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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI).

  1. Purchasing Managers’ Index is an economic indicator that is calculated from monthly surveys of purchasing managers and supply executives from specific companies.
  2. It is applicable only for manufacturing and not for the service sector.
  3. A figure above 50 denotes an expansion while anything below 50 denotes a contraction in activity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 1

It is an economic indicator that is calculated from monthly surveys of purchasing managers and supply executives from specific companies. PMI Manufacturing gives an indication of the economic health of the manufacturing sector. The most followed PMI readings come from Markit and Institute of Supply Management.

It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index too is constructed.

A figure above 50 denotes an expansion while anything below 50 denotes a contraction in activity. The higher the difference from this mid-point of 50, greater the expansion or contraction.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding BioCNG:

  1. It is a purified form of biogas with a major content of butane and propane.

  2. It can be obtained from pure cellulosic biomass.

  3. Increased production of BioCNG in India will help reduce import dependency on petroleum products.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 2

Bio-CNG is a purified form of biogas with over 95% pure methane gas. It is similar to natural gas in its composition (97% methane) and energy potential. While natural gas is a fossil fuel, Bio-CNG is a renewable form of energy produced from agricultural and food-waste. Bio-CNG is being looked at as an environment-friendly alternative to diesel.
This Bio-CNG can be used to power automobiles with the same efficiency as fossil fuel CNG.
Bio-CNG has a high calorific value and can be used in blast furnaces; also it can be converted into electricity.

Various sources of biomass are as follows: wood, waste, and alcohol fuels. 

  1. Wood energy is derived both from direct use of harvested wood as a fuel and from Wood waste streams. The largest source of energy from wood is pulping liquor or "black liquor", a waste product from processes of the pulp, paper and paperboard industry. 
  2. Waste energy is the second largest source of biomass energy. The main contributors of waste energy are municipal solid waste (MSW), manufacturing waste, and landfill gas. 
  3. Biomass alcohol fuel, or ethanol, is derived almost exclusively from corn. Its principal use it as an oxygenate in gasoline. For biomass fuels, the most common feedstocks used today are corn grain (for ethanol) and soybeans (for biodiesel).
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 3

Which of the following can be achieved using Nanotechnology?

  1. Delivery of active drugs to target tissues in the Human eye.
  2. Deliver drugs at the cell-level using DNA-based nanostructures.
  3. Manipulation of nanoscale biological specimens such as bacteria, viruses and proteins in human body using light.

Select the correct answer:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 3

Nanomicelles is an emerging platform for drug delivery to the eye. Conventionally nanoparticles are said to be hydrophobic and hence unsuitable for delivering water-soluble drugs. However, this has been overcome by development of nanomicelles which are capable of delivering poorly water-soluble drug.
DNA Origami is a process of making 2-D and 3-D nanostructures out of DNA. Since the DNA has the property of self-assembly, combination of DNA nanostructures can be used to make drug delivery systems. Given the small size of DNA-nanostructures, they can deliver drugs at cell level.
Researchers have developed a technique to trap and move nano-sized particles using light called as ‘nanotweezers technology’. This technique uses a focused laser beam to trap and manoeuvre nanoparticles and would enable non-invasive manipulation of fragile biological specimens such as bacteria, viruses and proteins.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 4

Consider the following statements.

  1. It requires presidential assent for states notifying changes to OBC categories.
  2. According to Indra Sawhney judgement, under no circumstances the Centre can exceed the 50 percent limit on reservations.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 4

The Indra Sawhney vs Union of India— also known as the Mandal verdict — capped reservations at 50 percent.
The judgment also laid down that the extent of reservation should not cross the 50 percent limit, unless a special case was made out for extraordinary situations and peculiar conditions to relax the rule. 
Article 342A introduced by the 102nd Constitution Amendment Act (2018), requires presidential (Centre’s) assent for states notifying changes to OBC categories. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 5

Consider the following statements.

  1. The consumption of alcohol by pilots can be known by conducting pre-flight and post-flight breath analyser tests.
  2. When the blood alcohol levels are zero in the body, there will be no effect of hangover.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 5

To ensure aviation safety is not compromised due to the consumption of alcohol by pilots, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation has issued revised guidelines for conducting pre-flight and postflight breath analyser tests on the crew.
It is a well-known fact that even when the blood alcohol levels are zero in the body, there could be some effect of hangover, which is mainly due to congeners. These congeners may take 15 to 18 hours to get dissipated and may produce ill effects for up to 36 hours depending upon the amount of alcohol consumed.
Alcohol also interfered with the enzymatic cellular process or oxidation, causing hypoxia and reduced an individual’s tolerance with increase in altitude.
Consumption of alcohol results in significant deterioration of psychomotor performance and decreases the amount of mental capacity available to deal with many essential tasks involved in the conduct of safe flight.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the President's rule that is imposed under Article 356 of the Constitution.

  1. Every proclamation of President’s rule must be approved by both the houses of Parliament within a stipulated time.
  2. It cannot be imposed without the written recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 6

Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without the governor’s report).
A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax (GST).

  1. GST is designed on the principle of destination-based consumption taxation, with seamless provision for input tax credit.
  2. The GST Council is the key decision-making body, chaired by the Union Finance Minister with a Minister of State in charge of Finance and the Finance Ministers of States as members.
  3. GST is applicable to all goods and services except specified petroleum products.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 7

India’s GST architecture is built on the firm foundations of a GST Council and the GST Network (GSTN). The first is the key decision-making body, chaired by the Union Finance Minister with a Minister of State in charge of Finance and the Finance Ministers of States as members. 

GSTN generates high frequency data and subjects them to analytics for informed policy making.
Designed on the principle of destination-based consumption taxation, with seamless provision for input tax credit.
GST is applicable to all goods and services except alcohol for human consumption and five specified petroleum products with a common threshold exemption applicable to both CGST and SGST.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 8

Consider the following taxes levied under Goods and Services Tax (GST).

  1. CGST levied by the Centre.
  2. SGST levied by the States.
  3. UTGST levied by the Union Territories.
  4. IGST levied on inter-State supply including imports.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 8

CGST levied by the Centre, SGST by the States, UTGST by the Union Territories, and IGST levied on inter-State supply including imports, GST is applicable to all goods and services except alcohol for human consumption and five specified petroleum products with a common threshold exemption applicable to both CGST and SGST. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 9

Consider the following pairs:

a) Operation “Save Kurma” : Tackle the poaching, transportation and illegal trade of live turtles and tortoises.

b) Operation “Lesknow” : Tackle illegal trade of Shahtoosh Shawl made from Chiru wool.

c) Operation “Softgold” : Tackle illegal wildlife trade in lesser-known species of wildlife.

d) Operation “Glitterarty” : Tackle illegal wildlife trade in Mongoose hair brushes.

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?   

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 9

The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) had launched operation “Save Kurma” to focus on the poaching, transportation and illegal trade of live turtles and tortoises.
Another operation “Operation Turtshield– I” and ``Operation Turtshield-II” was taken up to tackle the illegal trade of live turtles.
WCCB conducted Operation “Lesknow”, “Lesknow-II” and Operation “Lesknow-III” to gain attention of enforcement agencies towards the illegal wildlife trade in lesser-known species of wildlife. 
WCCB’s “Operation Clean Art” towards illegal wildlife trade in Mongoose hair brushes.

Another “Operation Softgold” to tackle Shahtoosh Shawl (made from Chiru wool) illegal trade and to spread awareness among the weavers and traders engaged in this trade.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL).

  1. The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a “statutory board” constituted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
  2. National Board for Wildlife has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
  3. The role of National Board for Wildlife is advisory in nature and advises the Central Government on framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife in the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 10

About National Board for Wildlife:

  • It is a “Statutory Organization” constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
  • Its roles is “advisory” in nature and advises the Central Government on framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife in the country.
  • Primary function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and forests.
  • It has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
  • No alteration of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL.
  • The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Brasilia Declaration.

  1. United Nations Brasilia Declaration on road safety called for reducing road fatalities by 50% by 2020, and India has already achieved this.
  2. India is a signatory to the United Nations Brasilia Declaration.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 11

India is a signatory to the United Nations Brasilia Declaration on road safety, which called for reducing road fatalities by 50% by 2020.

India has seen 26.48% reduction in road accidents and 22% drop in deaths in 2020 against 2019.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding Distributed ledger technology (DLT).

  1. Distributed ledger technology (DLT) is a digital system for recording the transaction of assets in which the details are recorded in multiple places at the same time.
  2. Blockchain technology is a specific kind of Distributed ledger technology.
  3. Unlike traditional databases, distributed ledgers have a central data store or administration functionality.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 12

Distributed ledger technology (DLT) and BlockChain technology:

  • Distributed ledger technology (DLT) is a digital system for recording the transaction of assets in which the transactions and their details are recorded in multiple places at the same time.
  • Unlike traditional databases, distributed ledgers have no central data store or administration functionality.
  • Whether distributed ledger technologies, such as blockchain, will revolutionize how governments, institutions and industries work is an open question.
  • Blockchain technology is a specific kind of DLT that came to prominence after Bitcoin, a cryptocurrency that used it, became popular.
  • Cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin use codes to encrypt transactions and stack them up in blocks, creating Blockchains. It is the use of codes that differentiates cryptocurrencies from other virtual currencies.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 13

Consider the following statements.

  1. According to the Indian Constitution, any petition alleging a breach of fundamental rights by the state ought to be judicially decided within one month.
  2. The responsibility for constituting benches and scheduling cases that are due to be heard by larger Benches rests solely with the Chief Justice of India (CJI).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 13

During the framing of the Indian Constitution, it was proposed that any petition alleging a breach of fundamental rights by the state ought to be judicially decided within one month. While the proposal did not, ultimately, find its way into the text of the Constitution.
The responsibility for constituting benches and scheduling cases especially cases that are due to be heard by larger Benches rests solely with the Chief Justice of India (CJI).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 14

Currently, Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) is in effect in the entire State of

  1. Nagaland
  2. Assam
  3. Manipur
  4. Arunachal Pradesh

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 14

The Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) is currently in effect in the entire States of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, and Arunachal Pradesh.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by Supreme Court with respect to Right to privacy.

  1. Right to privacy is as sacrosanct as human existence and is inalienable to human dignity and autonomy.
  2. This is an absolute right.
  3. Any surveillance done on an individual by the state is an infringement of that person’s right to privacy.
  4. Any violation of the right to privacy by the state in national interest, has to follow procedures established by the law.

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 15

The Court, pointing to its own judgment in K S Puttaswamy, has said that “right to privacy is as sacrosanct as human existence and is inalienable to human dignity and autonomy”. While agreeing that it is not an absolute right, the Court has said any restrictions “must necessarily pass constitutional scrutiny”.
 
Any surveillance or snooping done on an individual by the state or any outside agency is an infringement of that person’s right to privacy. Hence, any violation of that right by the state, even in national interest, has to follow procedures established by the law.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the Importance of Fiscal Policy in India.

  1. Fiscal policy plays a key role in elevating the rate of capital formation both in the public and private sectors.
  2. Fiscal policy aims to minimise the imbalance in the dispersal of income and wealth.
  3. Fiscal policy helps in providing stimulus to elevate the savings rate.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 16
  • In a country like India, fiscal policy plays a key role in elevating the rate of capital formation both in the public and private sectors.
  • Through taxation, the fiscal policy helps mobilise considerable amounts of resources for financing its numerous projects.
  • Fiscal policy also helps in providing stimulus to elevate the savings rate.
  • The fiscal policy gives adequate incentives to the private sector to expand its activities.
  • Fiscal policy aims to minimise the imbalance in the dispersal of income and wealth.
     
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the Bilateral investment treaty (BIT).

  1. A bilateral investment treaty (BIT) is an agreement establishing the terms and conditions for private investment by nationals and companies of one state in another state.
  2. BITs must compulsorily protect the environment, labour rights, social provisions or natural resources in the country where investments are made.
  3. They allow for an alternative dispute resolution mechanism under the auspices of the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 17

A bilateral investment treaty (BIT) is an agreement establishing the terms and conditions for private investment by nationals and companies of one state in another state. This type of investment is called foreign direct investment (FDI). BITs are established through trade pacts.

The distinctive feature of many BITs is that they allow for an alternative dispute resolution mechanism, whereby an investor whose rights under the BIT have been violated could have recourse to international arbitration, often under the auspices of the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID), rather than suing the host State in its own courts. This process is called investor-state dispute settlement (ISDS).
The world’s first BIT was signed on November 25, 1959 between Pakistan and Germany. There are currently more than 2500 BITs in force, involving most countries in the world.

NGOs have spoken against the use of BITs, stating that they are essentially designed to protect foreign investors and do not take into account obligations and standards to protect the environment, labour rights, social provisions or natural resources. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding cess and surcharges.

  1. The Constitution does permit the Centre to levy cess and surcharges beyond the basic taxes and duties in extraordinary situations.
  2. Cess and surcharges go to the divisible pool.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 18

The Constitution does permit the Centre to levy cess and surcharges beyond the basic taxes and duties in extraordinary situations. These additional taxes do not go to a divisible pool.
Divisible pool refers to the taxes of the central government that it should share with the sub-national or state governments in accordance with the recommendations of the Finance Commission.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding Artemis Accords.

  1. Artemis Accords was led by China.
  2. The accords are an agreement to abide by a set of principles to guide the expanding human activity on the moon.
  3. Recently India signed the accord.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 19

A year ago, eight countries led by the United States signed the so-called Artemis Accords. The accords are an agreement to abide by a broad set of principles to guide the expanding human activity on the moon – ranging from mining resources to setting up lunar colonies. The eight signatories were from Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, United Arab Emirates, United Kingdom, and the United States. Since then, many others have joined — Brazil, South Korea, New Zealand, and Ukraine.
The US has invited India to join the accords.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding.

  1. RBI Retail Direct Scheme allows retail investors to buy and sell government securities (G-Sec) online, both in the primary and secondary markets.
  2. RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme will help in improving the grievance redress mechanism for resolving customer complaints against RBI’s regulated entities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 20

Recently Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched two customer-centric initiatives of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) — the RBI Retail Direct Scheme and the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme.

RBI Retail Direct Scheme

The scheme allows retail investors to buy and sell government securities (G-Sec) online, both in the primary and secondary markets. According to details provided by RBI, these small investors can now invest in G-Secs by opening a gilt securities account with the RBI. The account opened will be called Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) Account.

RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme
This will help in improving the grievance redress mechanism for resolving customer complaints against RBI’s regulated entities.
According to the PMO, the scheme is based on “One Nation-One Ombudsman” with one portal, one email, and one address for the customers to lodge their complaints.
The redressal will continue to be cost-free for customers of banks and members of the public.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR).

  1. Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR) is the foundational principle of United Nations Environment Programme(UNEP).
  2. It establishes that all states are responsible for addressing global environmental destruction yet not equally responsible.
  3. It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and address negative impacts to the global environment.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 21

Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR), principle of international environmental law establishing that all states are responsible for addressing global environmental destruction yet not equally responsible. 
 It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and the most comprehensive international attempt to address negative impacts to the global environment.
 The foundational principle of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which is common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding PM GatiShakti.

  1. PM Gati Shakti aims to institutionalize holistic planning for major infrastructure projects.
  2. It is intended to break departmental silos and connect different ministries for the execution of infrastructure projects.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 22

Recently Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the “PM GatiShakti — National Master Plan” for infrastructure development aimed at boosting multimodal connectivity and driving down logistics costs.
PM Gati Shakti aims to institutionalize holistic planning for major infrastructure projects.

PM GatiShakti is a digital platform that connects 16 ministries — including Roads and Highways, Railways, Shipping, Petroleum and Gas, Power, Telecom, Shipping, and Aviation, with a view to ensuring holistic planning and execution of infrastructure projects.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 23

Which of the following instruments are included under small saving schemes?

  1. National Saving Certificate (NSC)
  2. Public Provident Fund (PPF)
  3. Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP)
  4. Sukanya Samridihi Scheme

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 23

The Government kept the interest rates on small savings schemes unchanged for the September-December period. Small savings rates are reviewed every quarter and this is the sixth consecutive quarter that the government has maintained the rates.
 
The small savings schemes basket comprises 12 instruments including the National Saving Certificate (NSC), Public Provident Fund (PPF), Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) and Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 24

Consider the following statements.

  1. India is the highest livestock owner of the world.
  2. Rashtriya Gokul Mission was initiated with a focus on the genetic upgradation of the bovine population through widespread initiatives on artificial insemination and in vitro fertilization.
  3. The contribution of Livestock in total agriculture and allied sector Gross Value Added (GVA) has doubled from 2014-15 to 2018-19.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 24

To enhance the productivity of cattle, the Rashtriya Gokul Mission was initiated in 2014 with a focus on the genetic upgradation of the bovine population through widespread initiatives on artificial insemination, sex-sorted semen, and in vitro fertilization.
India is the highest livestock owner of the world.
As per the Economic Survey-2021, the contribution of Livestock in total agriculture and allied sector Gross Value Added (at Constant Prices) has increased from 24.32% (2014-15) to 28.63% (2018-19).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding Carnatic Wars.

  1. The First Carnatic War (1744-48) was triggered by the War of the Austrian Succession.
  2. Under the treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, Madras was restored to the French.
  3. The battle of Wandiwash ended the French threat to British in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 25

The First Carnatic (1744-48) war was fought between Britishers and the French due to Austrian war of succession in Europe. The French forces under Dupleix defeated the English and captured Madras. Then, in 1748 AD, the peace treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle was signed and Madras was restored to the British and the exchange of war prisoners took place.
Battle of Wandiwash: This was the Third Carnatic War fought between the French and the British. Having made substantial gains in Bengal and Hyderabad, the British, after collecting a huge amount of revenue, were fully equipped to face the French in Wandiwash, whom they defeated.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 26

Black Hole Tragedy is associated with

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 26

One of Kolkata’s historical monuments, Fort William was built during the time of the Bengal Presidency. Named after William III, the fort sits on the banks of the Hooghly River and was at the centre of the Battle of Plassey fought between the British and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah. It is also the site of an infamous dungeon called the Black Hole of Calcutta (the city of Kolkata was erstwhile known as Calcutta).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 27

Which of the following battles ended with the Treaty of Allahabad?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 27

The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on August 16, 1765 between Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II of Bengal and Lord Clive of the British East India Company after the Battle of Buxar (1764). Based on the terms of the agreement, Shah Alam II granted Diwani rights to the East India Company.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 28

Which of the following were the causes behind the launch of ‘Non-cooperation movement’?

  1. Khilafat wrong
  2. “Punjab wrongs” of 1919
  3. Resentment with Rowlatt Act

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 28

In 1919 Gandhiji gave a call for a satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act that the British had just passed. The Act curbed fundamental rights such as the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers.

  • In April 1919 there were a number of demonstrations and hartals in the country and the government used brutal measures to suppress them. The Jallianwala Bagh atrocities, inflicted by General Dyer in Amritsar on Baisakhi day were a part of this repression.
  • The Khilafat issue was another such cause. In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa. People were furious about this as they had been about the Jallianwala massacre. Also, Indian Muslims were keen that the Khalifa be allowed to retain control over Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman Empire.
  • The leaders of the Khilafat agitation, Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, wished to initiate a full-fledged Non-Cooperation Movement. Gandhiji supported their call and urged the Congress to campaign against “Punjab wrongs” (Jallianwala massacre), the Khilafat wrong and demand swaraj.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 29

Consider the following statements about Non-cooperation movement.

  1. At the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress, the programme of non-cooperation was endorsed.
  2. The movement urged the use of khadi and Indian material as alternatives to those shipped from Britain.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 29

The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant but short phase of the Indian independence movement from British rule.
September 1920 At a special session in Calcutta, the Congress approved a non-cooperation programme till the Punjab and Khilafat wrongs were removed and swaraj was established. The programme was to include—

  • boycott of government schools and colleges;
  • boycott of law courts and dispensation of justice through panchayats instead;
  • boycott of legislative councils;
  • boycott of foreign cloth and use of khadi instead; also practice of hand-spinning to be done;
  • renunciation of government honours and titles

December 1920 At the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress— The programme of non-cooperation was endorsed.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 30

The Non-Cooperation Movement led to

  1. Growth of Hindu-Muslim unity.
  2. Removal of fear of the British ‘might’ from the minds of the people.
  3. British Government’s willingness to grant political concessions to Indians.

Select the correct answer

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 30
  • During 1919-22, the British were opposed through two mass movements—the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation. Though the two movements emerged from separate issues, they adopted a common programme of action—that of non-violent non-cooperation.
  • With the Non-Cooperation Movement, nationalist sentiments reached every nook and corner of the country and politicised every strata of population—the artisans, peasants, students, urban poor, women, traders, etc. The masses lost the hitherto all-pervasive fear of the colonial rule and its mighty repressive organs.
  • Hindu-Muslim Unity: The massive participation of Muslims and the maintenance of communal unity, despite the events like Moppila Uprisings, were great achievements.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 31

Mahatma Gandhi announced the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement due to

  1. Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das forming the Swaraj Party amidst the movement
  2. Mahatma Gandhi’s arrest by the British
  3. Chauri-Chaura Incident

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 31

Chauri-Chaura Incident (February 5, 1922)—Violence by agitated mob prompted Gandhi to withdraw the movement. Most of the nationalist leaders including C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru, Subhash Bose, Jawaharlal Nehru, however, expressed their bewilderment at Gandhi’s decision to withdraw the movement.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 32

Which of the following act first recognized the voting rights of women in India? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 32

Government of India Act, 1919 for the first time allowed women to vote.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 33

Consider the following statements regarding taxation during mahajanapadas

  1. Taxes on crops were the most important and it was fixed at 1/6th of the produce.
  2. There were taxes on crafts persons and it was in the form of labour.
  3. Hunters and gatherers were not taxed.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 33

The Mahajanapadas were sixteen kingdoms or oligarchic republics that existed in ancient India from the sixth to fourth centuries BCE.
Taxes
As the rulers of the mahajanapadas were
(a) building huge forts
(b) maintaining big armies, they needed more resources.

  • And they needed officials to collect these. So, instead of depending on occasional gifts brought by people, as in the case of the raja of the janapadas, they started collecting regular taxes.
  • Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share.
  • There were taxes on crafts persons as well. These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king.
  • Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce.
  • There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade.
  • And hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 34

During the Sangam Age, the designation ‘vellalar’ was used for 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 34

There were at least three different kinds of people living in most villages in the southern and northern parts of the subcontinent. In the Tamil region, large landowners were known as vellalar, ordinary ploughmen were known as uzhavar, and landless labourers, including slaves, were known as kadaisiyar and adimai.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 35

Consider the following statements regarding mansabdari system

  1. It was a grading system used by the Mughals to fix rank, salary and military responsibilities.
  2. Rank and salary were determined by a numerical value called zat.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 35

The term mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a mansab, meaning a position or rank. It was a grading system used by the Mughals to fix (1) rank, (2) salary and (3) military responsibilities. Rank and salary were determined by a numerical value called zat.

  • The higher the zat, the more prestigious was the noble’s position in court and the larger his salary.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 36

With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Upasaka’ refers to 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 36

Upāsaka (masculine) or Upāsikā (feminine) is the title of followers of Buddhism (or, historically, of Gautama Buddha) who are not monks, nuns, or novice monastics in a Buddhist order, and who undertake certain vows.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 37

The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 37

In inscriptions, the title “Piyadassi” is often associated with the title “Devanampriya” (“Beloved of the Gods”). Separately, the title also appears in “Devanampriya” in conjunction with the name “Ashoka” as in the Minor Rock Edict inscription discovered in Maski, associating Ashoka with Devanampriya.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 38

In the Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara was also known as  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 38

Avalokiteśvara also called Padmapani, is the bodhisattva who embodies the compassion of all Buddhas.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding Purandara Dasa.

  1. Purandara Dasa was a contemporary of Kanakadasa.
  2. He blended the Dravidian and Aryan music, into a single stream known as Carnatic music.
  3. The philosophy of Bhakti in Purandara Dasa’s compositions stems from the Madhwa Philosophy of Vaishnavism.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 39
  • Purandara Dasa (1484–1564) was a Haridasa, great devotee of Lord Krishna and a saint.
  • He was a disciple of the celebrated Madhwa philosopher-saint Vyasatirtha, and a contemporary of yet another great Haridasa, Kanakadasa.
  • Purandaradasa was the pioneer who blended the rich musical streams, namely the Dravidian and Aryan music, into a single stream known as Carnatic music.
  • The philosophy of Bhakti in Purandara Dasa’s compositions stems from the essential teachings of the realistic-pluralistic Madhwa Philosophy of Vaishnavism.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 40

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhima Koregaon Battle.

  1. The battle was fought between the Peshwa forces and the British Army.
  2. The British army consisted mainly of upper caste-dominated soldiers.
  3. The victory in the battle was seen as a win against caste-based discrimination and oppression.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 40
  • A battle was fought in Bhima Koregaon, a district in Pune with a strong historical Dalit connection, between the Peshwa forces and the British on January 1, 1818.
  • The British army, which comprised mainly of Dalit soldiers, fought the upper caste-dominated Peshwa army. The British troops defeated the Peshwa army.

Outcomes of the battle:

  • The victory was seen as a win against caste-based discrimination and oppression. Peshwas were notorious for their oppression and persecution of Mahar dalits. The victory in the battle over Peshwas gave dalits a moral victory a victory against caste-based discrimination and oppression and sense of identity.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 41

Which of the following were the items of export during Mughal periods?

  1. Pepper
  2. Coffee
  3. Raw silk and silk fabrics
  4. Opium

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 41

Even though Indian villages were largely self-sufficient and imported little from outside and the means of communication were backward, extensive trade within the country and between India and other countries of Asia and Europe was carried on under the Mughals.

  • India imported pearls, raw silk, wool, dates, dried fruits, and rose water from the Persian Gulf;
  • coffee, gold, drugs, and honey from Arabia;
  • tea, sugar, porcelain, and silk from China;
  • gold, musk and woolen cloth from Tibet;
  • tin from Singapore;
  • spices, perfumes, arrack, and sugar from the Indonesian islands;
  • ivory, and drugs from Africa; and
  • woolen cloth, metals such as copper, iron, and lead, and paper from Europe.

India’s most important source of export was its cotton textiles which were famous all over the world for their excellence and were in demand everywhere. India also exported raw silk and silk fabrics, hardware, indigo, saltpeter, opium, rice, wheat, sugar, pepper and other spices, precious stones, and drugs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 42

Consider the following statements regarding the Heat Budget.

  1. Roughly 70 percent of heat received from the sun is reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface.
  2. The reflected amount of radiation by the Earth is called the albedo of the earth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 42

The earth as a whole does not accumulate or loose heat. It maintains its temperature. This can happen only if the amount of heat received in the form of insolation equals the amount lost by the earth through terrestrial radiation. Consider that the insolation received at the top of the atmosphere is 100 percent. While passing through the atmosphere some amount of energy is reflected, scattered and absorbed. Only the remaining part reaches the earth surface. Roughly 35 units are reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface. Of these, 27 units are reflected back from the top of the clouds and 2 units from the snow and ice-covered areas of the earth. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo of the earth.
The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface.
 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 43

Consider the following statements regarding first stage of Demographic transition.

  1. The first stage has high fertility and high mortality.
  2. Most of the people are engaged in agriculture.
  3. The population growth is high.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 43

Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict the future population of any area. The theory tells us that the population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate society. These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as the demographic cycle.
The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage. Fertility remains high in the beginning of the second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by a reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.
In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 44

Which of the following factors can be considered as the Basis of International Trade?

  1. Stage of economic development
  2. Population
  3. Extent of foreign investment
  4. Difference in national resources

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 44

Basis of International Trade
(i) Difference in national resources: The world’s national resources are unevenly distributed because of differences in their physical make up i.e. geology, relief soil and climate.
(ii) Population factors: The size, distribution and diversity of people between countries affect the type and volume of goods traded.
(iii) Stage of economic development: At different stages of economic development of countries, the nature of items traded undergo changes.
(iv) Extent of foreign investment: Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lacks the capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture.
(v) Transport: In olden times, lack of adequate and efficient means of transport restricted trade to local areas. Only high value items, e.g. gems, silk and spices were traded over long distances. With expansions of rail, ocean and air transport, better means of refrigeration and preservation, trade has experienced spatial expansion.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 45

Which of the following countries does not share its border with Saudi Arabia? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 45
Which country does not share its border with Saudi Arabia?

  • Iraq: Iraq shares a border with Saudi Arabia to the north.

  • Syria: Syria does not share a border with Saudi Arabia. It is located to the northwest of Saudi Arabia but is separated by Jordan and Iraq.

  • Qatar: Qatar shares a border with Saudi Arabia to the east.

  • Jordan: Jordan shares a border with Saudi Arabia to the north.


Therefore, the correct answer is Syria as it is the country that does not share its border with Saudi Arabia.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 46

Consider the following pairs regarding names of Shifting cultivation and their region

  1. Jhuming – North eastern states of India
  2. Milpa – Central America and Mexico
  3. Ladang – Indonesia and Malaysia

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 46

The vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil. Shifting cultivation is thus also called slash and burn agriculture. The cultivated patches are very small and cultivation is done with very primitive tools such as sticks and hoes. After sometime (3 to 5 years) the soil loses its fertility and the farmer shifts to other parts and clears other patches of the forest for cultivation. The farmer may return to the earlier patch after sometime. One of the major problems of shifting cultivation is that the cycle of jhum becomes less and less due to loss of fertility in different parcels.
It is prevalent in tropical regions in different names, e.g. Jhuming in North eastern states of India, Milpa in central America and Mexico and Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 47

Which of the following forces affect the velocity and direction of Wind?

  1. Pressure gradient force
  2. Frictional force
  3. Gravitational force
  4. Coriolis force

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 47

Forces Affecting the Velocity and Direction of Wind:

  • The air is set in motion due to the differences in atmospheric pressure. The air in motion is called wind. The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind at the surface experiences friction. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force.
  • Thus, the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational force acts downward.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 48

Consider the following statements.

  1. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as absolute humidity.
  2. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its temperature.
  3. The absolute humidity differs from place to place on the surface of the earth.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 48
  • Water vapor present in the air is known as humidity. It is expressed quantitatively in different ways. The actual amount of the water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as the absolute humidity.
  • It is the weight of water vapour per unit volume of air and is expressed in terms of grams per cubic metre. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its temperature. The absolute humidity differs from place to place on the surface of the earth.
  • The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 49

Consider the following statements.

  1. Relative humidity is greater over the continents and least over the oceans.
  2. High relative humidity of the air occurs when the air temperature approaches the dew point value.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 49
  • The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. With the change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected. It is greater over the oceans and least over the continents. The air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature is said to be saturated. It means that the air at the given temperature is incapable of holding any additional amount of moisture at that stage. The temperature at which saturation occurs in a given sample of air is known as dew point.
  • As air temperature increases, air can hold more water molecules, and its relative humidity decreases. When temperatures drop, relative humidity increases. High relative humidity of the air occurs when the air temperature approaches the dew point value. Temperature therefore directly relates to the amount of moisture the atmosphere can hold.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 50

Consider the following statements regarding Chagos Islands/ Chagos Archipelago.

  1. It is the southernmost archipelago of the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge
  2. It is located south of Mauritius in the Indian Ocean.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 50

The Chagos Archipelago or Chagos Islands are a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60
individual tropical islands in the Indian Ocean about 500 kilometres (310 mi) south of the Maldives archipelago.
This chain of islands is the southernmost archipelago of the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge, a long submarine mountain range in the Indian Ocean.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 51

Consider the following statements regarding Land Breeze.

  1. In the Land Breeze, the wind blows from the sea to the land.
  2. It usually takes place during day time.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 51
  • The land and sea absorb and transfer heat differently. During the day the land heats up faster and becomes warmer than the sea. Therefore, over the land the air rises giving rise to a low-pressure area, whereas the sea is relatively cool and the pressure over sea is relatively high. Thus, pressure gradient from sea to land is created and the wind blows from the sea to the land as the sea breeze. In the night the reversal of conduction takes place. The land loses heat faster and is cooler than the sea. The pressure gradient is from the land to the sea and hence land breeze results.
     
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 52

India’s seed vault, to protect important genetic material in case of a major man-made or natural disaster, is located in 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 52

At Chang La in the Himalayas, at a height of 17,300 feet, India has its seed storage facility. The vault is a joint venture of the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (which comes under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research) and the Defence Institute of High-Altitude Research (under Defence Research and Development Organisation).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 53

State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) has been constituted by each state under the provisions of Disaster Management act 2005. Disaster(s) covered under SDRF include: 

1. The share of GoI to the SDRF is treated as a ‘grant in aid’.

2. Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for overseeing the operation of the SDRF .

3. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audit the SDRF every year.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 53

Disaster (s) covered under SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost and cold waves.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 54

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s ruling in ‘Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others’ (1992) case.

  1. The court upheld the discretion available to the Speaker in deciding cases of disqualification of MLAs.
  2. Judicial review can be availed at any stage of making a decision by the Speaker/Chairman regarding disqualification of MLAs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 54

Supreme Court’s ruling in ‘Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others’ (1992) case:

  • The court upheld the sweeping discretion available to the Speaker in deciding cases of disqualification of MLAs.
  • While the Speaker’s decisions can be challenged subsequently, the court cannot stay or prevent the process.

Hence, judicial review cannot be available at a stage prior to the making of a decision by the Speaker/Chairman and a quia timet action would not be permissible. Nor would interference be permissible at an interlocutory stage of the proceedings.

  • Besides, the Court can review only infirmities based on violation of constitutional mandate, mala fides, non-compliance with rules of natural justice, and perversity.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 55

Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Courts.

  1. Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers.
  2. Criminal contempt means publication of any matter that scandalises or lowers the authority of any court.
  3. The Constitution of India does not mention anything about Contempt of Courts, whereas all the provisions are included in the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 55
  • Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers in the form of behavior that opposes or defies the authority, justice and dignity of the court.

Civil contempt means wilful disobedience of any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
Criminal contempt is attracted by the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which:

  1. Scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court; or
  2. Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with, the due course of any judicial proceeding; or
  3. Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner.

Relevant provisions:

  • Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Court respectively to punish people for their respective contempt.
  • Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 defines the power of the High Court to punish contempt of its subordinate courts.
  • The Constitution also includes contempt of court as a reasonable restriction to the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19, along with elements like public order and defamation.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 56

Consider the following statements.

  1. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with the failure of constitutional machinery in a State.
  2. According to the Constitution of India, the High Court can enquire and recommend President’s rule in a State.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 56

The Supreme Court had stayed in Andhra Pradesh High Court order intending to embark on a judicial enquiry into whether there is a constitutional breakdown in the State machinery.
What has the Supreme Court said?

  1. It was not up to the High Court to enquire and recommend President’s rule in a State.
  2. It is Article 356 that deals with failure of constitutional machinery in a State. This is a power [to impose President’s rule] exclusively vests in the Executive.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 57

Consider the following statements regarding the concept of secularism.

  1. The Indian Constitution embodies the negative concept of secularism.
  2. The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion and the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 57

The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion (the church) and the state (the politics). This negative concept of secularism is inapplicable in the Indian situation where the society is multi-religious.
Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 58

Consider the following statements regarding formation of states in India.

  1. Article 3 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’.
  2. President has to refer the bill to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period and he is bound by the views of the state legislature.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 58

Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
(b) increase the area of any state;
(c) diminish the area of any state;
(d) alter the boundaries of any state; and
(e) alter the name of any state.
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the
President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’.
Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, Article 3 deals with the internal re-adjustment between the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India.
The President is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 59

Consider the following statements regarding Nominated members of Rajya Sabha.

  1. The President nominates members to the Rajya Sabha as recommended by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  2. Nominated members have the same rights and privileges as elected members of Rajya Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 59
  • The Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members from different walks of life.
  • The broad criterion for their nomination is that they should have distinguished themselves in fields like literature, science, art, and social service.
  • The President nominates such individuals as recommended by the Centre.
  • Nominated members have the same rights and privileges as elected members, with one notable difference — they cannot vote in the election of the President.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 60

The Constitution of India lays down which of the following criteria to disqualify a Member of Parliament (MP)?

  1. Holding an office of profit under the government of India.
  2. Being of unsound mind.
  3. Being an undischarged insolvent
  4. Acquiring citizenship of another country

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 60

What are the basic criteria to disqualify an MP or MLA?
Basic disqualification criteria for an MP are laid down in Article 102 of the Constitution, and for an MLA in Article 191.

  • They can be disqualified for: a) Holding an office of profit under government of India or state government; b) Being of unsound mind; c) Being an undischarged insolvent; d) Not being an Indian citizen or for acquiring citizenship of another country.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 61

Consider the following statements regarding the office of profit.

  1. The expression “office of profit” has been defined in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
  2. The office of profit law seeks to enforce the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
  3. According to the Constitution of India, the Member of Parliament (MP) cannot hold any office of profit under the Central Government, but can hold such an office from the State government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 61

Under Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the Central or State government.
If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”.

  • A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature.
  • The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
  • It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations.

The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 62

According to the rules of CBI

  1. The Supreme Court and High Courts can authorize CBI to investigate a crime in a state only with the consent of the concerned state government.
  2. The central government can order the CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without the consent of the state government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 62

The CBI manual says, “The central government can authorize CBI to investigate such a crime in a state but only with the consent of the concerned state government. The Supreme Court and High Courts, however, can order CBI to investigate such a crime anywhere in the country without the consent of the state.”

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 63

Consider the following statements.

  1. The term Minority' is not defined in the Indian Constitution.
  2. The Constitution of India recognises religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 63

The Constitution uses the word ’minorities’ in some articles but does not define it anywhere.
Article 29 speaks of “any section of citizens having a distinct language script and culture”. This may be a whole community generally seen as a minority or group within a majority community.
Article 30 speaks specifically of two categories of minorities – religious and linguistic.
350 A and 350 B relate to linguistic minorities.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 64

Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights.

  1. Fundamental Rights protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State.
  2. The Constitution guarantees the rights of the individual against the State but not against other individuals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 64

Fundamental rights, protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State. The Constitution of India guarantees the rights of the individual against the State as well as against other individuals.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 65

A parliamentary committee means a committee that:

  1. Is appointed or elected by the House
  2. Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman
  3. Has a secretariat provided by the Cabinet Secretary

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 65

A parliamentary committee means a committee that:

  • Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman
  • Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman
  • Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman
  • Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 66

Consider the following statements regarding the President's Rule in India.

  1. President’s Rule is imposed when the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
  2. The imposition of the President’s rule is approved by the president does not require the sanction of the Parliament.
  3. A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation without parliamentary approval.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 66

Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives the President of India the power to suspend state government and impose President’s rule on any state in the country “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”.
Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers. The Vidhan Sabha is either dissolved or prorogued.
The state will fall under the direct control of the Union government, and the Governor will continue to head the proceedings, representing the President of India – who is the Head of the State.
The imposition of the President’s rule requires the sanction of both the houses of Parliament.
If approved, it can go on for a period of six months. However, the imposition cannot be extended for more than three years, and needs to be brought before the two houses every six months for approval.
A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 21 - Question 67

Consider the following statements.

  1. If the fiscal deficit ratio is too high it leads to higher rates of interest for the borrowings of private entrepreneurs and businesses.
  2. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 suggests bringing the fiscal deficit down to about 3% plus or minus 2% of the GDP.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1