chukchi Peninsula of the Russian Far East from the Seward Peninsula of Alaska. The present Russia-United States maritime boundary is at 168° 58’ 37” W longitude, slightly south of the Arctic Circle at about 65° 40’ N latitude.

    • The Strait is named after Vitus Bering, a Danish explorer in the service of the Russian Empire.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 31

Which of the following are examples of plantation crops in India?

  1. Coffee

  2. Rubber

  3. Arecanut

  4. Cashew

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 31
  • A plantation is a large-scale farm that specializes in cash crops.

  • The term Plantation crops refers to those crops which are usually cultivated as a single crop on an extensive scale in a large contiguous area, owned and managed by an Individual or a company.

  • These plantation crops are high-value commercial crops of greater economic importance.

  • The crops include tea, coffee, rubber, cocoa, coconut, areca nut, oil palm, cashew, cinchona etc.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding Tanjore paintings:

  1. The painting is characterised by bold drawing and the use of pure and brilliant colours.

  2. The style is decorative and is marked by the use of semi-precious stones.

  3. Tanjore Painting grew under the Maratha influence.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 32
  • Tanjore Painting is characterised by bold drawing, techniques of shading and the use of pure and brilliant colours flourished at Tanjore in South India during the late 18th and 19th centuries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Tanjore Painting is an interesting combination of art and craft that grew in the region of Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu under Maratha influence. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • The main colours are red, yellow, black, and white. The distinctive features were aristocratic or religious figures adorned with jewellery and surrounded by elaborate architectural arches and doorways. Originally done on wood, it is encrusted with semi-precious stones. Later the paintings were executed on glass.

  • The style is decorative and is marked by the use of bright colours and ornamental details. The conical crown appearing in the miniature is a typical feature of the Tanjore painting. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 33

The NHB (National Housing Bank) RESIDEX has been revamped to have larger scope and wider geographical coverage. In this context, which of the following indices are included in the NHB RESIDEX?

  1. Housing price indices (HPI)

  2. Land price indices (LPI)

  3. Building materials price indices (BMPI)

  4. Housing rental index (HRI)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 33
  • NHB RESIDEX, India‘s first official housing price index, was an initiative of the National Housing Bank (NHB) undertaken at the behest of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

  • The index was formulated under the guidance of a Technical Advisory Committee (TAC) comprising of stakeholders from the housing market. It was launched in July 2007 and updated periodically till March 2015, taking 2007 as the base year.

  • With a view to making the NHB RESIDEX more current and up-to-date with the prevailing macro- economic scenario, NHB undertook a review of the processes and methodology used for computation of the index along with the base year and segmentation used.

  • Thereafter revamped NHB RESIDEX with larger scope and wider geographical coverage was published.

  • This index is computed taking FY2012-13 as the base year and is updated up to March 2018.

  • With effect from April 2018, a new series with FY2017-18 as the new base year has been published and is updated up to the current quarter. In order to maintain continuity in the time series data, NHB RESIDEX 2012-13 series subsequent to change in base year has been calculated using backward linking factor.

  • The scope has been widened under NHB RESIDEX brand, to include housing price indices (HPI), land price indices (LPI) and building materials price indices (BMPI), and also housing rental index (HRI). Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 34

Consider the following statements regarding the flow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India:

  1. Mauritius is the single largest source of FDI in India.

  2. In the last five years FDI has increased continuously in India.

  3. FDI is prohibited in sectors such as chit funds and gambling.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 34
  • Foreign Investment means any investment made by a person resident outside India on a repatriable basis in capital instruments of an Indian company or to the capital of an LLP.

  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is the investment through capital instruments by a person resident outside India:

(a) in an unlisted Indian company or

(b) in 10 percent or more of the post-issue paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian company.

    • A fully-diluted basis means the total number of shares that would be outstanding if all possible sources of conversion are exercised.

  • Foreign Portfolio Investment is any investment made by a person resident outside India in capital instruments where such investment is (a) less than 10 percent of the post issue paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian company or (b) less than 10 percent of the paid-up value of each series of capital instruments of a listed Indian company.

  • Singapore has been the largest source of FDI in India in the last three years. In 2020-21 it stood at nearly 16 billion dollars.

  • Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • FDI in India is prohibited in the following sectors:

    • Lottery Business including Government/private lottery, online lotteries, etc.*

    • Gambling and Betting including casinos*

    • Chit Funds

    • Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    • Nidhi Company

    • Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDR)

    • Real Estate Business or Construction of farmhouses Real estate business shall not include development of town shops, construction of residential/ commercial premises, roads or bridges and Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) registered and regulated under the SEBI (REITs) Regulations, 2014.

    • Manufacturing of cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and cigarettes, of tobacco or of tobacco substitutes.

    • Sectors not open to private sector investment- atomic energy, railway operations (other than permitted activities mentioned under the Consolidated FDI policy).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 35

Consider the following statements about the specialty of Delhi as a Union Territory:

  1. It has a Legislative Assembly whose members are elected through indirect election.

  2. The members of the Delhi Legislative Assembly participate in the President’s election.

  3. The members of the Delhi Legislative Assembly can frame law on all the entries of the State List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 35

Article 239AA - Special provisions with respect to Delhi:

  • Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution was added by the Constitution (69th Amendment) Act, 1991. It says that the Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Administrator thereof appointed under Article 239 shall be designated as the Lieutenant Governor.

  • There shall be a Legislative Assembly for the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi and the seats in such Assembly shall be filled by the members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the NCT.

  • The Legislative Assembly of Delhi shall have power to make laws for the whole or any part of NCT with, respect to any matters enumerated in the State List or in the Concurrent List. However, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi cannot make laws on the following entries under the State List –

    • Entry 1: Public Order;

    • Entry 2: Police (including railway and village police);

    • Entry 18: Land, that is to say any right in or over land, land tenures including the relation of landlord and tenant, and the collection of rents, transfer and alienation of agricultural land, land improvement and agricultural loans and colonization.

  • They also cannot legislate on Entries 64, 65 and 66 of the State List, so far as they relate to the above entries – 1, 2 and 18.

Thus, the Government of Delhi does not enjoy all the powers with respect to law making which are enjoyed by other states. Moreover, the NCT is primarily a Union Territory, which has a Legislative Assembly.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 36

A petition has been filed in the Supreme Court seeking compensation for deaths caused due to COVID-19 under which of the following legislation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 36

A petition has been filed in the Supreme Court seeking compensation for deaths caused due to COVID-19, as the novel disease was declared as a “notified disaster” under the Disaster Management Act.

Declaration for Compensation under the Disaster Management Act:

  • April, 2015: The Disaster Management Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) attached a revised list of “norms of assistance” to all State Governments. Under “ex gratia payment to the families of the deceased persons”, it specified to pay Rs. 4 lakhs per deceased person, including those involved in relief operations or associated in preparedness activities, subject to certification regarding cause of death from appropriate authority.”

  • COVID-19 declared as Notified Disaster: The MHA, in March, 2020, in its letter to the State Governments, stated that it has declared COVID-19 as a notified disaster, under the Disaster Management Act, for the purpose of providing assistance under the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF). However, the MHA did not specify the payment of ex gratia to the families of the deceased.

  • The Supreme Court has mentioned that it is the statutory duty of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to recommend guidelines for the minimum standards of relief to be provided to the persons affected by the disaster, which shall include the reliefs as per Section 12 of the DMA.

  • Accordingly, the Court has directed the NDMA to recommend guidelines for ex gratia to the family members of those who lost their lives during the COVID pandemic.

  • Section 12 of Disaster Management Act: It allows the National Disaster Management Authority to recommend guidelines for the minimum standards of relief to be provided to the persons affected by the disaster.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 37

With reference to India’s official language according to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.

  2. The state can adopt Hindi or any language used in the state as its official language.

  3. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in English language.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 37
  • Article 343 – Official language of the Union – The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. The form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union shall be the international form of Indian numerals.

  • Article 345 – Official language or languages of a State – Subject to the provisions of Articles 346 and 347, the Legislature of a state may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the language or languages to be used for all or any of the official purposes of that state: Provided that, until the Legislature of the state otherwise provides by law, English language shall continue to be used for those official purposes within the state for which it was being used immediately before the commencement of this Constitution.

  • Article 348 – Language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts and for Acts, Bills, etc. –

    • Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Part, until the Parliament by law otherwise provides –

      (a) all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court,

      (b) the authoritative texts – (i) of all Bills to be introduced or amendments thereto to be moved in either House of the Parliament or in the House or either House of the Legislature of a State, (ii) of all Acts passed by the Parliament or the Legislature of a State and of all Ordinances promulgated by the President or the Governor of a State, and (iii) of all orders, rules, regulations and bye- laws issued under this Constitution or under any law made by the Parliament or the Legislature of a State, shall be in English language.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 38

With reference to the ancient Indian history, the term ‘Shamans’ best defines a person who

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 38
Shamans were the men and women who claimed magical and healing powers, as well as an ability to communicate with the other world.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 39

With reference to ancient India, the term ‘Pativedaka’ has been used for

  1. Head priest

  2. Royal treasurer

  3. Reporters

  4. Military commanders

With reference to ancient India, the term ‘Pativedaka’ has been used for

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 39
  • The Ashokan inscriptions have proved to be a great source for insight into the Mauryan history. Epigraphists and historians have worked on these inscriptions to understand the society, culture and governance of the Mauryan period. Epigraphists have translated the term Pativedaka as ‘reporter’.

  • The following is the example of a king’s order, in which the king defines the role of the Pativedaka:

    • Thus speaks King Devanampiya Piyadassi: In the past, there were no arrangements for disposing affairs, nor for receiving regular reports. But I have made the following (arrangement). Pativedakas should report to me about the affairs of the people at all times, anywhere, whether I am eating, in the inner apartment, in the bedroom, in the cow pen, being carried (possibly in a palanquin), or in the garden. And I will dispose of the affairs of the people everywhere.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 40

With reference to Stupa, consider the following statements:

  1. The Stupa originated as a simple semi-circular mound of earth.

  2. These are built by the donations provided by the kings only.

  3. Asoka distributed portions of the Buddha’s relics to every important town and ordered the construction of Stupas over them.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 40
  • The Buddhist literature mentions several Chaityas. It also describes the places associated with the Buddha’s life – where he was born (Lumbini), where he attained enlightenment (Bodh Gaya), where he gave his first sermon (Sarnath) and where he attained Nibbana (Kusinagara). Gradually, each of these places came to be regarded as sacred. There were other places too that were regarded as sacred. This was because the relics of the Buddha, such as his bodily remains or objects used by him, were buried there. These were the mounds known as the Stupas. The tradition of erecting the Stupas may have been pre-Buddhist, but they came to be associated with Buddhism. Since they contained the relics regarded as sacred, the entire Stupa came to be venerated as an emblem of both the Buddha and Buddhism.

  • According to a Buddhist text, known as the Ashokavadana, Asoka distributed portions of the Buddha’s relics to every important town and ordered the construction of Stupas over them. By the 2nd century BCE a number of Stupas, including those at Bharhut, Sanchi and Sarnath, had been built. Inscriptions found on the railings and pillars of the Stupas record the donations made for building and decorating them. Some donations were made by the kings, such as the Satavahanas; others were made by the guilds, such as that of the ivory workers, who financed part of one of the gateways at Sanchi. Hundreds of donations were made by women and men, who mention their names, sometimes adding the name of the place from where they came, as well as their occupations and names of their relatives. The Bhikkhus and the Bhikkhunis also contributed towards building these monuments.

  • The Stupa (a Sanskrit word meaning a heap) originated as a simple semi- circular mound of earth, later called Anda. Gradually, it evolved into a more complex structure, balancing round and square shapes. Above the Anda was the Harmika, a balcony like structure that represented the abode of the Gods. Arising from the Harmika was a mast, called the Yashti, often surmounted by a Chhatri or umbrella. Around the mound was a railing, separating the sacred space from the secular world. The early Stupas at Sanchi and Bharhut were plain, except for the stone railings, which resembled a bamboo or wooden fence, and the gateways, which were richly carved and installed at the 4 cardinal points. The worshippers entered through the eastern gateway and walked around the mound in a clock-wise direction, keeping the mound on the right, imitating the Sun’s course through the sky. Later, the mound of the Stupas came to be elaborately carved with niches and sculptures, as at Amaravati and Shah ji-ki-Dheri in Peshawar (Pakistan).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 41

With reference to Al-Biruni, consider the following statements:

  1. His work, ‘Kitab-ul-Hind’, was intended for the people living along the frontiers of the sub-continent.

  2. He was familiar with the translations and adaptations of Sanskrit, Pali and Prakrit texts into Arabic.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 41
  • Al-Biruni’s ‘Kitab-ul-Hind’, written in Arabic, is simple and lucid. It is a voluminous text, divided into 80 chapters on the subjects, such as religion and philosophy, festivals, astronomy, alchemy, manners and customs, social life, weights and measures, iconography, laws and metrology.

  • Generally, (though not always), Al-Biruni adopted a distinctive structure in each chapter, beginning with a question, following this up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions and concluding with a comparison with other cultures. Some present-day scholars have argued that this almost geometric structure, remarkable for its precision and predictability, owed much to his mathematical orientation.

  • Al-Biruni, who wrote in Arabic, probably intended his work for the people living along the frontiers of the sub-continent. He was familiar with translations and adaptations of Sanskrit, Pali and Prakrit texts into Arabic – these ranged from fables to works on astronomy and medicine. However, he was also critical about the ways in which these texts were written and clearly wanted to improve on them.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 42

Which of the following plant species are included under Schedule VI of the Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972?

  1. Prosopis Julifora

  2. Ladies Slipper Orchid

  3. Red Vanda

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 42
  • Prosopis Juliflora: Prosopis juliflora (P juliflora), an exotic tree, is one of the top invaders in India.

  • A native of South and Central America, it was introduced in India to meet the fuel wood requirement of the rural poor and to restore degraded lands.

  • Prosopis was introduced into India‘s arid landscapes in the late 19th century owing to misplaced beliefs that deserts and grasslands were wastelands and hence needed trees. It depletes Groundwater.

  • Lady‘s slipper orchids: It is a genus of about 50 species of perennial, terrestrial orchids. The herbaceous stems and leaves of the various species grow from a few centimeters to over 1 m in height and die back to a usually short and thick underground rhizome during the winter.

    • The root was formerly much used in North America both by indigenous and immigrant peoples for its sedative and antispasmodic properties and to counter insomnia and nervous tension.

    • Lady‘s slippers are used medicinally in the Old World. In Asia preparations of Cypripedium are considered analgesic, diaphoretic, diuretic, detumescent and nervine. The stems, rhizomes, and flowers of various species are used variously in China as sedatives and vascular aids, to stimulate appetite, relieve rheumatic pain and treat edema of the legs, dropsy, dysentery, gastritis, gonorrhea, headaches, leucorhhea, fractures and mental disorders.

  • Red Vanda:

    • An endangered species, Red Vanda is restricted to the State of Manipur and neighbouring areas in NE India. It grows on small shrubs and trees at elevations of 300-500 m flowering during spring. It is one of the loveliest species in India with limited distribution. Red Vanda is renowned for its bright crimson flowers with red spots on a pale orange background of its dorsal sepal and petals. The long, branching inflorescence bearing more than 20 flowers is remarkably beautiful. Flowering: April- September. during April and May.

    • Traditional uses are usually for treating rheumatism, dyspepsia, indigestion, piles, wounds, bronchitis, and hepatitis.

  • Four O‘clock Flowers:

    • Four o‘clock flowers grow and bloom abundantly in the summer garden. Blooms open in the late afternoon and evening, hence the common name ―four o'clock. Highly fragrant in a range of colors, the four o‘clock plant sports attractive flowers that attract butterflies, bees, and hummingbirds.

    • Many varieties of the flower exist, including some that are native to the United States. Native Americans grew the plant for medicinal properties. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

  • Till now, only Blue Vanda, Red Vanda and Ladies slipper orchids have been included under Schedule VI of the Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972, restricting collection from forests. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 43

Consider the following statements with reference to the election of the President of India:

  1. To decide an election petition relating to the election of the President is vested in the Election Commission of India.

  2. A person who is neither a candidate nor an elector can not file a suit challenging the validity of the election of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 43
  • An Election petition is a procedure for inquiring into the validity of the election results of Parliamentary or local government elections. In other words, it is a means under law to challenge the election of a candidate in a Parliamentary, Assembly or local election.

  • All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • A person who is neither a candidate nor an elector can not file a suit challenging the validity of the election of the President (N.B. khare v. Election Commissioner of India, 1985). Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • A person who is neither a candidate nor an elector can not file a suit challenging the validity of the election of the President (N.B. khare v. Election Commissioner of India, 1985). Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 44

With reference to the Vijayanagar Empire, consider the following statements:

  1. Nagalapuram, a suburban township near Vijayanagar, was founded by Rama Raya.

  2. Vijayanagar acquired the Raichur doab after the decisive victory in the Battle of Talikota of 1565.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 44
  • Although the armies of the Sultans were responsible for the destruction of the city of Vijayanagar, relations between the Sultans and the Rayas were not always or inevitably hostile, in spite of religious differences. Krishnadeva Raya, for example, supported some claimants to power in the Sultanates and took pride in the title “establisher of the Yavana kingdom”. Similarly, the Sultan of Bijapur intervened to resolve succession disputes in Vijayanagar, following the death of Krishnadeva Raya. In fact, the Vijayanagar kings were keen to ensure the stability of the Sultanates and vice versa. It was the adventurous policy of Rama Raya, who tried to play off one Sultan against another that led the Sultans to combine together and decisively defeat him. Within the polity of Vijayanagar, the claimants to power included the members of the ruling lineage, as well as the military commanders.

  • The first dynasty, known as the Sangama dynasty, exercised control till 1485. They were supplanted by the Saluvas, military commanders, who remained in power till 1503, when they were replaced by the Tuluvas. Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty. Krishnadeva Raya’s rule was characterised by expansion and consolidation. This was the time when the land between the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers (the Raichur doab) was acquired (1512), the rulers of Orissa were subdued (1514) and severe defeats were inflicted on the Sultan of Bijapur (1520). Although the kingdom remained in a constant state of military preparedness, it flourished under the conditions of unparalleled peace and prosperity. Krishnadeva Raya is accredited with building some fine temples and adding impressive Gopurams to many important south Indian temples. He also founded a suburban township near Vijayanagar, called Nagalapuram, after his mother. Some of the most detailed descriptions of Vijayanagar come from his time or just after.

  • Strain began to show within the imperial structure following:

    • Krishnadeva Raya’s death in 1529. His successors were troubled by the rebellious Nayakas or the military chiefs. By 1542, control at the centre had shifted to another ruling lineage, that of the Aravidu, which remained in power till the end of the 17th century. During this period, as indeed earlier, the military ambitions of the rulers of Vijayanagar, as well as those of the Deccan Sultanates, resulted in shifting alignments. Eventually, this led to an alliance of the Sultanates against Vijayanagar. In 1565, Rama Raya, the chief minister of Vijayanagar, led the army into battle at Rakshasi-Tangadi (also known as Talikota), where his forces were routed by the combined armies of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar and Golconda. The victorious armies sacked the city of Vijayanagar. The city was totally abandoned within a few years. Now the focus of the empire shifted to the east, where the Aravidu dynasty ruled from Penukonda and later from Chandragiri (near Tirupati).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 45

With reference to the Cabinet Mission (1946), consider the following statements:

  1. It rejected the demand of a sovereign Pakistan.

  2. It provided for the right to secede to the Princely States from the Indian Union.

  3. The Indian National Congress offered only conditional support to the proposals of the Mission.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 45
  • The Labour Ministry (England) sent a three-member mission, the Cabinet Mission, to India in March, 1946, to negotiate the terms of transfer of power. The Cabinet Mission was headed by Sir Pethick Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, and included Sir Stafford Cripps, now the President of the Board of Trade, and First Lord Admiralty A. V. Alexander. The Mission had two main tasks – to discuss the principles and procedures of framing a new Constitution, in order to grant independence to India and to form an interim government on the widest possible agreement among the political parties to facilitate the transfer of power.

  • The Cabinet Mission rejected the idea of a sovereign Pakistan, composed of 6 provinces. It offered instead, on 15th May – after extensive consultation with the parties and the politicians of different shades and opinions – a loose three-tiered federal structure for the Union of India that was to include the Provinces and the Princely States. The Union Government at the top was to control defence, foreign affairs, communication, and have the necessary power to raise revenue to conduct such affairs; all other residual powers were to be vested in the Provincial Governments that were given the right to form groups. Each group again could have its own executive and legislature, and the freedom to decide on what provincial subjects to handle.

  • The Princely States were ensured sufficient representation in the Central Constituent Assembly. After the Constitution was drafted for all the 3 levels – Union, Group and Province – a Province would have the right to move out of one group and into another; it could not, however, opt out of the Indian Union. There was a provision for the review of the Constitution after 10 years. While all this was being put in place, an interim government would carry on the work of everyday administration. India, declared Sir Pethick Lawrence, was to be independent soon, and the Indians were to decide whether they wanted to stay within or move out of the British Commonwealth.

  • The Congress had several problems with the scheme. In the first place, its top priority was immediate Indian independence, which the Cabinet Mission made conditional upon the drafting of the Constitution. Secondly, it was not happy with the grouping of Assam and the North-West Frontier Province, where the Congress had won majorities, with the Muslim-majority provinces. Finally, the Congress wanted a stronger centre with the power to intervene if there was a breakdown of law and order. A strong centre was also favoured by the Indian business community – a group of industrialists had formulated a plan in 1944, the Bombay Plan, which envisioned the rapid development of basic industries under the guidance of the state, a plan totally in tune with Nehru’s vision of independent India. The All India Congress Committee offered only conditional support to the long-term plan of the Cabinet Mission on 6th July.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

  1. Gandhi supported the idea of introducing ‘politics’ among the working class.

  2. The Hindustan Majdur Sabha was founded by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose in 1938.

  3. Nearly all non-Congress political parties supported the Trade Disputes (Amendment) Act of 1938.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 46
  • The huge and diverse groups of working classes became organized in the decade of the 1920s, through the formation of several trade unions. A convergence of various ‘socio-economic’ and ‘ideological cultural forces’ led to the formation of the All India Trade Union Conference (AITUC) in 1920; it intended to co- ordinate the activities of the existing trade unions and the ones that were to emerge subsequently. A section of the Congress had supported the establishing of the AITUC, although Gandhi had remained opposed to the idea of introducing ‘politics’ among the working class. He also felt that all trade unions had to first orient themselves to the model of ‘trusteeship’ represented by the Ahmedabad Union, before coming together in a central body.

  • Prior to the provincial elections in 1937, the leaders of the Congress Left had made serious efforts to enlist the support of the workers. Jawaharlal Nehru toured Tamil Nadu in November, 1936, where the Congress Socialist Party had been established in 1934 by Jayaprakash Narayan and Acharya Narendra Dev. Nehru, the Congress President at that time, had aroused great expectations by declaring in the rallies that if the people voted for the Congress, independence would be achieved, and after independence the problems of poverty and unemployment would be solved through the introduction of socialism.

  • Pandit Nehru’s appeal and the thorough work of Satyamurty, Rajagopalachari and others created an accord between the AITUC and the Indian National Congress. The AITUC did not even contest all the labour seats, in order to make way for the Congress. The Congress tried to retain labour support for a short while after taking office. Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Bose organized a big labour rally in Calcutta in 1937, where they urged the workers to unite, organize and join hands with the Congress. Conservative Vallabhbhai Patel, Rajendra Prasad and J. B. Kripalani founded the Hindustan Majdur Sabha in 1938. The capitalist threat of moving capital from Bombay made the Congress Ministry there act with alacrity—it rushed through an Act in two months, without discussions in the Select Committee. The Trade Disputes (Amendment) Act, implemented in 1938, included severe provisions to control strikes and curb labour unrest.

  • Understandably, the entire trade union movement, with the exception of the Ahmedabad Union under Gandhian leaders Gurzarilal Nanda and Khandubhai Desai, opposed the act, and nearly all non-Congress parties, the Muslim League and Ambedkar’s party among them, collaborated with the trade unions. A rally addressed by Communist leaders S. A. Dange and Indulal Yagnik, and Ambedkar on 6th November was attended by 80,000 people, and the following day, a strike rocked the entire province. Interestingly, Nehru only had some objections to the clause of registration of new unions, but had no problems with the Act as a whole. Subhash Bose, the Socialist President of the Congress, protested in private to Sardar Patel, but did not make any public statement against the Act.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 47

Which of the following statements is correct about the Mahayana sect of Buddhism?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 47
  • The term Mahayana is a Sanskrit word which literally means "Great Vehicle". It is one of the two main schools of Buddhism. This school is more liberal and believed in the heavenliness of Buddha and Bodhisattvas embodying Buddha Nature.

    • The ultimate goal under Mahayana is "spiritual upliftment". They believed in universal liberation from suffering for all beings (hence the ―Great Vehicle).

    • The Mahayana followers believed in idol or image worship of Buddha. Hence option (a) is not correct.

    • Emperor Ashoka patronised Hinayana sect as Mahayana school came into being much later.

    • The concept of Bodhisattva is the result of Mahayana Buddhism. Chief of Bodhisattvas is Avalokitesvara also called Padampani.

    • Mahayana is also called "Bodhisattvayana", or the "Bodhisattva Vehicle. That is to say, the followers believe in Bodhisattva concept of salvation of all conscious individual. In other words, they believe in universal liberation from suffering of all beings. A bodhisattva seeks complete enlightenment for the benefit of all beings. Hence option (b) is not correct.

    • A bodhisattva who has accomplished this goal is called a Samyaksaip buddha.

    • Prominent Mahayana texts include Lotus Sutra, Mahavamsa, etc.

    • Mahayana school believes in ten great spiritual perfections (or paramitas) to be followed by an individual. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

    • The Mahayana scholars predominantly used Sanskrit as a language.

  • The concept of Vibhajjavada i.e. ―teaching of analysis is related to Theravada Buddhism (a sub sect of Hinayana). Hence option (c) is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 48

Consider the following statements:

  1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh was the founder of the Bande Mataram weekly newspaper.

  2. Jugantar was published by the members of the Anushilan Samiti.

  3. Bhawani Mandir was a short pamphlet written by Aurobindo Ghosh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 48
  • Bengal extremism ‘wasted a lot of energies in purely verbal or literary violence and in-fighting over the Congress organization’. It did, however, contribute to ‘building up an impressive chain of district organizations or Samitis and in providing some novel political leadership to labour unrest’. Centres of revolutionary work are said to have been set up in Khulna, Rangpur, Dacca and Midnapore by 1904–05, centres that had contact with their counterparts in Maharashtra.

  • The different Samitis, such as the Anushilan Samiti of Calcutta (of which Barindra Kumar was a member) and Dacca, and the one set up by Jnanendra Nath Bose in Midnapore took active part in political activity. Their newspapers – Jugantar (End of the Era), published from April, 1906, by the members of the inner circle of the Anushilan Samiti, and the evening daily Sandhya, of Brahmobandhav Upadhyay, as well as the Bande Mataram – began to write about the need for political independence, without which national unity and economic and social progress could not be achieved.

  • In late 1906, the members of the Anushilan Samiti made an abortive attempt to kill the unpopular Lieutenant Governor of East Bengal. For Bipin Pal there was a clear correspondence between the real mother, the woman who bore and nursed her children and brought them up with her own life and substance, and the land that ‘bore and reared, and gave food and shelter’ to its inhabitants. The basis of this idea lay in the nature philosophy of the Hindus which conceived of the earth as prakriti, nature/mother. Not surprisingly, therefore, Pal chose to call his newspaper, Bande Mataram (Hail Mother), the ‘all-India daily organ of Indian nationalism’. In addition, Aurobindo, Tilak and Pal, as well as others formulated clear ideas of the ‘inward character’ of the nation that was taking shape. This is because they thought of Swaraj not only as a necessary step to India’s self-liberation, but also for the ‘salvation’ of humanity. Politics came to take priority during the Swadeshi Movement and Aurobindo joined hands with the extremist leaders to push for boycott. He collaborated with Bipin Pal in publishing Bande Mataram in 1906, which attacked the ‘mendicancy’ of the Congress leaders and discarded the idea of ‘peaceful Ashramas and Swadeshism and self- help’ as inadequate.

  • In the 1890s, Aurobindo had started writing articles on Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, the controversial doyen of Bengal Renaissance, in which he displayed his admiration for Bankim. The influence of Bankim’s Anandamath, as well as of Shaktism and tantrism, was clear in Aurobindo’s Bhawani Mandir (Temple of Goddess Bhawani), a short pamphlet written in the 1890s, and published and circulated secretly. The pamphlet provided an assessment of the Indian situation and a plan for revival by means of religious ideals. A perfect example of the combined articulation of the religious and the political, Bhawani Mandir asked the political Sanyasins (ascetics) to build a temple of the Mother as Shakti (power/energy), put aside personal gratification, dedicate themselves to the regeneration of India and strive to give her a position in the world. The British, interestingly, are absent in this pamphlet, and India’s degeneration is ascribed to her abandonment of Shakti. The work displays a much greater faith in the worship of Shakti than Bankim Chandra; at the same time, it draws upon Bankim’s idea that the Indians (Bengalis) were responsible for their own downfall (effeminacy), an idea also shared by Tilak.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 49

With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

  1. The Act diverted the attention of the Congress to the provinces and left a strong centre under imperial control.

  2. The Act provided for three lists for legislation purposes, i.e., federal, provincial and concurrent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 49
  • The Government of India Act, 1935, made no mention of the dominion status granted during the Civil Disobedience Movement. Conceived in the Parliamentary debates in Britain in which ‘a small band of members sympathetic to the Indian cause pitted themselves against a vindictive majority led by Winston Churchill’. The Act was devised ‘primarily to protect the British interests, rather than hand over control in vital areas’. In effect, it diverted the attention of the Congress to the provinces and left a strong centre under imperial control. The Viceroy got many of the powers exercised by the Secretary of State, and the apex of the system of imperial control moved from London to Delhi. This gave a new orientation to the Indo–British relationship, without harming imperial interest in any way.

  • Main features of the federal level legislature:

    • The bicameral legislature was to have an Upper House (Council of States) and a Lower House (Federal Assembly). The Council of States was to be a 260-member House, partly directly elected from the British Indian provinces and partly (40%) nominated by the princes. The Federal Assembly was to be a 375- member House, partly indirectly elected from the British Indian provinces and partly (one-third) nominated by the princes.

    • Oddly enough, election to the Council of States was direct and that to the Federal Assembly, indirect.

    • The Council of States was to be a permanent body with one-third members retiring every third year. The duration of the Assembly was to be 5 years.

    • The 3 lists for legislation purposes were to be federal, provincial and concurrent.

    • The members of the Federal Assembly could move a vote of no- confidence against the ministers. The Council of States could not move a vote of no-confidence.

    • The system of religion-based and class-based electorates was further extended.

    • 80% of the budget was non-votable.

    • The Governor-General had residuary powers. He could (a) restore cuts in grants, (b) certify Bills rejected by the legislature, (c) issue ordinances and (d) exercise his veto.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 50

With respect to “Asexual reproduction”, consider the following statements:

  1. In this process, the offspring that are produced are not only identical to one another, but are also the exact copies of their parent.

  2. It is observed only in unicellular organisms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 50
Asexual reproduction is a method in which a single individual (parent) is capable of producing offspring. As a result, the offspring that are produced are not only identical to one another, but are also exact copies of their parent. It is observed in both multicellular and unicellular organisms.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 16 - Question 51

Which of the following are the components of the Polar Science and Cryosphere Research (PACER) Scheme?

  1. Construction of polar research vessel.

  2. Indian scientific endeavors in the Arctic.

  3. Southern Ocean expedition.

  4. Construction of the second research base in the Antarctica.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: