UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 below.
Solutions of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 questions in English are available as part of our course for UPSC & UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 solutions in Hindi for UPSC course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 1

Which among the following statements can be the correct reason(s) to conclude that the authority of the Constitution is higher than that of the Parliament?

  1. The Constitution was framed before the Parliament.

  2. The Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament.

  3. Parliament derives its power from the Constitution.

Choose the correct code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 1
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not necessary that since the Constitution was framed before the Parliament then it will command more authority than Parliament.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Only Parliament has power to amend the Constitution as per the provisions of Art 368.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Parliament derives its power from the Constitution.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 2

eBsray portal has been launched for

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 2
Option (a) is the correct answer.

The eBkray platform provides navigational links to all Public Sector Banks (PSB) e-auction sites, property search feature and presents single-window access to information on properties up for e-auction, comparison of similar properties, and also contains videos and photographs of the uploaded properties.

The e-auction platform has also now been linked to the Indian Banks Auctions Mortgaged Properties Information (IB API) portal and guidelines have been made available.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 3

Consider the following:

  1. Buddha accepted the concept of rebirth but rejected the concept of Soul.

  2. Jain philosophy accepts the concept of Soul.

  3. According to Buddha, the way to achieve salvation is through following the four Noble Truths.

  4. According to Mahavira, the way to achieve salvation is through knowledge.

Which of the above statement/s is/are true?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 3
According to Buddha, the way to achieve salvation is through following the Middle Path. Mahavira stated that the way to achieve salvation goes through penances.

According to the Jaina philosophy the soul exists as every being. Buddhist Philosophy does not believe in the concept of soul.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 4

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 4

Swadeshi movement was not exclusively a political movement but also had a significant cultural aspect. The movement aimed at reviving Indian industries and promoting Indian goods and products. It also emphasized the promotion of Indian culture and the use of Indian languages. The movement encouraged the use of swadeshi (indigenous) goods and boycotting of British goods as a means of economic protest against British rule.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 5

Which of the following are features of Bank Run?

  1. Customers fear that banks will run out of reserves and therefore withdraw their deposit.

  2. Banks are at the risk of defaulting.

  3. The Central Bank of the country acts as lender of last resort.

Choose the correct Code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 5
All of the above.A bank run is a situation in which a large number of customers of a bank withdraw their deposits at the same time, usually because they fear that the bank is at risk of defaulting or running out of reserves. This can occur when there is a lack of confidence in the stability of the bank or the overall financial system.

During a bank run, banks are at risk of defaulting on their obligations, as they may not have enough reserves to meet the demand for withdrawals. In such cases, the central bank of the country may act as a lender of last resort, providing financial support to the banks to help them meet their obligations and stabilise the financial system. Therefore, all of the statements (1, 2, and 3) are features of a bank run.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 6

‘Bilateral Netting’ exercise appearing in news recently is related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 6
A process of consolidating all swap agreements between two parties into one single, or master, agreement. Bilateral netting is a process of consolidating all swap agreements between two parties into one single, or master, agreement.

This involves netting the positive and negative exposures of the parties under the various swap agreements and reducing the overall credit risk between them. Bilateral netting can be used to reduce the collateral required to be posted by the parties, as well as to reduce the operational and administrative costs associated with managing multiple swap agreements.

Bilateral netting is commonly used in the financial sector, particularly in the context of over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives such as interest rate swaps, currency swaps, and credit default swaps. It has been in the news recently due to the increasing use of bilateral netting in the context of central clearing of OTC derivatives, as well as the potential impact of regulatory changes on the use of bilateral netting.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 7

Which of the following is not possibly associated with the occurrence of El Nino Phenomena?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 7
El Niño is the warm phase of the El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and is associated with a band of warm ocean water that develops in the central and east-central equatorial Pacific, including the area off the Pacific coast of South America. Option a is correct. El Niño is accompanied by warmer waters in the Eastern Pacific ocean and comparatively cooler waters in western Pacific.

This results in high air pressure in the western Pacific and low air pressure in the eastern Pacific. Option b is correct. During El Nino, severe droughts occur in Australia, Indonesia, India and southern Africa. High air pressure in the western Pacific is the cause behind Australian droughts in El Nino conditions. Option c is correct. Increased concentration of Carbon Dioxide in the atmosphere has caused global warming and impending climate change.

IPCC in its multiple reports has found increased frequency and intensity of El Nino phenomena caused by Global warming. Option d is incorrect. The warmer waters during El Nino, have a devastating effect on marine life existing off the coast of Peru and Ecuador. Fish catches off the coast of South America are lower than in the normal year as the upwelling stops, reducing the supply of fresh nutrients to marine life.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. As per Article 20 of Constitution, a person or an entity cannot be punished retrospectively in any civil and criminal cases.

  2. As per Article 22 of the Constitution, a person arrested under preventive detention cannot be detained for more than two months unless there is a threat to internal security of any state.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 8
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 20 provides protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person. It provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of act. A person cannot be punished for ex-post-facto laws. An ex-post- facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively. However, this protection is only made for criminal offences. This does not apply for any offence done under civil domain for ex: taxation laws.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The 44th Amendment of the Constitution amended the provisions of Article 22. Article 22 after amendment provides that a person arrested under preventive detention cannot be detained for more than two months unless there is a threat to internal security of any state. The Original Constitution provided a time period of three months in place of two months. Presently, the provision of the Original Constitution is under effect and not that of the 44th Amendment.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 9

Consider the following statements about the Zero Based Budgeting (ZBB) method:

  1. It starts with the budget from the last financial year.

  2. Every activity needs to be justified.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 9
Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) is a method of budgeting in which all activities and expenses are evaluated and justified from scratch, rather than building on the previous year's budget. This means that all activities and expenses must be re-evaluated and justified, regardless of whether they were funded in the previous year's budget or not.

ZBB starts with a "zero base" and requires that every activity and expense be justified in terms of its contribution to the organisation's goals and objectives. This means that every activity needs to be justified, regardless of whether it has been funded in the past or not. Therefore, statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 10

‘Bab-el-Mandeb’ connects which of the following water bodies?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 10
Bab-el-Mandeb is a strait that connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden. It is located between the eastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula and the western coast of the Horn of Africa. The strait is an important shipping route and is used by vessels travelling between the Mediterranean Sea and the Indian Ocean.

The Red Sea is a body of water located between the Arabian Peninsula and northeastern Africa. It is connected to the Gulf of Aden through the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait. The Gulf of Aden is a body of water located to the southwest of the Arabian Peninsula, between the Arabian Sea and the Red Sea. It is connected to the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Oman. The Malaya Peninsula is a peninsula located in Southeast Asia and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

The Sumatran Island is an island located in Indonesia and is also not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait. The Persian Gulf is a body of water located in Western Asia, between the Arabian Peninsula and Iran, and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

The Gulf of Oman is a body of water located to the east of the Arabian Peninsula and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait. The Java Sea is a body of water located in Southeast Asia and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait. The Indian Ocean is a vast body of water located to the south of the Arabian Peninsula and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 11

Consider the following statements.

  1. The RBI Act provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every four years.

  2. The Monetary Policy Framework aims at setting the repo rate based on an assessment of the current and evolving macroeconomic situation.

  3. Repo rate changes transmit through the money market to the entire financial system, which in turn, influences aggregate demand.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 11
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government notified in the Official Gazette 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.

On March 31, 2021, the Central Government retained the inflation target and the tolerance band for the next 5-year period – April 1, 2021 to March 31, 2026. The amended RBI Act explicitly provides the legislative mandate to the Reserve Bank to operate the monetary policy framework of the country. The Monetary Policy Framework aims at setting the policy (repo) rate based on an assessment of the current and evolving macroeconomic situation; and modulation of liquidity conditions to anchor money market rates at or around the repo rate.

Repo rate changes transmit through the money market to the entire financial system, which, in turn, influences aggregate demand – a key determinant of inflation and growth.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding Green jobs.

  1. Jobs involving renewable energy, conservation of resources, and ensuring energy efficient means are categorised as ‘Green jobs’.

  2. They are aimed at reducing the negative environmental impact of economic sectors and furthering the process of creating a low-carbon economy.

  3. Skill Council for Green Jobs, a not-for-profit, industry-led initiative aims to help manufacturers and service providers in India’s ‘green business’ sector to realise the potential of green jobs.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 12

Explanation ‘Green jobs’ refer to a class of jobs that directly have a positive impact on the planet, and contribute to the overall environmental welfare. Jobs involving renewable energy, conservation of resources, ensuring energy efficient means are categorised under the same. In all, they’re aimed at reducing the negative environmental impact of economic sectors and furthering the process of creating a low-carbon economy. The Skill Council for Green Jobs was launched by the Union government on October 1, 2015.

Aligned to the National Skill Development Missions, it was set up to be a not-for-profit, independent, industry-led initiative. Promoted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) and the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), the council aims to help manufacturers and other service providers in India’s ‘green business’ sector to implement industry-led, collaborative skills push the country on the path to truly realising the real potential and significance of ‘green jobs’.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

  1. The change in perception and overwhelming support to join NATO came about following the Russian invasion of Ukraine.

  2. Admission of Finland to NATO would strengthen NATO’s position in the Black Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 13
  • The country, so far, has stayed away from joining such alliances as it always wanted to maintain cordial relations with its Neighbour Russia.
  • For a long time, the idea of not joining NATO or getting too close to the West was a matter of survival for the Finns.
  • However, the change in perception and overwhelming support to join NATO came about following the Russian invasion of Ukraine.
  • NATO membership would strengthen the country’s security and defence system.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 14

With reference to Fortification of rice, consider the following statements:

  1. Fortification is the addition of key vitamins and minerals to staple foods such as rice, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content.

  2. Rice can only be fortified with micronutrients.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 14

Fortification is the addition of key vitamins and minerals such as iron, iodine, zinc, Vitamin A & D to staple foods such as rice, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content. Hence, statement 1 is correct. These nutrients may or may not have been originally present in the food before processing.

According to the Food Ministry, fortification of rice is a cost-effective and complementary strategy to increase vitamin and mineral content in diets. According to FSSAI norms, 1 kg fortified rice will contain iron (28 mg-42.5 mg), folic acid (75-125 microgram) and Vitamin B-12 (0.75-1.25 microgram).

In addition, rice may also be fortified with micronutrients, singly or in combination, with zinc, Vitamin A, Vitamin B1, Vitamin B2, Vitamin B3 and Vitamin B6. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 15

Recently, Cyclone Karim developed in the Indian Ocean Region. Its name was suggested by which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 15
Recent satellite images have Captured Twin Cyclones in the Indian Ocean region, one in the northern hemisphere and one in the southern hemisphere, named cyclone Asani and cyclone Karim respectively. Karim is classified as a category II hurricane, with a wind speed of 112 kilometres per hour (kmph).

Asani remains a Severe Cyclonic Storm over the Bay of Bengal, with wind speeds of 100-110 kmph gusting to 120 kmph. Both were formed in the Indian Ocean region and originated in the same longitude and are now drifting apart. Cyclone Karim has created a path in the open seas west of Australia. The name Karim was given by the South African country Seychelles. The name Cyclone Asani was suggested by Sri Lanka. Hence, option D is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 16

Which of the following sites is a man-made and managed wetland, included in the list of Ramsar sites and also placed on Montreux Record?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 16
Keoladeo National Park, also known as Bharatpur National Park, is a man-made and managed wetland located in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It was created as a hunting reserve by the Maharaja of Bharatpur in the late 19th century, but it was later declared a national park in 1982. Keoladeo National Park is an important bird sanctuary and is home to a wide variety of bird species, including many migratory birds.

It was designated as a Ramsar site in 1981, which is an international designation for wetlands of international importance, and it was placed on the Montreux Record in 1990. The Montreux Record is a list of wetlands that are at risk due to human activities, and it is maintained by the Ramsar Convention. Harike Wetland, Bhoj Wetland, and Renuka Lake are not man-made and managed wetlands and are not included in the list of Ramsar sites or placed on the Montreux Record.

Harike Wetland is a natural wetland located in the Indian state of Punjab, Bhoj Wetland is a natural wetland located in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh, and Renuka Lake is a natural lake located in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 17

What can be the impact of Biomagnification on the ecosystem?

  1. Desertification in the semi-arid regions can occur.

  2. Degradation of the coral reefs can take place.

  3. Distorted reproduction cycles among aquatic animals can occur.

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 17
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Biomagnification has no role in the desertification process. Desertification is mainly caused due to overgrazing. Other factors that cause desertification include urbanisation, climate change, overdrafting of groundwater, deforestation, natural disasters and tillage practices in agriculture that place soils more vulnerable to wind.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The coral reefs are destroyed by biomagnification of cyanide, which is used in leaching gold and in fishing. The reefs provide for spawning, feeding, and dwelling grounds for numerous sea creatures. When destroyed, the survival of aquatic creatures is highly compromised.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Biomagnification can also lead to the accumulation of various toxic chemicals and elements in the vital organs of the various aquatic creatures affecting their reproduction and development. For instance, seabird eggs are laid with thinner shells than normal, and can result in the birds crushing their eggs instead of incubating them. Selenium and heavy metals such as mercury also affect the reproduction of aquatic creatures such as fish as it destroys their reproductive organs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 18

Which of the following statements best explains the natural rate of unemployment?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 18
Sum of Frictional unemployment and Structural unemployment. The natural rate of unemployment is the level of unemployment that is consistent with a stable, healthy economy. It is also known as the equilibrium unemployment rate or the long-run unemployment rate. The natural rate of unemployment is determined by the structural and frictional factors in the economy and is independent of the business cycle.

Frictional unemployment is unemployment that arises from the normal process of workers and employers searching for the best match between their skills and job opportunities. It includes unemployment that results from people transitioning between jobs, such as recent graduates looking for their first job or workers who are changing careers.

Structural unemployment is unemployment that arises from a mismatch between the skills and characteristics of the workers and the needs and demands of the job market. It can be caused by technological change, globalisation, or other structural changes in the economy. Therefore, the natural rate of unemployment is the sum of frictional unemployment and structural unemployment. It does not include cyclical unemployment, which is unemployment that arises from the ups and downs of the business cycle, or seasonal unemployment, which is unemployment that arises from the seasonal nature of certain industries.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 19

Which of the following foreign travellers visited the Vijayanagar Empire during the rule of Krishna Dev Rai?

  1. Ibn Battuta

  2. Abdur Razzak

  3. Domingo Paes

  4. Barbosa

Choose the correct code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 19
The foreign travellers who visited India during the reign of Krishnadeva Raya were Domingo Pass, Started Barbosa and Fernao Nuniz. They all were Portuguese travellers. They provided a detailed account of Vijayanagara Empire particularly in the reign of Krishnadeva Raya.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 20

Which of the following is the main objective of ‘Dastak Campaign’

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 20
Dastak Campaign is a public health campaign launched by the Government of India in 2019 to tackle the problem of Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) and Japanese Encephalitis (JE) disease in the country. These diseases are caused by viral infections that affect the brain and can cause severe illness and death, particularly in children.

The main objective of the Dastak Campaign is to eradicate AES and JE disease in India by strengthening the prevention, diagnosis, and management of these diseases. The campaign focuses on improving awareness about the causes and prevention of AES and JE, strengthening surveillance and laboratory systems, and improving the quality of care for affected individuals.

Dastak Campaign is not related to promoting toilet use and freedom from open defecation, promoting the use of sanitary pads in adolescent girls in Odisha, or creating awareness about the misuse of single-use plastics. These are separate issues that are addressed by different public health campaigns in India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

  1. 5Gi is basically a Made in India 5G standard created through a collaboration between IISc Bengaluru and IIT Chennai.

  2. 5G high-band spectrum has been tested to be as fast as 20 gigabits per second.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 21
India’s own 5G standard had been made in the form of 5Gi which would play a big role in bringing 5G technology to the villages of the country. 5Gi is basically a Made in India 5G standard created through a collaboration between IIT Hyderabad and Madras (Chennai). Hence statement 1 is not correct.

5G is the 5th generation mobile network. It is a new global wireless standard after 4G networks. It enables a new kind of network that is designed to connect virtually everyone and everything together including machines, objects, and devices. Internet speeds in the high-band spectrum of 5G have been tested to be as high as 20 gigabits per second. Hence statement 2 is correct. The maximum internet data speed recorded in 4G is 1 Gbps.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 22

With reference to Stockholm convention and Minamata convention, which of the are the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Both Stockholm convention and Minamata convention were a result of the Rio Earth Summit, 1992.

  2. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism to both Stockholm convention and Minamata convention.

  3. Stockholm convention aims to reduce the Persistent Organic Pollutants (PoPs) while Minamata convention aims to reduce mercury emissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 22
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty, signed in 2001 and effective from May 2004. The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty, signed in 2013 and entered into force on 16 August, 2017.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism to five conventions: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and Minamata Convention on Mercury.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Stockholm Convention aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants whereas Minamata Convention was designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 23

Which among the following best explains the formation of wave cyclones?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 23
Wave cyclones, also known as mid-latitude cyclones or extratropical cyclones, are large, low-pressure systems that form over the middle latitudes (between 30° and 60° North and South of the equator). They are characterised by the formation of fronts between different air masses, which are defined as large, horizontal bands of air with distinct temperature and humidity characteristics.

Wave cyclones form when a cold air mass pushes beneath a warm air mass, creating a front. The interaction between the two air masses can cause the development of thunderstorms and other types of weather, such as rain, snow, or sleet. Wave cyclones can also generate strong winds and large waves in the oceans.

Very high Sea Surface Temperatures, the formation of Polar Stratospheric clouds, and the creation of thunderstorms due to sudden air up draught are not directly related to the formation of wave cyclones.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 24

With reference to the Temple Entry movements in South India in the 20th century, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

  1. By a resolution in 1924, the Kakinada Congress committee formed the Untouchability Abolition Committee to support the Vaikom Satyagraha.

  2. K. Kelappan led the ten-month long protests during the Guruvayur Satyagraha in 1931.

  3. The movements failed to achieve anything concrete due to British repression also supported by the Native state’s rulers.

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is correct: The demand for temple entry was first started in Vaikom, Kerala. This Vaikom Satyagraha gave inspiration to Tamils to fight against Caste Hindus. In South India Nadars were among the first people to fight for temple entry.

  • Statement 2 is correct: K Kelappan was the lead figure of congress in Kerala and popularly called Kerala Gandhi. He fought against untouchability and caste-based discrimination.

    He was also the leader of the Guruvayur Satyagraha in 1932

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The movement got support from many nationalist leaders including Gandhi and agitation against untouchability spread in other states of South India also.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 25

With reference to Colistin, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is the last-resort antibiotic used to treat highly drug-resistant bacterial infections in humans.

  2. It has been used in veterinary medicine for the prevention and treatment of bacterial infections.

  3. Its use in livestock has been permitted only for food-producing animals.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 25

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Colistin is a last-resort antibiotic used to treat highly drug-resistant bacterial infections in humans. This statement is correct because colistin is considered a last line of defense against certain multidrug-resistant bacterial infections, particularly those caused by Gram-negative bacteria.

Colistin has been used in veterinary medicine for the prevention and treatment of bacterial infections. This statement is also correct because colistin has been used in both human and veterinary medicine to treat various bacterial infections. In veterinary medicine, it has been used for the prevention and treatment of infections in animals, particularly livestock.

The statement "Its use in livestock has been permitted only for food-producing animals" is incorrect. While colistin has been used in food-producing animals, its use is not limited to them. It can also be used in non-food-producing animals to treat bacterial infections. However, due to concerns about antibiotic resistance, some countries have restricted or banned the use of colistin in animal feed and veterinary medicine.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 26

With reference to 'Black-necked crane', a bird found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is found only in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in India.

  2. It is classified as critically endangered in the IUCN red list.

  3. Its breeding is mainly threatened by the damage to the eggs and chicks, caused by feral dogs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 26
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Black-necked cranes are found in the states of Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim as well as the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It is classified as vulnerable in the IUCN red list.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The major threat to the successful breeding of black-necked cranes is the damage to the eggs and chicks, caused by feral dogs. These dogs are owned both by armed forces as well as by the local nomads. Another threat to the bird is the loss of habitat. The human pressure on the wetlands, the primary habitat of cranes, has increased tremendously over the last decade. The increased grazing pressure on the limited pastures near the wetlands is also leading to the degradation of the wetland habitat.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 27

When the Reserve bank of India reduces the Repo Rate by 75 basis points then, which of the following is likely to happen?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 27
The Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks in the event of a shortfall in their reserve requirements. When the RBI reduces the Repo Rate, it becomes cheaper for commercial banks to borrow money from the RBI. This can lead to a decline in the interest rates on loans offered by commercial banks to their customers. A reduction in the Repo Rate may not necessarily result in a drastic drop in the prevalent inflation rate.

Inflation is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising, and it is measured as an annual percentage increase. The Repo Rate is one of the tools used by the RBI to control inflation, but it is not the only factor that affects inflation. A reduction in the Repo Rate may not lower the reserve to be kept with the RBI by banks. The reserve requirement is the percentage of deposits that commercial banks are required to hold in reserve with the RBI. It is set by the RBI and is not directly affected by changes in the Repo Rate.

A reduction in the Repo Rate may not necessarily result in an increase in the cost of borrowing. The cost of borrowing is the interest rate charged by lenders on loans. As mentioned earlier, a reduction in the Repo Rate may lead to a decline in the interest rates on loans offered by commercial banks, which could result in a lower cost of borrowing for customers. Therefore, the correct answer is b) a decline in the interest rates on loans offered.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 28

Consider the following statements with reference to the Home Rule Movement:

  1. The 1915 Bombay Congress session rejected the proposal of Annie Besant to start the movement.

  2. V K Krishna Menon was associated with the formation of India League in 1928 which was inspired by Annie Besant’s Home rule leagues.

  3. The 1917 August Declaration changed the course of the movement.

Which of the above given statements is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 28
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The congress neither rejected nor approved the proposal of Anni Besant to start the movement

  • Statement 2 is correct: The India league was based in Britain. Its objective was to achieve full independence and self-government for India. VK Krishna Menon was an important figure in it. It evolved from the Commonwealth of India League (1922) which was inspired by the Home Rule League. VK Menon after becoming joint secretary radicalised the organisation and started demanding complete independence. The organisation opened up its branches in other cities of Britain like Liverpool, Manchester, Newcastle, Southampton and Wolverhampton. The league sought to raise consciousness among British people of the injustice of British rule in India.

  • Statement 3 is correct: After Tilak left for England the movement was left leaderless. Annie Besant was satisfied by the promise of the reforms proposed by the 1917 August Declaration. After the Montagu declaration the League agreed to put a halt on their movement and all the moderate members gave up their membership of the league. The league believed in the promises of the British government that it would gradually reform the administration. The rise of Gandhi and his Satyagraha also provided for the dissolution of the league.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 29

With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. The President may specify the first list of Scheduled Tribes in relation to a state.

  2. The President is not required to consult the Governor of the state before specifying such a list.

  3. Any subsequent amendment to such a list of Scheduled Tribes can be only done by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 29
  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 342 of the Constitution provides the Supreme Court the power to President to provide the list of tribal communities to be listed under Scheduled Tribes of the Constitution.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The President in consultation with the Governor prepares the initial list of tribes to be listed under Scheduled Tribes. (Article 342 (1).

  • Statement 3 is correct: Parliament is empowered to make amendments to the list only through law. Only Parliament has the power to amend. (Article 342 (2).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 30

The ‘Portfolio system of governance’ in British India was introduced by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 30
Option (b) is the correct answer. The Indian Council Act 1861 made changes in the Governor General’s council for executive and legislative purposes. The Act was introduced by Lord Canning. It empowered the Governor General to delegate special tasks to individuals of the Executive council. Each member had their own portfolio and dealt with it.

This was the first instance of a portfolio system in India. The act also provided for the establishment of new Legislative Councils for Bengal, NWFP and Punjab. Before the 1861 act, the Executive council had little or no representation of the people and there was demand for representation. Therefore, a fifth finance member was added, and provision was made for addition of 6 to 12 members to the Executive council.

The 1858 Act made Governor General the Viceroy. Now onwards India was to be governed by and in the name of the crown through secretary of state and council of 15 members. Indian Council Act 1892 enlarged the Legislative council of Governor General.

A principle of representation was introduced along with elements of indirect election. The Indian Council Act 1909 or Morley Minto reforms provided first time entry of an Indian in the Executive Council of the Governor General. It also introduced a separate electorate for the Muslims.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 31

Consider the following statements:

  1. Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project is a hydropower project to be developed between Nepal and India under integrated Mahakali Treaty.

  2. India is Nepal’s largest trade partner and the largest source of foreign investments

  3. Both India and Nepal are the members of SAARC, BIMSTEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 31
Development of Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project is a mutual interest project between Nepal and India under integrated Mahakali Treaty.

Hence statement 1 is correct: India is Nepal’s largest trade partner and the largest source of foreign investments, besides providing transit for almost the entire third country trade of Nepal.

Hence statement 2 is correct: Both India and Nepal are the members of SAARC and BIMSTEC not the members of ASEAN. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding the Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS):

  1. It is the unexpected death of an apparently healthy infant.

  2. Babies who died of SIDS showed higher levels of the BChE enzyme shortly after birth.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 32
Sudden infant death syndrome is the unexpected death of an apparently healthy infant. It usually occurs while the baby is asleep, although in rare cases, it can also occur while the child is awake.

Hence statement 1 is correct: The condition is also called "Cot Death". Newborn babies delivered prematurely or with low weight at birth are believed to be at a greater risk of SIDS. Babies who died of SIDS showed lower levels of the BChE enzyme shortly after birth.

Hence statement 2 is not correct: A low level of the BChE enzyme affects a sleeping infant’s ability to wake up or respond to their environment. The enzyme is an important part of the autonomic nervous system of the body and controls unconscious and involuntary functions.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 33

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Pardoning power of the President extends in cases where sentence is by a Court Martial, but the Governor does not have such power.

  2. The President can grant pardon in all cases, even the death sentence and the pardoning power of the Governor also now extends to death sentence cases.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 33

The second statement is correct, but the first statement is incorrect.

The Constitution of India grants the power of pardon to the President and the Governor. The President has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or remission of punishment in all cases, including cases where the sentence is by a Court Martial. On the other hand, the power of the Governor to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or remission of punishment is limited to cases where the sentence is for an offence against a state law or a central law.

In 2011, the Supreme Court of India held that the power of the Governor to grant pardon also extends to cases where the sentence is death. Therefore, both the President and the Governor now have the power to grant pardon, including in cases where the sentence is death.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 34

With reference to the OBC Reservation in Local Body Elections, consider the following statements:

  1. Local Bodies Election is conducted by the Election Commission of India.

  2. The Supreme Court permitted Andhra Pradesh to provide reservation to Other Backward Classes in Local Body Elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 34
The Supreme Court (SC) permitted Madhya Pradesh to provide reservation to Other Backward Classes (OBC) in Local Body Elections, modifying an earlier order that suspended the quotas due to a lack of data.

Hence statement 2 is not correct. This is the first time that a state government has managed to clear the triple test formula mandated by the apex court in the context of providing reservation for OBCs in local body polls. Local bodies Election is conducted by the State Election Commission. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 35

With reference to NATO, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a military alliance established by the Washington Treaty to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.

  2. Headquarters of NATO is in Washington.

  3. The US, UK and Sweden are some of the member countries of NATO.

Choose the correct option from the given code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 35
It is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also called the Washington Treaty) of April, 1949, by the United States, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.

Hence, statement 1 is correct. Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. There are currently 30 member states. Its original members were Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Joining the original signatories were Greece and Turkey (1952), West Germany (1955, from 1990 as Germany), Spain (1982), the Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland (1999), Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, and Slovenia (2004), Albania and Croatia (2009), Montenegro (2017), and North Macedonia (2020).

France withdrew from the integrated military command of NATO in 1966 but remained a member of the organisation; it resumed its position in NATO’s military command in 2009. Sweden is not a member of NATO. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 36

In the context of use of stealth technologies, consider the following statements:

  1. It makes vehicles or missiles nearly invisible to enemy radar or other electronic detection.

  2. Indian Air Force has recently inducted indigenously developed stealth fighter aircraft HAL AMCA.

  3. Project 17 was conceptualised by the Indian Navy to design and build stealth frigates in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 36
  • Statement 1 is correct: Stealth technology makes vehicles or missiles nearly invisible to enemy radar or other electronic detection. The concept of stealth is to operate or hide while giving enemy forces no indication as to the presence of friendly forces.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The HAL Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) is an Indian programme to develop a fifth-generation fighter aircraft. AMCA will be a single-seat, twin-engine, stealth all-weather multirole fighter aircraft. Feasibility studies on AMCA and the preliminary design stage have been completed, and the project entered the detailed design phase in February 2019. It is expected to make its first flight in 2032.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Project 17 was conceptualised by the Indian Navy to design and build stealth frigates indigenously. In 1997, the Indian Government approved the order for three frigates.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 37

With reference to ‘FASTag’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It uses barcoding, which includes a pattern of black bars and white spaces.

  2. It uses an Electronic Produce Code (EPC) which is similar to the vehicle’s registration number

  3. National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) ensures data security in the case of FASTag.

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 37
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology is at the core of FASTag, the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) for implementing electronic toll collection across the national highways in India. Unlike barcoding, which uses a pattern of black bars and white spaces, in which the information is coded, an RFID tag uses a small electronic chip for the same which is surrounded by an antenna.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The RFID technology uses an Electronic Produce Code (EPC) through which every vehicle can be uniquely identified. This code is different from the vehicle’s registration number and exclusive to it on a global scale.

  • Statement 3 is correct: National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) ensures data security in the case of RFID-FASTag. They have proper IT infrastructure with backend servers in a place where all the data is captured.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 38

Which of the following is not a component of a capital account?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 38
  • Component a is correct: The reserve account is a part of the capital account, are the foreign currency and securities held by the central bank of a country and used to balance the payments from year-to-year. The reserves increase in case of a trade surplus and decrease when there is a trade deficit.

  • Component b is incorrect: Investment Income is a component of the current account.

  • Component c is correct: An individual investor interested in opportunities outside their own country is most likely to invest through an FPI. On a more macro level, foreign portfolio investment is part of a country's capital account and shown on its balance of payments (BOP). FPI holdings can include stocks, ADRs, GDRs, bonds, mutual funds, and exchange traded funds.

  • Component d is correct: Foreign Holdings: - The percentage of a portfolio's investment represented by stocks or Indian depository Receipts (IDRs) of companies based outside India. A surplus in the capital account means there is an inflow of money into the country, while a deficit indicates money moving out of the country. In this case, the country may be increasing its foreign holdings.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 39

Consider the following pairs.

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly Matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 39

The second and the most important Pala ruler Dharmpal made Munger his capital & other Pala ruler issued inscription from Munger (Popularly known as Munger plates).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 40

With reference to ‘Tamil Yeoman’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a species of flower which is endemic to Western Ghats.

  2. It has been declared as the State Flower of Karnataka.

  3. It has recently got the Geographical Indication tag.

Which of the given above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 40
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect: Tamil yeoman (Cirrochroa thais) butterfly species endemic to Western Ghats has been declared the state butterfly of Tamil Nadu. Uniformly orange in colour with a dark brown outer ring, Tamil Yeoman is among the 32 butterfly species found in the Western Ghats.

This butterfly species moves in groups in large numbers, but only in a few places. Also known as Tamil Maravan, which means warrior, these butterflies are found mainly in the hilly areas. For the first time Tamil Nadu has declared its state butterfly and only fifth in the country to do so.

Maharashtra was the first to declare Blue Mormon as its state butterfly, followed by Uttarakhand (Common peacock), Karnataka (Southern bird wings) and Kerala (Malabar banded peacock). Statement 3 is incorrect. Thus, Option D is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 41

Consider the following statements regarding “World Metrology Day”:

  1. It is celebrated in commemoration of the anniversary of the signing of the Astro Convention in 1871.

  2. The theme for World Metrology Day 2022 is “Metrology in the Digital Era”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 41
World Metrology Day is celebrated in the commemoration of the anniversary of the signing of the Metre Convention in 1875. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. This treaty provides the basis for a worldwide coherent measurement system.

World Metrology Day recognizes and celebrates the contribution of all the people that work in intergovernmental and national metrology organisations and institutes throughout the year. The theme for World Metrology Day 2022 is “Metrology in the Digital Era”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 42

Which of the following dams/multipurpose projects are associated with the Krishna River System?

  1. Nizam Sagar Dam

  2. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

  3. Srisailam Dam

  4. Banasura Sagar Dam

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 42
Option (d) is the correct answer. Nizam Sagar Dam is a reservoir constructed across the Manjira River, a tributary of the Godavari River, between Achampet and BanjePally villages of the Kamareddy district in Telangana. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a masonry dam across the Krishna river at Nagarjuna Sagar which straddles the border between Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh and Nalgonda district, Telangana.

The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh. Banasura Sagar Dam has been constructed across Kabini river, a tributary of Kaveri river.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 43

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the privilege motion moved in a house of Parliament?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 43
  • Option a is correct: Every Cabinet Minister, be it Prime Minister, is also a member of Parliament. To ensure Collective privileges of the house, any member can be punished for breach of the privilege or its contempt by reprimand, admonition or imprisonment.

  • Option b is correct: Rules no 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book governs privilege. It says that a member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. If the Speaker/Chair gives consent under Rule 222, the member concerned is given an opportunity to make a short statement.

  • Option c is correct: In the Rajya Sabha, the deputy chairperson heads the committee of privileges, which consists of 10 members.

  • Option d is incorrect: In the Lok Sabha, the privilege committee consists of 15 members. In the Rajya Sabha, the privilege committee consists of 10 members.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 44

In which among the following geographical regions you are least likely to encounter both mangroves and coral reefs?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 44
Option (c) is the correct answer. Mangroves in India are found all along the west coast, along with Palk Bay and Gulf of Mannar. Sundarbans has the largest area under mangroves in India.

Coral reefs are found on all the three locations except Sundarbans. Sundarbans is not suitable for coral reefs due to heavy incoming sediment load, which makes the environment hostile for corals. Source) India State of Forest report, 2019

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 45

Which of the following was/were the Mahajanapadas in Ancient India?

  1. Matsya

  2. Chedi

  3. Lichchhavi

  4. Sakya

Select the correct alternative using the code given Below

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 45
Option (c) is the correct answer. The Mahajanapada period is between 600 BC to 325 BC. There were a total of 16 Mahajanapada. Matsya mahajanapada was in today's Rajasthan state in areas around Alwar, Jaipur and Bharatpur. Its capital was Viratnagar.

Chedi mahajanapada was in today's Bundelkhand area and its capital was at Shaktimati. Licchavi was an ancient kingdom which existed in Kathmandu, Nepal. The Sakyas were a clan in ancient India. They had their independent republican state Sakya Ganrajya. Its capital was at Kapilavastu. Gautam Buddha belongs to the Sakya clan. He is called Sakhya Muni “Sage of the Sakyas' '.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 46

The rule of Firoz Shah Tughlaq is associated with

  1. Diwan-i-Khiarat was established for the welfare of widows and orphans.

  2. White Marble was for the first time used in architecture.

  3. The iqta system was made hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given Below

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 46
  • Statement 1 is correct: Firuz Shah Tughlaq ruled over the Delhi Sultanate from 1351- 1388. He built canals, rest houses and hospitals, reservoirs and wells of water. He founded a number of cities like Jaunpur, Hisar,Firozpur etc. He set up a new department Diwan-i-khairat in which he provided money for the marriage of poor girls. To encourage agriculture and irrigation he imposed Hasil-i-Sharb or water tax. During his tenure Jizya became a separate tax. He did not even exempt Brahmanas. He established a hospital in Delhi called Dar-ul-Shifa.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: White Marble was used for the first time in India by Mughals. White marble was used first time in Tomb of Itmad ud daula

  • Statement 3 is correct: After his accession Firuz Shah appeased the nobility, army and theologians. He did this because he was facing the problem of the immediate breakup of the Sultanate. He ordered that whenever a noble died his son should succeed his position and his Iqta and in case he dies without a son then son in law should succeed. He even extended the principle of heredity to the Army.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding Constitution of India:

  1. It shall be the duty of Cabinet Ministers to enforce the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the lower house of Parliament.

  2. The term Cabinet has been defined in the Constitution under Article 352.

Which of the statements given above is/ are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 47
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 75 of the Constitution mentions collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the legislatures of the house. Collective responsibility is the fundamental principle of parliamentary democracy. Hence, the Constitution nowhere mentions that it is the duty of Cabinet Ministers to enforce collective responsibility rather it is the duty of every minister of the Council of Ministers.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Article 352 (3) defines the Cabinet Ministers. It defines that the Cabinet consists of the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank under Article 75.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 48

Who of the following was associated with the Berlin Committee formed in 1914?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 48

The Berlin Committee was formed in 1914 to coordinate the activities of various Indian revolutionary groups seeking independence from British rule. Virendranath Chatterjee, also known as Viren Chatterjee, was a member of the committee and played a key role in its formation. Virendranath Chatterjee was a prominent Indian freedom fighter and one of the founding members of the Ghadar Party, which aimed to overthrow British rule in India through armed revolution. He later joined the Berlin Committee and worked closely with other Indian revolutionaries to coordinate their activities and efforts to achieve independence. Other Indian freedom fighters who were associated with the Berlin Committee included Lala Lajpat Rai, Ras Bihari Bose, and V D Savarkar, among others.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 49

Who among the following built the “Hazara Rama Temple”, took the title of “Abhinava Bhoja” and wrote the Sanskrit Drama “Jambavati Kalyanam”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 49
Krishna Deva Raya was a king of the Vijayanagara Empire in South India and ruled from 1509 to 1529. He is known for his achievements in various fields and for his patronage of arts and culture. One of the major accomplishments of Krishna Deva Raya was the construction of the Hazara Rama Temple, which is located in Hampi, Karnataka.

The temple is known for its intricate carvings and is considered a masterpiece of Vijayanagara architecture. Krishna Deva Raya was also a patron of literature and wrote several works in Sanskrit, including the drama Jambvati Kalyanam. He was also known by the title "Abhinava Bhoja", which means "new Bhoja" in Sanskrit.

Other achievements of Krishna Deva Raya include the expansion of the Vijayanagara Empire, the construction of several forts and temples, and the promotion of trade and commerce.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 50

Consider the following regarding Quit India Movement

  1. Vidyut Vahini was the armed wing of the Jatiya Sarkar in Bengal.

  2. The Karnataka Method emerged as the novel form of peasant protest.

Which of the above given statements is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 50
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Jatiya Sarkar was a parallel government established in West Bengal. It established Police stations, Courts and a system of revenue collection. It organised an armed Vidyut Vahini commanded by Sushil Kumar Dhara.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Karnataka method was a system in which many citizens became part time peasants. Working in farms in the daytime and carrying out sabotage operations at night. In the Quit India Movement many smaller factions within the movement evolved, developing different methods of resistance. Some held onto Gandhi’s method, others changed to a violent means. The Karnataka method was one such method.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 51

With reference to the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. Under this scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 1,50,000 per financial year.

  2. The Scheme is available to corporations, partnership firms, Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), Trusts, etc.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 51
The Liberalised Remittance Scheme is the scheme of the Reserve Bank of India, introduced in 2004. Under this Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The Scheme is not available to corporations, partnership firms, Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), Trusts, etc. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 52

Consider the following statements with respect to Biological Research Regulatory Approval Board (BioRRAP):

  1. It is a single National portal for Biotech researchers and startups.

  2. Under this system, a monetary reward of 50,000 will be given to those who register themselves on this platform.

Which of the statements given above are correct:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 52
In keeping with the spirit of "One Nation, One Portal", the Union Minister recently launched a Single National Portal for Biotech researchers and Start-ups, i.e., Biological Research Regulatory Approval Portal (BioRRAP). Hence, statement 1 is correct. The portal will serve as a gateway and will help researchers to see the stage of approval of their applications for regulatory clearances and to see preliminary information on all the research work being undertaken by the particular researcher and/or organisation. Under this system, there is no such provision of monetary reward to registered persons. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 53

Consider the following statements regarding Indira Gandhi Sahri Rozgar Guarantee Yojana:

  1. The Scheme is state-specific to Rajasthan.

  2. Those aged between 18 and 60 years and residing within urban body limits are eligible for the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 53
The Rajasthan government has come up with the job description under its much-touted Indira Gandhi Sahri Rozgar Guarantee Yojana. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Under the scheme, 100 days of employment per year will be provided to families residing in urban areas. The focus is on providing as many jobs as possible. All those aged between 18 and 60 years and residing within urban body limits are eligible for the scheme, and in special circumstances such as a pandemic or a calamity, migrant labourers may be included. Hence, statement 2 is correct

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 54

With reference to Pangolins, which of the are the following statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 54
Option a is incorrect. The Asian species of pangolin are Sunda Pangolin, Philippine Pangolin, Chinese Pangolin and Indian Pangolin. Chinese pangolin and Sunda pangolin are Critically Endangered whereas Indian pangolin and Philippine pangolin are Endangered.

Option b is correct. According to a report released by TRAFFIC, Pangolins are the most trafficked mammal in the world. Option c is correct. They have large, protective keratin scales covering their skin and they are the only known mammals with this feature. Option d is correct. Chinese pangolin is mostly found in northeast India and Indian pangolin is found in the rest of India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 55

Which of the following is a shadow puppet theatre tradition of Andhra Pradesh, which literally means “dance of leather puppets”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 55
Option (d) is the correct answer. Tholu Bommalata is a shadow puppet theatre tradition in Andhra Pradesh. The performers are a group of wandering entertainers who pass through the villages and offer to sing ballads, charm snakes and perform acrobatics. The musical instrument consists of harmonium, keyboard and drum.

The puppets are large in size and have jointed waist, shoulders, elbows and knees. The theme of the puppet plays are inspired by Ramayana, Mahabharata and Puranas. Puppets from Tamil Nadu known as Bommalattam combine techniques of rods and string puppets. They are made of wood and strings are tied to an iron ring which is worn by the puppeteer Togalu Gombeyatta is the Shadow theatre of Karnataka. Putul Nautch is the traditional rod puppet of Bengal.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 56

With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are feature/features of Bhakti Movement?

  1. Discarding rituals and sacrifices

  2. Acceptance of God as Nirguna (formless) only

  3. Denouncement of Casteism

Select the correct answer using the code given Below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 56
  • Statement 1 is correct: Bhakti refers to passionate devotion to a deity. The Bhakti movement originated in South India in the 8th century and moved northwards. Bhakti movement preached using local language so that it can reach the masses. It began with an aim of reforming Hinduism.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bhakti movement saw two ways of imagining the divine Power. It can be either Nirguna (formless) and Saguna (with physical attributes).

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Bhakti movement raised their voice against immoral activities like infanticide, sati and casteism. The method of god worship also changed. More importance was now given to devotion and love for god rather than rituals and customs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 57

Which of the following statements is incorrectly stated?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 57
TRAFFIC is not a subsidiary of CITES, but rather it is an independent organisation that works in partnership with CITES to monitor and regulate the trade of wild animals and plants. TRAFFIC is a joint program of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Its main objective is to ensure that trade in wild animals and plants is sustainable and legal, and to combat illegal trade and trafficking in these species.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 58

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 58
  • Option a is incorrect: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act has divided provisions into two: Mandatory Provisions and Voluntary provisions which state legislatures have to implement. Providing reservations for women at all the three levels is under Mandatory provisions and reservation for OBCs is kept under Voluntary provisions.

  • Option b is incorrect: Parliament cannot grant any reservation to any category at the level of Panchayats.

  • Option c is correct: Article 243 J empowers state legislatures to enact law to ensure auditing of accounts of local bodies.

  • Option d is incorrect: An elected member at the level of panchayats stands disqualified under any law made by state legislatures or can stand disqualified if he/ she has nor attained the age of 21 years.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 59

Which of the following states has become the first state in India to have a ‘State Water Policy’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 59
The first state in India to ensure conservation of water and to have its own State Water Policy is Meghalaya .This move comes after a nod given by the State Cabinet for the purpose. Thus, Option A is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 60

Consider the following statements:

1. Supplementary Grant is granted when a need arises during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not mentioned in the Budget.

2. Excess Grant is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through appropriation act for a particular service is found to be insufficient for the year.

3. Additional Grant is granted when more money has been spent on any service in addition to the amount granted for that service in the budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 60

Here is the correct information

Supplementary Grant is granted when a need arises during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not mentioned in the Budget.

Additional Grant is granted when more money has been spent on any service in addition to the amount granted for that service in the budget.

Excess Grant is granted when the amount actually spent on a particular service is found to be less than the amount granted for that service in the budget.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 61

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Law Commission of India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 61
  • Option a is incorrect: The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government from time to time. The Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and is reconstituted every three years. Hence, it is not a permanent body.

  • Option b is incorrect: The members are appointed by the Central Government without any consultation from the chairperson of the Commission.

  • Option c is incorrect: Since, the commission is constituted through executive resolutions, the commission has to be accountable only to Executives.

  • Option d is correct: It has no set functions and compositions. This all depends on the will of the Government. The Law Commission, on a reference made to it by the Central Government or suo-motu, undertakes research in law and review of existing laws in India for making reforms therein and enacting new legislations.

The functions of the law commission includes:

  • Review/Repeal of obsolete laws: Identification of laws which are no longer relevant and recommending for the repeal of obsolete and unnecessary enactments.

  • Law and Poverty: Examines the Laws which affect the poor and carries out post-audit for socio-economic legislations.

  • Suggesting enactment of new legislation as may be necessary to implement the Directive Principles and to attain the objectives set out in the Preamble of the Constitution.

  • Judicial Administration: Considering and conveying to the Government its views on any subject relating to law and judicial administration that may be specifically referred to it by the Government through the Ministry of Law and Justice (Department of Legal Affairs).

  • Research: Considering the requests for providing research to any foreign countries as may be referred to by the Government through the Ministry of Law & Justice (Department of Legal Affairs).

  • Examine the existing laws with a view of promoting gender equality and suggesting amendments thereto.

  • Examine the impact of globalisation on food security, unemployment and recommend measures for the protection of the interests of the marginalised.

  • Preparing and submitting to the Central Government, from time to time, reports on all issues, matters, studies and research undertaken by it and recommending in such reports for effective measures to be taken by the Union or any State.

  • Performing such other functions as may be assigned to it by the Central Government from time to time.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 62

Consider the following statements:

  1. DIKSHA serves as national digital infrastructure for students across India.

  2. National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) accommodates the diversity of the Indian education and training systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 62
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: DIKSHA means Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing which is the National Teacher Platform, an initiative of the MHRD. Institutional User means and includes MHRD, any department, statutory body, Government affiliated body, autonomous authority set up by the Government, boards/councils of education set up by the Government, or other such institutions or organisations who are authorised to operate as a tenant on the DIKSHA infrastructure.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The objectives of the NSQF are to provide a framework that:

    • Accommodates the diversity of the Indian education and training systems.

    • Allows the development of a set of qualifications for each level, based on outcomes which are accepted across the nation.

    • Provides structure for development and maintenance of progression pathways which provide access to qualifications and assist people to move easily and readily between different education and training sectors and between those sectors and the labour market.

    • Gives individuals an option to progress through education and training and gain recognition for their prior learning and experiences.

    • Gives individuals an option to progress through education and training and gain recognition for their prior learning and experiences.

    • Supports and enhances the national and international mobility of persons with NSQF-compliant qualifications through increased recognition of the value and comparability of Indian qualifications.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 63

Which of the following best describes the phenomena of Gravitational Lensing?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 63
Option (a) is the correct answer. Gravitational lensing is a phenomenon wherein a huge amount of matter, such as a massive galaxy or cluster of galaxies, creates a gravitational field that distorts and magnifies the light from objects behind it, but in the same line of sight.

In effect, these are natural, cosmic telescopes and are called gravitational lenses. These large celestial objects will magnify the light from distant galaxies that are at or near the peak of star formation. The effect allows researchers to study the details of early galaxies too far away to be seen otherwise with even the most powerful space telescopes.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 64

Which of the following countries are the members of the sub-regional/regional groupings - Arctic Council and Schengen zone?

  1.  

    Norway

  2.  

    Italy

  3.  

    Finland

  4.  

    Sweden

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 64

Option (b) is the correct answer. Members of Arctic Council are Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, and the United States Members of Schengen Zone are: 26 Countries: Austria, Belgium, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, and Switzerland. Hence, out of the given options: Italy is not the member of both the regional groupings.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 65

Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI), recently seen in the news, is launched by which of the following Countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 65
The SCRI aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing supply chain resilience with a view to eventually attaining strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth in the Indo-Pacific region. India, Japan and Australia have formally launched the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) in a move to counter China’s dominance of the supply chain in the Indo-Pacific region. Hence, the correct option is D.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 66

Consider the following statements regarding Polar Vortex:

  1. It is a low-pressure area surrounding both the poles of the Earth.

  2. Global warming is resulting in ‘strengthening’ of the vortex.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 66
Polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding the earth's poles. It is a natural weather pattern that usually occurs in the winter months. The polar vortex is not a single, well-defined entity, but rather a large area of low pressure that encompasses the polar regions The polar vortex is not a new phenomenon and has always existed.

However, in recent years, there has been some media attention on the polar vortex due to the extreme cold temperatures and winter storms that it can bring to certain parts of the world.

There is no scientific evidence to suggest that global warming is causing the polar vortex to strengthen. In fact, global warming may result in a weakening of the polar vortex, as the Arctic region is warming at a faster rate than other parts of the world. This can lead to a disruption of the normal weather patterns, including the polar vortex.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 67

With reference to the Indian Ocean Commission, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an intergovernmental organisation institutionalised by the Victoria Agreement.

  2. India is one of the member states of the commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 67

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Ocean Commission is an intergovernmental organisation that was created in 1982 at Port Louis, Mauritius and institutionalised in 1984 by the Victoria Agreement in Seychelles.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Recently, India has been accepted as an observer. The COI is composed of five African Indian Ocean nations: Comoros, Madagascar, Mauritius, Réunion (an overseas region of France), and Seychelles. These five islands share geographic proximity, historical and demographic relationships, natural resources and common development issues.

Objectives of Indian Ocean Commission are:

  • COI’s principal mission is to strengthen the ties of friendship between the countries and to be a platform of solidarity for the entire population of the African Indian Ocean region.

  • COI’s mission also includes development, through projects related to sustainability for the region, aimed at protecting the region, improving the living conditions of the populations and preserving the various natural resources that the countries depend on.

  • Being an organisation regrouping only island states, the COI has usually championed the cause of small island states in regional and international fora.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 68

Which of the following was not an outcome of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 68
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was a political agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, the then Viceroy of India, signed in March 1931.

The pact resulted in the following outcomes: Release of prisoners who were not convicted of violence:

Gandhi and the Congress party had been demanding the release of political prisoners who had been arrested during the civil disobedience movement. The pact resulted in the release of all such prisoners who had not been convicted of violence.

Withdrawal of emergency ordinances:

The government had passed several emergency ordinances, such as the Bengal Regulation (Amendment) Act, 1930 and the Bombay Regulation (Amendment) Act, 1930, to suppress the civil disobedience movement.

The pact resulted in the withdrawal of these ordinances. Right to make salt for personal consumption: One of the key demands of the civil disobedience movement was the right to make salt for personal consumption. The pact granted this right to the people of India. Public inquiry into police excesses: The Congress party had also been demanding a public inquiry into the police excesses committed during the civil disobedience movement. The pact resulted in the appointment of a committee to inquire into these excesses. Thus, the correct answer is d) Public inquiry into police excesses.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 69

This national park is characterised by wet climate and the presence of stunted tropical montane forests. Three important rivers, the Tunga, the Bhadra, and the Nethravathi are said to have their origin here. It hosts diverse animal species like malabar civets, wild dogs, sloth bears and spotted deer. Its ecology is mainly threatened due to iron ore mining in the region. Which one of the following national parks is described in the above paragraph?