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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 1

In the context of astronomy, with reference to earth, a Quasi Satellite is an

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 1
  • A quasi-satellite is an object that orbits the Sun with an orbital period similar to that of the Earth. From Earth’s perspective, the object appears to orbit the Earth instead even though it does not.

  • Earth has over 20 quasi-satellites that are in permanent or temporary orbits. Even though these pieces of rock are physically close to our planet, they are very hard to observe due to their small and faint size — fainter than even the faintest star that can be seen with the naked eye in the night sky.

  • One of Earth’s quasi-satellites, discovered in 2016 and known as Kamoʻoalewa, is likely a piece of the Moon that once broke away from an impact, a new study said.

  • According to the study, the Kamoʻoalewa asteroid is a fast rotator, spinning around fully every 28 minutes, and orbits the Sun every 366 days. It is at an orbit that is inclined to that of the Earth.

  • It is just about 41 meters across, and in its closest approach to Earth, comes to 13 times the distance of the Moon from us — roughly 50,00,000 km away.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 2

Which of the following Buddhist Mahavihara were founded by Pala rulers?

  1. Nalanda

  2. Vikramshila

  3. Somapura

  4. Odantapuri

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 2
  • In the Bengal region, the style of architecture came to be known as the Pala School of Architecture. It developed in the period between the 8th and 12th century A.D. under the patronage of the Pala dynasty. The Palas were primarily Buddhist rulers following Mahayana tradition, but were very tolerant and patronized other religions also. Pala Kings built lots of Viharas, Chaityas, and Stupas.

  • Monuments under Pala rulers are: Universities of Jagaddala, Odantapuri, and Vikramshila were developed under Pala rulers. Somapura Mahavihara is a magnificent monastery in Bangladesh developed by them.

  • Note: Pala rulers were great patrons of Buddhist learning and religion. The construction of Nalanda university began in the 5th century AD and flourished under the Gupta rulers. The Nalanda University was revived by Dharmapala and 200 villages were set apart for meeting its expenses. It came to an end in the 12th century when it was destroyed by the invading Turkish army led by its commander Bakhtiar Khilji. UNESCO has declared Nalanda Mahavihara as a World Heritage Site.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 3

With reference to Collective Investment Scheme (CIS), consider the following statements:

  1. In India, the definition of CIS includes mutual funds and unit trust schemes.

  2. CISs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 3
  • A Collective Investment Scheme (CIS), as its name suggests, is an investment scheme wherein several individuals come together to pool their money for investing in a particular asset(s) and for sharing the returns arising from that investment as per the agreement reached between them prior to pooling in the money.

  • In India, the definition of CIS excludes mutual funds or unit trust schemes etc and is given a strict definition in Section 11AA of the SEBI Act, 1992. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • According to Section 11AA of the SEBI Act, CIS is any scheme or arrangement, which satisfies the following conditions:

    • the contributions, or payments made by the investors, by whatever name called, are pooled and utilized solely for the purposes of the scheme or arrangement;

    • the contributions or payments are made to such scheme or arrangement by the investors with a view to receive profits, income, produce or property, whether movable or immovable, from such scheme or arrangement;

    • the property, contribution or investment forming part of scheme or arrangement, whether identifiable or not, is managed on behalf of the investors;

    • the investors do not have day to day control over the management and operation of the scheme or arrangement.

  • CISs are regulated by the securities market regulator – SEBI - under SEBI (Collective Investment Scheme) Regulations, 1999. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 4

With reference to the Indian National Congress consider the following statements:

  1. At the time of the Indian National Congress formation, Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of British India.

  2. The last session of Congress before independence was held at Calcutta.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 4
  • On 28 December 1885, 72 social reformers, journalists and lawyers congregated for the first session of the Indian National Union at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay; the conference was renamed as the Indian National Congress. Allan Octavian Hume was instrumental in the formation of Indian National Congress along with Dadabhai Naoroji and Dinshaw Edulji Wacha.

  • Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of British India when Indian National Congress was formed.

    • He was the Viceroy of British India from 13 December 1884 – 10 December 1888. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • W.C. Bonnerjee was the first president of the Indian National Congress.

  • The last session of Congress before independence in 1946 was held at Meerut with J.B. Kripalani as the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 5

With respect to Zonal Councils, consider the following statements:

  1. These Councils were created on the recommendation of State Reorganization Commission headed by Fazl Ali.

  2. These Councils shall meet at least thrice in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 5
  • Zonal Council are the statutory (not Constitutional) bodies established by the Parliament through States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

  • The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-organisation Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised may be grouped into four or five zones having an Advisory Council 'to develop the habit of cooperative working” among these States. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • This Act provided for five zonal councils North, South, East, West and Central. The present composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as under:

    • The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh;

    • The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh;

    • The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal;

    • The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli;

    • The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.

  • In addition to the above Zonal Councils, a North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament, the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.

  • The Union home minister is the common chairman of the five zonal councils. Each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.

  • As per Section 17(1) of States Re-organisation Act, each Zonal Council shall meet at such time as the Chairman of the Council may appoint in this behalf. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 6

Consider the following statements:

  1. There are 15 non-permanent seats of UNSC that are distributed on a population basis.

  2. To be elected to the Council, candidate countries need a two-thirds majority of ballots of the Member States that are present and voting in the Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 6

United Nations Security Council (UNSC):

About:

  • It is one of the UN’s six main organs and is aimed at maintaining international peace and security.

  • It held its first session on 17th January 1946 in Westminster, London.

  • Headquarters: New York City.

  • Membership: The Council is composed of 15 Members:

  • Permanent members with veto power:

    • China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States.

    • More than 50 United Nations Member States have never been Members of the Security Council.

  • UNSC elections:

  • Each year the General Assembly elects five non-permanent members (out of 10 in total) for a two-year term.

  • The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis as follows: Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

    • Five from African and Asian States.

    • One from the Eastern European States.

    • Two from Latin American States;

    • Two from Western European and other States

    • To be elected to the Council, candidate countries need a two-thirds majority of ballots of the Member States that are present and voting in the Assembly. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • The UNSC elections were traditionally held in the General Assembly hall with each of the 193 member states casting its vote in a secret ballot.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 7

Consider the following statements about the ‘National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL)’:

  1. It will be the first ever 'bad bank' in India involved in the management of Non-Performing Assets of other banks.

  2. The Reserve Bank of India will maintain 51% ownership in the NARCL, and rest will be held by private lenders.

  3. It has a provision of a government guarantee that sets it apart from any other asset reconstruction company.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 7
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Recently, the Cabinet has cleared a ₹30,600-crore guarantee programme for securities to be issued by the National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL) for taking over and resolving non- performing assets (NPAs).

  • Statement 1 is correct: National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL) is India’s first-ever “Bad Bank”. It has been incorporated as an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) under the Companies Act of 2013. A bad bank is an asset reconstruction company (ARC), involved in the management and recovery of bad loans or NPAs of other banks.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited has been set up to acquire and consolidate stressed assets for their subsequent resolution. Public Sector Banks (not RBI) will maintain 51% ownership in the NARCL and private lenders will hold the rest. India Debt Resolution Company Ltd (IDRCL) is an operational entity of NARCL. It will manage the stressed assets acquired by NARCL and try to raise their value for final resolution.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Like any other asset reconstruction company, the NARCL will buy bad assets from banks. What sets it apart is that it has a provision of a government guarantee worth Rs 30,600 crore. If NARCL-IDRCL is unable to sell the stressed assets or has to sell it at a loss, then the government guarantee will be invoked. Under this, the difference between what the commercial bank was supposed to get and what they were able to raise will be paid from the Rs 30,600 crore that has been provided by the government.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 8

In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/are the likely consequence(s) from the imposition of the equalisation levy?

  1. Non-resident e-commerce companies would not have to pay any tax in India.

  2. Government would be able to earn tax revenue from online advertisement services.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 8
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Finance Act 2020 amended the Finance Act 2016, introducing a new Equalisation Levy at 2% on the online sale of goods and provision of services by a non-resident e- commerce company.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Equalisation levy was introduced to tax the online advertising revenue that overseas companies earn from India. An Equalisation levy of 6% was introduced in 2016 on payment exceeding Rs 1 lakh a year to a non-resident service provider for online advertisements. It is direct tax. The tax will is levied irrespective of whether the e-commerce operator owns goods/ services it is supplying to any user in India. The equalization levy will apply to both B2B as well as B2C transactions.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 9

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Debt service coverage ratio’:

  1. It is a measure of the cash flow available to pay current debt obligations.

  2. It includes interest expenses and other obligations like pension and sinking fund obligation of a firm.

  3. It is used by the banks to know the cash position and cash flow of a company.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 9
Option d is the correct answer.
  • The debt-service coverage ratio (DSCR) shows investors whether a company has enough income to pay its debts.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The debt-service coverage ratio (DSCR) is a measure of the cash flow available to pay current debt obligations. DSCR is used to analyse firms, projects, or individual borrowers. The minimum DSCR that a lender demands depends on macroeconomic conditions. If the economy is growing, lenders may lend even in case the ratio is low of a firm.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Debt service coverage ratio takes into consideration all expenses related to debt, including interest expense and other obligations like pension and sinking fund obligation (a sinking fund is made up of sums of money set aside at intervals, usually invested at interest, to meet a certain future obligation.) In this way, the DSCR is more indicative of a company's ability to pay its debt than just the debt ratio.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Debt service coverage ratio is used by the banks as a benchmark to measure the cash-producing ability of a business entity to cover its debt payments. Lenders not only wish to know the cash position and cash flow of a company but also how much debt it currently has and its available cash to pay the current and future debt.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 10

Consider the following statements about the Mutual Funds and Hedge Funds:

  1. Compared to mutual funds, Hedge funds tend to be less liquid.

  2. Unlike Hedge funds, Mutual Funds only target high-net-worth investors.

  3. Compared to Mutual funds, Hedge funds generally generate greater returns because of higher risks associated with it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 10
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Both mutual funds and hedge funds are managed portfolios built from pooled funds with the goal of achieving returns through diversification.

  • A mutual fund is a company that pools money from many investors and invests the money in securities such as stocks, bonds, and short-term debt. The combined holdings of the mutual fund are known as its portfolio. Investors buy shares in mutual funds.

  • A hedge fund is a pooled investment fund that trades in relatively liquid assets and is able to make extensive use of more complex trading, portfolio-construction, and risk management techniques in an attempt to improve performance, such as short selling, leverage, and derivatives.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Mutual fund investors can redeem their units on any given business day and receive the NAV (net asset value) of that day. Hedge funds, on the other hand, tend to be much less liquid as they typically require investors to lock up money for a period of years.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Mutual funds are offered by institutional fund managers with a variety of options for retail and institutional investors. Hedge funds target high-net-worth investors. Hedge funds require that investors meet specific accredited characteristics.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Hedge Funds are believed to generate greater returns than extensively accepted benchmarks. There is an increased dangers and risk as a result of using derivatives and unorthodox methods. With respect to Mutual Funds, there is decrease danger as a result of regulation, diversification, and dependable administration.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 11

With reference to ‘Taxation regime in India’, which one of the following statements is correct regarding ‘Surcharge’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 11
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Option a is incorrect: Surcharge is an additional charge or tax. In simple words, a surcharge is a tax on tax. It is levied as a percentage on the income tax payable as per normal rates. In case no tax is due for a financial year, then no surcharge is levied. Unlike a cess, which is meant to raise revenue for a temporary need, surcharge is usually permanent in nature.

  • Option b is correct: Parliament can impose a surcharge for ‘the purposes of the Union’. The exact import of this phrase is not clear, but it is logical that the Union can impose a surcharge only on its tax base. Unlike a cess, in the case of a surcharge, there is no need to stipulate the purpose at the time of levy and it is the discretion of the Union to utilise the proceeds of the surcharges for whichever purpose it deems fit.

  • Option c is incorrect: Pursuant to Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, a surcharge cannot ordinarily be imposed over and above the Goods and Service Tax.

  • Option d is incorrect: The proceeds from surcharges need not be shared with State Governments. The concept of surcharge and the language for ‘purposes of the Union’ in Article 271 was interpreted to mean that surcharge proceeds are separate from income tax proceeds for the purposes of distribution and therefore it is not the obligation of Union to share proceeds from surcharge with the states.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 12

With reference to the 13th Amendment to the Sri Lankan Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an outcome of the Indo-Lanka Accord of July 1987, signed by then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and President J.R. Jayawardene.

  2. It proposed the establishment of a provincial council system and devolution of power.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 12
  • Recently, President Ranil Wickremesinghe said that The Sri Lankan government would “fully implement” the 13th Amendment.

  • Statement 1 is not correct: 13th Amendment is an outcome of the Indo-Lanka Accord of July 1987, signed by then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and President J.R. Jayawardene, in an attempt to resolve Sri Lanka’s ethnic conflict that had aggravated into a full-fledged civil war, between the armed forces and the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam, which led the struggle for Tamils’ selfdetermination and sought a separate state.

  • It was passed in 1987.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The 13th Amendment provided for setting up provincial governments across the country — there are nine provincial councils — and made Tamil, too, an official language, and English, a link language.

  • It also sought to address the Tamils’ right to self-determination which, by the 1980s, had become a raging political call.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 13

The Western Cordillera mountain range is associated with which of the following continents?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 13
  • The North American Cordillera, sometimes also called the Western Cordillera of North America, the Western Cordillera or the Pacific Cordillera, is the North American portion of the American Cordillera, the mountain chain system (cordillera) along the western coast (Pacific coast) of the Americas.

  • The North American Cordillera covers an extensive area of mountain ranges, intermontane basins and plateaus in Western/Northwestern Canada, Western United States and Mexico, including much of the territory west of the Great Plains. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 14

Consider the following statements with reference to All India States’ People’s Conference (AISPC):

  1. It was founded in 1927 to coordinate political activities in the different states.

  2. It was formed by Indian National Congress.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 14
  • All India States' People's Conference was a national-level body founded in 1927 with its headquarters at Bombay with the objective to coordinate political activities in different states and also to raise moderate demands for democratic rights and constitutional changes in the Princely States. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The men chiefly responsible for its formation were Balwantrai Mehta, Manikial Kothari and G.R. Abhayankar. It was an independent organisation and not formed by Indian National Congress. In 1939, the AISPC elected Jawaharlal Nehru as its President for the Ludhiana session and remained so until 1946. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 15

Iron-Air batteries are considered a breakthrough in battery technology. In this context, consider the following statements about Iron-Air batteries:

  1. While charging this battery converts rust to iron.

  2. It can store electricity for up to 100 hours.

  3. Electrolyte used in this battery is air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 15
  • For a long period, research on iron-air cells was put on hold due to intractable technological hurdles. However, in recent times, there has been a tremendous surge in study interest.

  • In July 2021, American company Form Energy Inc. announced a rechargeable iron-air battery capable of delivering electricity for 100 hours at a claimed system cost-competitive with conventional power plants and at less than a tenth the cost of lithium-ion.

  • The Iron-Air battery leverages the concept of ‘reversible rusting’ — it uses oxygen from the air and converts iron metal to rust while discharging, and while charging, the application of an electrical current transforms the rust back to iron and the battery releases oxygen back into the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The active components of the iron-air battery system are some of the safest, cheapest, and most abundant materials on the planet — low-cost iron, water, and air.

  • The iron-Air battery is optimized to store electricity for up to 100 hours. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Each individual battery is about the size of a washing machine. Each of these modules is filled with a water-based, non-flammable electrolyte, similar to the electrolyte used in AA batteries. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 16

Which one of the following is not a correct measure to control inflation in an economy?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 16
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Inflation is the rate of increase in prices over a given period of time. Inflation is typically a broad measure, such as the overall increase in prices or the increase in the cost of living in a country.

  • Statement a is correct: The consumers are appealed to cut back the consumption of the items which show higher inflation (called austerity). This can reduce the demand and thus lead to lowering of prices due to low reduced demand.

  • Statement b is correct: Government may tighten flow of money in the system (known as monetary measure)—central bank making money costlier (by increasing repo rate, increasing CRR, etc. in case of India). This step also has its own limitations—it is not effective if the items showing inflation are essential ones (such as wheat, rice, onion, potato, etc. because consumers don’t borrow money from banks to buy them).

  • Statement c is incorrect: Inflation can be controlled by increasing the supply (decreasing the supply will further fuel inflation due to shortage of the product and increasing the demand simultaneously) of the items showing inflation, the government may go in for upscaling the production or import of the items.

  • Statement d is correct: The Cost side measure to control inflation includes cutting indirect taxes which can bring in comfort and in the long-run cutting cost of production (by scaling up technology).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 17

‘GDP Deflator’ sometimes underestimates true inflation. Which of the following is/are the correct reasons for this?

  1. Unlike CPI, it focuses upon goods and services produced domestically in the country.

  2. Unlike CPI, it is available and calculated only on an annual basis along with GDP estimates.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 17
Option a is the correct answer.
  • The GDP deflator is a measure of inflation. It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The GDP deflator underestimates true inflation. The reason is that the GDP deflator reflects the prices of all goods and services produced domestically in the country, whereas the CPI reflects the prices of all goods and services bought by domestic consumers. For example, suppose the price of an airplane produced by an Indian company which is sold to the Indian Air Force rises. Although the plane is a part of GDP it is not the part of the basket of goods and services purchased by an Indian consumer. Thus, the price increase shows up in the GDP deflator, but not in the CPI. Now suppose the Toyota raises the price of its cars. Since Toyota cars are made in the Japan, they are not a part of India’s GDP. But Indian consumers buy Toyotas and so the car is part of Indian consumers’ basket of goods. Hence a price increase of an imported consumer good, such as Toyota, gets reflected in the CPI, but not in the GDP deflator.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: GDP deflator is available only on a quarterly basis (not only on annual basis) along with GDP estimates, whereas CPI and WPI data are released every month.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Gross Ecosystem Product’:

  1. It is the total value of goods and services that ecosystem provides for human well-being in a region annually.

  2. It is measured in terms of intangible beneficial values rather than monetary or economic value.

  3. Sikkim became the first state in India to initiate valuation of its natural resources in the form of ‘Gross Ecosystem Product’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 18
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Gross Ecosystem/Environment Product’ is the total value of final ecosystem of goods and services supplied for human well-being in a region annually. Ecosystems that can be measured include natural ecosystems such as forests, grassland, wetland, desert, freshwater and ocean, and artificial systems that are based on natural processes like farmland, pastures, aquaculture farms and urban green land, etc.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Gross Ecosystem/Environment Product’ can be measured in in terms of biophysical value and monetary value. Gross Ecosystem Product (GEP) aims to measure the total economic value of all ecosystem products and services.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Recently, Uttarakhand government (not Sikkim) may introduce a well-defined concept of ecosystem services Gross Environment Product’ (GEP) its objectives. Uttarakhand holds a distinct position historically on social awareness towards the importance of ecosystems. Therefore, Uttarakhand government has announced that it will initiate valuation of its natural resources in the form of ‘Gross Environment Product’ (GEP), along the lines of Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 19

With reference to primary succession, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 19
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Statement a is correct: Primary succession always occurs on barren terrain. In Primary succession plants and animals first essentially colonize a barren and lifeless habitat. Species that arrive first in the newly created environment are called pioneer species.

  • Statement b is correct: Primary succession occurs in regions where the substrate lacks soil. Examples of Primary succession include areas where lava recently flowed, a glacier retreated, or a sand dune formed.

  • Statement c is incorrect: There is presence of both plant and animal species in primary succession. The pioneers through their death any decay leave patches of organic matter in which small animals can live.

  • Statement d is correct: The rate of transformation of vegetation is very slow in primary succession. It is very rapid in secondary succession.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

  1. Nitrous oxide stays in the atmosphere for much longer time than methane.

  2. The global warming potential of Methane gas is higher than Nitrous oxide.

  3. Production and application of synthetic fertilizers release nitrous oxide in the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 20
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Gases that trap heat in the atmosphere are called greenhouse gases. Larger emissions of greenhouse gases lead to higher concentrations in the atmosphere. For each greenhouse gas, a Global Warming Potential (GWP) has been calculated to reflect how long it remains in the atmosphere, on average, and how strongly it absorbs energy. Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy, per pound, than gases with a lower GWP, and thus contribute more to warming Earth.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Methane's lifetime in the atmosphere is much shorter than carbon dioxide (CO2). The lifetime of methane in atmosphere is 12 years. Nitrous oxide is naturally present in the atmosphere as part of the Earth's nitrogen cycle, and has a variety of natural sources. Nitrous oxide molecules stay in the atmosphere for an average of 114 years before being removed by a sink or destroyed through chemical reactions.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The global warming potential of Nitrous oxide is higher than Methane. The impact of 1 pound of N2O on warming the atmosphere is almost 300 times that of 1 pound of carbon dioxide. The Global Warming Potential of Nitrous oxide for 100-year is 298. The comparative impact of methane is 25 times greater than CO2 over a 100-year period. The Global Warming Potential of Methane for 100-year is 25.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Globally, 50-65 percent of total CH4 emissions come from human activities. Methane is emitted from energy, industry, agriculture, land use, and waste management activities. Globally, about 40 percent of total N2O emissions come from human activities. Nitrous oxide is emitted from agriculture, land use, transportation, industry, and other activities. For example- Nitrous oxide can result from various agricultural soil management activities, such as application of synthetic and organic fertilizers and other cropping practices, the management of manure, or burning of agricultural residues.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

  1. While Cold water reefs are found throughout the Earth, Warm water reefs are found only in tropical region.

  2. Both cold water reefs and warm water reefs involve a symbiotic relationship with algae.

  3. The growth rate of cold-water reefs is generally higher than warm water reefs.

  4. Unlike Great Barrier Reef, Irish coral reefs are an example of cold-water reefs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 21
Option c is the correct answer.
  • A coral reef is an underwater ecosystem characterized by reef-building corals. Reefs are formed of colonies of coral polyps held together by calcium carbonate. Most coral reefs are built from stony corals, whose polyps cluster in groups.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Cold-water coral reefs most commonly occur in continental slope settings, on deep shelves and along the flanks of oceanic banks and seamounts. They are distributed in all seas and at all latitudes. The warm water coral reefs are found in the tropics (between 30°N and 30°S) in areas where the water is clear and over 18°C. The maximum depth for warm water corals is generally around 60 meters.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Warm water coral reef need specific environmental conditions to grow like Clear water, allowing light to reach the photosynthetic zooxanthellae; Light-absorbing adaptations enable some species to live in dim blue light. They are developed in symbiotic association with algae. But Cold- Water Coral reefs do not develop in association with symbiotic association with algae. Coldwater reefs survive by trapping plankton (small sea animals) and other tiny food particles in the water.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Growth rate of Cold-Water Coral reefs is lower than the growth rate of Warm water coral reefs. The growth rate of Cold-water coral reefs is about 4-25mm per year and the growth rate of warm water coral reefs is 150mm per year.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Warm water reefs need the light from the sun to make food and grow. They are usually found in shallow waters where the sunlight can reach the reef. The sunlight also makes the water warm, giving it the name warm water reef. The Great Barrier Reef is a warm water shallow reef. The Irish coral reefs are cold-water reefs. They don’t need the sunlight to make food so they are found much deeper in the sea. As there is no sunlight, the water is cold.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 22

With reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement consider the following statements:

  1. Council election boycott was a complete failure.

  2. Economic boycott was intense and successful.

  3. Working-class participation was negligible.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 22
  • On August 31, 1920 the Khilafat Committee started a campaign of non-cooperation and the movement was formally launched in September 1920 at a special session in Calcutta. Congress approved a non- cooperation programme till the Punjab and Khilafat wrongs were removed and Swaraj was established.

  • The programme was to include:

    • Boycott of government schools and colleges

    • Boycott of law courts and dispensation of justice through Panchayats instead

    • Boycott of Legislative Councils; (there were some differences over this as some leaders like C.R. Das were not willing to include a boycott of councils, but bowed to Congress discipline; these leaders boycotted elections held in November 1920 and the majority of the voters too stayed away).

    • Boycott of foreign cloth and use of khadi instead; also practice of hand-spinning to be done

    • Renunciation of government honours and titles; the second phase could include mass civil disobedience including resignation from government service, and non-payment of taxes.

  • When Mahatma Gandhi announced his decision to withdraw the movement after the Chauri Chaura incident, most of the nationalist leaders including C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru, Subhash Bose, Jawaharlal Nehru, expressed their bewilderment at and disappointment. But despite this Non-Cooperation Movement achieved a lot.

    • Peasant and working-class participation was impressive.

    • Except in Madras, the Council election boycott was more or less successful as the polling averages were around 5-8 percent.

    • The economic boycott was intense and successful as the imports of foreign cloth dropped from 1020 million rupees in 1920-21 to 570 million rupees in 1921-22. Import of British cotton goods also declined.

    • The tremendous participation of Muslims in the movement and the maintenance of communal unity was in itself no mean achievement.

  • However, middle-class participation was not spectacular and also large industrialists were anti-Non-Cooperation and pro-government.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 23

In the context of International relations, the term "de-hyphenation" is related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 23
  • In international politics, de-hyphenation means dealing with two countries, having an adversarial relationship between them, in an independent manner.

  • Recently, diplomatic relations between India and Isreal have just completed 30 years.

    • India’s relationship with Israel stands on its own merits, independent and separate from India’s relationship with the Palestinians. It would no longer be India’s relationship with Israel-Palestine, but India’s relationship with Israel, and India’s relationship with the Palestinians.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 24

In Chemistry, a pH scale is used to measure the acidity or basicity of aqueous or other liquid solutions. In this context, arrange the following in decreasing order of pH.

  1. Lemon Juice

  2. Milk of Magnesia

  3. Caustic Soda

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 24
  • pH is a quantitative measure of the acidity or basicity of aqueous or other liquid solutions. The term, widely used in chemistry, biology, and agronomy, translates the values of the concentration of the hydrogen ion—which ordinarily ranges between 0 and 14 on a pH scale.

  • The strength of acids and bases depends on the number of H+ ions and OH– ions produced, respectively. If we take hydrochloric acid and acetic acid of the same concentration, say one molar, then these produce different amounts of hydrogen ions. Acids that give rise to more H+ ions are said to be strong acids, and acids that give less H+ ions are said to be weak acids.

  • Approximate pH values of some common acids and bases are:

    • Lemon juice - 2.2

    • Milk of Magnesia (Magnesium hydroxide) -10

    • Caustic Soda (Sodium Hydroxide) -14

  • Water has a pH of around 7.4.

  • Our body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH changes. When the pH of rainwater is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 25

Arrange the early political associations in chronological order of their formation.

  1. East India Association

  2. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha

  3. The British Indian Association

  4. Madras Native Association

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 25
  • Some of the prominent Early Political Associations played very important role in arousing general will and laying down a path towards modern Nationalism. These include:

    • British Indian Association was created after amalgamating the “Landholders Society” and “British India Society” on 31 October 1851. This was the first political organization that brought the Indians Debendranath Tagore was its secretary. The newspaper of this society was “Hindu patriot” which adopted a strongly critical political tone.

    • The earliest political organisation, the Madras Native Association was started in July 1852. Lakshminarasu Chetty and Srinivasa Pillai were the founders of this organization. The Madras Native Association was sharply critical of the policies of the East India Company’s rule. Subsequently in 1884, the Madras Mahajana Sabha was established by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu. The Madras Native Association was ultimately merged with this organization.

    • The East India Association was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866, in collaboration with Indians and retired British officials in London. It superseded the London Indian Society and was a platform for discussing matters and ideas about India, and to provide representation for Indians to the Government. Naoroji delivered the first lecture to the Association on 2 May 1867.

    • Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was a sociopolitical organisation in British India that started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India and to popularise the peasants' legal rights. It started as an elected body of 95 members elected by 6000 persons on April 2, 1870. The organisation was a precursor to the Indian National Congress which started with its first session from Maharashtra itself. In 1875 the Sabha sent a petition to the House of Commons demanding India’s direct representation in the British Parliament.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 26

Consider the following statements with reference to the Wagner Group.

  1. The Wagner Group first surfaced in 2022 during Russia's War on Ukraine.

  2. It has been involved in conflicts in Africa, Latin America, and the Middle East.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 26
  • The U.S. designated Russia’s Wagner group as a “transnational criminal organization,” piling pressure on the private Russian army fighting in Ukraine.

  • Statement 1 is not correct but statement 2 is correct: According to reports in The Washington Post, it is a network of contractors that supply soldiers for hire.

  • The Wagner Group first surfaced in 2014, during Russia’s annexation of Crimea.

  • It has been involved in conflicts in Africa, Latin America, and the Middle East.

  • It is ostensibly private, but according to CSIS, “its management and operations are deeply intertwined with the Russian military and intelligence community” under Vladimir Putin.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 27

With reference to peatlands, consider the following statements:

  1. They are a type of wetland in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing.

  2. They are restricted only to the tropical areas.

  3. They are considered to be one of the largest terrestrial stores of carbon.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 27
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Peatland stores the carbon the plants absorbed from the atmosphere within peat soils, providing a net- cooling effect and helping to mitigate the climate crisis.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Peatlands are a type of wetland. The term ‘peatland’ refers to the peat soil and the wetland habitats growing on the surface. In peatlands, year-round water-logged conditions slow plant decomposition to such an extent that dead plants accumulate to form peat.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Peatland landscapes are varied: from temperate blanket mires with open, treeless vegetation such as the Flow Country of Scotland to swamp forests in Southeast Asia. The majority of the world’s peatlands occur in boreal and temperate parts of the Northern Hemisphere, especially, Europe, North America and Russia where they have formed under high precipitation-low temperature climatic regimes. In the humid tropics, regional environmental and topographic conditions enable peat to form under conditions of high precipitation and high temperature in Southeast Asia, mainland East Asia, the Caribbean, Central America, South America, Africa, parts of Australasia and a few Pacific Islands. Tropical peatlands may also form under mangrove forests.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Peatlands are a type of wetland which is critical for preventing and mitigating the effects of climate change. Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined.

  • Knowledge Base: New areas are still being discovered. The world’s largest tropical peatland was identified beneath the forests of the Congo Basin in 2017. The new study found that the Cuvette Centrale peatlands in the central Congo Basin, which were unknown to exist five years ago, cover 145,500 square kilometres – an area larger than England.

    • In many parts of the world, peatlands supply food, fibre and other local products that sustain economies. They also preserve important ecological and archaeological information such as pollen records and human artifacts. Damage to peatlands causes biodiversity loss. For example, the decline of the Bornean orangutan population by 60% within 60 years is largely attributed to the loss of peat swamp habitat.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 28

With reference to the Stockholm convention, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to trade of hazardous chemicals.

  2. The financial mechanism for this convention is designated to the Global Environmental Facility.

  3. India has signed this convention but not ratified it yet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 28
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Stockholm Convention is an international environmental treaty, signed in 2001 and effective from 2004.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rotterdam Convention is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to importation of hazardous chemicals. Stockholm Convention aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs). These are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms, and are toxic to humans and wildlife.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Global Environmental Facility (GEF) is the designated financial mechanism for the Stockholm Convention.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India signed this Stockholm Convention in 2002. Later, India ratified it in 2006. The Union Cabinet has approved the Ratification of seven chemicals listed under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The seven POPs prohibited from manufacturing, trading using, importing and exporting are:

1) Chlordecone

2) Hexabromobiphenyl

3) Hexabromodiphenyl ether and Hepta Bromodiphenyl Ether

4) Tetrabromodiphenyl ether and Pentabromodiphenyl ether

5) Pentachlorobenzene

6) Hexabromocyclododecane and

7) Hexachlorobutadiene.

  • The ratification process would enable India to access the Global Environment Facility (GEF) financial resources.

  • Knowledge Base:

  • Initially, twelve POPs have been recognized as causing adverse effects on humans and the ecosystem and these can be placed in 3 categories:

1) Pesticides: aldrin, chlordane, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, heptachlor, hexachlorobenzene, mirex, toxaphene;

2) Industrial chemicals: hexachlorobenzene, polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs); and

3) By-products: hexachlorobenzene; polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and polychlorinated dibenzofurans (PCDD/PCDF), and PCBs.

  • Stockholm Convention calls for international action on three categories of POPs: pesticides, industrial chemicals and unintentionally produced POPs.

1) POPs under Annex A of the Convention are to be eliminated.

2) POPs under Annex B of the Convention are to be restricted.

3) Unintentionally produced POPs under Annex C of the Convention are to be restricted or eliminated.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Dugong is found along both eastern and western coasts of India.

  2. The Indian Star Tortoise is found only in the Himalayan Region.

  3. The Great Indian Bustard can be found in grasslands of the Deccan.

  4. The distribution of Red Panda in India is limited to Arunachal Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 29
Option a is the correct answer.
  • India is a biodiversity rich country which is also one of the mega hotspots of biodiversity. However increasing economic and developmental activities have posed a risk to many key animals in this list, which is often reflected in their distribution.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Dugong is found on both the eastern as well as the western coasts of India. On the eastern coast it is found in Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay and around Andaman & Nicobar islands. On the western coast, the Dugongs are found in the Gulf of Kutch.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Star Tortoise is found in only 6 states in India in the northwestern and southern region of India (and an occasional pocket in Central India). It is found distributed in Gujarat and Punjab in the Northwest; in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu in Southern India, and in some patches in Odisha in Central India.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Great Indian Bustard was initially found all over India, but in recent years its distribution has become limited to two areas in India - one of them being the semi-arid and sub-humid grasslands of Deccan (in states like Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh and Telangana). The other region, where the majority of present day population is present is the northwestern part of India (in states like Gujarat and Rajasthan).

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect as the Red Panda is found distributed in not one but multiple states in North East India. It is distributed in Sikkim, Darjeeling (in West Bengal), western Arunachal Pradesh and parts of Meghalaya.

  • Knowledge Base:

  • DUGONG:

  • IUCN STATUS: Vulnerable

    • Protected under - Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 Schedule I; CITES Appendix I Distributed along 30 countries in tropical Indo-Pacific waters.

    • State animal of Andaman & Nicobar islands Flagship species. It is a mammal. Also called sea cow; herbivorous; feeds on seagrass

    • Reasons for loss: The loss of seagrass habitats, water pollution and degradation of the coastal ecosystem due to developmental activities, accidental entanglement in fishing nets and collision with boats, trawlers.

  • STAR TORTOISE:

  • IUCN STATUS: Vulnerable

    • Protected under: Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 Schedule IV, CITES Appendix I Found in Pakistan, India and Sri Lanka.

  • India has largest wild population of star tortoises Dangers: Poaching for meat, pet keeping., Habitat destruction

  • GREAT INDIAN BUSTARD:

  • IUCN Status: Critically Endangered

    • Protected Under: Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972; Appendix I of CITES, CMS convention

    • Flightless birds; One of the heaviest birds, that cannot fly,

    • Prefer open short grassland as habitat Dangers: Poaching for meat and eggs, collisions with high tension electric wires, fast moving vehicles and free-ranging dogs in villages, habitat loss

  • RED PANDA:

  • IUCN Status: Endangered

    • Protected under: Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

    • Distributed globally in India, Nepal, Bhutan, southern China and Myanmar

    • Preferes mixed deciduous and conifer forests with dense understories of bamboo at altitudes between 2200-4800 m as its habitat India has both subtypes of Red Panda - Himalayan and Chinese (east of River Siang in Arunachal Pradesh).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 30

Which of the following are the benefits of lichens?

  1. They can be used as an indicator of air quality.

  2. They help in soil formation.

  3. They play a role in nitrogen fixing.

  4. They can be used as a source of food by humans.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 30
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Lichens are composite organisms that are formed as a result of the association of fungi and algae. They are also found in nearly all the ecosystems.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Lichens are excellent indicator of the air quality. Because lichens have no roots or protective surface, they cannot filter what they absorb, so whatever is in the air is taken straight inside. If there are pollutants, it can accumulate in the lichen and can become toxic very quickly.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Lichens plays an important role in the formation of soil and as primary succession pioneers. They are often the first line of biological invasion on bare rock and recent lava flows. In addition to forming soil, lichens act as intersystem nutrient sinks, contributing to the enrichment of a landscape with minerals and nutrients.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Lichen plays an important role in fixing nitrogen. They are capable of converting nitrogen from the air into nitrate. This conversion of nitrogen impacts the ecosystem because when it rains, nitrates are leached from lichens and is used by soil-based plants. E.g. Cyanobacteria in cyanolichens can fix nitrogen for their nutrition.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Humans uses some lichens for food. E.g. Parmelia. Its species are used as curry powder in India. But some can be poisonous.

  • Knowledge Base:

  • Other benefits of Lichens:

    • Litmus which is a dye used as an indicator of acid and base, is obtained from lichens Roccella tinctoria and Lasallia pustulata.

    • They are used as a source of medicines. For example, usnic acid which is obtained from Usnea, is an antibiotic used in the treatment of various infections.

    • Some lichens are used in the production of perfume and essential oils.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 31

Arrange the following hill station from west to east

  1. Kullu

  2. Shillong

  3. Ranikhet

  4. Darjeeling

Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 31
Correct order from west to east- Kullu (Himachal Pradesh), Ranikhet (Uttarakhand), Darjeeling (West Bengal), Shillong (Meghalaya).
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 32

Consider the following statements about Earth Biogenome Project:

  1. It aims to sequence the genomes of all eukaryotic species over a period of ten years.

  2. It will help in exploring the dark genome.

  3. It is an initiative of the WHO (World Health Organisation).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 32
  • The Earth Biogenome Project is a global consortium that aims to sequence the genomes of all complex life on Earth (some 1.8 million described species) in ten years.

  • The project was first proposed in 2016 and was officially launched in 2018. It is an initiative of a global consortium of various organizations and initiatives.

  • There are currently 44 affiliated institutions in 22 countries working on the Earth Biogenome Project. There are also 49 affiliated projects, including enormous projects such as the California Conservation Genomics Project, the Bird 10,000 Genomes Project, and the UK’s Darwin Tree of Life Project, as well as many projects on particular groups such as bats and butterflies. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

  • The Earth BioGenome Project (EBP), a moonshot for biology, aims to sequence, catalog, and characterize the genomes of all of Earth’s eukaryotic biodiversity over a period of ten years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The aim of phase one is to sequence one genome from every taxonomic family on earth, some 9,400 of them. By the end of 2022, one-third of these species should be done. Phase two will see the sequencing of a representative from all 180,000 genera, and phase three will mark the completion of all the species. Earth BioGenome Project (EBP) will also help in exploring the “dark matter” of the genome, and reveal how DNA sequences that do not encode proteins can still play a role in genome function and evolution.

  • The human genome is conventionally divided into the “coding” genome, which generates the ~20,000 annotated human protein-coding genes, and the “dark” genome, which does not encode proteins. The dark genome is a vast space, accounting for the ~98.5% of genomic space where repeat elements, enhancers, regulatory sequences, and non-coding RNAs reside. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 33

The Satvahana king had a distinct love for navigation and overseas trade. He was hailed for the recovery of Konkan and Malwa from the Shaka rulers. His coins were marked by symbols of ships were found in Maharashtra, Gujarat along with the Andhra region.

Identify the ruler from the passage given above.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 33
  • The original home of the Satavahanas was somewhere in the Deccan, and most likely they belonged to the Andhra territory. Because the Puranas described them as the Andhras. In other words, though the Dynasty became famous as the Satavahana, they were the inhabitants of Andhra. The Andhras were no doubt one of the most famous races of ancient India.

  • Yajna Sri Satakarni was an Indian ruler of the Satavahana dynasty. He is considered to be the last great king of the Satavahana dynasty. He regained some of the territory lost to Shakas. He defeated the Shakas and reconquered their southern regions of the Konkan and the Malwa. He was a lover of trade and navigation. His coins have been found not only in Andhra but also in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat. His love for navigation and overseas trade is shown by the representation of a ship on his coins. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

  • Gautamiputra Satakarni Brahmi was a ruler of the Satavahana Empire in the present-day Deccan region of India. He was mentioned as the important and greatest ruler of the Satavahana Dynasty. He called himself the only brahmana. He claims to have destroyed the Kshaharata lineage to which his adversary Nahapana belonged.

  • Vasishthiputra Pulumayi was a Satavahana king, and the son of Gautamiputra Satakarni. He setup the capital at Paithan or Pratishthan on the Godavari in Aurangabad district.

  • Rudradaman I was a Saka ruler from the Western Kshatrapas dynasty. He was the grandson of king Chastana. Rudradaman I was instrumental in the decline of the Satavahana Empire. Rudradaman I took up the title of Maha-kshtrapa ("Great Satrap") after he became the king and then strengthened his kingdom.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 34

What is the maximum period of operation of a Financial Emergency?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 34
According to the Constitution of India once Financial Emergency is approved by both the Houses of Parliament it continues indefinitely till it is revoked. Therefore there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 35

Which of the following pollutants are covered under National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?

  1. Benzopyrene

  2. Cadmium

  3. Ammonia

  4. Arsenic

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 35

National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS):

  • The NAAQS set by the CPCB are applicable to the whole country. The CPCB draws this power from the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

  • These standards are essential for the development of effective management of ambient air quality.

  • The first ambient air quality standards were developed in 1982 pursuant to the Air Act.

  • Later, in 1994 and 1998, these standards were revised. The latest revision to the NAAQS was done in 2009 and this is the latest version being followed.

  • The 2009 standards further lowered the maximum permissible limits for pollutants and made the standards uniform across the nation. Previously, industrial zones had less stringent standards as compared to residential areas.

  • The compliance of the NAAQS is monitored under the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP). NAMP is implemented by the CPCB.

  • The current standards (2009) comprise 12 pollutants as follows: Particulate Matter 10 (PM10), Particulate Matter 2.5 (PM2.5 , Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Ammonia (NH3),Lead (Pb), Benzene, Benzopyrene, Arsenic, Nickel. Hence, option (c) is correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 36

Which of the following organisms undergoes Aestivation in an ecosystem?

  1. Salamander

  2. Frogs

  3. Snails

  4. Bats

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 36
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Aestivation is a state of animal dormancy that is exhibited by certain animal species in response to high temperatures and arid conditions. Invertebrate and vertebrate animals are known to enter this state to avoid damage from high temperatures and the risk of desiccation. Both terrestrial and aquatic animals undergo aestivation.

  • Statement 1, 2 and 3 is correct: Aestivation takes place in cold-blooded animals like snails, earthworms, frogs, reptiles (salamander) and fish (African lungfish), etc.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Bats show hibernation and not aestivation. Hibernation takes place in warm and cold-blooded animals like bats, mammals, birds, etc. It prevents any internal body damage due to low temperatures.

  • Knowledge Base: Aestivation is characterized by inactivity and a lowered metabolic rate. The primary physiological and biochemical concerns for an aestivating animal are to -

1) conserve energy.

2) retain water in the body

3) ration the use of stored energy

4) handle the nitrogenous end products.

5) stabilise body organs, cells, and macromolecules.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 37

Which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to Indian legal and judicial system during the period of Buddha?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 37
Option a is the correct answer.
  • The Indian legal and judicial system originated during the period of Buddha. Formerly people were governed by the tribal law, which did not recognize any class distinction. However, by now the tribal community had been clearly divided into four orders: brahmanas, kshatriyas, vaishyas, and shudras.

  • Option a is incorrect: The civil and criminal law were set out in the Dharmashastras. They were administered by royal agents (not by priests) who inflicted rough and ready punishments such as scourging, beheading, and tearing out of the tongue.

  • Option b is correct: In many instances, punishments for criminal offences were governed by the idea of revenge, that is, a tooth for a tooth and an eye for an eye.

  • Option c is correct: The Dharmasutras set out the duties of each of the four varnas, and the civil and criminal law came to be based on the varna division. The higher the varna, the purer it was, and the higher the level of moral conduct expected of the upper varna by civil and criminal law. Crimes committed by them against the brahmanas and others were severely punished, but those committed against the shudras were lightly treated.

  • Option d is correct: Although the brahmanical law-books took into account the social status of the different varnas in framing their laws, they did not ignore the customs of the non-Vedic tribal groups. Some of these indigenous tribals were given fictitious social origins and allowed to be governed by their own customs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 38

Which of the following statements regarding Asokan inscription is/ are correct?

  1. The Sannati rock edict complex has an inscribed rock image of Asoka.

  2. The Shahbazgarhi Inscription is the only major rock edict of Asoka outside of modern-day India.

  3. Most of the inscriptions found in the north-western part of the empire were written in Pali language and Brahmi script.

Select the correct option using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 38
Option a is the correct answer
  • Statement 1 is correct: At the site of the Sannati major rock inscription in Gulbarga district of Karnataka, a nearby Stupa contains the only surviving engraved rock portrait of Asoka. It shows Asoka sitting on his throne.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Two other major rock edicts - at Mansehra in Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa, Pakistan and in Kandahar, Afghanistan, are also present outside the international boundary of modern day India. However, these were included in the peripheral areas under Mauryan control in ancient times.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Most Asokan inscriptions were written in the Prakrit language and not in Pali. Most of the Prakrit inscriptions were written in the Brahmi script. However, in the north-western part of the empire, the Kharoshthi script was used, which was derived from the Aramaic script then prevalent in Iran.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 39

Which of the following statement is incorrect in the context of the role of Indian capitalist class in freedom struggle?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 39
Option b is the correct answer
  • The Indian capitalist class remained broadly within the nationalist camp particularly since the 1920s. It gradually came to believe that only a national government could bring about economic development in India.

  • Statement a is correct: During the Rowlatt Satyagraha and the Non-cooperation movement very few capitalists made donations for the Congress. No industrialist signed the satyagraha pledge against the Rowlatt Bills in 1919. The big industrialists did not come out in support of the national movement during the anti-Rowlatt agitations, though the small traders were fully supportive and active.

  • Statement b is incorrect: Some industrialists such as Purshottamdas Thakurdas, Jamnadas Dwarkadas, Cowasji Jahangir and C. Setalvad openly opposed the Non-Cooperation movement. For this purpose, they formed an Anti-Non-cooperation Society in Bombay.

  • Statement c is correct: In the initial phase of the movement, the business groups suffering from Depression and irked by governmental apathy, extended support to the movement. The Indian business class initially supported the Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Gandhi to get concessions from the British government. The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI) restrained the industrialists from participating in the Round Table Conference as a mark of solidarity with the Congress. Thakurdas was persuaded to resign his seat in the central legislative assembly.

  • Statement d is correct: The Bombay Plan was devised by the Indian capitalists in 1944. It proposed the role of a national state in promotion of industrialisation, particularly in the areas of heavy and capital goods industries as well as in developing infrastructure. It backed the idea of long-term economic planning and state control of certain industries, particularly heavy industries. The Indian capitalist class realised that it was not strong enough to undertake investment in such core areas of economy.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 40

With reference to Guru Nanak, consider the following statements:

  1. He was contemporary to Ibrahim Lodi.

  2. He did not emphasize on asceticism.

  3. He taught the principles of right belief, right worship and right conduct to achieve salvation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 40
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Guru Nanak was founder of the Sikh religion. Guru Nanak did not merely denounce or condemn the existing social order but he gave an alternative to it. He regulated the community life of his followers by bringing in congregational worship in a dharamsala and dining together to bring people together.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Guru Nanak (1469-1539) was contemporary to the Lodi dynasty rulers (Bahlul Lodi (1451- 1489), Sikandar Lodi (1489-1517) and Ibrahim Lodi (1517-1526)) and Mughal rulers – Babur and Humayun.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Guru Nanak’s religion is a very practical one, he does not ask for ascetism as a means to achieve salvation. He asked his followers to live like an ideal man who runs his household on the basis of his own labor. He emphasized on attending the sangat (community gatherings) and kirtan (community singing of songs for praising god) at the Gurudwaras.

  • Statement 3 is correct: According to Guru Nanak, the supreme purpose of human existence was salvation that can be attained by getting relieved from the endless cycles of birth and rebirth. This salvation could not be achieved by worshipping idols or the book as mediated by the pandits and the maulavis. Nor could it be achieved through renunciation of one’s worldly possessions and of one’s home. It would be achieved by right belief, right worship and right conduct which are all taught by the guru.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 41

Often heard in the news, wolf-warriors diplomacy resembles the foreign policy of-

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 41

In recent weeks, China launched a personnel reshuffle on the foreign policy front.

Wolf-warrior Diplomacy Origin:

  • The term that gained popularity, especially after Xi became President,

  • A 2015 Chinese action film, titled ‘Wolf Warrior’, and its sequel have served as the inspiration for the term.

About:

  • It is a tactic for the Chinese government to extend its ideology beyond China and counter the West and defend itself.

  • It is an unofficial term for the more aggressive and confrontational style of communication that Chinese diplomats have taken to in the last decade.

  • It confronts head-on any criticism of China in the public sphere. They lecture host governments and don’t always show up when ‘summoned’ by foreign offices. Delhi has been at the receiving end for a while — especially during the recent crises of Doklam and Ladakh.

Need for wolf warrior diplomacy:

  • The change in strategy has been attributed to many reasons, such as

    • Xi’s more authoritarian tendencies as compared to earlier leaders,

    • deteriorating US-China relations under former US President,

    • the coronavirus pandemic-related accusations on China, etc.

    • According to Chinese officials, the move is simply about standing up to what they believe is Western interference.

    • China’s leader stated that the term was rhetorical “tit-for-tat.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 42

This National Park lies between the Vindhya mountain hill range and the eastern flank of Satpura hill range. Major vegetation is dry mixed deciduous forest, dry grassland, and west Gangetic moist mixed deciduous forest. In the deep forest of it, 1000 years old recline Lord Vishnu Statue is situated, The major fauna found here includes Tiger, Elephant, Leopard, Wild dog, Hyena, Chital, Sambar, Black Buck.

Which of the following national parks is being described in the above-given passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 42
  • A 1,000-year-old sandstone sculpture of the reclining Lord Vishnu has been restored by Indian National Trust for Art and Culture Heritage.

  • The statue is situated in Bandhavgarh National Park (Madhya Pradesh). Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

    • Bandhavgarh National Park: Declared in 1968 as National Park.

    • It is Situated in central Indian highlands between the Vindhya mountain hill range and the eastern flank of Satpura hill range. Vegetation: northern dry mixed deciduous forest dry deciduous scrub dry grassland and west Gangetic moist mixed deciduous forest.Forest corridor connectivity of Bandhavgarh with other protected areas like Sanjay-Dubri Tiger Reserve, Achanakmar Tiger Reserve, and Kanha Tiger Reserve.

  • Popularly known as Shesh Shaiyya, the sculpture belongs to the Kalchuri period (8th century, feudatories of the Rashtrakutas at central part of India).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 43

Which one of the following statements about Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) carholders is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 43

Centre eased Norms for Re-issue of Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) Cards. They will not be required to register for a fresh OCI card every time a new passport is issued in their name.

  • About OCI:

    • OCI citizens are of Indian origin but they are foreign passport holders and are not citizens of India.

    • A foreign national, who was eligible to become a citizen of India on 26.01.1950 or was a citizen of India on or at any time after 26.01.1950 or belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15.08.1947 is eligible for registration as OCI.

    • However, if the applicant had ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh, he/she will not be eligible for OCI.

  • Benefits OCI cardholder is entitled to:

    • Multiple entry lifelong visa for visiting India for any purpose.

    • Exempted from registration with Foreign Regional Registration Officer or Foreign Registration Officer for any length of stay in India. Hence option (c) is correct.

    • Parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in the adoption of children, appearing in competitive exams, purchase or sale of immovable property barring agricultural land and farmhouses, and pursuing professions such as doctors, lawyers, architects, and chartered accountants.

    • They can appear for all-India entrance tests such as National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET), Joint Entrance Examination (Mains), Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced), or such other tests to make them eligible for admission only against any Non-Resident Indian seat or any supernumerary seat. However, OCI cardholders shall not be eligible for admission against any seat reserved exclusively for Indian citizens. Hence option (b) is not correct.

  • Restrictions on OCI cardholders:

    • Special permission is required to undertake research work, internship, or employment in any foreign diplomatic missions, foreign government organizations in India.

    • Not entitled to undertake Missionary, mountaineering, journalism, and Tabligh activities without prior permission.

    • Require protected area (PA) permit/ Restricted Area (RA) Permit to visit any place falling in PA/RA. Hence, option (a) is not correct.

    • Not entitled to vote, cannot hold the constitutional post. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

    • Not entitled for appointment to public services and posts in connection with affairs of Union or states.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 44

With reference to the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:

  1. Canal irrigation was widely practised, that helped in raising the productivity of agriculture.

  2. The use of metal coins as currency helped them to trade on a large scale with Mesopotamia.

  3. As tin and copper were abundant in the region, bronze tools were found in large numbers.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 44
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Features of agriculture during Indus Valley Civilization:

1) The Harappans probably used wooden plough drawn by oxen and camels.

2) Stone sickles may have been used for harvesting the crops.

3) Gabarbands or nalas enclosed by dams for storing water were a feature in parts of Baluchistan and Afghanistan.

4) The channel or canal irrigation was probably not practised widely. However, traces of canals have been found at the Harappan site of Shortughai in Afghanistan, but not in Punjab or Sind.

5) They practiced rain water harvesting. Their style of irrigation would simply control the water from heavy rainfalls.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Harappans had commercial links with Afghanistan and Iran. They set up a trading colony in northern Afghanistan which evidently facilitated trade with Central Asia. Many Harappan seals have been discovered in Mesopotamia. They did not use metal money, and in all probability carried exchanges through a barter system. In return for finished goods and possibly food grains, they procured metals from the neighboring areas by boat and bullock-cart. They were aware of the use of the wheel, and carts with solid wheels were in use in Harappa.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Harappan Civilization is known as the first urbanization in India, and the Harappan urban culture belongs to the Bronze Age. Ordinarily bronze was made by mixing tin with copper. As neither tin nor copper was easily available to the Harappans, bronze tools do not abound in the region. The copper was obtained from the Khetri copper mines of Rajasthan and Baluchistan. Tin was possibly brought from Afghanistan.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with regard to the creation or abolition of legislative councils in a state:

  1. An amendment has to be moved in the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India.

  2. Legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution by a simple majority to that effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 45
  • The West Bengal government has decided to set up a Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).

    • Under Article 169 of the Constitution, Parliament can abolish a Legislative Council or create it by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting, if the legislative assembly of the concerned state, by a special majority, passes a resolution to that effect. This Act of Parliament is not to be deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

    • There are six States having a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 46

A US designation as a Major Non-NATO Ally (MNNA) entitles which of the following for the MNNA country?

  1. Benefits in the areas of defense trade

  2. Security cooperation

  3. Security commitment to collective self-defence

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 46

US designation as a Major Non-NATO Ally (MNNA):

  • A US Congressman has recently moved a Bill in the House of Representatives to revoke Pakistan’s designation as a Major Non-NATO Ally.

  • Major Non-NATO Ally status:

    • Designation as Major Non-NATO Ally status (MNNA) entitles a country to some military and economic privileges.

    • According to the US Department of State website, Major Non-NATO Ally (MNNA) status is a designation under US law that provides foreign partners with certain benefits in the areas of defense trade and security cooperation. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct.

    • While MNNA status provides military and economic privileges, it does not entail any security commitments to the designated country. Hence option 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 47

With reference to the result of Battle of Plassey, consider the following statements:

  1. Robert Clive was appointed Governor of Bengal after the battle.

  2. It led to the complete change in the form of government in Bengal.

  3. The East India Company received Diwani rights of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 47
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 between the troops of the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive and forces of Siraj-ud-Daulah, the last independent Nawab of Bengal, and his French allies. It was fought in the Plassey region of West Bengal, on the east of Bhagirathi River.

  • Statement 1 is correct: After his victory at Plassey, Clive was appointed Governor of Bengal. The Battle of Plassey had political significance for it laid the foundation of the British empire in India. It has been rightly regarded as the starting point of British rule in India. As a result of this victory, Mir Jafar became the Nawab of Bengal. He gave large sums of money plus the zamindari of 24 parganas to the English. The battle also established the military supremacy of the English in Bengal. Their main rivals, the French, were ousted.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The British did obtain a grant of territories for the maintenance of a properly equipped military force, and their prestige increased manifold. However, there was no apparent change in the form of government. Mir Jafar was appointed by the British as the new Nawab. Thus, the supreme control of affairs passed to Clive, on whose support the Mir Jafar was entirely dependent for maintaining his newly acquired position. The sovereignty of the English over Calcutta was recognised, and the English posted a Resident at the nawab’s court.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Shah Alam II issued a farman granting the diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East India Company in lieu of an annual payment of Rs 26 lakh as part of the treaty signed with Robert Clive in August 1765 as a result of Battle of Buxar (and not the Battle of Plassey). He also agreed to reside at Allahabad, to be ceded to him by the Nawab of Awadh, under the Company’s protection and make a provision of Rs 53 lakh to the Company in return for nizamat functions (military defence, police, and administration of justice) of the said provinces.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 48

Which of the following is the reason behind the occurrence of White Mutiny of 1883-84?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 48
Option b is the correct answer.

Ilbert Bill controversy is also known as the White Mutiny. It was introduced in the year 1883, under the reign of Viceroy Lord Ripon. According to this law, the Indian judges and magistrates were given the jurisdiction to try British offenders in criminal cases at the district level. However, the introduction of the Ilbert Bill led to intense opposition in Britain and from British settlers in India. The controversy made it crystal clear to the educated Indians that they could not expect racial equality from the present regime. This became evident when Lord Ripon ultimately succumbed to pressure and ultimately withdrew the bill.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 49

Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the proposals of ‘Cripps Mission’ of 1942?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 49
Option c is the correct answer.
  • In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war. Stafford Cripps was a left-wing Labourite, the leader of the House of Commons and a member of the British War Cabinet who had actively supported the Indian national movement.

  • Statement a, b and d are correct: The main proposals of the Cripps mission were as follows:

    • After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution. Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.

    • The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions: (i) any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union, and (ii) the new constitution making body and the British government would negotiate a treaty to affect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.

    • In the meantime, defence of India would remain in British hands and the governor-general’s powers would remain intact. Statement c is incorrect: The Cripps Mission did not propose a separate Union of India and Pakistan. It proposed an Indian Union with a dominion status; it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 50

With reference to the Mansabdari system, consider the following statements:

  1. Sawar determined the mansabdar's personal pay and his rank in the organisation.

  2. Zat determined the number of horses and horsemen to be maintained by the mansabdar.

  3. Jama-dami indicated the assessed income of various areas.

  4. The payment to mansabdars was also made by assigning them the jagirs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 50
Option d is the correct answer.
  • The mansabdars were an integral part of the Mughal bureaucracy and held the important offices of wazir, bakshi, faujdar and the subadar, etc. They were appointed in all government departments except the judiciary.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Zat (and not sawar) determined the mansabdar's personal pay (talab-khassa) and his rank in the organisation. Zat placed the mansabdar in the appropriate position among the officials of the state and, accordingly, the salary of the mansabdar was determined.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Sawar (and not Zat) determined the number of horses and horsemen to be maintained by the mansabdar and, accordingly, the amount he would receive for his contingent (tabinan). Under Akbar, for the maintenance of his contingent, the mansabdar was paid at the average rate of Rs 240 per annum per sawar. Later, in the time of Jahangir it was reduced to Rs 200 per annum. The mansabdar was allowed to retain 5% of the total salary bill of the sawars in order to meet various contingent expenses.

  • Statement 3 is correct: For purposes of assigning jagirs to mansabdars, the revenue department had to maintain a register indicating the assessed income (jama) of various areas. The account, however, was not indicated in rupees but in dams which was calculated at the rate of 40 dams to a rupee. This document was called the jama-dami or assessed income based on dams.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Although the salaries of the mansabdars were stated in rupees, they were generally not paid in cash, but by assigning them a jagir. Mansabdars preferred a jagir because cash payments were likely to be delayed and sometimes entailed a lot of harassment. Also, control over land was a mark of social prestige. Thus, the Mughals bureaucratized the nobility by devising a careful scale of gradations and laying down meticulous rules of business.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 51

Consider the following statements with respect to the endangered language:

  1. According to UNESCO, a language is considered potentially endangered if it is spoken by less than 10,000 people.

  2. From 1971 onwards, the Census is counting only those languages that have more than 10,000 speakers.

  3. The government of India defines a language as one that is marked by a script.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 51
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: According to UNESCO, any language that is spoken by less than 10,000 people is potentially endangered.

  • Statement 2 is correct: In India, after the 1971 census, the government decided that any language spoken by less than 10,000 people need not be included in the official list of languages. Thus, only languages that have more than 10,000 speakers will be counted. It resulted in a decline in the list of languages to 108 languages in the 1971 Census, as against 1,652 a decade ago.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Government of India currently defines a language as one that is marked by a script. Thus, effectively neutering oral languages. India’s official number of languages, 122, is far lower than the 780 counted by the People’s Linguistic Survey of India (along with a further 100 suspected to exist). This discrepancy is caused primarily because the government doesn’t recognise any language with less than 10,000 speakers. Of the 197 endangered languages, only Boro and Meithei have official status in India, as they have a writing system.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 17 - Question 52

Consider the following statements with respect to SFURTI:

  1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises to promote Cluster development.

  2. Non-Government Organizations (NGOs) are beneficiaries of the scheme.

  3. The fund from the scheme can be utilized for brand-building and promotion campaigns of industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?