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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle):

  1. GSLV is designed primarily to deliver the earth-observation and remote-sensing satellites.

  2. PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and second stages using solid rocket motors and the third and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

  3. GSLV MK-II is a three-stage vehicle with the first stage using a solid rocket motor, the second stage using liquid fuel, and the third stage having a cryogenic engine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 1
  • Both PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) are the satellite-launch vehicles (rockets) developed by ISRO. PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the ―earth-observation‖ or ―remote-sensing‖ satellites with a lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • The remote sensing satellites orbit the earth from pole to pole (at about 98 deg orbital-plane inclination). An orbit is called sun-synchronous when the angle between the line joining the center of the Earth and the satellite and the Sun is constant throughout the orbit. Due to their sun-synchronism nature, these orbits are also referred to as ―Low Earth Orbit (LEO) which enables the on-board camera to take images of the earth under the same sun-illumination conditions during each of the repeated visits, the satellite makes over the same area on the ground thus making the satellite useful for earth resources monitoring. Apart from launching the remote sensing satellites to Sun-synchronous polar orbits, the PSLV is also used to launch the satellites of lower lift-off mass of up to about 1400 Kg to the elliptical Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. It also uses strap-on motors to augment the thrust provided by the first stage, and depending on the number of these strap-on boosters, the PSLV is classified into various versions like core-alone version (PSLV-CA), PSLV-G, or PSLV-XL variants. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication satellites to the highly elliptical (typically 250 x 36000 Km) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). The satellite in GTO is further raised to its final destination, viz., Geosynchronous Earth orbit (GEO) of about 36000 Km altitude (and zero deg inclination on the equatorial plane) by firing its in-built on-board engines. Due to their geosynchronous nature, the satellites in these orbits appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth, thus avoiding the need for a tracking ground antenna and hence are useful for the communication applications. GSLV Mk-II has the capability to launch satellites of lift-off mass of up to 2,500 kg to the GTO and satellites of up to 5,000 kg lift-off mass to the LEO. GSLV MK-II is a three-stage vehicle with the first stage using a solid rocket motor, second stage using Liquid fuel, and the third stage, called Cryogenic Upper Stage, using a cryogenic engine. Hence statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 2

Which of the following are components of Metaverse?

  1. Augmented Reality

  2. Virtual Reality

  3. Blockchain

  4. 5G

  5. 3D Modelling

  6. Edge Computing

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 2
  • What Is the Metaverse?

    • The metaverse is a digital reality that combines aspects of social media, online gaming, augmented reality (AR), virtual reality (VR), and cryptocurrencies (blockchain) to allow users to interact virtually.

  • AR/VR Technologies:

    • At its heart, the Metaverse is defined by its immersive experience for users, and this would not be possible without AR and VR. The Metaverse and VR are terms often used interchangeably, but there are some differences. The Metaverse is all about connected VR experiences. A single-player game in VR is not part of the Metaverse, but a shared meeting in VR is. In the future, the Metaverse may expand beyond VR to much more futuristic technologies.

  • 3D Modeling:

    • To be a truly immersive platform, the Metaverse needs three-dimensional environments. There are hundreds of 3D modeling tools that will be foundational for businesses looking to create a Metaverse or VR-related product or service.

  • Edge Computing:

    • Popular in commercial spaces, edge computing enables faster transfer of data with fewer delays which is necessary for high-quality immersive experiences in virtual spaces. When millions of people are having virtual experiences around the world, the cloud simply can‘t handle all of the processing power necessary to maintain the system. Instead, distributed computing can bring that processing closer to each user, making the entire experience much more fluid.

  • 5G:

    • The Metaverse is all about connecting virtual experiences, but networking with VR can use enormous amounts of data. 5G technology, which is one of the latest mobile trends, has been improving over recent years, providing the power necessary for real-time data transfers. More importantly, 5G will enable people to connect to these AR/VR experiences from anywhere, not just in their homes.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 3

With reference to the Ozone, consider the following statements:

  1. Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere.

  2. Ozone occurs in two layers of the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 3
  • Statement 1 is correct: Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere. But this “good” ozone is gradually being destroyed by man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS), including chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), halons, methyl bromide, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Ozone occurs in two layers of the atmosphere. The layer closest to the Earth’s surface is the troposphere. Here, groundlevel or “bad” ozone is an air pollutant that is harmful to breathe and it damages crops, trees and other vegetation.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Near Field Communication Technology:

  1. It is a short-range wireless connectivity technology.

  2. It transmits data through electromagnetic radio fields.

  3. It is used in contactless banking cards to perform money transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 4

Near Field Communication Technology:

  • Recently, Google Pay has launched the Tap to pay for UPI‘ feature in India, in collaboration with Pine Labs. The feature makes use of Near Field Communication (NFC) technology.

  • NFC is a short-range wireless connectivity technology that allows NFC-enabled devices to communicate with each other and transfer information quickly and easily with a single touch. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • NFC transmits data through electromagnetic radio fields, to enable communication between two devices. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • NFC-enabled devices must be either physically touching or within a few centimeters from each other for data transfer to occur. To work, both devices must contain NFC chips, as transactions take place within a very short distance.

  • Applications of NFC - NFC tech has a wide range of applications besides driving payment services like Google Wallet and Apple Pay.

  • It is used in contactless banking cards to perform money transactions or to generate contact-less tickets for public transport. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • Contactless cards and readers use NFC to secure networks and buildings, monitor inventory and sales, prevent auto theft, keep tabs on library books, and run unmanned toll booths.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding CRISPR-Cas9:

  1. CRISPR-Cas9 was adapted from a naturally occurring genome editing system that bacteria use as an immune defense.

  2. Unlike other genome editing tools, CRISPRs do not need to be paired with separate cleaving enzymes.

  3. It can help in permanently modifying genes in living cells and organisms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 5
  • What is ―CRISPR?

    • ―CRISPR (pronounced ―crisper) stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats, which are the hallmark of a bacterial defense system that forms the basis for CRISPR-Cas9 genome editing technology. In the field of genome engineering, the ―CRISPR can be programmed to target specific stretches of genetic code and to edit DNA at precise locations, as well as for other purposes, such as new diagnostic tools. With these systems, researchers can permanently modify genes in living cells and organisms and, in the future, may make it possible to correct mutations at precise locations in the human genome in order to treat genetic causes of disease. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.

  • How does the system work?

    • CRISPR ―spacer sequences are transcribed into short RNA sequences (―CRISPR RNAs or ―crRNAs) capable of guiding the system to matching sequences of DNA. When the target DNA is found, Cas9 – one of the enzymes produced by the CRISPR system – binds to the DNA and cuts it, shutting the targeted gene off. Using modified versions of Cas9, researchers can activate gene expression instead of cutting the DNA. These techniques allow researchers to study the gene‘s function. Research also suggests that CRISPR-Cas9 can be used to target and modify ―typos in the three-billion-letter sequence of the human genome in an effort to treat genetic disease.

  • How does CRISPR-Cas9 compare to other genome editing tools?

    • CRISPR-Cas9 is proving to be an efficient and customizable alternative to other existing genome editing tools. Since the CRISPR-Cas9 system itself is capable of cutting DNA strands, CRISPRs do not need to be paired with separate cleaving enzymes as other tools do. They can also easily be matched with tailor-made ―guide RNA (gRNA) sequences designed to lead them to their DNA targets. Tens of thousands of such gRNA sequences have already been created and are available to the research community. CRISPR-Cas9 can also be used to target multiple genes simultaneously, which is another advantage that sets it apart from other gene-editing tools. Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 6

Which of the following characteristics are generally observed in the dead zones of the oceans around the world?

  1. Algal Blooms

  2. Hypoxic condition

  3. Diverse coral species

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 6
  • Dead zones are low-oxygen or hypoxic, areas in the world‘s oceans and lakes. Because most organisms need oxygen to live, few organisms can survive in hypoxic conditions. That is why these areas are called dead zones.

  • Dead zones occur because of a process called eutrophication, which happens when a body of water gets too many nutrients, such as phosphorus and nitrogen. At normal levels, these nutrients feed the growth of an organism called cyanobacteria, or blue-green algae.

  • Phosphorous, nitrogen, and other nutrients increase the productivity or fertility of marine ecosystems. Organisms such as phytoplankton, algae, and seaweeds will grow quickly and excessively on the water‘s surface. This rapid development of algae and phytoplankton is called an algal bloom. Algal blooms can create dead zones beneath them. Algal blooms prevent light from penetrating the water‘s surface.

  • They also prevent oxygen from being absorbed by organisms beneath them Human activities are the main cause of these excess nutrients being washed into the ocean. For this reason, dead zones are often located near inhabited coastlines. Not all dead zones are caused by pollution. The largest dead zone in the world, the lower portion of the Black Sea, occurs naturally.

  • Oxygenated water is only found in the upper portion of the sea, where the Black Sea's waters mix with the Mediterranean Sea that flows through the shallow Bosporus strait. As dead zones are deserts of the sea they are characterized by low biodiversity and absence of flora-fauna so coral reefs' possibility to grow is very less.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 7

With reference to the „Look out Notice‟, consider the following statements:

  1. It is issued to make sure that an individual who is wanted by law enforcement agencies is not able to leave the country.

  2. It is issued by an officer, not below the rank of secretary.

  3. If a lookout notice is issued, it necessarily leads to an arrest of an individual.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 7
  • Look Out Notice:

    • A Lookout notice (LOC) is issued to make sure that an individual who is absconding or wanted by law enforcement agencies is not able to leave the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    • It is mostly used at immigration checkpoints at international airports and seaports by the immigration branch.

    • The police can approach a court asking for the restriction of a person‘s movement outside the country when a person is a suspect and the police apprehend that the person may not join the investigation at a later stage.

    • The subject of a LOC can challenge the circular and get relief from a court.

  • Who can issue a LOC?

    • A LOC can be initiated by a large number of authorized officers, including an officer not below the rank of deputy secretary, an officer not below the rank of joint secretary in the state government, a district magistrate or superintendent of police, designated officers of various law enforcing and security agencies, a designated officer of Interpol, an officer not below the rank of additional director in the Serious Fraud Investigation Office, and the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

    • Since 2018, an officer not below the rank of chairman/managing director/chief executive of any public sector bank can make a request.

    • A LOC can be modified/deleted/withdrawn by the Bureau of Immigration only on the specific request of the authorized originator on whose request the LOC was issued. Does a LOC lead to arrest? -Not necessarily. LOC is of many types. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

    • They can seek to merely stop a person against whom the circular has been issued from traveling outside the country, to prevent a person from entering the country, or inform the concerned investigation agencies.

    • The proforma of the LOC also contains a request to detain the individual at the local police/investigation agency, which generally leads to arrest.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 8

Which of the following components under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats scheme is not eligible to receive financial assistance?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 8
Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats scheme:
  • It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

  • It is aimed at wildlife conservation.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 9

Which of the following animal species are known for their annual migration?

  1. Red crabs

  2. Wildebeest

  3. Salmon

  4. Northern Cardinal

  5. Bats

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 9
  • Massive animal migrations are among nature's most inspiring events. Migration is a behavioral adaptation that helps animals survive. Some animals use landmarks like rivers and streams to find their way. Other animals may navigate by the position of the sun and stars and there are some species that may use the Earth's magnetic field to navigate. Different species migrate for different reasons.

  • Red Crabs:

    • One of the most incredible migrations is the seasonal movement of the red crab across Australia's Christmas Island. Tens of millions of red crabs call this remote island home, and every year they transform the island into a vast moving red carpet as they move en masse to the ocean to lay their eggs. During periods of peak migration, Christmas Island's roads often must be closed as the crabs blanket the landscape. Scientists have recently discovered that hormonal changes cue the crabs to undertake their arduous journey.

  • Wildebeests:

    • The most visible animal migration is the journey of Africa's wildebeest herds, which travel annually by the millions in search of greener pastures. Millions of wildebeests suddenly start migrating at the same time each year. Africa's vast savanna could not exist without migration, and maintaining these habitat corridors is essential to the survival of this area and its creatures.

  • Salmon:

    • Salmon impressively travel hundreds of miles in inland freshwaters and up to 1,000 miles in the ocean during their migration to feeding grounds. On their return to their breeding grounds, they will even ascend thousands of feet up mountain streams. They do all of that navigation primarily by using the earth's magnetic field as a compass. When they get close to spawning areas, they use their sense of smell to find their way home.

  • Northern Cardinal:

    • Northern Cardinals tend to sit low in shrubs and trees or forage on or near the ground, often in pairs. They are common at bird feeders but maybe inconspicuous away from them. They inhabited areas such as backyards, parks, woodlots, and shrubby forest edges. Northern Cardinals nest in dense tangles of shrubs and vines. They do not migrate from one place to other.

  • Bats:

    • Although not all bat species are migratory, the ones that travel seasonally do so in spectacular fashion. The world's most massive mammal migration is the annual journey of Zambia's straw-colored fruit bats. An astounding 10 million bats blanket the air during the migration, as they travel to feed on their favorite fruits in the mushitu swamp forest.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 10

Which of the following are sub-components under the Green India Mission (GIM)?

  1. Enhancing the quality of forest cover and improving ecosystem services

  2. Enhancing tree cover in Urban & Peri-urban areas

  3. Agro-Forestry and Social Forestry

  4. Restoration of wetlands

  5. Increasing the component of renewables to 500 GW

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 10
  • Green India Mission (GIM):

    • One of the 8 missions under NAPCC, implemented by MoEFCC. The mission uses both public and private lands and includes local communities in planning, decision making, monitoring, etc.

  • Aim:

    • to respond to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures, which would help:

    • enhance carbon sinks

    • adaptation of vulnerable species/ecosystems to the changing climate

    • adaptation of forest-dependent communities

  • Objectives:

    • Increase forest cover on 5 mha of forest/non-forest lands

    • Improve the quality of forest cover on another 5 mha

    • Improve ecosystem services including biodiversity, hydrological services, provisioning of fuel, fodder, timber, and NTFP

    • Forest-based livelihood income of about 3 million HHs

    • Enhance annual CO2 sequestration by 50-60 million tonnes by 2020

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 11

Which one of the following statements best describes the term „Carbon Budget‟?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 11
  • The world can emit approximately 400 billion tonnes more of carbon dioxide i.e. Remaining Carbon Budget before hitting the 1.5°C limits, as per the IPCC sixth assessment report.

  • A carbon budget is a cumulative amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions permitted over a period of time to keep within a certain temperature threshold. It is the maximum amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) that can be emitted while still having a chance to limit warming to 1.5°C or 2°C. When expressed relative to the pre-industrial period it is referred to as the Total Carbon Budget, and when expressed from a recently specified date it is referred to as the Remaining Carbon Budget. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

  • Carbon budgets are constructed on the premise that there is a near-linear relationship between rising global temperatures and the level of cumulative atmospheric CO2.

  • Global carbon budgets can be further divided into national emissions budgets so that countries can set specific climate mitigation goals.

  • Emissions budgets are relevant to climate change mitigation because they indicate a finite amount of carbon dioxide that can be emitted over time, before resulting in dangerous levels of global warming.

  • Change in global temperature is independent of the geographic location of these emissions and is largely independent of the timing of these emissions.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 12

'It is a process whereby organisms colonize and persist in novel environments, form novel associations with other species as a result of the suites of traits that they carry at the time they encounter the novel condition.'

Which of the following is being described in the above-given passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 12
  • Ecological fitting is "the process whereby organisms colonize and persist in novel environments, use novel resources or form novel associations with other species as a result of the suites of traits that they carry at the time they encounter the novel condition" The simplest form of the ecological fitting is resource tracking, in which an organism continues to exploit the same resources, but in a new host or environment. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

  • Coevolution is the process of reciprocal evolutionary change that occurs between pairs of species or among groups of species as they interact with one another. The activity of each species that participates in the interaction applies selection pressure on the others. In a predator-prey interaction, for example, the emergence of faster prey may select against individuals in the predatory species who are unable to keep pace.

  • Ecological succession is the process by which the mix of species and habitat in an area changes over time. Gradually, these communities replace one another until a ―climax community‖—like a mature forest—is reached, or until a disturbance, like a fire, occurs. Ecological succession is a fundamental concept in ecology. Exaptation is a term used in evolutionary biology to describe a trait that has been co-opted for a use other than the one for which natural selection has built it.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding the preparation, correction, and revision of electoral rolls:

  1. It is mandatory to revise electoral rolls before each Lok Sabha and state assembly elections.

  2. A person cannot be registered in the electoral roll for more than one constituency.

  3. All states have a separate voters list for their local body elections and for Parliament and Assembly elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 13
  • Electoral Rolls for Assembly and Parliamentary Constituencies:

    • The Representation of Peoples Act, 1950 (RPA), provides for the preparation, correction, and revision of Electoral rolls for both parliamentary and legislative assembly constituencies. Besides it also has prescribed manner and comes into force immediately upon its final publication in accordance with the rules made under RPA, 1950. This electoral roll:

(a) shall, unless otherwise directed by the Election Commission, be revised in the prescribed manner by reference to the qualifying date

(i) before each general election to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of a State; and

(ii) before each bye-election to fill a casual vacancy in a seat allotted to the constituency;

(b) shall be revised in any year, if such revision has been directed by the Election Commission. If the electoral roll is not revised, the validity or continued operation of the previous electoral roll shall not be affected. Besides, the Election Commission may direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency or part of a constituency at any time in such manner as it thinks fit. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Disqualifications for registration in an electoral roll:

    • The name of any person who becomes so disqualified after registration is struck off the electoral roll in which it is included. It is important to note that a person shall not be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll for more than one constituency. Furthermore, no person shall be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll for any constituency more than once. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • NOTE:

    • How many types of electoral rolls do we have in our country and why the distinction? In many states, the voters‘ list for the panchayat and municipality elections is different from the one used for Parliament and Assembly elections. The distinction stems from the fact that the supervision and conduct of elections in our country are entrusted to two constitutional authorities — the Election Commission (EC) of India and the State Election Commissions (SECs). Set up in 1950, the EC is charged with the responsibility of conducting polls to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India, and to Parliament, the state assemblies, and the legislative councils. The SECs, on the other hand, supervise municipal and panchayat elections. They are free to prepare their own electoral rolls for local body elections, and this exercise does not have to be coordinated with the EC.

  • So do all states have a separate voters list for their local body elections?

    • No, Each SEC is governed by a separate state Act. Some state laws allow the SEC to borrow and use the EC‘s voter rolls in toto for the local body elections. In others, the state commission uses the EC‘s voters list as the basis for the preparation and revision of rolls for municipality and panchayat elections. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding Cabinet Committees:

  1. They are set up by the President under the Government of India Transaction of Business Rules, 1961.

  2. Its members include only Cabinet Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 14
  • Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional bodies, which are provided by the Governments of India Transaction of Business Rules, 1961. They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition vary from time to time. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

    • They are of two types—standing and ad hoc. The former is of permanent nature while the latter is of temporary nature.

  • They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership. They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

    • They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers also act as their Chairman. But, in case the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 15

In the wake of any international conflicts or crises, what do the Directive Principles of the State Policy provide for the State (India) to do?

It shall endeavor to:

  1. maintain just and honorable relations between nations.

  2. encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

  3. foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 15
Article 51 of the Constitution of India (Part IV- Directive Principles of State Policy) deals with the promotion of international peace and security.

According to Article 51, the State shall endeavor to:

  • Promote international peace and security;

  • Maintain just and honorable relations between nations;

  • Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another; and

  • Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Hence all the statements are correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 16

With reference to the 'General Consent' to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements:

  1. Unlike the National Investigation Agency (NIA), the CBI needs the consent of the state government in whose territorial jurisdiction it has to conduct an investigation.

  2. Lack of General Consent stalls the investigation of already registered cases with the CBI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 16
  • Meghalaya has become the ninth state to withdraw the general consent to the CBI for investigation.

  • The Central Bureau of Investigation traces its origin to the Special Police Establishment (SPE) which was set up in 1941 by the Government of India. The functions of the SPE then were to investigate cases of bribery and corruption in transactions with the War & Supply Deptt. Of India during World War II.

  • The CBI derives its powers to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946 which grants the CBI power to investigate a case in Delhi, without any permission, since it is part of the Centre. However, in all the states, the CBI needs the consent of the state to investigate any case relating to that state or having jurisdiction of that state since law and order is a state subject.

  • There are two types of consent for a probe by the CBI. These are: general and specific.

    • When a state gives general consent (Section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act) to the CBI for probing a case, the agency is not required to seek fresh permission every time it enters that state in connection with an investigation or for every case.

    • When general consent is withdrawn, CBI needs to seek case-wise consent for investigation from the concerned state government. If specific consent is not granted, the CBI officials will not have the power of police personnel when they enter that state.

  • For other matters, the CBI needs the consent of the state government in whose territorial jurisdiction, the CBI has to conduct an investigation. This is unlike other central government agencies, for example, the National Investigation Agency (NIA), which by law, enjoys an all-India jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The CBI can begin a probe under certain circumstances:

    • if a state government makes a request and the Union government agrees to it, if the Supreme Court or any High Court orders the CBI to take up such investigations, or

    • if the state government issues a notification of consent under section 6 of the DSPE Act and the Union government issues notification under section 5 of the DSPE Act for an investigation.

    • The CBI can initiate suo-moto investigations only in Union Territories, under section 2 of the DSPE Act. It will have no impact on the investigation of cases already registered with CBI as old cases were registered when general consent existed. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 17

With reference to the Constitution of India, which of the following parts of the constitution comes first?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 17

The Constitution of India at present has 25 parts:

  • Part I The Union and its territory (Articles 1 to 4)

  • Part II Citizenship (Articles 5 to 11)

  • Part III Fundamental Rights ( Articles 12 to 35)

  • Part IV Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36 to 51)

  • Part IV-A Fundamental Duties (Articles 51-A)

  • Part V The Union Government (Articles 52 to 151)

  • Part VI The State Governments (Articles 152 to 237)

  • Part VII The States in Part B of the First Schedule (deleted) 238 (deleted)

  • Part VIII The Union Territories (Articles 239 to 242)

  • Part IX The Panchayats (Articles 243 to 243– 0)

  • Part IX-A The Municipalities (Articles 243-P to 243-ZG)

  • Part IX-B The Co-operative Societies (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT)

  • Part X The Scheduled and Tribal Areas (Articles 244 to 244- A)

  • Part XI Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245 to 263)

  • Part XII Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264 to 300- A)

  • Part XIII Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301 to 307)

  • Part XIV Services under the Union and the States (Articles 308 to 323)

  • Part XIV-A Tribunals (Articles 323-A to 323-B)

  • Part XV Elections (Articles 324 to 329- A)

  • Part XVI Special Provisions relating to Certain Classes (Articles 330 to 342- A)

  • Part XVII Official Language (Articles 343 to 351- A)

  • Part XVIII Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to 360)

  • Part XIX Miscellaneous (Articles 361 to 367)

  • Part XX Amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)

  • Part XXI Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions (Articles 369 to 392)

  • Part XXII Short title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi and Repeals (Articles 393 to 395)

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 18

Which of the following reflects the most appropriate meaning of “Fundamental' in Fundamental Rights, as enshrined in the Constitution of India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 18
  • The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.

  • Fundamental Rights can be amended. Any changes to the fundamental rights require a constitutional amendment that should be passed by both the Houses of Parliament. The amendment bill should be passed by a special majority of Parliament. Hence the statement in option (b) is correct, however, it is not the correct answer.

  • The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any discrimination.

  • They uphold the equality of all individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger public interest, and the unity of the nation. The statement in option (d) is independently correct, however, it is not the correct answer.

  • They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. Hence the statement in option (a) is correct however, it is not the correct answer.

  • They are fundamental‘ in the sense that they are essential for the all-around development (material, intellectual, moral, and spiritual) of individuals.

  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

  1. The pricing of Sugarcane is governed under the provisions of the Essential Commodities Act.

  2. A minimum of 50 percent as a margin of profit is fixed while deciding Minimum Support Prices for crops by Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

  3. More than 10 types of pulses are covered under the Minimum Support Prices (MSP) regime.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 19
  • Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

  • While recommending MSP, CACP considers various factors viz. cost of production, overall demand- supply situations of various crops in domestic and world markets, domestic and international prices, inter- crop price parity, terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture sector, likely effect of price policy on rest of economy and a minimum of 50 percent as the margin over cost of production. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The pricing of sugarcane is governed by the statutory provisions of the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 issued under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955. The CACP is required to pay due regard to the statutory factors listed in the Control Order, which are the cost of production of sugarcane; the availability of sugar to the consumers at a fair price; the price of sugar etc. States also announce a price called the State Advisory Price (SAP), which is usually higher than the SMP. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane. The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops.

  • The list of crops are as follows:

    • Cereals (7) - paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi

    • Pulses (5) - gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    • Oilseeds (8) - groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and nigerseed

    • Raw cotton

    • Raw jute

    • Copra

    • De-husked coconut

    • Sugarcane (Fair and remunerative price)

    • Virginia flu cured (VFC) tobacco

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding a Fish:

  1. It is Native to South Asia where it is found in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.

  2. It is a significant vertebrate model organism in scientific research as their embryo is transparent & their development is incredibly fast.

  3. According to a recent study by the Agharkar Research Institute (ARI), a protein found in the backbone of this fish can have potential therapeutic implications for regeneration in degenerated human discs.

The statements given above are related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 20

Zebrafish

  • Study by Agharkar Research Institute (ARI):

    • A protein found in the backbone of zebrafish plays a positive role in disc maintenance and promotes regeneration in aged discs between vertebrae.

    • This protein of zebrafish can have potential therapeutic implications to promote regeneration in degenerated human discs.

  • Habitat:

    • Zebrafish typically inhabit moderately flowing to stagnant clear water of quite shallow depth in streams, canals, ditches, oxbow lakes, ponds and rice paddies.

    • Native to South Asia where it is found in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.

  • Characteristics that make them significant for research:

    • Transparent Embryo:

      • Zebrafish are useful because the embryo is transparent, it develops outside of its mother, and its development from eggs to larvae happens in just three days.

    • Faster development:

      • The other main advantage is that they develop incredibly fast.

      • So from a single cell the day they’re born, they will have a head, and a tail, and a beating heart within 24 hours. By 72 hours their brains are working, and fins and trunk are twitching, and by five days old they are swimming around and they’re hunting and they’re fully viable organisms.

      • This is perfect essentially for both geneticists and developmental biologists.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 21

In the context of the Indian economy, which of the following is not a part of Gross Capital Formation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 21
  • Gross capital formation (GCF) refers to the aggregate of gross additions to fixed assets (i.e., fixed capital formation), increase in stocks of inventories ( i.e., change in stocks during a period of account), and net acquisition of valuables.

  • In simple words Gross Capital Formation is Investment. The importance of the Gross Capital formation lies in the fact that this is that part of GDP which helps in the growth of the GDP itself.

  • Broadly two types of fixed assets namely construction and machinery & equipment (including transport equipment, software, breeding stock, draught animals, dairy cattle, and the like) are covered.

  • Construction activity covers all new constructions, major alterations, and repairs of: buildings, highways, streets, afforestation projects; installation of wind energy systems, etc.,

  • Construction for military purposes (other than construction or alteration of family dwellings for military personnel), defense equipment, durable goods in the hands of the households, and an increase in the stocks of defense materials are excluded from the scope of gross capital formation. However Capital outlays of defense enterprises on ordinance and clothing factories are included. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 22

An Indian manufacturing company depends upon both domestic capital and imports to carry out its operations. In this context, which of the following factor(s) may undermine the Indian company's ability to repay loans?

  1. RBI decreasing benchmark interest rates

  2. Monetary tightening by the U.S. Federal Reserve

  3. Increase in the retail prices of fuel

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 22

Factors that may undermine a company's ability to repay loans include:

  • An increase in the retail prices of petrol and diesel would lead to an increase in the overall cost of manufacturing. Higher input costs for manufacturers and service providers would leave them in a tough spot as they would have to choose between passing on the price increases to consumers — thus risking the already tenuous demand — and hurting their profitability if they opt to absorb the impact. Indian banks could end up facing delays in the repayment of loans or possibly even having to write them off as ̳bad‘ if oil prices continue to rise. Hence option 3 is correct.

  • With the start of the U.S. Federal Reserve's calibrated monetary tightening to rein in inflation from a 40-year high in the US, the rupee is expected to weaken against the U.S. currency. With the exchange rate impacted, importers would have to shell out more rupees for the same dollar value of imports than before. Unless demand expands, allowing them to sell more volume, a weaker local currency eats into their profits, leaving them with lesser cash available to service loans. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • Rising inflation, which is already just beyond the RBI‘s 6% upper tolerance limit, may nudge the central bank into raising benchmark interest rates. This means more interest will have to be paid by companies that would likely face the prospect of lesser profit. Lowering or decreasing the benchmark interest rate may enhance the company's ability to repay loans. Hence option 1 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

  1. Price of a bond is inversely related to the market rate of interest.

  2. When the interest rate is very high people convert their money into bonds.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 23
  • An individual may hold her wealth in the form of landed property, bullion, bonds, money etc. Typically, bonds are papers bearing the promise of a future stream of monetary returns over a certain period of time. These papers are issued by governments or firms for borrowing money from the public and they are tradable in the market. Bond prices are inversely related to interest rates. When the interest rate goes up, the price of bonds falls; conversely, when the interest rate falls, the price of bonds goes up. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Different people have different expectations regarding the future movements in the market rate of interest based on their private information regarding the economy. Thus speculations regarding future movements in interest rate and bond prices give rise to the speculative demand for money. When the interest rate is very high everyone expects it to fall in future and hence anticipates capital gains from bond-holding. Hence people convert their money into bonds. Thus, speculative demand for money is low. When interest rate comes down, more and more people expect it to rise in the future and anticipate capital loss. Thus they convert their bonds into money giving rise to a high speculative demand for money. Hence speculative demand for money is inversely related to the rate of interest. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 24

The flattening of the Phillips curve is a vigorously investigated phenomenon in many advanced economies. A flattened Phillips curve implies:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 24
  • According to the historical relationship known as the Phillips curve, the strengthening of the economy is commonly associated with increasing inflation. The traditionally inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation as shown in the Phillips curve has flattened. With inflation having only modestly picked up in the past few years as the economy has become more robust, many believe the Phillips curve relationship has weakened, with the curve becoming flatter.

  • Many observers have been surprised that inflation has not risen more than it has in the past few years as the economy has continued to strengthen. According to the historical relationship known as the Phillips curve, the strengthening of the economy is commonly associated with increasing inflation.

  • With inflation having only modestly picked up in the past few years as the economy has become more robust, many believe the Phillips curve relationship has weakened. This seemingly reduced sensitivity of inflation to economic conditions is commonly referred to as a flattening of the Phillips curve. The Phillips curve relationship depends on many economic factors, and the flattening may have been caused by a change in any of these factors. One possibility is that the flattening may have been caused by a change in the way monetary policy responds to inflation and economic conditions. Another possibility is that something else fundamental has changed in the economy, for instance, the openness of the economy to foreign trade or the way firms set wages and prices.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 25

Who among the following was/were the Jain Tirthankaras?

  1. Parshvanath

  2. Sthulabhadra

  3. Neminath

  4. Bahubali

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 25
Tirthankar in Jainism is a savior who has succeeded in crossing over life‘s stream of rebirths and has made a path for others to follow. Mahavira (6th century BCE) was the last Tirthankara to appear.

The 24 Tirthankaras during this present age are:

  • Adinatha (Lord Rishabha), Ajitanath, Sambhavanath, Abhinandannath, Sumatinath, Padmaprabha, Suparshvanath, Chandraprabha, Suvidhi, Shitalnath, Shreyansa, Vasupujya, Vimala, Anantanath, Dharmanath, Shantinath, Kunthunath, Aranath, Mallinath, Muni Suvrata, Nami Natha, Neminath, Parshvanath, and Mahavira.

    • Neminath is the twenty-second Tirthankara. It is believed in Jainism that he was the cousin of Lord Krishna.

    • Parshvanath, the twenty-third Tirthankara is said to have lived two centuries before Mahavir and is believed to be born in the city of Benaras.

    • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

    • Bahubali, also called Gommateshvara, was the son of the first Tirthankara Rishabhanatha.

  • Jain pilgrimage site of Shravanabelagola near Bangalore is the colossal-sized monolithic statue of the Jain God Bahubali or Gomateshwara. Every 12 years, this piece of Jain craftsmanship is visited by thousands of pilgrims from around the world for a ceremony known as the Bahubali Mahamastakabhisheka Mahotsav.

    • Sthulabhadra was the founder of the Svetambara Jain order during a 12-year famine in the Maurya Empire in the third or fourth century BC. He was a disciple of Bhadrabahu and Sambhutavijaya. His father was Sakatala, a minister in the Nanda kingdom.

  • The Shvetambaras wore white cloth and covered their mouth with a small white cloth to avoid the killing of the smallest germ which may enter their nose while breathing. They fasted but did not believe in extreme penance and austerity.

  • Digambaras sect was led by Bhadrabahu. They did not believe in covering their body as living without clothes show detachment from worldly pleasures. They were the orthodox followers of Mahavira and kept fasts and lived an extremely austere life.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 26

Consider the following statements:

  1. Urea has 46% nitrogen (N), while Di-ammonium Phosphate (DAP) contains 46% phosphorus (P) plus 18% N.

  2. Prices of other fertilizers compared to Urea & DAP are relatively higher.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 26
  • Urea & DAP:

    • Urea has 46% nitrogen (N), while DAP contains 46% phosphorus (P) plus 18% N and MOP has 60% potassium (K). Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Urea:

    • Annual consumption of this nitrogenous fertilizer has risen from 30 to 35 million tonnes (mt) in the last five years.

  • DAP:

    • Di-ammonium phosphate or DAP is also seeing a similar phenomenon of over-application.

  • Underpricing of other fertilizers:

    • Government has fixed maximum retail prices of Urea & DAP. It has informally-fixed MRPs for NPKS complexes and muriate of potash (MOP).

    • Prices of other fertilizers compared to Urea & DAP are relatively higher. So farmers have little incentive to buy other fertilizers. Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 27

Which of the following statements concerning the Jajmani system during medieval India is/are correct?

  1. It was a complementary relationship between the dominant castes, on the one hand, and service and artisan castes on the other.

  2. The system was regulated on a hereditary basis.

  3. The artisans were forced to work on dominant caste lands without any payment which led to master-servant relations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 27
  • The post-Gupta period was characterized by certain changes in the Indian economy. Although prevailing from the pre- Gupta period one of the most striking developments from the Gupta and post- Gupta periods was the practice of making land grants. There was a commercial decline of trade which was set in during the Gupta period, and it became more pronounced by the middle of the 6th century CE. The inflow of Roman coins into India stopped and the emergence of the Arabs and the Persians as competitors in trade did not augur well for Indians. Along with the decline in International trade the long-distance internal trade also suffered owing to the weakening of links between coastal towns and the interior towns and further between towns and villages. This led to the emergence of the Jajamani system. Jajmani system was a complementary relationship between the groups of dominant peasant castes on the one hand and service and artisan castes on the other. In this system, the service castes rendered services to the land-owning peasant castes as well as the high and dominant castes. Under the Jajmani system, each caste group within a village provides certain social, religious, and economic services to the other castes members. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • For illustration, the brahmin performs various religious and ceremonial rituals like marriages, death ceremonies, etc., for other castes. In return for his services, the brahmin is paid in cash and kind. Similarly, other service castes like carpenter, blacksmith, barber, washerman, cobbler, etc., perform their caste-based occupational services for the members of the other communities. One of the distinctive aspects of the Jajmani system is that service relations between the Jajman (Producer) and the Prajim (Client) are regulated on a hereditary basis, according to the law of inheritance. Thus, the relations between the producer and the client are permanently maintained to provide continuity of service. The payment for the service is based on the barter system (in terms of grain at the harvest time), and cash is seldom paid. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The artisans were entitled to traditionally fixed shares of the produce and in some cases to a small plot of land. Different categories of artisans like leather-workers, barbers, ploughmen, and various types of smiths worked for the high castes or dominant landowning groups and were paid in kind on certain occasions or in the form of a land allotment. But the relationship between the patron-client is not like the master-servant relation. The Jajman is expected to meet the needs of his dependent and look after his family. Also, such service castes always retained some freedom to sell their goods and services. Thus, the system provides security of occupation for sustenance. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 28

Which of the following kings founded the Vikramasilavihara?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 28

Dharmapala, the second ruler of the Pala dynasty, founded the Vikramashila Vihara (or Vikramashila Mahavihara) during the late 8th or early 9th century. He was a Buddhist king who ruled the region of present-day Bihar and Bengal in India.

Vikramashila Vihara was one of the most prominent centers of learning in ancient India, along with Nalanda and Taxila. It was known for its specialized education in Tantric Buddhism and attracted students from various parts of India as well as from neighboring countries like China and Tibet. It flourished for around four centuries before being destroyed during the invasion of the region by Muslim forces in the 12th century.

Dharmapala established this institution to promote and preserve Buddhist teachings and to provide a platform for scholars to engage in intellectual discussions and debates. The high-quality education provided at Vikramashila Vihara made it famous, and it played a significant role in the development of Buddhism during that era.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 29

Consider the following statements about the coinage system during the Mauryan period:

  1. There was widespread use of metallic coins for transactions in cash.

  2. The first gold coins were issued during this period.

  3. Coins carried uniform symbols that clearly specified the issuing authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 29
  • Since the time of the 6th century BCE, there had been a continuous expansion of agriculture along with the rise in urban centres. There was an immense rise in the number of towns and technologically the Mauryan economy and state were on a sound footing. With the rise in urbanism, there was a rise in trade and commerce which further led to the widespread use of metallic money for transaction purposes. Arthashastra of Kautilya also mentions about the minting of coins.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The use of coinage had become prevalent in the 6th century BCE, but now due to the development of commerce, coins became a common occurrence. The salaries of the officials were paid in cash and metallic money was used for the transaction to be paid in cash.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: The Mauryan empire issued a lot of Punchmarked coins which were mostly silver. Karshapana or Kahapana were wild used silver coin series of this period. The coins of this period are without legends and mostly contain uniform symbols. However, the first gold coins were issued by Indo-Greeks. These were virtually identical in weight with those issued by contemporary Roman.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: Though there seems to be a central authority for the issuance of coins, however, punch-marked coins of the Mauryas do not specify issuing authority. They do carry certain symbols that have been associated with Mauryan kings that including symbols like crescent-on-arches, tree in-railing, and peacock-on-arches.

    • The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks, who established control over the north-western part of the subcontinent in the second century BCE.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 30

Air mass source regions are rarely found in the mid-latitudes because

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 30
  • Air mass source regions also tend to have relatively uniform atmospheric conditions associated with them.

  • It is critical that air masses have time to take on the characteristics of the underlying surface.

  • If the weather is very changeable (for instance, fronts moving through the region) there will not be sufficient time for the air mass to take on the temperature and humidity characteristics of the source region. For this reason, most air mass source regions tend to be either above 60 degrees of latitude (no warm air) or below 30 degrees of latitude (no cold air).

  • Air mass source regions are rarely found in the mid-latitudes (from 30 to 60 degrees N/S) because these areas tend to be "combat" zones between warm and cold air masses. In these latitudes, there is considerable cyclonic and frontal activity and due to this coming together of different air masses does not offer sufficient time for air masses to fully develop. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

  • Conditions for the formation of Air masses:

    • Source region should be extensive with gentle, divergent air circulation (slightly at high pressure).

    • Areas with high pressure but little pressure difference or pressure gradient are ideal source regions.

    • Absence of cyclonic and frontal activities.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 31

If the average air pressure at Darwin is higher than the average air pressure at Tahiti, which of the following conditions may arise?

  1. Delayed Monsoon in India

  2. Strong Walker circulation

  3. Forest fires in South East Asia

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 31
  • Normally when the tropical eastern south Pacific Ocean experiences high pressure, the tropical eastern Indian Ocean experiences low pressure. But in certain years, there is a reversal in the pressure conditions and the eastern Pacific has lower pressure in comparison to the eastern Indian Ocean. This periodic change in pressure conditions is known as the Southern Oscillation or SO. The difference in pressure over Tahiti (Pacific Ocean, 18°S/149°W) and Darwin in northern Australia (Indian Ocean, 12°30‘S/131°E) is computed to predict the intensity of the monsoons.

  • El Niño episodes have a negative Southern Oscillation Index (SOI), meaning there is lower pressure over Tahiti and higher pressure in Darwin.

    • In this phase, Walker circulation is weakened.

    • El Nino would mean below average and late monsoons.

    • Warmer waters develop over the Eastern Tropical Pacific Ocean along the coast of South America.

    • In southeast Asia, this brings drier weather and increases the risk of forest fires and smoke haze. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

  • La Niña episodes have positive SOI, meaning there is higher pressure in Tahiti and lower in Darwin. Hence when the pressure in Tahiti is higher than in Darwin, Australia La Niña, the cool episode of ENSO occurs.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 32

Three glaciers are marked in the below-given map.

Rivers emerging from the glaciers marked 1, 2, 3 respectively are

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 32
  • Bara Shigri is a glacier located in Lahaul & Spiti, Himachal Pradesh, India. It is currently extending to 27.7 kilometers (17 miles) and covers over 126.45 square kilometers. It is the largest glacier in Himachal Pradesh. Bara Shigri feeds the Chandra River which after its confluence at Tandi with the Bhaga River is known as Chandrabhaga or Chenab. It is marked as 3 in the above-given map.

  • Zemu Glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalayas. It is about 26 kilometers (16 mi) in length and is located at the base of Kangchenjunga in the Himalayan region of Sikkim, India. The Zemu Glacier drains the east side of Kanchenjunga, the world's third-highest mountain. The glacier is the source of water for numerous rivers, as it feeds them when it melts. One of them is the Teesta River. Zemu Glacier is marked as 1 in the above-given map.

  • The Pindari Glacier is a glacier found in the upper reaches of the Kumaon Himalayas, to the southeast of Nanda Devi and Nanda Kot. The glacier is about 9 kilometers long and gives rise to the Pindar River which meets the Alakananda at Karnaprayag in the Garhwal district. It is marked as 2 in the above-given map.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 33

Consider the following geographical conditions:

  1. Ambient temperature averaging 21°C to 25°C

  2. Well-drained nutrient-rich soils

  3. Presence of shade and shelter from direct sunlight

Which of the following group of crops is best suited for cultivation in the above-mentioned conditions?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 33
  • A temperature of over 21°C during the growing season of not less than eight months is ideal. Warm summers and frequent rains promote rapid leaf production and an increase in the annual number of picking. Coffee does well in hot climates where mean monthly temperatures range from 14°C to 26°C.

  • For Cocoa, an equatorial environment with high temperatures and heavy well-distributed rainfall is the best.

  • Almost all the commercially-managed tea plantations are located in the highlands and on hill slopes where the natural drainage is good. The best quality coffee usually comes from plantations at high elevations and slopes. Upland regions, especially hill slopes are not only well-drained but also cooler, and slopes which face the sea also benefit from mists and sea breezes.

  • Tea shrubs grow better when shielded from string sunlight or violent winds. It is therefore usual in plantations to plant some large trees in between the shrubs to give shade not only to tea plants but also to the pickers.

  • Coffee should be sheltered from direct sunlight, especially when the trees are young. In plantations, the coffee bushes are generally planted under the shade of taller and harder plants such as bananas. Tall leguminous plants not only provide shade but also enrich the soil with nitrogen.

  • Though cocoa requires much heat, it shuns direct sunlight. Some protection is necessary, especially when the trees are young. In cocoa plantations, small holdings, tall banana plants, or other shady trees are usually grown between the trees for this purpose.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 34

With reference to India, what is common to the places known as Pichavaram, Chorao, and Baratang?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 34
  • Mangrove forests in India are distributed across 9 states and 3 union territories. The mangrove cover in the country is 4,975 sq km. West Bengal (2,112 sq km) and Gujarat (1,177 sq km) are the top 2 states with the highest cover. Mangroves are special types of trees and shrubs that are known to thrive in saline and low oxygen conditions. These forests are critical habitats for a variety of wildlife and aquatic creatures.

  • Some of the locations of Mangrove forests are:

    • Sundarban Mangrove forests: Tucked in the Bay of Bengal on the delta of the rivers, Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna, the Sundarbans mangrove forest is widely acclaimed for its excellent biodiversity. Several endangered species like Gangetic dolphin, olive ridley turtle, saltwater crocodile, and mangrove horseshoe crab are found here.

    • Bhitarkanika Mangroves: In the delta region of Brahmani-Baitarani rivers, lies Odisha‘s Bhitarkanika Mangroves.

    • Godavari-Krishna Mangroves: Godavari Krishna mangrove forests are a part of the mangrove ecoregion that stretches along the eastern coast.

      • Pichavaram mangrove forest is located between the Vellar estuary and Coleroon estuary in the Cuddalore district of Tamil Nadu.

      • Mangroves in Goa are spread along the banks of the state‘s major rivers – Mandovi, Zuari, Sal, Tiracol, Chapora, Talpona, and Galjibag. Located in the River Mandovi is Chorao Island, home to one of the most beautiful mangrove forests in India.

    • Baratang Island Mangroves: Baratang Island lies around 100 km away from Port Blair, the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 35

In the context of the environment, the Shannon-Weiner index and Simpson's index are used to measure the

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 35
  • The measurement of species diversity provides an important preliminary assessment of overall biodiversity. There are many ways by which species diversity is measured i.e. species richness, taxonomic diversity, taxonomic uniqueness, and species-diversity indices.

    • Species richness: This is the most widely used measure of species diversity. In simple terms, it is a count of the total number of species in a given area. It gives equal weightage to all species and does not take into account the number of individuals that represent a particular species.

    • Taxonomic diversity: Taxonomic diversity is the relative abundance of a species as well as the ancestor- descendant relationships of species to each other.

    • Taxonomic uniqueness: The concept of species richness in terms of numbers alone does not take into account the fact that the more distantly related a species is from others, the greater its contribution to overall biodiversity. Their genetic make-up would, therefore, be unique and very different from their ―closest relatives. Taxonomic uniqueness measures the unique genetic makeup.

    • Species diversity indices: From an ecological point of view, species richness alone has limited value. More meaningful measures use the number of different species in a given area (species richness) as well as the relative abundance (in terms of numbers) of individuals in each species.

      • Shannon-Wiener index of diversity uses both species richness and the relative abundance of species in its computation of the diversity index. The minimum value the Shannon diversity index can take is 0. Such a number would tell us that there's no diversity - only one species is found in that habitat. There's no upper limit to the index. The maximum value occurs when all species have the same number of individuals.

      • Simpson's Diversity Index (D) is a measure of diversity that takes into account the number of species present, as well as the relative abundance of each species. As species richness and evenness increase, diversity increases. The value of D ranges between 0 and 1. With this index, 1 represents infinite diversity and 0, no diversity.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 36

Which among the following period in the demographic history of India is called the Period of population Explosion ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 36
  • Period of population Explosion (1951 to 1981) – In this period, population increased at a very fast rate. This period is called period of population explosion.

  •  

    1951 – 1961 in this period, growth rate was recorded to be 21.6%, which was highest for any decade before that.

  •  

    1961 – 1971 This period witnessed an increase in population by 10 crore 90 lakhs, growth rate was 24.8 %

  •  

    1971 – 1981 during this period, population in India rose to 68 crore 33 lakhs, Thus 13 crore 51 lakhs persons were added to the total size of India’s population.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 37

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Neutrino Observatory:

  1. The underground observatory will study the atmospheric neutrinos that are naturally produced by the interaction of cosmic rays in Earth's own atmosphere.

  2. The main detector used will be a completely indigenously developed magnetized iron calorimeter detector (ICAL).

  3. The only challenge that the observatory poses is the emission of hazardous radiations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 37
  • What is INO?

    • The India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) is a proposed pure-Science underground laboratory. Its primary goal is to study the properties and interactions of weakly interacting, naturally occurring particles, called neutrinos. There is world-wide interest in this field due to its implications for several diverse and allied fields such as particle physics, cosmology and the origin of the Universe, energy production mechanisms in the Sun and other stars, etc.

    • In fact, other neutrino labs, also underground, have been running for several years in places such as Japan, Italy, and Canada. The experiments proposed at INO will be complementary in nature to the existing ones. While many experiments have studied neutrinos from the Sun and other stars, INO will study atmospheric neutrinos that are naturally produced by the interaction of cosmic rays in Earth's own atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • What will be the detector that will be housed at INO?

    • The main detector housed in the INO laboratory will be a completely indigenously developed magnetized iron calorimeter detector (ICAL). It is a static device without moving parts. Just as a telescope observes the sky through visible light, the ICAL will observe the sky through neutrinos. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Will there be any radioactivity?

    • No, The main reason for locating the laboratory underground is to create an environment free of the radiation that abounds on the Earth‘s surface. This radiation is due to cosmic rays and natural radiation of the materials around us. Hence the experiment will neither produce any radioactivity nor can it function well where there is radiation (at the Earth‘s surface). Hence statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 38

Consider the following statements regarding negative ion technology:

  1. The technology is based on harnessing the negative ions produced during the chemical reactions in a voltaic cell.

  2. The negative air ions are proven to have a therapeutic effect on the human mind and their importance has been promoted by the Ministry of AYUSH.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 38
  • Negative ions are molecules floating in the air or atmosphere that have been charged with electricity. Negative ion technology is the incorporation of negative ions in certain products in the hope of deriving health benefits. It is not related to the voltaic cell. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Negative ions exist in nature in many places, including

    • ultraviolet (UV) rays from the sun

    • discharges of electricity in the air after a thunderclap or lightning strike

    • wherever water collides with itself like a waterfall or the ocean shore (creating the Lenard effect)

    • produced as part of the normal growth process for many plants

  • Possible Benefits of negative ions:

    • Researchers looked at 100 years of studies and found evidence that negative ions could: help regulate sleep patterns and mood reduce stress boost immune system function increase metabolism Trusted Source of carbs and fats kill or inhibit the growth of harmful bacteria, viruses, and mold species, such as E. coli, Staphylococcus aureus, and the bacterium that causes tuberculosis.

    • The presence of NAIs (Negative air ions) is credited for increasing psychological health, productivity, and overall well-being but without consistent or reliable evidence of therapeutic effects and with controversy in anti-microorganisms. It is not promoted by the Ministry of Ayush.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding the gravitational waves:

  1. Every massive object that accelerates produces gravitational waves.

  2. Stephen Hawking was the first to have predicted the existence of gravitational waves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 39
  • Gravitational waves are 'ripples' in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe. Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity. Einstein's mathematics showed that massive accelerating objects (such as neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other) would disrupt space-time in such a way that 'waves' of undulating space-time would propagate in all directions away from the source. These cosmic ripples would travel at the speed of light, carrying with them information about their origins, as well as clues to the nature of gravity itself.

  • Stephen Hawking's theorem about the area of a black hole's event horizon that has been confirmed thanks to data from the first burst of gravitational waves detected by LIGO, is only 40 years old. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • Sources and Types of Gravitational Waves:

    • Every massive object that accelerates produces gravitational waves. This includes humans, cars, airplanes etc., but the masses and accelerations of objects on Earth are far too small to make gravitational waves big enough to detect with our instruments. To find big enough gravitational waves, we have to look far outside of our own solar system. Hence statement 1 is correct.

    • It turns out that the Universe is filled with incredibly massive objects that undergo rapid accelerations that by their nature, generate gravitational waves that we can actually detect. Examples of such things are orbiting pairs of black holes and neutron stars, or massive stars blowing up at the ends of their lives.

    • Continuous gravitational waves are thought to be produced by a single spinning massive object like a neutron star. Any bumps on or imperfections in the spherical shape of this star will generate gravitational waves as it spins.

    • The next class of gravitational waves LIGO is hunting for is Compact Binary Inspiral gravitational waves. So far, all of the objects LIGO has detected fall into this category. Compact binary inspiral gravitational waves are produced by orbiting pairs of massive and dense ("compact") objects like white dwarf stars, black holes, and neutron stars. There are three subclasses of "compact binary" systems in this category of gravitational-wave generators:

      • Binary Neutron Star (BNS)

      • Binary Black Hole (BBH)

      • Neutron Star-Black Hole Binary (NSBH)

  • Each binary pair creates a unique pattern of gravitational waves, but the mechanism of wave generation is the same across all three. It is called "inspiral".

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 40

The Pithora ritualistic painting work is one of the famous cultures of which among the following tribal group of India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 40

The Pithora ritualistic painting work is a famous cultural tradition of the Bhil tribe of India. The Bhil tribe is one of the largest tribal communities in India, primarily residing in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Maharashtra.

Pithora paintings are a vital part of the Bhils' religious and cultural beliefs. These paintings are created as a symbol of devotion to their deities, particularly Pithora Baba or Pithora Dev, who is considered the protector of the community. The paintings are created on the walls of houses and temples during special occasions like marriages, births, and other celebrations.

The Pithora paintings are characterized by their vibrant colors, intricate patterns, and unique tribal motifs. They depict various elements of nature, animals, deities, and scenes from the daily lives of the Bhil people. These paintings not only serve as a medium of devotion and reverence for the Bhils but also represent their rich cultural heritage and artistic expressions. Through these paintings, the Bhil community seeks to invoke divine blessings and maintain a harmonious relationship with their natural surroundings.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 41

Consider the following statements regarding the Digital/Electronic Wallet (e-wallet):

  1. In India, e-wallet comes under the Pre-paid Payment Instruments.

  2. Only companies incorporated in India are permitted to issue wallets in India.

  3. Use of e-wallets substantially increases the cost of doing banking transactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 41
  • Digital or Electronic Wallet (e-wallet) refers to an electronic, internet-based payment system that stores financial value as well as personal identity-related information. Such electronic payment systems enable a customer to pay online for goods and services, including transferring funds to others, by using an integrated hardware and software system.

  • E-wallet is a component of the payment system. In India, e-wallet comes under the legally recognized term - ―Pre-paid Payment Instruments. Pre-paid Payment Instruments (PPIs) are defined in the RBI Guidelines issued under the Payment and Settlements Systems Act, 2005 as payment instruments that facilitate the purchase of goods and services, including funds transfer, against the value stored on such instruments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Only those companies incorporated in India and having a minimum paid-up capital of Rs. 500 lakh and a minimum positive net worth of Rs. 100 lakh at all times are permitted to issue wallets in India. In India, Banks that comply with the eligibility criteria are permitted to issue all categories of wallets. However, only those banks which have been permitted to provide Mobile Banking Transactions by the RBI are permitted to launch mobile-based wallets. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • An e-wallet comes in handy for those who do not have a bank account, net banking or credit card, especially those who may otherwise be ineligible for receiving them. Unlike savings bank accounts, they, at present, do not offer any interest for keeping money in it, but rewards the holders through cash-backs for making purchases through it. The use of e-wallets substantially reduces the cost of doing banking transactions. Also use of e-wallets helps in moving away from a cash-based economy. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 42

Which one of the following statements with respect to Goods and Services Tax (GST) is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 42
  • GST is known as the Goods and Services Tax. It is a comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based indirect tax that is levied on every value addition, which has replaced many indirect taxes in India such as the VAT, services tax, etc. It is a single domestic indirect tax law for the entire country.

    • Under the GST regime, the tax is levied at every point of sale. In the case of intra-state sales, Central GST and State GST are charged. All the inter-state sales are chargeable to the Integrated GST. Input Tax Credit (ITC) means claiming the credit of the GST paid on the purchase of Goods and Services which are used for the furtherance of business. It is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes.

    • ITC is not available under the following conditions:

      • Goods lost, stolen, destroyed, written off, gifted, or free samples.

      • Goods and Services used for non-business (personal) use.

      • Goods and/or services on which tax has been paid under the composition scheme.

      • Any tax paid due to short payment on account of fraud, suppression, mis-declaration, seizure, detention.

      • Travel benefits extended to employees on vacation such as leave or home travel concessions.

      • Membership of a club, health and fitness center.

  • Composition Scheme:

    • The Composition scheme is a very simple, hassle-free compliance scheme for small taxpayers. It is a voluntary and optional scheme.

    • A taxpayer registered under the composition scheme has to pay an amount equal to a certain fixed percentage of his annual turnover as tax to the government. This tax has to be paid on a quarterly basis. Such taxpayer does not have to maintain elaborate accounts and records and instead of two monthly statements and a return (which a normal taxpayer has to file under GST).

    • A taxpayer whose turnover is below Rs 1.5 crore presently can opt for Composition Scheme. In the case of North-Eastern states and Himachal Pradesh, the limit is presently Rs 75 lakh.

    • No Input Tax Credit can be claimed by a business /firm opting for a composition scheme. A taxable person opting to pay tax under the composition scheme is out of the input tax credit chain. He cannot take credit on his input supplies. However, when he switches over from the composition scheme to the normal scheme, eligible credit on the date of transition would be allowed.

    • There is no restriction on procuring goods from inter-state suppliers by persons opting for the composition scheme. There is no GST on fresh or pasteurized milk, buttermilk, curd, chena or paneer, and non-vegetarian items like eggs, chicken, fresh meat, and fresh or chilled fish. Fruits, vegetables, as well as unit container- packed frozen branded vegetables (uncooked or steamed) are also exempt. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 43

The Russia-Ukraine conflict has led to disruptions in the global commodity supply chain. In this context, which of the following is/are the consequence(s) on India's foreign trade?

  1. Decline in prices of imported sunflower oil

  2. Increase in import prices of semi-conductor chips

  3. Increase in the export of sugar

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 43
  • The Russia-Ukraine war has led to the disruption of global supply chains that are already constrained due to the pandemic. Further, the conflict could have the following consequences on the Indian economy:

    • India is the largest importer of edible oil in the world. India imports sunflower oil mainly from Russia and Ukraine. India has contracted 45,000 tonnes of Russian sunflower oil at a record-high price for shipments as edible oil prices in the local market surged after supplies from Ukraine stopped. Vessel loading is not possible in Ukraine and buyers are trying to secure supplies from Russia. Refiners in India bought crude sunflower oil at a record $2,150 a tonne, compared with $1,630 before Russia invaded Ukraine. Thus there is a rise in the prices of imported sunflower oil. Hence option 1 is not correct.

    • Recently, the rupee depreciated to a record low owing to high commodity prices especially high crude prices mainly on account of the Russia-Ukraine conflict. Indian sugar mills signed contracts to export 550,000 tonnes of Sugar in recent days, as surging global prices and a weak rupee made overseas sales lucrative. Indian mills have so far signed contracts to export 6.4 million tonnes of sugar in 2021-22. Hence option 3 is correct.

    • The Russia-Ukraine war could worsen the ongoing chip shortage because the warring nations control significant supplies of key raw materials that go into making semiconductors. Russia controls as much as 44% of global palladium supplies, and Ukraine produces a significant 70% of the global supply of neon -- the two key raw materials that go into making chips. Thus, the ongoing situation will raise the price of imports. Hence option 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 44

Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)?

  1. Portfolio Investment by any investor can not exceed 10% of the equity of an Indian company.

  2. Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) are included in the purview of Foreign Portfolio Investor.

  3. Foreign Portfolio Investors are permitted to invest in Government Securities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 44
  • Foreign Portfolio Investor stands for those investors who hold a short-term view of the company, in contrast to Foreign Direct Investors (FDI). FPIs generally participate through the stock markets and get in and out of a particular stock at much faster frequencies. A short-term view is associated often with a lower stake in companies. Hence, globally FPIs are defined as those who hold less than 10% of a company In India, the term ―Foreign Portfolio Investment refers to Portfolio Investment by any single investor or investor group which cannot exceed 10% of the equity of an Indian company, beyond which it will now be treated as FDI. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • As per the new FPI Regime that came into effect on 1st June 2014, Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and Foreign Venture Capital Investors (FVCI) are excluded from the purview of this definition. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • FPIs are not allowed to invest in unlisted shares. However, an exception has been made by permitting them to invest in unlisted non-convertible debentures/bonds issued by an Indian company in the infrastructure sector. FPIs are permitted to invest in Government Securities including the treasury bills issued by the Central Government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 45

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established in 1986.

  2. It has been a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 45

About Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve:

  • It is a Biosphere Reserve in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hill ranges of Southern India.

  • The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first and Oldest biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1986.

  • The reserve encompasses a total of 5,520 km² in the states of Karnataka (1,527 km²), Kerala (1,455 km²), and Tamil Nadu (2,537 km²).

  • Biodiversity: The NBR is rich in biodiversity and has over 100 species of mammals, 350 species of birds, 80 species of reptiles, 31 species of amphibians, 39 species of fish, 316 species of butterflies, and numerous other invertebrates.

    • It is also home to around 3,300 plants and 175 orchid species of which 1,232 and 8 are endemic, respectively.

  • It has been a UNESCO World Heritage Site since July 1, 2012.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 46

After a nuclear disaster, the Strontium-90 becomes an health issue of great concern. What is the major concern about this particular isotope?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 46

Strontium-90 is a “bone seeker” that exhibits biochemical behaviour similar to calcium, the next lighter Group 2 element. After entering the organism, most often by ingestion with contaminated food or water, about 70–80% of the dose gets excreted. Virtually all remaining strontium-90 is deposited in bones and bone marrow, with the remaining 1% remaining in blood and soft tissues. Its presence in bones can cause bone cancer, cancer of nearby tissues, and leukaemia.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 47

With reference to the revenue system of th ate 18th and early 19th century consider the following statements:

  1. Sir John Shore was the president of the Board of Revenue when Permanent Settlement was introduced in Bengal and Bihar.

  2. Thomas Munro is known as the “father of land settlement in northern India‟.

  3. William Bentinck was the Governor of Madras when Ryotwari System was introduced in Madras Province.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 47
  • In the introduction of the permanent settlement (1793) Sir John Shore played an important role as the President of the Board of Revenue. Hence statement 1 is correct. In 1822, Holt Mackenzie devised a revenue system known as the Mahalwari System in the North- Western Provinces of the Bengal Presidency (most of this area is now in Uttar Pradesh).

    • Under the Mahalwari system, the land revenue was collected from the farmers by the village headmen on behalf of the whole village (and not the zamindar).

    • The entire village was converted into one bigger unit called ̳Mahal‘ and was treated as one unit for the payment of land revenue.

    • However, it was R. M. Bird, the Lt. Governor of North-Western Provinces, who implemented the Mahalwari settlement, is rightly known as 'the father of land settlement in northern India'. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

      • Bird's work on land revenue was recorded in a report which he laid before the government in 1842. In the report, he explained that the work had not been confined to an accurate assessment of what could be taxed. It also included the decision and demarcation of boundaries, the defining and recording of the separate possession, rights, privileges, and liabilities of the members of those communities who hold their land in severalty, etc. In the British territories in southern India, there was a move away from the idea of Permanent Settlement.

    • A system that came to be known as the Ryotwari System, was devised by Captain Alexander Read and Sir Thomas Munro at the end of the 18th century and introduced by the latter when he was governor of Madras Presidency (1819–26). Lord William Bentinck served as Governor of Madras from 1803 to 1807 and later became Governor-general of Bengal (1828–33) and of India (1833– 35). Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    • Under the Ryotwari system, the land revenue was paid by the farmers directly to the state.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 48

By which among the following acts, the East India Company lost its monopoly of trade with China?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 48
  • On August 5, 1858, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, reformer, educationist and writer, retired from his post as special inspector of schools. While he held the post, he had established several schools. After retiring, he wrote to the then director of public instruction, Gordon Young, that he would still continue to be involved with the spread of education in the country.

    • In the same year, the British crown took over the reigns of India and within a week Somprakash came out. Vidyasagar was its founder and adviser. It was called Somprakash because it was published every Monday. The aim was to educate the Indians politically. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

    • Somprakash was published for 28 years and nine months and was edited by Dwarkanath Vidyabhushan. Annie Besant came to India on November 16, 1893 to attend the Annual Convention of the Theosophical Society in Madras and after five years she established the Central Hindu College at Benares which is one of the largest schools in India. It is also called the nucleus of the Benares Hindu University.

    • In January 1914, Besant founded a weekly newspaper Commonweal. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

    • In June, she purchased the Madras Standard and renamed it 'New India'. In 1882, G. Subramania Aiyer founded his own Tamil weekly, Swadesamitran. It was converted into a daily in 1899. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

    • It was a chronicle of the Indian National Independence movement from its inception and it was used by Subramania Aiyer to rouse the nationalistic feelings of the Tamil people.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 49

Which of the following Indians was the member of the committee appointed to help Montagu to prepare Montagu-Chelmsford Report on the basis of which the Government of India Act, 1919 was drafted?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 49
  • The Secretary of State, Montagu came to India in November 1917 and discussed his scheme of reforms with the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford, and some eminent British civil servants and Indian politicians of all shades of opinion.

    • A committee was appointed consisting of Sir William Duke, Earl of Donoughmore, Bhupendra Nath Basu and Charles Robert (The M.P. Who had put the question in the Commons in reply to which the Secretary of State had made the Declaration) which together with the Viceroy, helped Montagu to prepare the draft of a reform scheme which was published in July 1918 and is called the Montagu- Chelmsford (the Montford) Report on the basis of which the Government of India Act 1919 was drafted.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 50

In the context of India‟s struggle for freedom, which of the following statements is not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 50
  • In January 1915, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi returned to his homeland after two decades of residence abroad. On Gokhale‘s advice, Gandhiji spent a year traveling around British India, getting to know the land and its peoples.

    • His first major public appearance was at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in February 1916.

    • Among the invitees to this event were the princes and philanthropists whose donations had contributed to the founding of the BHU. Also present were important leaders of the Congress, such as Annie Besant. Compared to these dignitaries, Gandhiji was relatively unknown. He had been invited on account of his work in South Africa, rather than his status within India.

  • The Salt March was notable for at least three reasons:

    • First, it was this event that first brought Mahatma Gandhi to world attention. The march was widely covered by the European and American press.

    • Second, it was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers. The socialist activist Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay had persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the protests to men alone. Kamaladevi was herself one of the numerous women who courted arrest by breaking the salt or liquor laws.

    • Third, and perhaps most significant, it was the Salt March which forced upon the British the realization that their Raj would not last forever, and that they would have to devolve some power to the Indians. A series of ―Praja Mandals‖ were established to promote the nationalist creed in the princely states. People living in the princely states, who were subject to the rule of local aristocrats rather than the British Raj, campaigned against the feudatory rulers, and sometimes also the British administration. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. Gandhiji hoped that by coupling non-cooperation with Khilafat, India‘s two major religious communities, Hindus and Muslims, could collectively bring an end to colonial rule. These movements certainly unleashed a surge of popular action that was altogether unprecedented in colonial India.

    • Students stopped going to schools and colleges run by the government. Lawyers refused to attend court.

    • The working class went on strike in many towns and cities: according to official figures, there were 396 strikes in 1921, involving 600,000 workers and a loss of seven million workdays.

    • The countryside was seething with discontent too.

    • Hill tribes in northern Andhra violated the forest laws.

    • Farmers in Awadh did not pay taxes.

    • Peasants in Kumaun refused to carry loads for colonial officials.

    • These protest movements were sometimes carried out in defiance of the local nationalist leadership.

    • Peasants, workers, and others interpreted and acted upon the call to ―non-cooperate with the colonial rule in ways that best suited their interests, rather than conform to the dictates laid down from above.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 51

With reference to ancient India, the term “Santhagara‟ essentially denotes a/an

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 51
  • Santhagara during ancient Indian history represented a hall for the meeting of the aristocratic council. Santhagara is a pali word derived from a combination of Santha or Sanstha in Sanskrit (group) and Agara (house or assembly point). During the age of Mahajanapads, some states were not ruled by a single monarch. They were referred to as ganas or sanghas. Examples of them include Mallas, Vajjis, etc.

  • The chief feature of the republican governments was their public assembly (santhagara) attended by the representatives of the tribes and the heads of the families. In such states, the power was vested in the hands of an aristocracy comprising the heads of leading Kshatriya families. There was no single hereditary monarch. Instead, there was a chief (known variously as ganapati, ganajyestha, ganaraja, or sanghamukhya) and an aristocratic council which met in a hall called the santhagara.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 52

Consider the following statements:

  1. Abanindranath Tagore was associated with the painting 'Journey's End' and the journal of Indian Society of Oriental Art.

  2. Raja Ravi Varma completely rejected the European style of painting and took inspiration from Ajanta paintings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 52
  • During the mid 19th century, the art school set up by the British was the academic style of oil painting that used a European medium to depict Indian subject matter. They are best seen in the works produced by self-taught artist, Raja Ravi Varma of the Travancore Court in Kerala. By imitating copies of European paintings popular in Indian palaces, he mastered the style of academic realism and used it to depict scenes from popular epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.

    • With the rise of nationalism in India by the end of the nineteenth century, this academic style embraced by Raja Ravi Varma came to be looked down upon as foreign and too western to show Indian myths and history. It is amidst such nationalist thinking that the Bengal School of Art emerged in the first decade of the twentieth century. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • The first move to create a modern, nationalist school happened in Bengal. It was associated with the nationalist movement (Swadeshi) and spearheaded by Abanindranath Tagore (1871–1951). Abanindranath enjoyed the support of the British administrator and principal of the Calcutta School of Art, E. B. Havell (1861–1934).

  • Both Abanindranath and Havell were critical of colonial Art Schools and the manner in which European taste in art was being imposed on Indians.

  • Havell and Abanindranath Tagore designed a curriculum to include and encourage techniques and themes in Indian art traditions. Abanindranath‘s painting 'Journey‘s End' shows the influence of Mughal and Pahari miniatures, and his desire to create an Indian style in painting.

    • To create awareness that modern Indians could benefit from this rich past, Abanindranath was the main artist and creator of an important journal, Indian Society of Oriental Art. The new direction opened by Abanindranath was followed by many younger artists like Kshitindranath Majumdar (Rasa-Lila) and M. R. Chughtai (Radhika). Hence statement 1 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 53

Arrange the following monuments in chronological order of their completion:

  1. Gol Gumbaz

  2. Buland Darwaza

  3. Humayun's Tomb

  4. Taj Mahal

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 53
  • Gol Gumbaz is the mausoleum of Mohammed Adil Shah of the Adil Shahi Dynasty. Its construction began around 1626 and was completed in 1656. It is located in Bijapur, Karnataka.

    • The Gol Gumbaz was designed by Yaqut of Dabul and has been built using dark grey basalt. Buland Darwaza also known as "Door of victory", was completed in 1575 A.D by Mughal emperor Akbar to commemorate his victory over Gujarat. It is the main entrance to the Jama Masjid at Fatehpur Sikri.

    • Buland Darwaza is made of red and buff sandstone, decorated by white and black marble.

    • Buland Darwaza has a very famous inscription written on it. It says "The World is but a bridge, pass over but build no houses on it."

  • Humayun‘s Tomb, Delhi is the first of the grand dynastic mausoleums that were to become synonyms of Mughal architecture later. It was built in 1570, and commissioned by Humayun's first wife and chief consort, Empress Bega Begum.

  • Taj Mahal was built by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal with construction starting in 1632 AD and completed in 1648 AD, with the mosque, the guest house and the main gateway on the south. The outer courtyard and its cloisters were added subsequently and completed in 1653 AD.

    • It is considered a masterpiece of Mughal architecture. It is located on the right bank of the Yamuna River in a vast Mughal garden.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 19 - Question 54