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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 1

With reference to the Minority Education Institutions under Article 30, consider the following statements:

  1. It includes those institutions that seek neither recognition nor aid from the state.

  2. The general laws of the land relating to taxation apply equally to minority institutions.

  3. The state can make regulations regarding the qualification of teachers in minority institutions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 1
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Article 30 grants right to minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 30 grants the minorities, whether religious or linguistic, the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Minority educational institutions are of three types:

    • institutions that seek recognition as well as aid from the State;

    • institutions that seek only recognition from the State and not aid; and

    • institutions that neither seek recognition nor aid from the State.

  • The institutions of first and second type are subject to the regulatory power of the state with regard to syllabus prescription, academic standards, discipline, sanitation, employment of teaching staff and so on.

  • The institutions of third type are free to administer their affairs but subject to operation of general laws like contract law, labour law, industrial law, tax law, economic regulations, and so on.

  • Statement 2 is correct: In Secretary of Malankara Syrian Catholic College case (2007), the Supreme Court held that the right conferred on minorities under Article 30 is only to ensure equality with the majority and not intended to place the minorities in a more advantageous position vis-a-vis the majority. There is no reverse discrimination in favour of minorities. The general laws of the land relating to national interest, national security, social welfare, public order, morality, health, sanitation, taxation etc., applicable to all, will equally apply to minority institutions also.

  • Statement 3 is correct: In the Secretary of Malankara Syrian Catholic College case (2007), the Supreme Court held that the right to establish and administer educational institutions is not absolute. There can be regulatory measures for ensuring educational character and standards and maintaining academic excellence. Regulations made by the State concerning generally the welfare of students and teachers, regulations laying down eligibility criteria and qualifications for appointment, as also conditions of service of employees (both teaching and non-teaching), regulations to prevent exploitation or oppression of employees, and regulations prescribing syllabus and curriculum of study fall under this category. Such regulations do not in any manner interfere with the right under Article 30(1).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ecological Pyramids’:

  1. They represent the feeding relationship and energy transfers in the ecosystem.

  2. The ecological pyramid of energy is always upright.

  3. The Grassland ecosystem is an example of the Inverted Pyramid of Biomass.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 2
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Ecological pyramids are the diagrammatic representations of the feeding relationship and energy transfers in the ecosystem. They are of three types: Pyramid of Numbers, Pyramid of Biomass and Pyramid of Energy.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Pyramid of Energy represents the total amount of energy used at each trophic level per unit of area per unit of time. The ecological pyramid of energy is always upright because the distribution of energy is always reducing as the trophic level becomes higher (from primary producer to tertiary consumer). The total amount of energy available for utilization in the layers above is less than the energy available in the lower levels.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Pyramid of Biomass: Biomass is the total mass (in gram dry weight) of living organisms in an area at a particular point of time. A pyramid of biomass is obtained when the rectangles used to construct the pyramid represent the masses of organisms at each trophic level. Pyramid of biomass can be upright (e.g., in the grassland ecosystem) or inverted. Inverted pyramids can occur in aquatic ecosystems. This happens because in aquatic ecosystems producers are tiny phytoplankton. Thus, consumer biomass exceeds producer biomass.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding anti-defection law under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution:

  1. Presiding officer has to decide on a defection case within 14 days of filing a petition regarding the case.

  2. If one-third of the legislators move along with the breakaway group then they will not be considered defectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 3

10th Schedule:

  • Constitutional basis:

    • The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act.

    • It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect:

    • The law does not provide a time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

    • The court in its recent judgment has held that, ideally, Speakers should take a decision on a defection petition within three months.

  • Statement 2 is correct:

    • Legislators may change their party without the risk of disqualification in certain circumstances.

      • The law allows a party to merge with or into another party provided that at least twothirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger.

      • In such a scenario, neither the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 4

Consider the following statements about the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):

  1. It is a legally binding international agreement.

  2. According to UNCCD, desertification means an increase in the area of deserts.

  3. It is committed to a centralised approach in combating desertification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 4
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found. The permanent secretariat of the Convention is located in Bonn, Germany.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: ‘Desertification’ as defined in the UNCCD refers to land degradation in the drylands (arid, semi-arid and dry sub humid regions) resulting from various factors and does not connote spread or expansion of deserts.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The UNCCD is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land degradation. The Convention is based on the principles of participation, partnership and decentralization.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Presidential Address to the Parliament:

  1. As per the Constitution of India, the President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the beginning of the first session after each general election.

  2. In India, the practice of the President addressing Parliament can be traced back to the Government of India Act of 1935.

  3. The Union Government cannot use the Presidential address to make policy and legislative announcements on the Parliamentary floor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 5
Option a is the correct answer.
  • The President is the head of the Indian State. He is the first citizen of India and acts as the symbol of unity, integrity and solidarity of the nation. All executive power is vested in the President of India. The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister aids and advises the President who exercises his powers in accordance to such advice.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 87 of the constitution provides two instances when the President specially addresses both Houses of Parliament. The President of India addresses both the Houses of Parliament assembled together at the beginning of the first session after each general election when the reconstituted lower house meets for the first time. The President also addresses both the houses of at beginning of the first session of each year.

    • Article 87(1) originally required the President to address both Houses of Parliament at the commencement of every session. However, The First Amendment to the Constitution in 1951 changed this position and made the President’s address once a year.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The practice of the President addressing Parliament can be traced back to the Government of India Act of 1919. This law gave the Governor-General the right to address the Legislative Assembly and the Council of State. But the Government of India Act of 1919 did not have any provision for a joint address.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Currently, the address of the President follows a general structure. It highlights the government’s accomplishments from the previous year and sets the broad governance agenda for the coming year. The government also uses the President’s address to make policy and legislative announcements. For example, in 1996, PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee’s (13-day) government used the president’s address to announce its intention of giving statehood to Uttaranchal and Vananchal (Jharkhand) and 33 percent reservation to women in legislatures. And in 2015, the Narendra Modi government used the president’s address to announce its plan to fast pace financial sector reforms.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 6

Which one of the following statements most appropriately describes the term ‘Shadow Entrepreneurs’ recently seen in the news?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 6
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Shadow entrepreneurs are individuals who manage a business that sells legitimate goods and services but they do not register their businesses. This means that they do not pay tax, operating in a shadow economy where business activities are performed outside the reach of government authorities.

  • Types of businesses include unlicensed taxicab services, roadside food stalls and small landscaping operations. Researcher at Imperial College Business School found that, India has second highest number of shadow entrepreneurs in the world after Indonesia.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

  1. The date of election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker is decided by the President.

  2. An appeal against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker when presiding Lok Sabha, lies with the Speaker.

  3. The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 7
  • Deputy Speaker

  • Statement 1 is not correct.

  • Election of deputy speaker:

  • President is not required to fix the election date:

    • The date of election of the Speaker is decided by the President who needs to go by the advice of the Union cabinet which, in fact, chooses the date.

    • In the case of the Deputy Speaker, there is no constitutional requirement for him to wait for the advice of the Union cabinet in fixing the date of election of the Deputy Speaker.

    • Mandate to Speaker: As per Rule 8 of the Rules and Procedure of Lok Sabha it is the Speaker who has to fix the date of the election of the Deputy Speaker.

  • Statement 2 is not correct.

    • No appeal: Although the Deputy Speaker gets to exercise these powers only in the absence of the Speaker his decisions are final and binding when he gives a ruling.

    • It has been repeatedly held that no appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker.

  • Statement 3 is correct.

    • Independent from Speaker: The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him, as both are elected from among the members of the House.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Limited Liability Partnership’ (LLP):

  1. In LLP, the partners are not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence.

  2. In India they are governed under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

  3. They can issue an Initial Public Offering only after the prior approval of SEBI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 8
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is an alternative corporate business form in which some or all partners (depending on the jurisdiction) have limited liabilities. Under this, partners are not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence. This is an important difference from the traditional unlimited partnership in which each partner has joint liability.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: All limited liability partnership in India is governed under the Limited Liability Partnership Act of 2008. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs implements the Act.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The LLP is same as ordinary partnership and the only difference between LLP and ordinary partnership is the liability of LLP partners is limited. LLP cannot issue IPO and cannot use public money as a company does.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 9

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Section 153A IPC?

  1. The provision was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code.

  2. It penalises ‘promotion of enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony’.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 9
  • Statement 1 is correct: The provision was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code. In 1969, the offence was amended (made cognisable – arrest without a warrant) to enlarge its scope to prevent communal tensions.

  • Statement 2 is correct: It penalises ‘promotion of enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony’.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 10

Which of the following statements may justify the need for buying a Negative Yield Bond?

  1. Investment Funds have to meet certain requirements, including asset allocation.

  2. Foreign investors buy the negative yield bond in anticipation of the rise in the currency’s exchange rate.

  3. When there is inflation, investors look to buy a Negative Yield Bond.

  4. Negative yield bonds might sometimes result in fewer losses than those in the equity markets.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 10
Option b is the correct answer.
  • In negative yield bond, an investor receives less money at the bond's maturity than the original purchase price for the bond. A negative bond yield is an unusual situation in which issuers of debt are paid to borrow. In other words, the depositors, or buyers of bonds, are effectively paying the bond issuer a net amount at maturity instead of earning a return through interest income.

  • Statement 1, 2 & 4 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect: The reason for investors buying a negative yielding debt or bonds can be:

    • Asset Allocation and Pledged Assets: Many hedge funds and investment firms that manage mutual funds must meet certain requirements, including asset allocation. Asset allocation means that the investments within the fund must have a portion allocated to bonds to help create a diverse portfolio. Allocating a portion of a portfolio to bonds is designed to reduce or hedge the risk of loss from other investments, such as equities. As a result, these funds must own bonds, even if the financial return is negative. (Statement 1 is correct)

    • When expected currency moves will likely offset the negative yields: Some investors believe they can still make money even with negative yields. For example, foreign investors might believe the currency's exchange rate will rise, which would offset the negative bond yield. In other words, a foreign investor would convert their investment to a country's currency when buying the government bond and convert the currency back to the investor's local currency when selling the bond. The investor would have a gain or loss merely from the currency exchange fluctuation, irrespective of the yield and price of the bond investment. (Statement 2 is correct)

    • Purchasing power is maintained: The most important reason investors would willingly choose to invest in negative-yielding bonds is when there is deflation, or a sustained drop in the price level for goods and services. For instance, consider a one-year bond that yields minus 5% but at the same time inflation is expected to be minus 10% over the same period. That means the investor in the bond would have more purchasing power at the end of the year because prices for goods and services would have declined far more than would the value of the investment in the fixed-income security. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

    • Safe Haven Assets: Investors might also be interested in negative bond yields if the loss is less than it would be with another investment. In times of economic uncertainty, many investors rush to buy bonds because they're considered safe-haven investments. These purchases are called the flight-to- safety-trade in the bond market. During such a time, investors might accept a negative-yielding bond because the negative yield might be far less of a loss than a potential double-digit percentage loss in the equity markets. (Statement 4 is correct)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 11

“This secret plan was conceived during the closing years of the British rule and discussed at the highest levels of the colonial administration for setting up a colony comprising the hill areas of North East India and the tribal areas of Burma. The Separation of these tribal areas from India was inherent in the plan. By the middle of 1946, the Plan was dismissed as British came to realise that the plan was conceived too late to shape up a protectorate of their own.”

Which one of the plans of British policies is described in the above given paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 11
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Crown Colony Plan: It was a secret plan conceived during the closing years of the British rule and discussed at the highest levels of the colonial administration for setting up a Crown Colony comprising the hill areas of the North East India and the tribal areas of Burma.

  • This Crown Colony would have included all tribal areas of NE India as well as the contagious tribal areas of Burma. As such, most of the tribal areas of the NE, mainly the hills of the province of Assam, were classified as ‘Excluded’ or ‘Partially Excluded Areas’. Therefore, a Crown Colony, like Singapore, Hong Kong, Aden or Gibraltar, on the eastern periphery of India, consisting of tribal areas from Indian and Burma, ruled by benign and tribal-loving British administrators, was achievable. Separation from India was inherent in the plan.

  • The plan finally did not succeed but was a near miss. It would have significantly changed the map of India and Burma, and challenged the very idea of a diverse India.

  • Option a is incorrect: The Sergeant Plan (Sergeant was the educational advisor to the Government) was worked out by the Central Advisory Board of Education in 1944. The objective was to create within 40 years, the same level of educational attainment as prevailed in England.

  • Option b is incorrect: The British government proposed a plan, announced on 3 June 1947, that included these principles: Principle of the partition of British India was accepted by the British Government. Successor governments would be given dominion status. Autonomy and sovereignty to both countries. The Indian Independence Act is also referred to as the 3 June Plan or the Mountbatten Plan.

  • Option c is incorrect: Wavell presented Breakdown Plan to the Cabinet Mission in May 1946. It visualised a middle course between “repression” and “scuttle”. This plan envisaged the withdrawal of the British Army and officials to the Muslim provinces of North-West and North-East and handing over the rest of the country to the Congress. Wavell’s plan was evidence of British recognition of the impossibility of suppressing any future Congress-led rebellion. Desire in some high official circles to make a “Northern Ireland” of Pakistan.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 12

Courts subjecting a child to non-voluntary paternity tests in divorce proceedings of his parents impedes which of his following Fundamental Rights?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 12
  • Option C is correct: Right against Exploitation contains articles prohibiting traffic in human beings and forced labour and employment of children in factories, etc.

    • Right to equality aims at promoting equality and protects against discrimination.

    • The right to privacy offers protection against activities that seek unwanted and intrusive interference in an individual's personal affairs such as the DNA information of a child.

    • Cultural and educational rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to religious and linguistic minority groups in India, to enable them to preserve their distinct culture, language or script.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 13

Consider the following statements about ‘Fly Ash Management and Utilisation Mission’:

  1. It will monitor scientific management and utilization of fly ash by power projects.

  2. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) will be the nodal agency for this mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 13
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) directed the constitution of a ‘Fly Ash Management and Utilisation Mission in its order dated January 18, 2022. The Mission’s primary goal will be to ‘coordinate and monitor issues relating to the handling and disposal of fly ash and associated issues.’ The order by the NGT takes note of the ‘unscientific handling and storage’ of the fly ash by coal thermal power stations.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Fly Ash Management and Utilisation Mission, besides monitoring the disposal of annual stock of unutilised fly ash, will also see how 1,670 million tonnes of legacy (accumulated) fly ash could be utilized in the least hazardous manner and how all safety measures could be taken by the power plants. The Mission will hold its first meeting within one month to assess the fly ash management situation in coal power plants and to prepare action plans to build road maps for ash utilisation by individual plants. These meetings shall be conducted each month, for a year.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Fly Ash Management and Utilisation Mission seek to coordinate and monitor issues relating to the handling and disposal of fly ash and associated issues. The Mission is to be jointly headed by the secretaries of the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC), Union Ministry of Coal and Power, keeping on board chief secretaries of respective states where the mission is being implemented. The secretary of MoEF&CC will be the nodal agency for coordination and compliance.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 14

In which of the following cases a legislator is disqualified from being a Member of Parliament?

  1. If he/she is not a citizen of India.

  2. If he/she holds any office of profit under the Union or state government.

  3. If he/she is convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for 6 months and above.

  4. If he/she voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 14
  • Disqualification of a legislator

  • Constitutional provisions:

    • The provision for disqualification is given in Article 102 of the Constitution.

    • It specifies that a person shall be disqualified for contesting elections and being a Member of Parliament under certain conditions.

    • If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). Hence option 2 is correct.

    • If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.

    • If he is an undischarged insolvent.

    • If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and Hence option 1 is correct.

    • If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.

    • Article 102 also authorises Parliament to make law determining conditions of disqualifications.

    • There are analogous provisions for members of state legislatures.

  • The Representation of the People Act, 1951: Disqualification on imprisonment:

    • The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that a person will be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more. Hence option 3 is incorrect.

    • The person is disqualified for the period of imprisonment and a further six years.

    • A member incurs disqualification under the defection law: If he voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House; Hence option 4 is correct.

    • If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;

    • If any independently elected member joins any political party; and

    • If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 15

According to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, which one of the following is not categorised as the assets of the Issue Department of the RBI?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 15
Option c is the correct answer.

The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) provides that the Bank shall prepare separately a weekly account of the Issue Department and of the Banking Department in the forms prescribed by the Central Government. This weekly statement is reviewed every week by a Committee of the Central Board of the RBI. The same form holds good in the case of annual accounts of the Bank which is adopted by the Central Board. While Balance Sheets for the Issue and Banking Departments have been kept separate, only one Profit and Loss Account is prepared for the entire bank. The assets of the Issue Department comprise broadly, gold coins and bullion, rupee coins, rupee securities and foreign securities. As per the RBI Act, the only liability of the Issue Department is 'Notes in Circulation'.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 16

With reference to the Seismic waves, consider the following statements:

  1. They are generated due to the release of energy at the focus.

  2. They travel only through the interior of the earth.

  3. They are faster than all the other types of Waves.

The statements given above are related to which of the following types of waves?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 16
  • Seismic waves:

    • When an earthquake occurs, the shockwaves of released energy that shake the Earth and temporarily turn soft deposits are called seismic waves.

    • There are three basic types of seismic waves:

      • P-waves, S-waves and Surface waves (Rayleigh and Love waves).

      • P-waves and S-waves are sometimes collectively called Body Waves.

  • Body waves:

    • Generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth. Hence, the name – body waves.

    • Travel only through the interior of the earth.

    • Faster than surface waves.

  • There are 2 types of body waves: P- primary waves and S-secondary waves.

    • P waves travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials whereas S waves travel only through solid materials.

  • Surface Waves:

    • When the body waves interact with surface rocks, a new set of waves is generated called surface waves.

    • These waves move along the earth's surface.

    • Surface waves are transverse wavesin which particle movement is perpendicular to the wave propagation. Hence, they create crests and troughs in the material through which they pass. They are the most damaging waves.

    • 2 common surface waves are Love waves and Rayleigh waves.

    • Speed of different Waves in descending order:

    • Primary Waves > Secondary Waves > Love Waves > Rayleigh Waves.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 17

Consider the following statements with reference to Employment elasticity:

  1. It is a measure of the percentage change in employment with a change in the inflation rate of an economy.

  2. The higher level of employment elasticity in an economy is an indicator of more labor-intensive growth.

  3. It has steadily increased in India in the past two decades.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 17
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Employment elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with a 1 percentage point change in economic growth (not inflation rate). The employment elasticity indicates the ability of an economy to generate employment opportunities for its population as a percent of its growth (development) process.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The employment elasticity refers to the percentage change in employment associated with a 1% increase in GDP. Therefore, the higher the employment elasticity, the more labour- intensive growth.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: As per the Employment and Unemployment Survey (EUS), jobs growth slowed down to 1.1 per cent between 2012 and 2016 from 2.4 per cent between 2000 and 2005. Employment elasticity, which measures employment growth with GDP growth, reduced to 0.17 in 2016 from 0.20 in 2000. In other words, for every 10 per cent increase in output, employment grew by 1.7 per cent during 2012 and 2016 as against 2 per cent between 2000 and 2012.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 18

How is Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) different from Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)?

  1. DNA is located in the nucleus while RNA is found in the cytoplasm of the cell.

  2. DNA is a double-stranded molecule while RNA is a single-stranded molecule.

  3. DNA replicates on its own, while RNA does not replicate on its own.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 18
Option d is the correct answer.
  • The two main types of nucleic acids are Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) and Ribonucleic Acid (RNA). Both DNA and RNA are made from nucleotides, each containing a five-carbon sugar backbone, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base. DNA provides the code for the cell’s activities, while RNA converts that code into proteins to carry out cellular functions.

  • Statement 1 is correct: DNA is located in the nucleus of a cell and in the mitochondria. RNA is found in the cytoplasm, nucleus and in the ribosome.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The DNA is a double-stranded molecule that has a long chain of nucleotides. The RNA is a single-stranded molecule which has a shorter chain of nucleotides.

  • Statement 3 is correct: DNA replicates on its own, it is self-replicating. DNA replication is the process by which DNA makes a copy of itself during cell division. RNA does not replicate on its own. It is synthesized from DNA when required.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 19

Which of the following may lead to the formation of the Heat dome?

  1. Extreme heat waves

  2. Jet streams

  3. High-pressure atmospheric conditions

  4. Influence of La Niña

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 19
  • Heat Dome:

    • A heat dome occurs when the atmosphere traps hot ocean air like a lid or cap.

  • How does it form?

    • Extreme heat waves have become more frequent in recent decades. Sometimes, the scorching heat is ensnared in what is called a heat dome.

    • This happens when strong, high-pressure atmospheric conditions combine with influences from La Niña, creating vast areas of sweltering heat that gets trapped under the high-pressure "dome."

    • Hence options 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

  • Correlation with jet streams:

    • Typically, heat domes are tied to the behavior of the jet stream, a band of fast winds high in the atmosphere that generally runs west to east.

    • Normally, the jet stream has a wavelike pattern, meandering north and then south and then north again.

    • When these meanders in the jet stream become bigger, they move slower and can become stationary. That’s when heat domes can occur. Hence option 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 20

With reference to the powers and duties of the Governor in India, consider the following statements:

  1. S/he does not have a fixed term of service.

  2. A report by him/her is a not a necessary precondition for declaration of President’s Rule in a state.

  3. S/he cannot commute a death sentence awarded under a law of the state.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 20
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: A Governor is a constitutional functionary whose office generally has a term of 5 years. However, his/her term is subject to the ‘pleasure of the President’. This means that he can be removed at any time by the President if he so wishes. The Supreme Court also clarified regarding this matter, that the ‘pleasure of the President’ is not justifiable, i.e. the President needn’t specify his reason for removing a governor. So, a Governor has no fixed term of office and no security of tenure.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Article 356 empowers the President to declare emergency in a state known as President’s Rule if he’s convinced that there has been a breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state, and its government can no longer be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution.

  • The President may determine that such a situation has arrived:

    • Either on the basis of a report by the Governor of that state

    • Suo motu

  • Thus a report by the governor saying that there has been a breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state is not a necessary precondition for declaration of President’s Rule in that state.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Unlike the President, the Governor of a state cannot Pardon (meaning that a person has been absolved of his crime) a death sentence. Under Article 161 of the Indian constitution, the Governor can however commute, remit, suspend or provide reprieve from a death sentence awarded under a law of the state.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 21

Identify the correct set of countries among the following that share their border with Ukraine?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 21
Option a is the correct answer.

Ukraine, a country located in eastern Europe, the second largest on the continent after Russia. The capital is Kyiv (Kiev), located on the Dnieper River in north-central Ukraine. Ukraine is bordered by Belarus to the north, Russia to the east, the Sea of Azov and the Black Sea to the south, Moldova and Romania to the southwest, and Hungary, Slovakia, and Poland to the west. In the far southeast, Ukraine is separated from Russia by the Kerch Strait, which connects the Sea of Azov to the Black Sea.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 22

With reference to the Indian Economy, ‘Sterilization Operation’ is to be carried out in which of the following scenarios?

  1. Balance of Payments Surplus

  2. Stagflation

  3. Unemployment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 22
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Sterilization is a form of monetary action in which a central bank seeks to limit the effect of inflows and outflows of capital on the money supply.

  • Scenarios 1 is correct: Sterilization most frequently involves the purchase or sale of financial assets by a central bank and is designed to offset the effect of foreign exchange intervention. An excess demand for goods and financial assets leads to a disequilibrium in the foreign exchange market and the balance of payments. The resulting excess supply of real money balances leads to changes in domestic prices, interest rates, and output. Thus, sterilization is performed.

  • Scenarios 2 and 3 are incorrect: Stagflation is characterized by slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment. Both Stagflation and Unemployment do not have causation and direct correlation with ‘Sterilization’ as it is done in view of keeping a check on the volatility of domestic currency.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 23

Consider the following paragraph:

“This Agency was founded along with the League of Nations in 1919. It is also the oldest and the first specialized agency of the United Nations. Its mandate is to advance social and economic justice. It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It has also received a Nobel Peace Prize for its efforts in 1969.”

Which among the following agencies has been described in the above given paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 23
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Option a is incorrect: The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security. Its Latin motto, fiat panis, translates to "let there be bread". It was founded on 16th October 1945. Its parent Organisation is United Nations Economic and Social Council.

  • Option b is incorrect: UNESCO is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN). UNESCO was founded on 16 November 1945. The main goals of the organization are to ensure lasting stability and peace within realms of humanity, culture, and education through unification of many nations.

  • Option c is correct: International Labour Organization (ILO) was founded in October 1919 under the League of Nations. It is the first and oldest specialised agency of the UN. The ILO has 187 member states. It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, with around 40 field offices around the world. Its mandate is to advance social and economic justice through setting international labour standards. In 1969, the ILO received the Nobel Peace Prize for improving fraternity and peace among nations, pursuing decent work and justice for workers, and providing technical assistance to other developing nations. Within the UN system the ILO has a unique tripartite structure: all standards, policies, and programmes require discussions and approval from the representatives of governments, employers, and workers.

  • Option d is incorrect: The Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees was established on December 14, 1950 by the United Nations General Assembly. The agency is mandated to lead and co- ordinate international action to protect refugees and resolve refugee problems worldwide. Its primary purpose is to safeguard the rights and well-being of refugees. The Nobel Peace Prize 1954 was awarded to Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 24

Consider the following statements:

  1. Ice-contact lakes and Distal lakes are the two types of Glacial lakes.

  2. These lakes are often found in steep mountainous regions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is correct: A glacial lake is a body of water that originates from a glacier. It typically forms at the foot of a glacier but may form on, in, or under it. They are commonly divided into two main groups: ice-contact lakes which are characterized by the presence of glacier ice terminating in lake water and distal lakes which are somewhat distant but still influenced by, the presence of glaciers and/or ice sheets.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Glacial lakes are often found in steep, mountainous regions.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 25

Anatolian plate mainly comprising Turkey is surrounded by which of the following tectonic plates?

  1. Nazca plate

  2. Aegean Sea Plate

  3. Cocos plate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 25
  • Anatolian tectonic plate:

    • The Anatolian Plate is a continental tectonic plate comprising most of the Anatolia (Asia Minor) peninsula (and the country of Turkey).

    • Turkey is frequently shaken by earthquakes due to the location of this plate.

  • Boundaries:

    • To the east, the East Anatolian Fault.

    • To the left, it forms a boundary with the Arabian Plate.

    • To the south and southwest is a convergent boundary with the African Plate.

  • Aegean Sea Plate:

    • In addition to this, the Aegean Sea Plate, located in the eastern Mediterranean Sea under southern Greece and western Turkey, is also a source of seismic activity in the region

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 26

Which of the following Monsoons account for most of the rainfall in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 26
The southwestern summer monsoons occur from July through September. Most of the rainfall in India, particularly, North, West and East, occurs due to South West Monsoon.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 27

Kelp forests are predominantly found in which of the following regions in the world?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 27
  • Kelp forests:

    • Kelp forests are underwater areas with a high density of kelp, which covers a large part of the world's coastlines. Smaller areas of anchored kelp are called kelp beds.

    • Kelp are not plants, but rather extremely large brown algae, and many different species of kelp make up kelp forests.

    • Habitat: Kelps usually live further from the tropics than coral reefs, mangrove forests, and warmwater seagrass beds, so kelp forests do not overlap with those systems.

    • Global presence: Kelp forests grow predominantly along the Eastern Pacific Coast, from Alaska and Canada to the waters of Baja, California.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 28

Anatolian tectonic plate which was recently in news is located in which of the following regions?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 28
  • Anatolian tectonic plate:

    • The Anatolian Plate is a continental tectonic plate comprising most of the Anatolia (Asia Minor) peninsula (and the country of Turkey).

    • Turkey is frequently shaken by earthquakes due to the location of this plate.

  • Boundaries:

    • To the east, the East Anatolian Fault.

    • To the left it forms a boundary with the Arabian Plate.

    • To the south and southwest is a convergent boundary with the African Plate.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 29

Which among the following statements is correct about the Sutlej River System?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 29
Option c is the correct answer
  • The Sutlej River is the longest of the five rivers that flow through the historic crossroads region of Punjab in northern India and Pakistan.

  • Option a is incorrect: The Indus River also originates from Tibet. It originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Tibetan region. The Sutlej originates in the Rakshastal lake near Mansarovar lake in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab. Rakshastal lake is located just west of Lake Mansarovar and south of Mount Kailash. It originates at Rakshastal's northwestern tip.

  • Option b is incorrect: Sutlej is the easternmost tributary of the Indus River. It is also the longest of the five main tributaries of the Indus River.

  • Option c is correct: The Sutlej River crosses two states in India namely Himachal Pradesh and Punjab. Flowing northwestward and then west-southwestward through Himalayan gorges, it enters and crosses the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh before beginning its flow through the Punjab plain near Nangal, Punjab state.

  • Option d is incorrect: Sutlej is joined by the Chenab River in Pakistan. The Sutlej is joined by the Beas River in Hari-Ke-Patan, Amritsar, Punjab, India. It continues southwest into Pakistan to unite with the Chenab River, forming the Panjnad River near Bahawalpur.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 30

Which of the following are the criticisms associated with the Agnipath Scheme?

  1. There was no Pilot Project undertaken to Test the Scheme.

  2. Such a scheme structure was declined by the Kargil Review Committee.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 30

Agnipath Recruitment Scheme:

  • About:

  • Around 45,000 to 50,000 soldiers will be recruited annually, and most will leave the service in just four years.

  • Of the total annual recruits, only 25 percent will be allowed to continue for another 15 years under permanent commission.

  • Recruits under the scheme will be known as “Agniveers”.

  • Statement 1 is correct:

    • Concerns: No Pilot Project to Test the Scheme; Lead to the militarization of the society. May Dilute professionalism, military ethos and fighting spirit (takes 7-8 yrs to become fully ready combat soldier) Will hit the basic ethos of Naam, Namak & Nishan (reputation of Battalion, fidelity & ensign) Tourist soldiering is not a good idea for India’s security challenges.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: The government also told the court that the impugned scheme is the result of various studies and deliberations such as the Kargil Review Committee, which proposed the retention of soldiers for a shorter duration of time as opposed to the existing structure of 15 to 20 years.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 31

Which of the following best describes the ‘Teres’ platform that was recently in news?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 31
  • Artificial Intelligence in Judiciary:

    • The Supreme Court recently started a first-of-its-kind project to transcribe its proceedings live using Artificial Intelligence (AI).

  • Suggested by Indira Jaising:

    • The suggestion to transcribe hearings was made by senior advocate Indira Jaising in the plea she had filed seeking a live telecast of court proceedings.

  • Platform:

    • The SC transcription is using Teres, which is a platform used often for transcribing arbitration proceedings.

    • The platform is run by Nomology Technology Private Limited, a Bengaluru-based company.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 32

With reference to the role of women in Modern Indian History, which of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 32
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Remarking upon the role played by women in the freedom struggle, Mahatma Gandhi had said, “When the history of India’s fight for independence comes to be written, the sacrifice made by the women of India will occupy the foremost place.”

  • Statement a is incorrect: There was a widespread participation of women during non-cooperation movement (1920). Sarla Devi, Muthulaxmi Reddy, Susheela Nair, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Sucheta Kripalani and Aruna Asaf Ali are some the women who participated in the non-violent movement.

    • Women gave up purdah and offered their ornaments for the Tilak Fund. They joined the movement in large numbers and took active part in picketing before the shops selling foreign cloth and liquor.

  • Statement b is incorrect: Gandhiji inaugurated the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930 by conducting the historic Dandi Salt March, where he broke the Salt Laws imposed by the British Government. Gandhi had specially asked women to play a leading part in the movement. Soon, they became a familiar sight, picketing outside liquor shops, opium dens and shops selling foreign cloth. For Indian women, the Civil Disobedience movement (and not the Quit India movement) was the most liberating experience and can truly be said to have marked their entry into the public sphere.

  • Statement c is correct: There was a large-scale participation of young women especially under Surya Sen in Bengal. These women provided shelter, carried messages and fought with guns in hand. Prominent women revolutionaries in Bengal during this phase included Pritilata Waddedar, who died conducting a raid; Kalpana Dutt who was arrested and tried along with Surya Sen and given a life sentence; Santi Ghosh and Suniti Chandheri, school girls of Comilla, who shot dead the district magistrate. (December 1931); and Bina Das who fired point blank at the governor while receiving her degree at the convocation (February 1932).

  • Statement d is incorrect: In August 1942, the Quit India movement was launched. Following Gandhi’s call for civil disobedience on August 8, 1942, he along with other leaders were imprisoned, leaving the movement leaderless. With the majority of the men behind bars, n took to the streets, raising slogans, holding public lectures and demonstrations, and even making and transporting explosives. Usha Mehta, a committed patriot set up a radio transmitter, called the "Voice of Freedom" to disseminate the "mantra" of freedom-war. News of protest and arrests, deeds of young nationalists, and Gandhi’s famous "Do or Die" message for the Quit India movement were circulated amongst the masses. Kalpana Dutt was involved in the revolutionary activity in Bengal.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 33

Consider the following statements:

  1. Under the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India, a suit can be brought before the Court by a private citizen against the Centre.

  2. The writ jurisdiction of the High Court under Article 226 extends to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.

  3. According to the Constitution of India, both the Supreme Court of India and the High Court act as a court of record.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 33
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. In the federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. With regard to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, two points should be noted. One, the dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. Thus, the questions of political nature are excluded from it. Two, any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a state cannot be entertained under this.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo-warrento for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. The writ jurisdiction of the high court (under Article 226) is not exclusive but concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (under Article 32). It means, when the fundamental rights of a citizen are violated, the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the high court or the Supreme Court directly. However, the writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and whereas writ jurisdiction of the high court extends for any other purpose, that is, to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.

  • Statement 3 is correct: According to Article 129 and 225 of Indian Constitution, both Supreme Court and High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 34

With reference to Non-Resident India (NRI) and Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) cardholders, which of the following statements is not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 34
Option c is the correct answer.
  • An Indian citizen who is ordinarily residing outside India and holds an Indian Passport is known as Non- Resident India (NRI). Whereas, a person registered as Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholder under section 7A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 is known as OCI.

  • Statement a is correct: Registered Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder are treated at par with Non- Resident-Indians in the matter of inter-country adoption of Indian children. OCI enjoy parity with Non- Resident Indians (NRIs) in respect of all facilities available to them in economic, financial, and educational fields except in matters relating to the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties.

  • Statement b is correct: Registered Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder are treated at par with resident Indian nationals in the matter of tariffs in air fares in domestic sectors in India. Registered Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder are also charged the same entry fee as domestic Indian visitors to visit national parks and wildlife sanctuaries and national monuments, historical sites and museums in India.

  • Statement c is incorrect: Both NRI and OCI can pursue profession in India and there is no blanket restriction on OCI. OCI also enjoy parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRI) in respect of pursuing the following professions in India, in pursuance of the provisions contained in the relevant Acts, namely: Doctors, dentists, nurses and pharmacists; Advocates Architects Chartered Accountants To appear for the All-India Pre-Medical Test or such other tests to make them eligible for admission in pursuance of the provisions contained in the relevant Acts.

  • Statement d is correct: All activities are permitted for NRI cardholders in India. However, OCI are permitted to engage in any activity except research work for which special permission is required from the Indian Mission/Post/FRRO concerned.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 35

With reference to NITI Aayog, consider the following statements:

  1. It provides both directional and policy inputs to the Government.

  2. Fostering cooperative federalism is one of the objectives of the Aayog.

  3. There is no active involvement of states in the Governing Council of the Aayog.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 35
  • Statement 1 is correct: NITI Aayog was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2015. As the apex think tank of India’s government, NITI Aayog provides both directional and policy inputs.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The numerous objectives of the NITI Aayog include fostering cooperative federalism, evolving a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors and strategies with the active involvement of states, and developing mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: The Governing Council is the premier body tasked with evolving a shared vision of national priorities and strategies, with the active involvement of States, in shaping the development narrative.

    • It comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislatures and Lt Governors of other Union Territories. Prime Minister is the chairman of the Governing Council.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 36

With reference to PM KUSUM scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to increase India's solar water pump manufacturing capacity.

  2. This scheme is launched under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 36
  • Statement 1 is correct: The objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) include de-dieselisation of the farm sector, providing water and energy security to farmers, increasing the income of farmers and curbing environmental pollution.

    • To achieve these objectives, following targets have been kept under the Scheme:

      • Component-A: 10,000 MW of Decentralized Ground Mounted Grid Connected Solar Power Plants.

      • Component-B: Installation of 20 lakh standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.

      • Component-C: Solarisation of 15 Lakh Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps including through Feeder Level Solarisation.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has launched ‘Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (KUSUM) Scheme for solarisation of the agriculture sector.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 37

In the context of the Mental Healthcare Act (NHA), 2017, consider the following statements.

  1. It establishes a Central Mental Health Authority to regulate mental healthcare.

  2. It decriminalizes attempted suicide, recognizing that suicide is a symptom of mental illness.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 37
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Mental Healthcare Act (NHA), 2017, establishes a Central Mental Health Authority and State Mental Health Authorities to regulate mental healthcare and services and to promote mental health. • It establishes mental health services at the district level to provide access to mental healthcare and Mental Health Review Boards (MHRBs) to oversee the treatment of persons with mental illness and to protect their rights.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Mental Healthcare Act (NHA), 2017 decriminalizes attempted suicide, recognizing that suicide is often a symptom of mental illness, and provides care and treatment for persons who attempt suicide.

    • Attempted suicide is self-injury with the desire to end one's life that does not result in death. According to the WHO, around 8 lakh people die of suicide every year, and up to 25 times as many make a suicide attempt.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 38

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the draft Geo-heritage Sites and Geo-relics bill, 2022?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 38
  • Draft Geo-heritage Sites and Geo-relics (Preservation and Maintenance) Bill:

    • Aim:

      • The Bill is aimed at providing for the declaration, preservation, protection and maintenance of geo-heritage sites and geo-relics of national importance, for geological studies, education, research and awareness purposes.

    • Definitions:

      • The draft bill defines Geoheritage sites as:

      • Sites containing geo-relics and phenomena, stratigraphic type sections, geological structures and geomorphic landforms including caves, natural rock-sculptures of national and international interest; and includes such portion of land adjoining the site, that may be required for their conservation or to access to such sites.

    • A Geo-relic is defined as:

      • Any relic or material of a geological significance or interest like sediments, rocks, minerals, meteorite or fossils.

      • The GSI will have the power to acquire geo-relics “for its preservation and maintenance”. Hence statement (a) is correct.

    • Compensation to the land owners:

      • Provision is made for compensation to the owner or occupier of land who incurs loss or damage from the land due to the exercise of any power under this Act.

      • The market value of any property will be ascertained in accordance with the principles set out in the RFCTLARR Act. Hence statement (c) is not correct.

    • Prohobitions:

      • The Bill imposes a prohibition on construction, reconstruction, repair or renovation of any building within the geoheritage site area or utilisation of such area in any other manner, except for construction for preservation and maintenance of geoheritage site or any public work essential to the public. Hence statement (b)is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 39

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Vande Bharat Express?

  1. The Vande Bharat Express was earlier known as Train 18.

  2. The first ‘Vande Bharat Express’ train was flagged off on the New Delhi – Kanpur – Allahabad – Varanasi- route in February 2019.

Choose the correct answer from options given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 39
  • Statements 1 is correct: Vande Bharat is India’s first indigenous Semi High-Speed Train. The Vande Bharat Express, earlier known as Train 18, is an electric multiple-unit train designed and manufactured by the government-owned Integral Coach Factory (ICF), Chennai.

  • Statements 2 is correct: The first ‘Vande Bharat Express’ train was flagged off on the New Delhi – Kanpur – Allahabad – Varanasi- route in February 2019.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 40

What is the aim of the recently launched ‘Unbottled Initiative’ by the Prime Minister?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 40
The uniforms under the ‘Unbottled’ initiative of Indian Oil were launched by the PM. Indian Oil is taking the initiative through ‘Unbottled’ - a brand for sustainable garments launched for merchandise made from recycled polyester.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 41

With reference to Delimitation in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The total number of seats in a State Legislative Assembly is fixed by a Delimitation Commission.

  2. It aims at a fair division of geographical areas for an election.

  3. Delimitation Commission is responsible for identifying reserved seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 41
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census. Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission made up of a retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner and the respective State Election Commissioners.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state Assembly seats to represent changes in population. In this process, the number of seats allocated to different states in Lok Sabha and the total number seats in a Legislative Assembly may also change. Thus, the total number seats in a Legislative Assembly are fixed by a Delimitation Commission.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The main objective of delimitation is to provide equal representation to equal segments of a population. It also aims at a fair division of geographical areas so that one political party doesn’t have an advantage over others in an election. Delimitation is carried out by an independent Delimitation Commission.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Delimitation Commission is tasked with identifying seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha. These are where their population is relatively large. However, in Rajya Sabha there is no reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 42

“This dramatic form was started during the time of the Portuguese rule in Kerala in the 16th century A.D. It is a Christian folk drama from Kerala. It involves the staging of a musical drama with stamping of feet and exotic costumes. It also shows the influence of Kalaripayattu as it involves energetic fighting scenes.”

The above paragraph is referring to which of the following folk theatres from south India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 42
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Chavittunatakam is a Christian folk drama of Kerala. It was emerged earlier in the 16th century and was practiced by the Latin Christians in the beginning. The Portuguese influence in Kerala brought into existence Chavittunatakam a new art form with songs, dialogues and dances, similar to the miracle plays of the West.

  • In the performance of Chavittunatakam, the actors often stamp the foot to represent the heroic mood.

  • The steps, stamping and the locomotion of the body continued along with the vocal singing.

  • Chavittunatakam is generally performed on open stages. The performance of Chavittunatakam involves energetic fighting scenes, which shows the influence of Kalaripayattu.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 43

India successfully test-fired a Stand-off Anti-tank (SANT) missile off the coast of Odisha. With reference to this SANT missile, which of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 43
Option a is the correct answer.
  • India has successfully test-fired Stand-off Anti-tank (SANT) missile from a roof-top launcher at the Integrated Test Range (ITR) off the coast of Odisha. The missile has been designed and developed by Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad in coordination with other DRDO labs. This is the third in the series of indigenous standoff weapons to be tested in recent times after long range bomb and smart anti airfield weapon for strengthening the arsenal of IAF.

  • Statement a is correct: SANT is one of the best airborne anti-armour guided missiles in the world. The missile has both lock-on before launch and lock-on after launch capability. The missile will be inducted after a couple of similar tests from on-board light combat helicopters and advanced light helicopters.

  • Statement b is incorrect: SANT is the fourth-generation missile upgraded variant of HELINA (helicopter-based NAG) missile developed by DRDO.

  • Statement c is incorrect: SANT is an indigenously designed and developed air-to-surface missile.

  • Statement d is incorrect: It is equipped with a state-of-the-art millimetre wave (MMW) seeker, which provides high precision strike capability from a safe distance, the weapon can neutralise targets in a range upto 10 km (not 1000).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 44

Consider the following statements regarding Buddhist Literature:

  1. The sacred book of Buddhism “the Tripitaka” was first composed in the Prakrit language.

  2. North Indian Buddhist texts were written in hybrid Sanskrit.

  3. Outside India, the Buddhist canon was generally transmitted through the Tibetan and Chinese languages.

  4. Famous Buddhist text Mahāyāna Sūtras can be found in the Sanskrit manuscript.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 44
Option d is the correct answer.
  • During the Buddha's lifetime, Buddhist literature was written in his native Indian dialect, rather than Vedic Sanskrit, which had become unintelligible to the general public. He also urged his monks to spread his teachings in the vernacular. The Buddhist canon was formed and passed down orally after his death, and it was written down in numerous versions in the 1st and 2nd centuries BC.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The sacred book of Buddhism is called the Tripitaka (called Tipitaka in Pali). It is also called the Pali Canon (not Prakrit), after the language in which it was first written.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The languages in which the editions of the Buddhist canon are preserved fall into two categories. First, there are the languages and dialects in which the texts circulated in India. These include local Prakrits such as Magadhi, Pali and the North-Western Prakrit as well as Sanskrit. Thus, north Indian Buddhist texts were written in a type of Sanskrit influenced by the vernaculars.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Of the numerous languages of translation which preserved the canon outside India, Tibetan and Chinese are the most important, as they constitute the only languages into which the Indian texts were directly transmitted. Most other languages are secondary, in that they are based on either Tibetan or Chinese.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The Mahāyāna Sūtras are a broad genre of Buddhist sutra scriptures that are accepted as canonical and as buddhavacana ("Buddha word") in Mahāyāna Buddhism. They are largely preserved in the Chinese Buddhist canon, the Tibetan Buddhist canon, and in extant Sanskrit manuscripts. Several hundred Mahāyāna sūtras survive in Sanskrit, or in Chinese and Tibetan translations.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 45

In India, against whom a complaint can be filed with the Lokpal of India?

  1. Prime Minister of India

  2. Group ‘D’ employees of the Government of India

  3. IAS officers

  4. Members of the Rajya Sabha

  5. President of India

  6. Union Minister

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 45
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Option 1 is correct: Under Section 14, of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 a complaint can be filed against any person who is or has been a Prime Minister (with some exclusion which relates to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space).

  • Option 2 is correct: In terms of provisions under Section 14, of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 a complaint can be filed against any person who is or has been a Group ‘C’ or Group ‘D’ official or equivalent serving in connection with the affairs of the Government of India.

  • Option 3 is correct: IAS officers are public servants within the meaning of section 2 of the Act. However, consent of the State Government would be necessary before Lokpal orders an Inquiry in respect of such an officer if he is employed in connection with the affairs of a State Government.

  • Option 4 is correct: Under Section 14, of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 a complaint can be filed against an any person who is or has been a Member of either House of Parliament.

  • Option 5 is incorrect: In terms of provisions under Section 14, of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 a complaint cannot be filed against President of India.

  • Option 6 is correct: Under Section 14, of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 a complaint can be filed against any person who is or has been a Minister of Union.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 46

Which of the following Indian states have more than one capital?

  1. Madhya Pradesh

  2. Maharashtra

  3. Tamil Nadu

  4. Himachal Pradesh

Select the answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 46
  • Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh does not have 2 capitals:

    • Maharashtra has two capitals Mumbai and Nagpur with the latter being the winter capital of the state.

    • Himachal Pradesh has two capitals Dharamshala and Shimla. The latter is considered the summer capital because the region receives heavy snowfall during winter, causing landslides.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 47

With reference to the banking in India, which of the following statements correctly defines the term ‘spread’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 47
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Spread refers to the difference in borrowing rates and lending rates of financial institutions. Bank spread is the difference between the interest rate that a bank charges a borrower and the interest rate a bank pays a depositor. In other words, it is the difference between the borrowing and lending interest rates of the bank.

  • For example, if a bank lends money to customers at an average rate of 7%. At the same time, the interest rates the bank pays on funds that customers deposit into their personal accounts is 3%. The net interest spread of the bank would be 4%.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 48

With reference to the Angel Funds in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Angel investors are individuals who invest in start-up businesses, usually in their early stages.

  2. These funds are regulated by the Security and Exchange Board of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 48
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Angel investment is a form of equity financing where the investor supplies funding in exchange of taking an equity position in the company.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Angel funds refers to a money pool created by high-net-worth individuals or companies (generally called as angel investors), for investing in business start-ups. They are a sub- category of venture capital funds with strict focus on start-ups, while venture capital funds generally invest at a later stage of development of the investee company. Angel investors are individuals who invest in start-up businesses in the early stages.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Angel funds in India are regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under the umbrella regulations for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). It is defined in SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) (Amendment) Regulations, 2013. Here, Angel fund is defined as a sub- category of Venture Capital Fund under Category I- Alternative Investment Fund (AIF).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 49

In terms of economy, Fiscal Slippage may result in which of the following situations?

  1. Rise in government borrowings

  2. Crowding out of corporate borrowers from the market

  3. Decrease in yields of the government securities

  4. Higher capital expenditure

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 49
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Fiscal slippage refers to the missing of fiscal targets in the country's budget.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Fiscal Slippage may lead to rising state government borrowings which could derail fiscal consolidation, fuel inflation, increase interest rates. The Government may force the central bank to change its interest rate target, in order to keep inflation where it wants it.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Fiscal Slippage may lead to higher borrowings. Higher borrowings from the Centre and states have led to hardening in borrowing rates, threatening to crowd out corporate borrowers from the market.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Fiscal Slippage may lead to higher borrowings. Higher borrowings from the Centre and states have led to rise in borrowing rates. As the investor base for G-Sec and State Development Loans (SDLs) are almost the same, the continuous and large supply of SDLs had resulted in hardening of yields of the central government securities. Thus, it increases yields of the central government securities.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Fiscal Slippage may lead to more spending by the government, as it has been highlighted in the Economic Survey. Thus, it may lead to higher capital expenditure.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 50

Which of the following are the implications on the Indian Economy of the increase in the interest rate by the US Federal Reserve?

  1. Inflation in India may increase

  2. Selling of Indian equities by Foreign institutional investors

  3. The bond prices in India will rise

  4. The public debt to GDP ratio of India may increase

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 50
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Higher interest rates in the US usually lead to foreign investors pulling their money from emerging markets like India. It will put pressure on the RBI to hike interest rates or lead to rupee depreciation against the dollar, which again would lead to imported inflation for India.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Higher interest rates in the US usually lead to selling of Indian equities by Foreign institutional investors and thus capital flight may occur.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: A higher U.S. interest rate will cause depreciation of Rupee against the Dollar. This means foreign investors will earn fewer returns, so they will take out their money from India. To add to this, the Reserve Bank of India will also probably increase the interest rates in India as the spread between U.S. and Indian government bonds will narrow. The increases in interest rates in India may cause the bond prices to fall.

  • Statement 4 is correct: As money flows out of India, it would affect the rupee-dollar exchange rate, depreciating the rupee. Such depreciation would put considerable pressure on the already high import prices of crude and raw materials. Higher import prices of crude would send these numbers out of range, making government borrowings costlier, as also increasing the public debt to GDP ratio.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 51

With reference to Leftist Movement in India during British Period, consider the following statements:

  1. The Indian Communists emphasised on eradication of class struggle.

  2. All democratic socialists emphasized on establishment of a socialist state based on Marxist ideologies.

  3. All India Workers and Peasants Party (WPP) functioned within the Indian National Congress.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 51
Option d is the correct answer.
  • The Indian Left consisted of the Radical Humanists led by M. N. Roy, Indian Communists led by Shripad Amrit Dange and the Democratic Socialists led by Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Communism ideology was propagated by Marx and Engels which claimed to achieve its first revolution as Russian-Revolution (1917) that influenced the entire world under the power-struggle of imperialism and colonialism. The communists led by M.N Roy reiterated the Marxian dictum which was a subordinate of the Russian-Communism and was more aligned to their idea of ending class-struggle. The idea of freedom from the British Imperialism was a proxy to their main ideology.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Socialists aimed at the establishment of a socialist state through class struggle based on the teachings of Marx and Lenin, and on the model of Soviet Russia, subject to modifications, if required by Indian conditions. While the other school of socialists led by Jayaprakash Narayan, Narendra Deo and Dr. Lohia were more influenced by Gandhian ideas on socialist state. Hence not all democratic socialists emphasized on Marxist ideologies.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The All India Workers and Peasants Party (WPP) was formed in 1928 as an independent party to work within the Indian National Congress. The WPP was conceived as an organisational form of the united front of the working class, the peasants and the petty-bourgeoisie to carry out the national democratic revolution by radicalising congress ideologies.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 52

Which of the following statements regarding the Deoband Movement is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 52
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Social and religious reform movements prompted among all Indian communities laid the foundation of modernization and paved the way for growth of national consciousness for attaining independence and reconstruction of Indian society.

  • Statement a is incorrect: The Walliullah Movement popularised by Shah Abdul Aziz and Syed Ahmed Barelvi, who considered India to be dar-ul-Harb (land of the kafirs) and it needed to be converted to dar- ul Islam (land of Islam).

  • Statement b is incorrect: Mirza Ghulam Ahmed founded the Ahmadiya Movement and emphasised upon the modern education and the universal and humanitarian character of Islam. He opposed jihad, advocated fraternal relations among the people and advocated spread of Western liberal education among Indian Muslims.

  • Statement c is correct: The Deoband Movement was organised by the orthodox section among the Muslim ulema as a revivalist movement with the twin objectives of propagating pure teachings of the Quran and Hadis among Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of jihad against the foreign rulers.

  • Statement d is incorrect: Faraizi Movement, also called the Faraidi Movement, laid emphasis on the Islamic pillars of faith and was founded by Haji Shariat-Allah. Its scene of action was East Bengal, and it aimed at the eradication of social innovations or un-Islamic practices prevalent among the Muslims of the region.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 53

Which among the following is the most appropriate reason why Article 1 of the Indian Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of states’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 53
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country, and two, type of polity.

  • Option a is correct and c is incorrect: According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is a Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.

  • Statement b is incorrect: In India, the states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis on population where the membership varies from 1 to 31. While, In US the principle of equality of representation of states in the Upper House is fully recognised. Statement d is incorrect. There is no such provision in the constitution which allows two or more states to override the union government in law making.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 54

Who published the newspaper “Young India”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 54
A weekly journal, Young India was published in English by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi from 1919 to 1932 to spread his unique ideology and thoughts regarding the use of nonviolence in organising movements and to urge readers to consider, organise and plan for India's eventual independence from Britain.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 55

Which of the following is/are applications of the Internet of Things (IoT)?

  1. Increase internet surfing speed

  2. Revolutionizing the farming industry

  3. Predicting energy shortages

  4. Transferring media files on Digital Versatile Disc

  5. Monitoring Heart ailments

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 55
Option c is correct.
  • The Internet of Things (IoT) is the next phase of the industrial revolution that binds the "real world" with the "digital world," allowing for easy communication between people, objects, and processes.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Multiple factors affect the speed and quality of your internet connection. Transfer technology, your location, the number of people you share the connection with and the device you use are only some of these factors. Also, how Internet Service Provider [ISP] regulates the internet network traffic, determines the speed of the internet. However, Internet of things-based technology have no role with respect to internet speed regulation.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Farmers can use intelligent IoT farming applications to optimize many time- consuming farm operations, presenting opportunities to revolutionize the farming industry. It can help you determine the best time to harvest crops, generate soil chemistry-based fertilizer profiles, and detect soil nutrients and moisture concentrations. E.g- Monitoring weather conditions; Smart Greenhouse automation etc.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The smart grid is the IoT that attends to energy systems. Utility companies use smart grid technologies to find energy efficiencies through various means, including monitoring energy consumption, predicting energy shortages and power outages, and gathering data on how different individuals and companies use energy.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Digital versatile disc (DVD), is a type of optical disc used for data storage and as a platform for multimedia. It doesn’t not require internet for transferring files or operating it. Hence it doesn’t require Internet of Things.

  • Statement 5 is correct: The IoT provides enhanced modernization, efficiency, and flexibility.in healthcare sector. Unavailability of patients can help them up with required treatment as IoT provides a path through attaching sensors to patients at home. Through these sensors, doctors can monitor and track patients progress, and alerts can inform doctors of any emergencies, like a heart attack.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 56

Consider the following statements:

  1. Floating Rate Bonds are transferrable securities that do not have a fixed coupon rate.

  2. Inflation Indexed Bonds (IIBs) provide inflation protection to both principal and interest payments.

  3. Zero coupon bonds are only short-term maturity bonds without any interest payments to the bondholders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 56
Option b is correct.
  • Bonds are investment securities where an investor lends money to a company or a government for a set period of time, in exchange for regular interest payments.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Floating Rate Bonds (FRBs) are non-transferable securities which do not have a fixed coupon rate. Instead it has a variable coupon rate which is re-set at pre-announced intervals. FRBs were first issued in September 1995 in India.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Inflation Indexed Bonds (IIBs) are bonds where the principal is indexed to inflation. They are designed to cut out the inflation risk of an investment. In the current Indian context, the bonds would be issued and traded at a ‘Real yield’ and the principal of the bond would be adjusted to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) It provides inflation protection to both principal and interest payments.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Zero-coupon bonds, also known as discount bonds, do not pay any interest to the bondholders. It means investors buy zero coupon bonds at deep-discounted from their face value, which is the amount the investor will receive when the bond matures. The maturity dates on zero coupon bonds are usually long-term—many don’t mature for ten, fifteen, or more years. These long-term maturity dates allow an investor to plan for a long-range goal, such as paying for a child’s college education. With the deep discount, an investor can put up a small amount of money that can grow over many years.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 57

Which of the following factors are responsible for causing variations in insolation?

  1. The rotation of the earth on its axis

  2. The transparency of the atmosphere

  3. Longitudinal variations of a place

  4. Configuration of land in terms of its aspect

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 20 - Question 57
Option c is the correct answer.
  • The energy received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation which in short is termed as insolation.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The rotation of earth on its axis affects variations in isolation with the fact that the earth’s axis makes an angle of 661⁄2 with the plane of its orbit round the sun has a greater influence on the amount of insolation received at different latitudes.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The atmosphere is largely transparent to short wave solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s surface. Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other gases absorb much of the near infrared radiation. Hence affecting the variations in insolation.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The second factor that determines the amount of insolation received is the angle of inclination of the rays. This depends on the latitude of a place. The higher the latitude the less is the angle they make with the surface of the earth resulting in slant sun rays. While, longitude doesn’t play any role in variations of insolation.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The insolation received at the surface varies in the tropics and in the poles. The area covered by vertical rays is always less than the slant rays. Insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator