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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 1

How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam dances?

  1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatnatyam.

  2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatnatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 1
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Kuchipudi is unique among the Indian classical dance styles. It uses fast rhythmic footwork and sculpturesque body movements. Stylised mime, using hand gestures and subtle facial expression, is combined with more realistic acting, occasionally including dialogues spoken by the dancers. Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest forms of classical dance that originated in Tamil Nadu. Bharatnatyam dance is known to be ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance. In this dance, dancers do not speak dialogues.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The "Tarangam" is a unique feature of Kuchipudi. In this, a dancer dances on the edge of a brass plate, matching to the rhythm of music. Sometimes, dancers also balance a pot of water on the head. Tarangam is not a feature of Bharatanatyam.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 2

With reference to practice of ‘Buta Kola’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a ritual dance performance in which local spirits or deities are worshipped.

  2. It is performed by both men and women.

  3. It is generally performed in paddy fields after the winter crops have been harvested.

  4. Some of the Buta Kola rituals involve walking on a bed of hot coal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 2
Answer c is the correct answer.
  • Buta kola is a very popular art practised in Tulu Nādu region of Karnataka. The face is painted, wrapped in a Siri made of coconut feathers, and danced invoking the deity. The Divine Dancer gives justice to human beings and resolves disputes through the Word of God.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Bhootaradhana or Deity/spirit worship is very popular in Tulunadu region of coastal Karnataka. A ritual called nema or kola or Bhootakola is performed for ghosts/spirits/gods. Conducting Bhootakola/kola/nema has its own rules. The face is painted, wrapped in a Siri made of coconut feathers, and danced invoking the deity. The Divine Dancer gives justice to human beings and resolves disputes through the Word of God. Deity worship is the fundamental religious belief of the Tulu race.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Buta Kola is not performed by women. It is performed by male who is feared and respected in the community and is believed to give answers to people’s problems on behalf of the god.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Yakshagana involves dancing to the beat of drums in open space usually in the village paddy fields after the winter crop has been harvested. On the other hand, Buta kola is not performed specifically in paddy fields nor after winter harvest.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Some of the Bhootada Kola rituals involve walking on a bed of hot coal. Drums and music give company to the dancing and pooja rituals. By praying together during Bhootada Kola, the community seeks God’s blessing, prosperity and riddance of various problems of the community.

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 3

With reference to the SVAMITVA scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a collaborative effort of the Ministry of Rural Development and State Revenue Departments.

  2. It’s main aim is to provide pucca houses to all eligible families.

  3. It is fully financed by the Central Government.

  4. It is being implemented in the aspirational districts exclusively.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 3
Option b is the correct answer.
  • SVAMITVA (Survey of villages and mapping with improvised technology in village areas) scheme is a new initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. It aims to provide rural people with the right to document their residential properties so that they can use their property for economic purposes.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The SVAMITVA scheme is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, the state Revenue Departments, Survey of India and the state Panchayati Raj Departments. The Ministry of Rural Development is not involved in this scheme. Hence this statement is incorrect.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The main aim of the SVAMITVA scheme is to provide clear proof of ownership of property and land record cards to the owners of lands as well as all house owners in rural inhabited areas. The government scheme focussed on providing pucca houses to all rural families is PM Awas Yojana (Grameen), not the SVAMITVA yojana. Hence this statement is incorrect.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The SVAMITVA scheme is a Central Sector scheme. This means that all the expenses incurred in the implementation of this scheme are borne exclusively, 100% by the Central government. Hence this statement is correct. Remember that any scheme specified as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme generally has a component which is financed by the state government of respective states.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The SVAMITVA scheme is being implemented in all the 600+ districts, throughout the country, not exclusively in the Aspirational districts. Hence this statement is incorrect. The scheme will cover about 6.62 lakh villages in the country.

  • Knowledge Base:

1) The survey of land parcels will be done using Drone technology.

2) Some other subsidiary goals of the scheme:

a. To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.

b. Creation of accurate land records for rural planning.

c. Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer.

d. Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use.

e. To support in preparation of better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 4

“It is one of the classical dances of India from the South Indian region. It was patronised by the Vijayanagar and Golconda rulers. It was mostly performed in the village temples by groups of travelling actors. The dance recitals are often based on stories from Bhagavata Purana. Some elements of this dance form are the Tarangam and the Jal Chitra Nrityam.”

Which of the following options best matches the description given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 4
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Option a is incorrect: Mohiniattam is a classical dance of Kerala and was patronised by the ruling dynasty of erstwhile kingdom of Travancore, not Vijayanagar or Golconda. The Lasya aspect of the dance is dominant and hence it is performed mainly by female performers not male performers. Hence this option is not correct.

  • Option b is incorrect: Sattriya is a classical dance form from the state of Assam in the north east and not South India. Hence this option is not correct.

  • Option c is incorrect: Odissi is a classical dance from the state of Odisha. It was patronised by Jain king Kharavela, not the Vijayanagara rulers. Hence this option is not correct.

  • Option d is correct: Kuchipudi is a south Indian classical dance form that emerged in the Andhra region (in the Kuchipudi village in Krishna district), where it was first patronised by the Vijayanagara rulers, and later by those in Golconda. With the advent of Vaishnavism during the Bhakti movement of 16th century CE, this art form began to be practised almost exclusively by male Brahmins who were called Bhagvathalus. The dance recitals are often based on stories from Bhagavata Purana, but often have secular themes, especially Sringar Ras. Hence this option is correct.

  • Knowledge Base:

  • Other features of Kuchipudi:

1) Both Tandav and Lasya components have equal dominance in this dance form.

2) The dance may also take the role of the singer, thus making it a dance-drama performance.

3) The recital is accompanied by Carnatic music - Violin and Mridangam being the chief instruments.

4) Some important solo elements:

a. Manduka Shabdam: story of a frog.

b. Taranagam: dancer performs with their feet on edge of a brass plate while balancing a pot of water or a set of diyas on head.

c. Jala Chitra Nrityam: Dancer draws pictures on the floor with his/ her toes while dancing.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 5

Recently, ‘Gamosa’ got Geographical Indication tag. Regarding ‘Gamosa’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a handwoven cotton piece of cloth traditionally offered to elders as a mark of respect.

  2. It is traditionally manufactured by the indigenous people of Raigadh district of Maharashtra.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 5
Option a is the correct answer.
  • India having a diverse culture is home to various arts and crafts mastered by many generations over the years. Recently, Gamosa of Assam, Tandur Redgram of Telangana, RaktseyKarpo Apricot of Ladakh, Alibag White Onion of Maharashtra etc. have been given the coveted GI Tags.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Gamosa, a handwoven rectangular cotton piece of cloth with red borders and different designs and motifs, is traditionally offered to elders and guests as a mark of respect and honour by Assamese. Gamosa is a symbol of cultural identity of Assam.

  • Statements 2 is incorrect: The Gamosa or Gamusa is Body wipes or Towel, an article of significance for the indigenous people of Assam, India (not from Maharashtra).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 6

With reference to the musical instrument named Cymbals, consider the following statements:

  1. It belongs to the Solid type of musical instruments.

  2. It is widely used in the Sattriya dance.

  3. Its origin can be traced back to the Indus valley civilisation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 6
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Cymbal, is a solid type musical instrument made of metal and cloth. Cymbals are generally used in pairs; it consists of thin round plates. The most popular examples of Cymbals are Manjira, Jaltarang, Kanchtarang, Jhanj, Khartal, etc.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Drum, Cymbals (Manjira) and Flute are major musical instruments of Sattriya dance. Sattriya dance in its modern form was introduced by the Vaishnava saint Shankaradeva in the 15th century A.D in Assam. It is a devotional dance and narrates mythological stories of Lord Vishnu.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Manjira is a small brass cymbal that is generally used in temples. Archaeological excavations have dated Manjira to be as old as the Harappan civilisation. The function of these instruments is to keep rhythm and time with the song that is being sung.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 7

In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today.

Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 7
Option a is the correct answer.

Tribhanga is a ‘triple-bend position’ where the body bends in one direction at the knees, the other direction at the hips and then the other again at the shoulders and neck. Along with ‘chowk’, it is one of the basic postures of Indian classical dance ‘Odissi’.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 8

With reference to the development of substyles of Hindustani classical music, consider the following statements:

  1. Sufism played a major role in the development and spread of Ghazal.

  2. Compositions of Thumri are usually romantic or devotional in nature.

  3. Tappa is originated from the folk songs of camel riders of Punjab.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 8
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Ghazal as a poetic form originated in Persia in the tenth century. Later Ghazal developed as a sub style of Hindustani classical music, which was influenced by Sufism. Sufi mystics (a person who believes attaining insights into mysteries transcending ordinary human knowledge) played a major role in spreading Ghazal music in India and South Asia during the 12th century.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Thumri a sub style of Hindustani classical music was adopted by the Bhakti saints to connect with gods. Compositions of Thumri are either romantic or devotional in nature and the main theme being the girl’s love for Krishna. It was usually sung in a female voice. The thumri is very lyrical in its structure and presentation. Thumri is a love song and hence the textual beauty is very important. This is closely coordinated with the musical rendition. And keeping in mind its mood a thumri is usually set to ragas like Khamaj, Kaphi, Bhairavi and so on and the musical grammar is not strictly adhered to.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Tappa, a substyle of Hindustani classical music originated from the folk songs of the camel riders of Punjab known as 'dhapa', which was transformed into the Hindi Tappa. It gained legitimacy and popularity under the Mughal emperor Muhammad Shah.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 9

Which of the following theatre forms of India have been included in UNESCO'S representative list of intangible cultural heritage of humanity?

  1. Koodiyattam

  2. Karyala

  3. Mudiyettu

  4. Ramman

  5. Bhand Pather

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 9
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Option 1 is correct: Koodiyattam is a traditional performing art form from the Indian state of Kerala. It combines elements of ancient Sanskrit theatre with Koothu, an ancient performing art from the Sangam era. Kutiyattam (Koodiyattam), which dates back around 2000 years, has been designated by UNESCO as a 'Masterpiece of Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity'.

  • Option 2 is incorrect: Karyala is popular in districts of Himachal, Karyala is an impromptu folk theatre that does not need any stage. It is mostly performed during Diwali and is usually performed by a person for the deity. This theatre is a fusion of drama, versification, music, and dance. It is not included in UNESCO'S representative list of intangible cultural heritage of humanity.

  • Option 3 is correct: Mudiyettu is a traditional ritual theatre and folk-dance drama from Kerala based on the mythological tale of a battle between the goddess Kali and the demon Darika. It is a community ritual in which the entire village participates. It depicts the mythological storey of the Goddess Kali and the demon Darika in battle. It was included in the UNESCO'S List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2010.

  • Option 4 is correct: Ramman is an Indian religious event and ritual theatre that takes place in the Garhwal area. It is a Hindu community celebration held in the Saloor Dungra hamlet in the Painkhanda Valley in Uttarakhand's Chamoli district. It was included in UNESCO'S List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2009.

  • Option 5 is incorrect: Bhand Pather (Kashmir) is an age-old folk theatre having its origins in Kashmir. It is commonly held in open spaces and performed along with musical instruments like the surnai, nagada, and dhol. It is not included in UNESCO'S representative list of intangible cultural heritage of humanity.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 10

Sanskrit theatres/plays?

  1. Vidushaka is the one who questions the prevailing social norms through satire.

  2. Sutradhar is primarily responsible for costumes and makeup of the artists and the actors.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 10
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Theatre in India began as a narrative art form, which encompassed a concoction of music, dance and acting. Recitation, dance and music were integral parts of theatre. Characters in Sanskrit plays were important. They were broadly classified into three kinds which are Nayaka (Hero or the Protagonist), Nayika (Heroine) and the Vidusaka (Clown).

  • Statement 1 is correct: Vidusaka (Clown), the comic character plays a vital role in the plays. He is the noble and good-hearted, often a friend of hero. He questions the prevailing social norms through satire. The vidushaka is one who challenges social norms. He provides comic relief while simultaneously prodding us to actually think.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In Indian theatre, Sutradhar is the narrator who narrates the play and sings verses. The Sutradhar, is the stage manager and director, who enters the stage with his assistants. The time and place of the play was announced by the Sutradhar. He also gave a brief introduction of the playwright. For example, in Mahabharata, the Sutradhar of the story is Lord Krishna.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 11

With reference to the India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF), consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to support development of bankable Public Private Partnership (PPP) infra projects.

  2. It is created in the Department of Financial Services.

  3. It has an initial corpus of 100 crores.

  4. It will provide an upfront payment of 30% of project cost to the private partner in the PPP project.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 11
Option c is the correct answer.
  • The India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF) is a scheme designed to promote infrastructure development through Public Private Partnership (PPP).

  • Statement 1 is correct: The IIPDF scheme will try to promote infra projects by aiding the process of project report creation for finding various bankable and credit worthy PPP infra projects. Hence this statement is correct. In order to improve the success rate, as well as reduce overhead costs in PPP projects many activities such as feasibility study, consultancy on technical aspects, etc need to be undertaken that are time and money consuming. So, this fund will cover such costs to select PPP projects on which the government must focus and invest.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The IIPDF has been placed under the Department of Economic Affairs (not Financial Services) of the Union Ministry of Finance. Hence this statement is incorrect.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The IIPDF has been designed as a revolving fund, with an initial corpus of Rs 100 Crore. Hence this statement is correct. The initial corpus will be provided out of the budget for the Union Ministry of Finance. Thereafter it would be supplemented, should it become necessary, through budgetary support by the Ministry of Finance from time to time. As the IIPDF matures, funding from the multilateral and bilateral agencies could become available. Other interested agency(ies), as approved by DEA, including the bilateral agencies, will be permitted to join the IIPDF. Agents with conflict of interest will not be allowed to contribute to the fund.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The IIPDF will be providing costs for initial project report development work subject to certain maximum limits to the Sponsoring Authorities within the Central and State governments. This fund shall not be providing any financial assistance to the concessionaire (private partner) in the PPP. Hence this statement is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 12

“Sweet Revolution” is related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 12
  • Beekeeping is an agro-based activity which is being undertaken by farmers/ landless labourers in rural area as a part of the Integrated Farming System. Beekeeping has been useful in pollination of crops, thereby, increasing income of the farmers/beekeepers by way of increasing crop yield and providing honey and other high value beehive products, viz.; bee wax, bee pollen, propolis, royal jelly, bee venom, etc. Diversified agro climatic conditions of India provide great potential and opportunities for beekeeping/honey production and export of honey. India‟s export of honey has increased by about 110 per cent between 2013-14 to 2019-20.

  • National Beekeeping & Honey Mission (NBHM) aims for the overall promotion and development of scientific beekeeping in the country to achieve the goal of „Sweet Revolution‟ which is being implemented through National Bee Board (NBB).

So, Option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 13

Why India is called as “Pharmacy of the World”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 13
  • Indian Pharmaceutical industry ranks third in the world in pharmaceutical production by volume. During 2020-21, total pharma export US$ 24.4 Bn against the total pharma import of US$7.0Bn, thereby generating trade surplus of US$17.5 Bn. India is the largest supplier of generic medicines with a 20 percent share in the global supply. So, Option (a) is not correct.

  • Medical Research is dominated by United States followed by United Kingdom and Germany. So, Option (b) is not correct.

  • Computer software and hardware sector attract the highest FDI in India. So, Option (c) is not correct.

  • Economic Survey 2021-22 pointed out that, Although price competitiveness and good quality have enabled homegrown medicine producers to be dominant players in the world market, thereby making the country the 'Pharmacy of the World, India is significantly dependent on the import of bulk drugs that are used in the formulation of medicines. So, Option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the development of Shramana traditions in India:

  1. The first council of Jain monks and the fourth council of Buddhist monks happened simultaneously.

  2. While Buddhism divided into Mahayana and Hinayana Schools after its fourth council, Jainism divided into Shvetambaras and Digambaras after its first council.

  3. The first council of Jain monks and the third Council of Buddhist monks happened during the Mauryan rule in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 14
  • The first council of Jain monks was held in 300 BC and the fourth council of Buddhist monks was held in 72 AD. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

    • In fourth Buddhist council held in 72 AD at Kundalvana, Kasmir under the patronage of King Kanishka, there was a split in Buddhism and two sects Hinayana and Mahayana Buddhism were born.

  • In first council of Jain monks differences arose between them which led to the division of Shvetambaras and Digambaras sects. So, Statement 2 is correct.

    • First council of Jain monks held in 300 BC at Patliputra under the patronage of Mauryan King Chandragupta Maurya.

  • Third council of Buddhist monks held in 250 BC at Patliputra, under the patronage of Mauryan King Ashoka. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 15

If the lower court refuses to give a copy of the charge sheet and statements of witnesses to the accused which of the following article of the constitution is violated?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 15
Article 21 guarantees the Right to Fair Trial and Investigation. An accused is entitled to a fair investigation. Fair investigation and fair trial are concomitant to preservation of fundamental right of an accused under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. ThusIf the lower court refuses to give a copy of the charge sheet and statements of witnesses to the accused, it violates Article 21 of the Indian constitution. So, Option (c) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 16

Consider the following statements about the recognition of Indian Art and Culture:

  1. Shantinatha Charita is the only Jain literature to be registered under the UNESCO Memories of the World Programme.

  2. Buddhist Chanting of Ladakh is the only practice of Buddhism to be registered under the UNESCO List of Intangible Cultural Heritage.

  3. The Sri Harminder Sahib is the only monument of Sikhism to be recognized under UNESCO Cultural Heritage Sites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 16
  • Shantinathacharita is a text in Sanskrit written in Devanagari script. It describes the life and times of Shantinatha, the sixteenth Jain Tirthankara. This work was composed and written in the late fourteenth century 1396 C.E. (1453 Vikram Samvat). This unique manuscript contains as many as 10 images of scenes from the life of Shantinatha in the style of Jain paintings from Gujarat. It is an example of the finest expression in the art of miniature paintings in manuscripts. The ink used in the manuscript is gum lampblack and white paint made from mineral silver. The text was submitted for inclusion in the Memory of the World Register of UNESCO in 2012 by India. It was approved by UNESCO in 2013 and it is the only Jain literature to be registered under UNESCO Memories of the World Programme. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Kutiyattam, Ramlila, Ramman, Chhau Dance, Kalbelia songs and dance, Mudiyettu, Buddist chanting, Sankirtana, Traditional brass and copper craft of making utensils, Yoga and Kumbh Mela are UNESCO List of Intangible cultural heritage in India. The holy Buddhist chanting from the trans-Himalayan region of Ladakh is the only practice of Buddhism that was inscribed on the UNESCO‟s list in 2012. In every monastery and village in the region, Buddhist priests or lamas recite the teachings and philosophy of Lord Buddha in the form of hymns. The monks wear sacred masks and use special hand gestures, or mudras, that symbolize Lord Buddha. They use instruments such as drums, cymbals and trumpets to add a musical rhythm to the chanting. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Sri Harminder Sahib or Golden Temple in Amritsar, Punjab was initiated in 1585 and completed by Arjan Dev in 1604. The site has been nominated to be recognized under UNESCO Cultural Heritage Sites but its application is pending on the tentative list of UNESCO. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 17

A philosophical school of Buddhism teaches the Idea of Shunyata (sometimes called as Sunyavada), that the dharmas are empty and do not exist per se. This school was founded by Nagarjuna in the 2nd century CE and its important thinkers include Aryadeva, Buddhapalita, Bhavaviveka, Chandrakirti, and Shantideva.

Which of the following schools of Buddhism has been described above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 17
Madhyamaka is an important school in Mahayana Buddhism. The founder of this school was Nagarjuna in the 2nd century AD who developed the doctrine sunyavada which means that all is void. The name of the school is a reference to the claim made of Buddhism in general that it is a middle path (madhyamapratipad) that avoids the two extremes of eternalism – the doctrine that all things exist because of an eternal essence – and annihilationism – the doctrine that things have essences while they exist but that these essences are annihilated just when the things themselves go out of existence. Important thinkers of this include Aryadeva, Buddhapalita, Bhavaviveka, Chandrakirti, Shantideva, Jnanagarbha and Santaraksita. So, Option (b) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 18

Consider the following statements.

  1. He was born during the regime of the Vijayanagara Empire.

  2. He was a Haridasa saint and philosopher.

  3. He is known for his keertanas and ugabhoga, compositions in the Kannada language for Carnatic music.

Which one of the following personalities is described by the statements given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 18
  • Basaveshwara, colloquially known as Basavanna, was a 12th-century CE Indian statesman, philosopher, poet, social reformer, and Lingayat saint in the Shiva-focussed bhakti movement, and a Hindu Shaivite social reformer during the reign of the Kalyani/Chalukyas dynasty. So, option (a) is not correct.

  • Kanaka Dasa (1509 – 1609)was a Haridasa saint and philosopher, popularly called DaasashreshtaKanakadasa who lived during the Vijayanagara Empire. He was a renowned composer of Carnatic music, poet, reformer, and musician. He is known for his keertanas and ugabhoga and his compositions in the Kannada language for Carnatic music. Like other Haridasas, he used simple Kannada language and native metrical forms for his compositions. So, option (b) is correct.

  • Alluri Sitarama Raju (4 July 1897 – 7 May 1924), was an Indian revolutionary who waged an armed campaign against British colonial rule in India. Born in present-day Andhra, he became involved in anti-British activities in response to the 1882 Madras Forest Act, which effectively restricted the free movement of Adivasis (tribal communities) in their forest habitats and prevented them from practicing a traditional form of agriculture known as podu. So, option (c) is not correct.

  • TallapakaAnnamacharya (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503), also popularly known as Annamayya, was a 15th-century Hindu saint (not a Haridas saint) and the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the Venkateshwara, a form of Vishnu. The musical form of the keertana songs that he composed, which are still popular among Carnatic musicconcert artists, has strongly influenced the structure of Carnatic music compositions. So, option (d) is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding a kind of painting.

  1. They are produced by village women using vegetable colours with a few earthen colours and finished in black lines on cow dung treated paper.

  2. These pictures tell tales, especially about Sita‟s exile, and Ram-Laxman‟s Forest life.

  3. Tulsi, the holy plant, also is to be found in these paintings.

Which one of the following paintings is described by the statements given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 19
  • Mithila painting also known as Madhubani folk art is the traditional art of the Mithila region of Bihar. They are produced by village women using vegetable colors with few earthen colors and finished in black lines on cow dung treated paper.

  • These pictures tell tales especially about Sita‟s exile, Ram-Laxman‟s forest life, or depict the images of Lakshmi, Ganesha, Hanuman and others from Hindu mythology. Apart from these women also paint celestial subjects like sun and moon.

  • Tulsi, the holy plant also is to be found in these paintings. They also show court scenes, weddings, and social happenings. Drawings in Madhubani pictures are very conceptual.

So, option (c) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 20

With reference to Hybrid immunity, consider the following statements:

  1. It is gained only if an individual gets a natural infection after a COVID-19 vaccine.

  2. It provides better immunity as compared to the immunity gained after the vaccination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 20
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Hybrid immunity is defined as the immune protection in individuals who have had one or more doses of a COVID-19 vaccine and experienced at least one SARS-CoV-2 infection ‘before or after’ the initiation of vaccination.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Getting a natural infection before or after the vaccination provides better protection than vaccines alone because it prepares the body against the entire virus, rather than just the spike protein.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 21

In the Indian context, consider the following statements:

  1. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the House of the People and not to the Council of States.

  2. The House of the People has special powers with respect to the State List compared to the Council of States.

  3. President is not bound to accept the advice rendered by the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.

  4. A minimum of 5 Judges should sit for purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 21
  • According to Article 75, The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • According to Article 249, Rajya Sabha has special powers to authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State list. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters:

(a) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise.

(b) On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanador other similar instruments.

  • In the first case, the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the president. But, in the second case, the Supreme Court „must‟ tender its opinion to the president. In both the cases, the opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the president. So, Statement 3 is correct.

  • The Constitutional cases or references made by the President under Article 143 are decided by a Supreme Court Bench consisting of at least five judges. So, Statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 22

Which of the following is/are feature(s) of the Indian Judiciary?

  1. High courts have jurisdiction over cases arising under the law enacted by Parliament as well as State Legislature.

  2. The writ-jurisdiction of the High Courts cannot be invoked to control the administrative process.

  3. The tenure of the Supreme Court Judges is independent of the will of the executive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 22
  • Article 226 empowers the High courts to have jurisdiction over the law enacted by Parliament as well as State Legislature. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • There are five types of Writs- Habeas Corpus, Certorari, Prohibition Mandamus and Quo Warranto Article 32 (SC) and 226 (HC) of the constitution of India has designed for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for a judicial review of administrative actions, in the form of writs. It is a constitutional remedy available to a person to bring his complaint or grievance against any administrative action to the notice of the court. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court. However, it makes the following three provisions in this regard:

    • He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament.

    • He can resign his office by writing to the president.

    • He can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the

    • Parliament. Hence will of the executive to remove Judges is exercised through this option. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 23

A privilege motion is a notice by any member of either House of a state legislature or Parliament against

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 23
The privilege motion is moved by a member when he feels that a minister orany member has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. So, Option (c) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 24

With reference to the Indian Constitution, the subject „local government‟ is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 24
The subject “Local Government‟ is mentioned in the State List. So, the State Government can make laws on Local Government within the state. So, Option (b) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 25

Consider the following Statements:

  1. The Constitution of India has not prescribed a fixed tenure for the post of Prime Minister.

  2. The National Crisis Management Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 25
  • The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is a committee set up by the Government of India in the wake of a natural calamity for effective coordination and implementation of relief measures and operations. It isheaded by the Cabinet Secretary. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 26

With reference to the provision related to „language‟ under the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements are correct?

  1. The state legislature has the liberty to adopt more than one language as the official language of the state.

  2. The authoritative text of all bills introduced in Parliament shall be in Hindi.

  3. The Union Government has the duty to promote the spread of the Hindi language.

  4. The language used in proceedings of the High Court can be determined by State Legislature.

  5. All the proceedings of the Supreme Court of India shall be in English.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 26
  • The Constitution has declared the official language(s) of the state or Hindi or English, to be the languages for transacting business in the state legislature. The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • The Constitution has declared Hindi and English to be the languages for transacting business in the Parliament. So the authoritative text of all bills introduced in Parliament shall be in Hindi as well as in English. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • According to Article 351, It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India. So, Statement 3 is correct.

  • The governor of a state, with the previous consent of the president, can authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state, in the proceedings in the high court of the state, but not with respect to the judgements, decrees and orders passed by it. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

  • Similarly, a state legislature can prescribe the use of any language (other than English) with respect to bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations or bye-laws, but a translation of the same in the English language is to be published.

  • The constitutional provisions dealing with the language of the courts and legislation are as follows: Until Parliament provides otherwise, the following are to be in the English language only:

(a) All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every high court.

(b) The authoritative texts of all bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations and byelaws at the Central and state level. So, Statement 5 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 27

When a resolution for the impeachment of the President of India is introduced in either house of the Parliament, then it has to be passed by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 27
After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the House where it was initiated, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office from the date on which the resolution is so passed. So, Option (b) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 28

Which one of the following statements is not correct about the National Emergency?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 28
  • If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues forsix months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the Parliament may extend the normal tenure of a state legislative assembly (five years) by one year each time (for any length of time) during a national emergency, subject to a maximum period of six months after the Emergency has ceased to operate. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • The President must revoke a proclamation of Emergency if the Lok Sabha (House of People) passes a resolution disapproving its continuation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval. It is required to be passed by the Lok Sabha only. So, Statement 3 is correct.

  • The President, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister. So, Statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 29

With reference to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

  1. A person will be issued a Certificate of Identity as a „transgender‟ by the District Magistrate based on the recommendations of a District Screening Committee.

  2. The government must take steps to provide health facilities to transgender persons for sex reassignment surgeries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 29
  • The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 was introduced by the Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment, allows self-perception of gender identity. But it mandates that each person would have to be recognised as “transgender‟ on the basis of a certificate of identity issued by a district magistrate.

  • This Bill rejected the recommendation from the 2016 Standing Committee to have a screening committee to issue a certificate by the District magistrate for identifying as „Transgender‟. So Statement 1 is not correct.

  • According to the Act, the appropriate Government shall take the following measures in relation to transgender persons, namely, To set up separate human immunodeficiency virus Sero-surveillance Centres to conduct Sero-surveillance for such persons in accordance with the guidelines issued by the National AIDS Control Organisation in this behalf To provide for medical care facility including sex reassignment surgery and hormonal therapy. So Statement 2 is correct.

    • Before and after sex reassignment surgery and hormonal therapy counselling

    • Bring out a Health Manual related to sex reassignment surgery in accordance with the World Profession Association for Transgender Health guidelines

    • Review of medical curriculum and research for doctors to address their specific health issues

    • To facilitate access to transgender persons in hospitals and other healthcare institutions and centres

    • Provision for coverage of medical expenses by a comprehensive insurance scheme for Sex

    • Reassignment Surgery, hormonal therapy, laser therapy or any other health issues of transgender persons.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 30

In which year National Commission for Minorities was established?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 30
Officially, there are 6 minorities in India viz. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis and Jains. The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. The commission is made up of a Chairperson, a Vice Chairperson and five members. Unlike other bodies like NCSC and NCST, NCM has no constitutional backing or status.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 31

According to the Constitution of India, guaranteed compensation for property acquisition by the State from Private is available only for

  1. those properties acquired from minority educational institutions

  2. land under personal cultivation acquired from Citizens of India

  3. those properties acquired, vested under, and disposed of by Custodian of Enemy Property, Ministry of Home Affairs

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 31
  • Though the Fundamental Right to Property under Part III has been abolished, the Part III still carries two provisions which provide for the guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition of the private property by the state. These two cases where compensation has to be paid are:

(a) When the State acquires the property of a minority educational institution (Article 30). So, Statement 1 is correct.

(b) When the State acquires the land held by a person under his personal cultivation and the land is within the statutory ceiling limits (Article 31A). So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • The office of Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI) was established under the Enemy Property Act, 1968, which now works under the aegis of Ministry of Home Affairs.

  • The Enemy Property Act empowers the Custodian of Enemy Property for India to continue to hold such property that vests in him including the rights, title, interest and benefits arising out of such property.

  • According to the Act, the central government shall constitute the Enemy Property Disposal Committee with Additional Secretary to the Government of India as its Chairman. This Committee shall make recommendations to the Central government in relation to the enemy property as below.

    • Sale of enemy property usage of enemy property by the Ministries or Departments of the Central Government maintaining status quo in respect of enemy property transfer of enemy property any other manner in which the enemy property may be dealt with.

    • In case of occupied immovable enemy property, the Committee may recommend the percentage of valuation for its disposal to the existing occupier.

    • The Central Government shall consider the recommendations of the Committee and take its decision thereon. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 32

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

  1. The constitution of India guarantees every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

  2. Article 35 empowers the State Governments, by a law of their respective State Legislatures, to take away the wealth of temples at times of financial crunch to the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 32
  • According to Article 26, every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the following rights:

(a) Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;

(b) Right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;

(c) Right to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and

(d) Right to administer such property in accordance with law

So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Article 35 lays down the power to make laws, to give effect to certain specified fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament and not in the state legislatures. This provision ensures that there is uniformity throughout India with regard to the nature of those fundamental rights and punishment for their infringement. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • Also, Religious Institutions comes under Concurrent list and the State government can make laws to take control of the temples and their funds to make sure that the religious trusts and institutions are properly administered and ensure that the income is not misused. For Example, Dhandayuthapani Swamy Temple, Palani, in Tamil Nadu, all hundi collections are deposited in the designated temple bank account. Of this, 14 per cent goes as administration fees, 4 per cent as audit fees (Section 92), 25-40 per cent as salaries and 1-2 per cent for prayers and other festival expenses. Between 4-10 per cent of the total collections go to the „Commissioner Common Good Fund‟ (Section 97). Further, money is transferred to various popular schemes run by the government like free meals and marriages.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 33

Consider the following Tiger Reserves of India

  1. Sahayadri

  2. Dandeli-Anshi

  3. Bhadra

Identify the commonality among the tiger reserves given above.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 33
  • The core area and total area of various Tiger reserves are as follows:

    • Core area Total area

    • Sahayadri 600 sq.kms 1165 sq.kms

    • Dandeli-Anshi 814 sq.kms 1345 sq.kms

    • Bhadra 500 sq.kms 1000 sq.kms

    • So, option (a) is not correct.

  • The Sahyadri Tiger Reserve is located in the Sahyadri Ranges of the Western Ghats in Maharashtra. Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve comprises two important protected areas of the region viz., Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary and Anshi National Park, which are contiguous to each other in the Western Ghats. Bhadra Tiger Reserve is located in the Western Ghats of Karnataka, spreading over Chikmagalur (Chikmagalur, Narashimarajapura, and Tarikere Taluks) and Shimoga (Bhadravathi Taluk) districts. So, option (b) is correct.

  • In the state of Maharastra, the Sahyadri Tiger reserve is located where the other two Dandeli:

    • Anshi and Bhadra are located in the state of Karnataka. So, option (c) is not correct. The establishment of various tiger reserves such as Sahyadri in 2008, Dandeli – Anshi in 2007, and Bhadra tiger reserve in 1998. So, option (d) is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 34

Consider the following statements with reference to the Political map of Asia:

  1. Mongolia, Nepal, and Bhutan are the only countries which have only 2 land boundaries.

  2. Afghanistan has the highest number of neighbouring countries in Asia

  3. Russia and Kazakhstan are the only two contiguous transcontinental countries in Asia.

Which of the statements given above is not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 34
  • Mongolia have only two neighbouring countries and it is located between Russia to the north and China to the south. Nepal also have only two neighbouring countries Tibet of China to the north, and India in the south, east, and west. Bhutan shares its borders with only two countries i.e. India and China. Other countries of Asia bordering only two countries includes Bangladesh, Bahrain, Kuwait, Yemen. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • China has the highest number of neighboring countries in Asia that is 14 countries namely Mongolia, Kazakhstan, North Korea, Russia, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Laos, and Vietnam. Besides these 14 countries, China also shares borders with Hong Kong and Macau (18 and 1.8 kilometres long borders, respectively), which are Special Administrative Regions of China. Russia has the second highest number of neighbouring countries in Asia. Whereas Afghanistan has just 6 neighboring countries namely Pakistan, India, Iran, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • Transcontinental countries are countries with territory in two or more continents. There are contiguous transcontinental countries, non-contiguous transcontinental countries. Russia (Asia and Europe), Kazakhstan (Asia and Europe), Turkey (Asia and Europe), and Egypt (Africa and Asia) are contiguous transcontinental countries. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 35

Consider the following statements about a European country

  1. It is the second-largest country in terms of area in Europe after Russia.

  2. More than half of its size is arable land, which is the largest when compared with any other country in Europe.

  3. The country has a steppe climate, with almost half of the country having steppe grasslands.

Which of the following country is described above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 35
Ukraine is the second-largest country in terms of area in Europe after Russia followed by France, Spain, Sweden and Germany. Arable land (% of land area) in Ukraine was reported at 56.76 % in 2018, according to the World Bank collection of development indicators. Ukraine has a steppe climate, with almost half that is 48% of the country having steppe grasslands. So, Option (d) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 36

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sedimentary Basins of India

  1. All the oil and gas producing basins of India are located in India‟s plain areas.

  2. India has more number of offshore basins than onshore basins.

  3. The largest land basin of India hosts the largest oil and gas reserves of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 36
  • There are 26 sedimentary basins in India, covering a total area of 3.4 million square kilometers. The area is spread across the land, with shallow water up to 400 metersof water depth and deepwater farther up to the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). Out of the total sedimentary area, not all the oil and gas producing basins of India are located in India‟s plain areas (only 49% of the total area is located onland that is plain areas), 12% in shallow water, and 39% in the deepwater area. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • There are 16 onland basins, 7 located both onland and offshore, and 3 completely offshore. Tectonically, these basins are classified into 3 groups, based on origin rifting (intra-cratonic and peri-cratonic), plate collision, and crustal sag. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The largest land basin is to be the Cauvery sedimentary basin but the largest oil and gas reserves are found on the side Western shore. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 37

Consider the following statements:

  1. On average, the height of the trees decreases from the Equator to the Poles.

  2. On average, rainfall decreases from east to west for all continents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 37
  • On average, in hot, steamy rainforests, the tightly packed trees grow rapidly and to great heights. This is because they are all competing for sunlight. But once vegetation moves from the tropics to the poles, the rays of the sun will be less as a result the height of the trees has to decrease theoretically. But the vegetation is also controlled by dynamic factors such as jet stream, temperate cyclone, etc. Hence, even in temperate zones, rainforests are possible. Hence, the average height of trees wont uniformly decrease from Equator to Poles. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • Rainfall decreases from east to west but the pattern is not the same for all the continents, it will work like that in the Trade wind system. Due to the Westerlies wind system, the rainfall decreases from the west to east in those continents. For example, the western margins of the continents have Monsson type, China type and Laurentian type of Climates where rainfall is higher. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 38

With reference to soils, consider the following statements:

  1. The soils of the evergreen forests are more productive for cropping than the soil of the grasslands

  2. Increasing use of organic fertilizers in poorly drained soils results in wet wilt and sometimes causes blight.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 38
  • The soil in tropical rainforests (evergreen) is very poor. The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose more quickly than in other climates, thus releasing and losing its nutrients rapidly. The high volume of rain in tropical rainforests washes nutrients out of the soil more quickly than in other climates. The soil of the grasslands is porous, with rapid drainage of water. It has only a thin layer of humus which provides vegetation with nutrients. Thus the Soil in Evergreen Forest will be having very less nutrients for cropping than soils in grasslands. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • In poorly drained soil, Water is removed so slowly that the soil is wet at shallow depths periodically during the growing season or remains wet for long periods. Wet-wilt occurs when there is adequate soil moisture yet roots cannot absorb water fast enough to meet the transpiration. When excessive fertilizers are used, there is a high concentration of salt or chemical in soil water. As the concentration of water is less in soil and more in the cell so exosmosis takes place and due to the excess water loss, wilting occurs. Blight spreads by fungal spores that are carried by insects, wind, water and animals from infected plants, and then deposited on soil. The disease requires moisture to progress, so when dew or rain comes in contact with fungal spores in the soil, they reproduce. Through Organic fertilizers, Blight and wet wilt can be controlled. So Increasing use of Organic Fertilizers does not result in wet wilt or Blight in poorly drained soil. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 39

Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Polar Vortex?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 39
  • The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth‟s poles, not only in the northern hemisphere. So, Option(a) is not correct.

  • It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. However, many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward. This occurs fairly regularly during wintertime and is often associated with large outbreaks of Arctic air in the United States and portions of Europe and Asia.

  • The term "vortex" refers to the counterclockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 40

With reference to the adoption of a child in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Offering or receiving children for adoption within a family without recourse to any legal process is a punishable offence in India.

  2. At present, there is no uniform law governing adoption in India.

  3. A single parent who is above 55 years of age can adopt adolescents only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 40
  • The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act 2015 prohibits offering or receiving children outside the processes laid down in the act. Such acts are punishable by 3 to 5 years or ₹1 Lakh in fine. Adoption regulations 2017 address the need for in-family adoptions. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • India has 2 sets of adoption laws governing adoptions– one is the personal law of different religions and the other is the government‟s secular law. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Single persons with or without biological or adoptive children can adopt provided they satisfy the following:

(a) A single female can adopt a child of any gender

(b) A single male is not eligible to adopt a girl child

(c) Age of a single parent does not exceed 55 years. (So, Statement 3 is not correct.)

(d) Must have less than four children unless they are adopting a child with special needs, a hard-to-place child, a relative‟s child or a step-child.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 41

In the Indian context, consider the following statements:

  1. The Criminal Procedure Identification Act, 2022 provides the right to be forgotten after 75 years for all convicts.

  2. The use of Biological Samples ensures accuracy in criminal investigation hitherto unmatched by the identifications collected under the Identification of Prisoners Act.

  3. The Criminal Procedure Identification Act, 2022 accommodates the right to equality before the law in the case of biological sample collection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 41
  • The data collected under the new amendment can be retained by the government in digital form for up to 75 years after which it will be destroyed.So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • The Identification of Prisoners Act 1920 enables the collection of Fingerprints, footprint impressions, and photographs only. Biological samples and DNA from those samples enable faster and more accurate identification of Criminals. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • The Act makes an exception in the case of biological samples A person may refuse to give such samples unless he is arrested for an offence: (i) against a woman or a child, or (ii) that carries a minimum punishment of seven years imprisonment. The first exception is broad. For example, it could include the case of theft against a woman. Such a provision would also violate equality of law between persons who stole an item from a man and from a woman.So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 42

With reference to the transgender population, consider the following statements:

  1. The National Council for Transgender Persons has a composition such that the representatives of the transgender community are in majority in the council.

  2. The Transgender protection cell will be set up by the state governments with people selected from transgender persons only.

  3. The National Portal for Transgender Persons provides ID cards to the transgender without physical interface in the office or a medical examination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 42
  • The National Council for Transgender Persons is headed by the Union Minister for Social Justice and Union Minister of State for Social Justice and Empowerment as Chairperson and Vice Chairperson. It will have Joint Secretary level members from the Ministry of Health, Home, Minority Affairs, Education, Rural Development, Labour and Law. It will also have members from NITI Aayog, NHRC and NCW and representatives from 5 states or Union Territories on a rotational basis. It will have only 5 representatives from the Transgender Community and 5 experts from NGOs. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • There is no such provision for constituting Trans people protection cell by the State Government formed under the guidelines issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs, as per Advisory on Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 and The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules, 2020.So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Portal aims to implement the Transgender Persons Rules 2020, which enabled granting ID cards based on Self Perceived Identity only and with no physical interaction with officials. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 43

With reference to social media, consider the following statements:

  1. Only those social media intermediaries which have more than 50 lakh subscribers must enable the identification of the first originator of information within India.

  2. Under the new rules for intermediaries, hate speech has been defined as those fighting words that have the potential to derail the freedom the speech.

  3. The new rule for intermediaries empowers the government to temporarily or permanently stop only a few social media platforms instead of imposing a total internet shutdown in case of any internal disturbances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 43
  • Under the IT Rules 2021, the government notified significant social media intermediaries as those platforms having more than 50 lakh subscribers. All significant social media intermediaries are required to observe certain additional due diligence such as appointing certain personnel for compliance, enabling identification of the first originator of the information on its platform under certain conditions, and deploying technology-based measures on a best-effort basis to identify certain types of content. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Hate Speech has not been defined by any law in India till date. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Standing committee of Parliament on Communications and IT has proposed selective banning of platforms instead of total internet shutdown in the country. It was a suggestion made to the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services Rules 2017 and not to IT Rules 2021. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 44

Consider the following statements

  1. The Railway line from Jiribam in Assam -to Imphal in Manipur will be passing through Meghalaya.

  2. The Umling La Pass is the highest motorable pass in the world located in Ladakh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 44
  • The North-East Frontier Railways is constructing a 111km new broad guage Railway line between Mainpur‟s Capital Imphal and Jiribam in Assam which is about to get completed by 2023. According to the Railway Ministry, bridge number 53 in the Jiribam – Imphal New Rail Line Project has been constructed on the Barak river, which is known to be the largest river of the northeastern state Manipur. The Proposed line does notpass through Meghalaya. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • The Border Road Organisation (BRO) has inaugurated the World‟s highest motorable road which passes over Umling La in Eastern Ladakh, the mountain pass that reaches its highest altitude at 19,300 ft above sea level which is much higher than Khardung La. So, Statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 45

Consider the following statements:

  1. Coal mining is the largest single source of global anthropogenic methane (CH4) emissions.

  2. India is currently the world's fourth largest methane emitter after China, the United States and Russia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 45
  • Statement 1 is not correct: More than half of global methane emissions stem from human activities in three sectors: fossil fuels (35%), waste (20%) and agriculture(40%). Agriculture is the largest single source of global anthropogenic methane (CH4) emissions, with ruminants the dominant contributor.

  • Statement 2 is correct: India is currently the world’s fourth largest methane emitter after China, the United States and Russia. India has the world’s largest cattle population and is the second largest rice producer, the agriculture sector emits five times as much methane as the energy sector. Agriculture accounts for 61% of total methane emissions, while India’s energy sector accounts for 16.4% and waste 19.8%, as per the Global Methane Tracker 2022.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 46

With reference to domestic violence, consider the following statements:

  1. Earning woman gets more maintenance than unemployed woman if they file for maintenance under the domestic violence act.

  2. The domestic violence act is not gender-neutral and hence women can file a case only against an adult male in the household and not against adult females.

  3. Recently, the union government has allowed the states to utilise the Nirbhaya fund for the effective implementation of the domestic violence act.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 46
  • The Supreme Court has enhanced the maintenance of the wife in a domestic abuse case even though the wife was well educated and capable of earning. The act does not discriminate between Earning women and Unemployed women when it comes to seeking maintenance. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • The Supreme Court in 2016 widened the scope of the Domestic Violence Act and made it gender neutral. The court ruled that Women and Minors can also be perpetrators of Domestic Violence. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Nirbhaya Fund is administered by the Central Government and State Governments has no control over the expenses from the fund. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 47

Consider the following statements:

  1. Wetlands International is the only global not-for-profit organisation dedicated to the conservation and restoration of wetlands.

  2. Bombay Natural History Society is a pan-India wildlife research organization.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 47
  • Statement 1 is correct: Wetlands International is the only global not-for-profit organisation dedicated to the conservation and restoration of wetlands. It works through a network of offices, partners and experts to achieve goals. Most of the work is financed on a project basis by governments and private donors.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Bombay Natural History Society is a pan-India wildlife research organization, has been promoting the cause of nature conservation since 1883.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 48

Under which of the following scheme should an expectant mother register herself to avail of quality healthcare at no cost during pregnancy as well as in the postpartum period?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 48
  • Pradhan Mantri SurakshitMatritva Abhiyan provides antenatal care services to women who are in 2nd and 3rd trimester of their pregnancy Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram provides free delivery services and entitlements for new born babies up to 30 days and sick infants.

  • Surakshit Matritva Aashwaas an provides health services for pregnant women in ante natal and post partum period up to 6 months. So, Option (c) is correct.

  • LaQshya aims to improve labour room quality and maternity operation theatres in public health facilities.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 49

Which Article of Indian Constitution contains the definition of Money bills?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 49
The Article 110 of the Indian Constitution covers the definition of money bills. Money bills are introduced in Lok Sabha and generally cover the issues of receipt and expenditures of the government of India.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 50

Consider the following statements regarding the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC).

  1. It is the Atlantic branch of the ocean conveyor belt or Thermohaline circulation.

  2. It distributes heat and nutrients throughout the world‟s ocean basins.

  3. Without a proper AMOC along with the Gulf Stream, Europe will be very hot.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 50
  • The AMOC is a large system of ocean currents. It is the Atlantic branch of the ocean conveyor belt or Thermohaline circulation (THC), and distributes heat and nutrients throughout the Atlantic Ocean basins {AMOC is an Atlantic branch of thermohaline circulations. Hence, it is confined to Atlantic Ocean}. So, Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is not correct.

  • AMOC carries warm surface waters from the tropics towards the Northern Hemisphere, where it cools and sinks. It then returns to the tropics and then to the South Atlantic as a bottom current. From there it is distributed to all ocean basins via the Antarctic circumpolar current. A recent study notes that the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is losing its stability. According to the IPCC‟s Report (AR6), it is very likely that AMOC will decline over the 21st century. Gulf Stream, a part of the AMOC, is a warm current responsible for mild climate at the Eastern coast of North America as well as Europe. Without a proper AMOC and Gulf Stream, Europe will be very cold. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 51

Consider the following statements:

  1. Liquified Natural Gas (LNG) produces lower carbon emissions than coal and oil.

  2. LNG has a higher energy content per unit volume than natural gas in its gaseous form.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 51
  • Statement 1 is correct: LNG produces 40% less carbon dioxide (CO2) than coal and 30% less than oil, which makes it the cleanest of the fossil fuels. It does not emit soot, dust, or particulates and produces insignificant amounts of sulphur dioxide, mercury, and other compounds considered harmful to the earth’s atmosphere.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The volumetric energy density of LNG is approximately 2.4 times that of compressed natural gas (CNG), which makes it economical to transport natural gas by ship in the form of LNG.

    • The energy density of LNG is comparable to propane and ethanol but is only 60 percent that of diesel and 70 percent that of gasoline.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 52

With reference to batteries, consider the following statements:

  1. A Vanadium flow battery has a longer life with more charging cycles than a Lithium-Ion battery.

  2. The equalising charge is not required for Flow batteries but the Lithium-ion batteries have to be overcharged to balance voltage across all cells in the battery.

  3. Aluminium air batteries have lesser weight, longer life, and higher energy density than Lithium-Ion Batteries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 52
  • The Electrochemical reaction in Vanadium flow batteries takes place in the electrolyte solution and not in the electrodes and hence no loss in power or capacity takes place due to side reactions as observed in Conventional Batteries. Vanadium Flow Batteries incorporate Vanadium in both electrolytes eliminating battery deterioration through cross contamination. Hence Vanadium batteries have a longer life not only than Lithium batteries but also other flow batteries as well. In Lithium Batteries, during charging the lithium ions when passing through the electrolyte to the graphite layer forms a Solid Electrolyte Interface (SEI) layer which consumes about 5 percent of Lithium which reduces the battery's life span. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Overcharging lithium batteries will cause certain cells in the battery to overheat and will not spread the charge equally across cells. Flow Batteries have to be given an equalizing charge (Overcharge) to ensure the whole electrolyte is recharged. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • Aluminium Air batteries have an energy density of 8.1 KWH/Kg and Lithium Ion batteries have a maximum of 0.26 KWH/Kg. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 53

Consider the following statements about Assisted Reproductive Technology:

  1. In India, at present, the statute allows obtaining gametes from any person who has attained 18 years of age and is married.

  2. In India, the gamete of a single donor can be given to more than one commissioning couple but the donor will not have any parental rights over the child.

  3. In assistive reproductive technology, human embryos can be grown inside animals also.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 53
  • The Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) act 2021 specifies that ART banks can obtain semen from males between 21-55 years of age, and eggs from females between 23-35 years of age. An egg donor should be an “ever-married” woman with at least one live child of her own (who is at least three years old). So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • The woman can donate eggs only once in her life and not more than seven eggs can be retrieved from her. A bank cannot supply the gamete of a single donor to more than one commissioning party (i.e. couples or single women seeking services).A child born through ART will be deemed to be a biological child of the commissioning couple and will be entitled to the rights and privileges available to a natural child of the commissioning couple. A donor will not have any parental rights over the child. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • In assistive reproductive technology, human embryos can be grown inside animals also. So, Statement 3 is correct.

  • But it is not allowed in India. Under Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) act 2021,any medical geneticist, gynecologist, registered medical practitioner or any person shall not transfer a human embryo into a male person or an animal. Whoever contravenes the provisions shall be punishable with a fine or imprisonment.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 54

With reference to genetic diseases, consider the following statements:

  1. Cancer can be cured by genetically modifying the T-cells of the patient to make them competent to identify and kill the cancer cells.

  2. The Chimeric Antigen Receptor – T (CAR-T) cell-based cancer therapy can be enhanced by the use of mRNA vaccine technology.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 54
  • The New Chimeric Antigen Receptor T Cell Therapy is a new form of immunotherapy where the T Cells of the Patient are genetically engineered and made competent to identify and kill the cancer cells. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • CAR T cells therapy can effectively fight against liquid tumours like blood cancer but cannot produce effective results in the case of solid tumours like lung cancer as they cannot be effectively guided on their own. Hence use of the mRNA vaccine can enable the T Cell to identify and persist to kill the cancer cell (for even solid tumours). So, Statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 55

Consider the following statements.

  1. Lithium is a least reactive alkali metal and a powerful reducing agent.

  2. Lithium-polymer batteries offer more safety than Lithium-ion batteries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 55
  • Group 1 of the Periodic Table consists of the elements: lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, caesium and francium. They are collectively known as the alkali metals. These are so called because they form hydroxides on reaction with water which are strongly alkaline in nature. The alkali metals are strong reducing agents, lithium being the most and sodium the least powerful Because of the small size of its ion, Lithium is extensively hydrated and has very high hydration enthalpy. This high hydration enthalpy compensates for the high energy needed to remove electrons. Thus, Li has a greater tendency to lose electrons in solution than other alkali metals making it the least reactive alkali metal. The Large amount of hydration energy makes it the strongest reducing agent in spite of its highest ionisation enthalpy. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Lithium polymer batteries: They are light weight and have improved safety. However, their cost is high (30% average) as compared to lithium ion. Also, the energy density of Li-Polymer battery compared to Li-Ion Batteries is quite less. Lithium polymer batteries are pretty safe compared to Lithium-ion batteries as their electrolyte is not likely to leak. So, Statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 56

Consider the following statements about an Indian satellite

  1. It provides cloud penetration and day-night imaging capability

  2. It can be used for paddy monitoring in Kharif season and management of natural disasters

  3. It is the first all weather satellite system in India

Which of the following satellite systems of India has the foresaid capabilities?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 56
  • CARTOSAT–1 is the first Indian Remote Sensing Satellite capable of providing in-orbit stereo images. The images were used for Cartographic applications meeting the global requirements. The Cartosat–1 provided stereo pairs required for generating Digital Elevation Models, Ortho Image products, and Value-added products for various applications of Geographical Information System (GIS).So, Option (a) is not correct.

  • HysIS, the primary satellite of PSLV-C43 mission, weighing about 380 kg, is an earth observation satellite configured around ISRO‟s Mini Satellite-2 (IMS-2) bus. The primary goal of HysIS is to study the earth‟s surface in the visible, near infrared and shortwave infrared regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.So, Option (b) is not correct.

  • GISAT-1 is the first state-of-the-art agile Earth observation satellite which will be placed in aGeosynchronous Transfer Orbit by GSLV-F10 with the objective, To provide near real time imaging of large area region of interest at frequent intervals For quick monitoring of natural disasters, episodic events and any short-term events To obtain spectral signatures for agriculture, forestry, mineralogy, disaster warning, cloud properties, snow & glaciers and oceanography So, Option (c) is not correct.

  • Radar Satellite-1 (RISAT-1) is a state-of-the-art Microwave Remote Sensing Satellite carrying a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) Payload operating in C-band (5.35 GHz), which enables imaging of the surface features during both day and night under all weather conditions. Active Microwave Remote Sensing provides cloud penetration and day-night imaging capability. These unique characteristics of C-band (5.35GHz) Synthetic Aperture Radar enable applications in agriculture, particularly paddy monitoring in kharif season and management of natural disasters like flood and cyclone. It is India's first indigenous all-weather Radar Imaging Satellite. So, Option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 57

Which of the following controlled environment agriculture technology must be used when there is very high water scarcity and highly degraded soil?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 57
  • Atmoponics or fogponics is a subset of aeroponics that uses water droplets that are so small to qualify as a vapor to grow plants. In this suspension of nutrient-enriched water which consists of nutrients and oxygen is delivered to the plant roots. Therefore, this technology can be used when an area suffers from water scarcity and has poor and highly degraded soil. So, Option (a) is correct.

  • Organoponics is a system of agriculture followed in urban areas using organic gardens. This system consists of low-level concrete walls which are filled with organic matter and soil and makes use of drip irrigation which is laid on the surface of the growing media. So, Option (b) is not correct.

  • The process of growing plants in soil is called geoponics. It is the traditional system of cultivating crops that requires water and soil with nutrients. So, Option (c) is not correct.

  • Xeriscaping is a method of garden design that involves drought-tolerant plants to conserve water that is also slow-growing to reduce yard trimmings. So, Option (d) is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 58

Which of the following statements is not correct about Quantum computers?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 58
  • These are very large classical computers, often with thousands of classical CPU and GPU cores. Quantum computers are elegant machines, smaller and requiring less energy than supercomputers. So, Statement (a) is not correct and Statement (b) is correct.

  • A qubit itself isn't very useful. But it can perform an important trick like placing the quantum information it holds into a state of superposition, which represents a combination of all possible configurations of the qubit. Groups of qubits in superposition can create complex, multidimensional computational spaces. Entanglement is a quantum mechanical effect that correlates the behaviour of two separate things. When two qubits are entangled, changes to one qubit directly impact the other. Quantum algorithms leverage those relationships to find solutions to complex problems. Statement (c) is correct.

  • Qubits can represent numerous possible combinations of 1 and 0 at the same time. Statement (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 59

Which of the following works based on the principle of Centrifugation?

  1. Extraction of cream from milk

  2. Enrichment of Uranium

  3. Sludge dewatering

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 59
  • When two liquids in a container are mixed together in a high speed, the centrifugal force separates the mixture into components. Under the influence of gravitational force, substances separate according to their density. The Principle of Centrifugation hold when the density of water is greater than the density of the solvent, it sinks (sediments), but if its lighter than the solvent, it floats. Thus, the Extraction of Cream from milk works on the principle of Centrifugation as the lightly denser foam floats above the milk when mixed together at high speed. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • One of the Extraction process of Uranium uses Gas Centrifugation method to separate the Uranium isotopes by spinning a gaseous Uranium compound and hydrogen. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • A sludge dewatering centrifuge uses a fast rotation of a “cylindrical bowl” to separate wastewater liquid from solids. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 60

Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the animal species “Red Panda”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 60
  • The red panda is a small arboreal mammal found in the forests of India, Nepal, Bhutan and the northern mountains of Myanmar and southern China. It thrives best at 2,200-4,800m, in mixed deciduous and conifer forests with dense understories of bamboo. So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

  • In India, it is found in Sikkim, western Arunachal Pradesh, Darjeeling district of West Bengal and parts of Meghalaya. It is also the state animal of Sikkim. IUCN Status: Endangered So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Schedule I species of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Primarily Red Pandas are an herbivore, the name panda is said to come from the Nepali word „ponya,‟ which means bamboo or plant eating animal. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 61

Consider the following statements:

  1. Acute Flaccid Myelitis (AFM) is caused by the same type of virus that causes Poliomyelitis.

  2. Wild Poliovirus (WPV) Type 2 and Type 3 have been eradicated worldwide.

  3. Low immunization and high population density is the reason for Circulating Vaccine-Derived Poliovirus (cVDPV) infection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 61
  • Acute flaccid myelitis (AFM) is a disabling, polio-like illness mainly affecting children. The disease appears to be caused by non-polio enterovirus infection. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • There are three types of wild polio virus:

    • wild polio virus type 1 (WPV1)

    • wild polio virus type 2 (WPV2)

    • wild polio virus type 3 (WPV3)

  • WPV2 was eradicated in 2015 and WPV3 in 2019 and ongoing global efforts are taken to eradicate WPV1. Currently wild poliovirus type 1 affects two countries in Pakistan and Afghanistan. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • As per the Global Polio Eradication Initiative, Low immunisationrates, poorsanitation, high population densities are the risk factors for Circulating Vaccine-Derived Poliovirus (cVDPV) infection. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 62

Which of the following statements regarding Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on Climate Change, is/are correct?

  1. It aims at promoting integrated, holistic and balanced approaches that will assist governments in implementing their nationally determined contributions NDCs through voluntary international cooperation

  2. It could also establish a policy foundation for an emissions trading system, which could help lead to a global price on carbon.

  3. Under this mechanism, countries with low emissions would be allowed to sell their exceeding allowance to larger emitters, with an overall cap on greenhouse gas emissions, ensuring their net reduction.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 62
  • The Conference of Parties (CoP26) held in Glasgow, rules under the Article 6 of Paris Agreement on Climate Change finalized three key sub-articles 6.2, 6.4 and 6.8. Article 6 says, Parties recognize that some Parties choose to pursue voluntary cooperation in the implementation of their nationally determined contributions to allow for higher ambition in their mitigation and adaptation actions and to promote sustainable development and environmental integrity. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Article 6.4 establishes a central UN mechanism to trade credits from emissions reductions generated through specific projects which replaces the old Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) which was created under Kyoto Protocol.So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Article 6.2 gives an accounting framework for international cooperation and allows for the transfer of carbon credits between countries internationally.So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 63

In which case, Supreme Court held that Preamble is integral part of the constitution?