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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 1

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the practice of the President addressing Parliament in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 1
  • Recent Context - The first Parliament session of 2021 began with President addressing members of both Houses of Parliament.
  • President Address - The Constitution gives the President the power to address either House or a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
  • Article 86(1) of the Constitution provides that the President may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together, and for that purpose require the attendance of members. However, since the commencement of the Constitution, there has not been any occasion when the President has addressed either House or both Houses assembled together, under the provision of this article
  • Article 87 provides two special occasions on which the President addresses a joint sitting. The first is to address the opening session of a new legislature after a general election. The second is to address the first sitting of Parliament each year. If at the time of commencement of the first session of the year, Lok Sabha is not in existence and has been dissolved, and Rajya Sabha has to meet, Rajya Sabha can have its session without the President's Address. It happened in 1977. In the case of the first session after each general election to Lok Sabha, the President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together after the members have made and subscribed the oath or affirmation and the Speaker has been elected.
  • In India, the practice of the President addressing Parliament can be traced back to the Government of India Act of 1919. This law gave the Governor-General the right of addressing the Legislative Assembly and the Council of State. The law did not have a provision for a joint address but the GovernorGeneral did address the Assembly and the Council together on multiple occasions.
  • When the Constitution came into force, the President was required to address each session of Parliament. So, during the provisional Parliament in 1950, President Rajendra Prasad gave an address before every session. The First Amendment to the Constitution in 1951 changed this position and made the President’s address once a year.
  • The address of the President follows a general structure in which it highlights the government’s accomplishments from the previous year and sets the broad governance agenda for the coming year. The government uses the President’s address to make policy and legislative announcements.
  • The President’s Address in India is mirrored on the British system. In the United Kingdom, it is referred to as the Queen’s Speech and is part of the ceremony to mark the formal start of the parliamentary year. In the British system, the Queen’s speech written by the government. She reads it in person from the throne in the House of Lords. In the American system, the President has the option of simply sending his written speech to Congress instead of personally going to deliver it. 
    Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 2

With reference to Consumer Price IndexIndustrial Workers (CPI-IW), consider the following statements:

  1. Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers does not include services consumed by Industrial Workers.
  2. It is used to determine the dearness allowance of employees in both the public and private sectors.
  3. It is published annually by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 2
  • Consumer price Index - Industrial Workers (CPI- IW) is the oldest among the CPI indices as its dissemination started as early as 1946. The history of compilation and maintenance of the Consumer Price Index for Industrial workers owes its origin to the deteriorating economic condition of the workers post world war which resulted in a sharp increase in prices. 
  • Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial workers measure a change over time in prices of a fixed basket of goods and services consumed by Industrial Workers. CPI-IW also includes selected services and is measured on the basis of retail prices. The target group is an average working-class family belonging to any of the seven sectors of the economy- factories, mines, plantation, motor transport, port, railways and electricity generation and distribution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
  • Consumer Price Index for Industrial Worker (CPI-IW) with the base year 2016, is being compiled and maintained by Labour Bureau, an attached office of Ministry of Labour & Employment. The index has a time lag of one month and is released on the last working day of the month (monthly). Hence, statement 3 is not correct. 
  • The CPI-IW is the single most important price statistics, which has financial implications. It is primarily used to regulate the dearness allowance of government employees and the workers in the industrial sectors. It is also used in fixation and revision of minimum wages in scheduled employments besides measuring the inflation in retail prices. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 3

Which of the following may be the cause of lead poisoning?

  1. Batteries
  2. Cosmetics
  3. Paints
  4. Ceramic wares

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 3
  1. Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Earth’s crust. Its widespread use has resulted in extensive environmental contamination, human exposure and significant public health problems in many parts of the world. 
    • It affects multiple body systems and is particularly harmful to young children. Human exposure is usually assessed through the measurement of lead in blood. Lead in bone is released into the blood during pregnancy and becomes a source of exposure to the developing fetus. 
  2. Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) Drinking Water Specifications prescribed lead content in water not to exceed 50 parts per billion. The World Health Organisation limit for lead in drinking water is 5 ppb. 
  3. Causes: 
    • A leading contributor to lead exposure is informal and sub-standard recycling of lead-acid batteries. 
    • As per the report, water is also another source of lead poisoning.
    • Folk remedies and cosmetics used by households that contained lead.
    • It is widely used in many lead-acid batteries, paints, stained glass, pigment, ceramics, cosmetics, ammunition, jewellery, e-waste, etc. 
    • Drinking water supplied through lead pipes and pipes joined through lead solder may contain lead. 
    • Lead is also entering the food chain through vegetables. The inorganic lead could be ingested and directly absorbed by the digestive tract through certain foods and water, as well as some folk and unbranded traditional medicines.
      Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 4

The term ‘Strategic Trade Authorisation’ sometimes seen in the news is associated with India's economic relations with which of the following countries/union?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 4
  1. Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) U.S. trade preference programs such as the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) provide opportunities for many of the world’s poorest countries to use trade to grow their economies and climb out of poverty. GSP is the largest and oldest U.S. trade preference program. Established by the Trade Act of 1974, GSP promotes economic development by eliminating duties on thousands of products when imported from one of 119 designated beneficiary countries and territories. The GSP Guidebook provides basic information on the program. 
  2. Strategic Trade Authorisation-1 (STA-1): 
    • STA allows for license exception with regards to exports from the US. This type of US government authorisation allows a certain item to be exported under defined conditions without a transaction-specific license, according to a report in Descartes Customs Info.
    • India is the 37th country to be designated the STA-1 status by the United States. India has become the third Asian country after Japan and South Korea to get the Strategic Trade Authorisation-1 (STA-1) status after the U.S. issued a federal notification to this effect, paving the way for high technology product sales to New Delhi, particularly in civil space and defence sectors. 
    • Traditionally, the U.S. has placed only those countries in the STA-1 list who are members of the four export control regimes: Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), Wassenaar Arrangement (WA), Australia Group (AG) and the NSG. 
    • By placing India in the STA-1 list, the United States has acknowledged that for all practical purposes India adheres to the export control regimes of the NSG.
      Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 5

Consider the following statements with respect to Congress Khilafat Swaraj Party:

  1. It was established in 1922 with Motilal Nehru as its President.
  2. They won the majority of elected seats in Central Legislative Assembly in 1923 elections.
  3. Swarajists succeeded in electing Vithalbhai Patel as the President of Central Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 5
  • After the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement, there was disintegration, among nationalist ranks. One section known as Swarajists led by C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru and Ajmal Khan wanted an end to the boycott of legislative councils. While the other school of thought led by C. Rajagopalachari, Vallabhbhai Patel, Rajendra Prasad and M.A. Ansari came to be known as the ‘No- changers’. The ‘Nochangers’ opposed council entry, advocated concentration on constructive work. 
  • In December 1922, Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Congress Khilafat Swaraj Party with CR Das as its President and Motilal Nehru as one of the secretaries. The new party was to function as a group within the Congress. It accepted the Congress programme except in one respect - it would take part in Council elections.
    Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
  • Swarajists won 42 seats out of 101 elected seats in the Central Legislative Assembly. With the cooperation of other Indian groups, they repeatedly outvoted the Government in the Central Assembly and in several of the Provincial Councils. In 1925, they succeeded in electing Vithalbhai Patel as the President (Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly.
    Hence statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct. 
  • But they could not change the policies of authoritarian Government of India and found it necessary to walk out of the Central Assembly in March 1926. They failed to bring masses into active politics. Swarajists suffered a grievous blow in the death of Deshbandhu Das in 1925.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 6

Cells divide and reproduce in two ways, mitosis and meiosis. Which of the following statements describe the differences between the two?

  1. Mitosis involves the division of somatic cells, while meiosis involves the division of gamete cells.
  2. Two daughter cells are produced after mitosis while four daughter cells are produced after meiosis.
  3. Daughter cells resulting from mitosis are diploid, while those resulting from meiosis are haploid.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 6
  1. Organisms grow and reproduce through cell division. In eukaryotic cells, the production of new cells occurs as a result of mitosis and meiosis. These two nuclear division processes are similar but distinct. 
  2. In Mitosis, the genetic material (DNA) in a cell is duplicated and divided equally between two cells. The dividing cell goes through an ordered series of events called the cell cycle. Somatic cells of the body replicate by mitosis. Examples of somatic cells include fat cells, blood cells, skin cells etc. 
  3. Meiosis is the process by which gametes (sex cells) are generated in organisms that reproduce sexually. Gametes are produced in male and female gonads and contain one-half the number of chromosomes as the original cell. 
  4. Key differences between Mitosis and Meiosis: 
    • Mitosis and meiosis are nuclear division processes that occur during cell division. 
    • Mitosis involves the division of body cells, while meiosis involves the division of sex cells. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
    • The division of a cell occurs once in mitosis but twice in meiosis. 
    • Two daughter cells are produced after mitosis and cytoplasmic division, while four daughter cells are produced after meiosis. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
    • Daughter cells resulting from mitosis are diploid, while those resulting from meiosis are haploid. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
    • Daughter cells that are the product of mitosis are genetically identical. Daughter cells produced after meiosis are genetically diverse. Tetrads formation occurs in meiosis but not mitosis
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 7

Which of the following laws/legislations consider noise as a pollutant?

  1. Water Prevention and Control of Pollution Act, 1974
  2. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  3. Environment (Protection) Act 1986

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 7
  1. Any unwanted sound that causes annoyance, irritation and pain to the human ear is termed noise. It is measured in A-weighted decibels (dB (A)) that indicate the loudness of the sound. 
  2. Noise level refers to the decibel levels of noise produced by any appliance or machine. In general, the human ear can tolerate noise levels up to 85 dB. Anything beyond that can affect their productivity and quality of life. 
  3. The decibel levels of common sounds above 80 dB are considered ‘loud’, while the decibel levels of common sounds between 100-125 dB are termed ‘uncomfortable’. 
  4. All machines operating in an area should produce noise within the acceptable level to maintain the wellbeing of people around. 
  5. Both section 6 of the Environment Protection (Act), 1986 and the Air (Prevention And Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 consider 'noise' as a pollutant. Hence options 2 and 3 are correct. 
  6. While the Water Prevention and Control of Pollution Act, 1974, does not consider noise as a pollutant. Hence option1 is not correct. 
  7. Noise Regulation in India: 
    • Earlier, noise pollution and its sources were addressed under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. 
    • They are now, however, regulated separately under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000. 
    • Additionally, noise standards for motor vehicles, air-conditioners, refrigerators, diesel generators and certain types of construction equipment are prescribed under the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986. 
    • Noise emanating from industry is regulated by State Pollution Control Boards / Pollution Control Committees (SPCBs / PCCs) for states / Union territories under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981(Noise is included as an 'air pollutant' under Section 2(a)). Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 8

Consider the following statements with reference to the Information Technology Agreement (ITA):

  1. It is one of the significant tariff liberalization arrangement negotiated under G20.
  2. According to the rules of the ITA, all the signatories have to eliminate customs duties for certain high technology products.
  3. India is not a signatory of the Information Technology Agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 8
  • Information Technology Agreement (ITA) is the first and most significant tariff liberalization arrangement negotiated in the WTO after its establishment in 1995. All the signatories are members of the World Trade Organization (WTO). Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
  • As per the rules of the ITA, all the signatories have to “eliminate and bind customs duties at zero for all products specified”. It led to the elimination of import duties on specified IT products. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
  • The ITA covers a large number of high technology products, including computers, telecommunication equipment, semiconductors, semiconductor manufacturing and testing equipment, software, scientific instruments, as well as most of the parts and accessories of these products. 
  • India is a signatory to the Information Technology Agreement (ITA) (now also known as ITA-1), a plurilateral agreement of WTO signed in 1997. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 9

With reference to the Eravikulam National Park, consider the following statements:

  1. South India’s highest peak ‘Anamudi’ is situated in this park.
  2. Neelakurinji flower that blooms once in twelve years is found here.
  3. Eravikulam National Park is home to India’s largest population of Nilgiri Tahr.
  4. The indigenous people Muthuvans have been associated with the management of the park.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 9

Eravikulam National Park: 

  • Eravikulam National Park is located in the Southern Western Ghats near Idukki, Kerala. 
  • It was declared a Sanctuary in 1975 with the intention of protecting the indigenous population of Nilgiri Tahr and declared as a National Park in 1978. 
  • Anamudi (2695 m), South India’s highest peak is situated in this park. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • This is also the land of “Neelakurinji”, a flower that blooms once in twelve years. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • Eravikulam National Park is home to the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
  • The Muthuvans are the indigenous people, who have traditionally been associated with the management of the park. Hence statement 4 is correct
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 10

Consider the following statements with reference to gravity anomalies:

  1. It is the difference in the values of gravity from the expected values.
  2. It gives us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the earth's crust.
  3. These anomalies are the most pronounced in the Atlantic Ocean.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 10
  • The value of gravity on the surface of the earth differs due to the uneven distribution of the mass of the material within the earth. These readings differ from expected values and such a difference is called gravity anomaly. 
  • Gravity anomalies give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth. 
  • The data from various earth observation satellites such as Seasat and Geosat have found that the shape of the ocean surface is warped by seafloor features: massive seamounts cause the surface to bulge over them because of gravitational attraction. Similarly, the ocean surface downwards occur over deep-sea trenches. 
  • Using these satellite measurements of the ocean surface, the gravity field there was computed and a gravity map was prepared that shows a linear pattern of gravity anomalies that cut obliquely across the grain of the topography. These anomalies are most pronounced in the Pacific basin; they are apparently about 100 km (about 60 miles) across and some 1,000 km (about 600 miles) long aligned west-northwest—very close to the direction in which the Pacific Plate moves over the mantle below. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 11

 In the context of Khunkatti system during British rule, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a system of customary tribal land ownership practiced among Bhils of Western India.
  2. It was marked by absence of the class of landlords.
  3. Replacing Khunkatti system with Zamindari system led to revolt among the tribals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 11
  • Tribal people in Chotanagpur area, which is in present day Jharkhand, practiced Khuntkatti system (joint holding by tribal lineages) till mid 19th century. Before the introduction of the British policies in the areas inhabited by Oraon and Munda, their traditional land and social systems had existed. Their land system was known as 'Khuntkatti system'. The tribals enjoyed customary rights over their land. The system was marked by the absence of the class of landlords. The tribals worked on their land and paid tributes to their chiefs. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct. 
  • By 1874, the British replaced the traditional khuntkari system by the zamindari system. The introduction of zamindari system created the classes of zamindars (landlords) and ryots (tenants). The emergence of well-to-do farmers, merchants, moneylenders and dikus (non-tribals) led to indebtedness and beth-begari (forced labour) among the tribal people. 
  • The Mundas held the dikus and the missionaries responsible for their miseries. Therefore, they developed feelings of hatred against the dikus. In 1899-1900, the Mundas rose under Birsa Munda's leadership which came to be known as the Ulgulan. The rebellion which began as a religious movement gathered political force to fight against introduction of feudal, zamindari tenures, and exploitation by money-lenders and forest contractors. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 12

Consider the following statements with respect to Vanchit Ikai Samooh aur Vargon ki Aarthik Sahayta (VISVAS) Scheme:

  1. It is an interest subvention scheme for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
  2. Only a household involved in nonagricultural activity with a family income less than Rs. 1 Lakh is eligible under the scheme.
  3. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 12
  • Vanchit Ikai Samooh aur Vargon ki Aarthik Sahayta (VISVAS) Yojana: This is an Interest subvention Scheme of Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment for financial empowerment of economically marginalized OBC/SC SHGs & Individuals. Under this scheme, interest subvention will be provided to Self Help Groups with 100% OBC members and OBC individuals who have taken loan for various income-generating activities from those Lending Institutions who have signed MoA with NBCFDC. Hence statement 1 and statement 3 are correct. 
  • The scheme will benefit OBC/SC SHGs with loans/borrowings up to Rs.4.00 Lakh and OBC/SC individuals with loan/borrowing up to Rs.2.00 Lakh with a quick interest subvention benefit of 5% directly into the standard accounts of borrowing SHGs/beneficiaries. All OBC beneficiaries involved in Agricultural activities and getting coverage under the PM Kisan shall be eligible for coverage under Interest Subvention. To become eligible for an applicant’s annual family income should be less than Rs. 3.00 Lakh. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 13

Consider the following statements with reference to the Pardoning power of the President:

  1. The power can only be exercised by the President on the advice of the union cabinet.
  2. The President has no pardoning powers on sentences inflicted by court-martial.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 13
  1. Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence in all cases where the: 
    • Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law; 
    • Punishment or sentence is by a court-martial (military court); and Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
    • The sentence is a sentence of death. 
  2. The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary; it is an executive power. But, the President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal. 
  3. The Supreme Court examined the pardoning power of the President under different cases and laid down the following principles: 
    • The power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the union cabinet. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 14

‘Rakshita’, which was in news recently is:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 14
  • ‘Rakshita’: Institute of Nuclear Medicine and Allied Sciences (INMAS), Delhi based DRDO laboratory recently handed over Rakshita, a bike-based casualty transport emergency vehicle to Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
  • The bike ambulance will help in overcoming the problems faced by Indian security forces and emergency healthcare providers. It will provide life-saving aid for the evacuation of injured patients from low-intensity conflict areas. This will be handy in the congested streets and remote locations, where access through ambulance is difficult and time-consuming. The bike can respond to a medical emergency need of patients faster than a four-wheeler due to its functionality and integrated emergency medical support system. 
  • Rakshita is fitted with a customized reclining Casualty Evacuation Seat (CES), which can be fitted in and taken out as per requirement. Other major features are the head immobilizer, safety harness jacket, hand and foot straps for safety, adjustable footrest, physiological parameter measuring equipment with wireless monitoring capability and auto warning system for the driver. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 15

Which of the following occurred during the Viceroyship of Lord Ripon?

  1. Enactment of the First Factory Act
  2. Repeal of Vernacular Press Act
  3. Appointment of Hunter Commission to suggest education reforms
  4. Invasion of Afghanistan from British India
  5. Ilbert bill controversy

Select the correct answer using code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 15
  1. Lord Ripon (1880-84) was a staunch Liberal democrat with faith in self- government. He was appointed as the Viceroy of India in 1880. Ripon was instructed to reverse the Afghan policy of Lytton. As a result, peace was made with Afghanistan without affecting the British prestige. Hence only option 4 is not correct. 
  2. Important measures taken by Lord Ripon: 
    • Introduction of Local Self-Government: Ripon helped the growth of local bodies like the Municipal Committees in towns and the local boards in taluks and villages. The local bodies were given executive powers with financial resources of their own. 
    • Educational reforms: To improve the system of Education in India, Ripon appointed a Commission in 1882 under the chairmanship of Sir William Hunter. The Commission recommended for the expansion and improvement of the elementary education of the masses. 
    • First Factory Act (1881): Lord Ripon introduced the Factory Act of 1881 to improve the service condition of the factory workers in India. The Act banned the appointment of children below the age of seven in factories. It reduced the working hours for children. 
    • Ilbert Bill Agitation: The Ilbert Bill was a legislative act introduced in 1883 during the tenure of Viceroy Ripon and written by Sir Ilbert. The act stipulated that Indian judges could try Europeans. The mere possibility that a European could be tried by an Indian, whom the Europeans regard as inferiors, was a point of much anger and resentment. So it was withdrawn but was reintroduced and enacted in 1884 in a severely compromised state. The passage of this bill opened the eyes of the Indians and deepened antagonism between the British and Indians. 
    • He was also responsible for the rendition of Mysore to its Hindu ruler. Moreover, he repealed the Vernacular Press Act and earned much popularity among Indians.
      Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

  1. Arunachal Pradesh is the leading producer of Kiwi in India.
  2. Temperate climate on hill slopes is suitable for the cultivation of Kiwi fruit vine.
  3. Organic certification in India for fruits is granted by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 16
  • Recently, Arunachal Pradesh has become the first state in the country to obtain Organic Certification for Kiwi under Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North East Region (MOVCD-NER). In Arunachal Pradesh, a domesticated variety of kiwi was introduced as a commercial fruit only in 2000. Today Arunachal Pradesh is the leading producer of Kiwi in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • Twenty years ago, the kiwis that grew wild in Arunachal Pradesh’s Ziro Valley barely caught anyone’s attention. However, in the last decade, farmers slowly recognised the commercial value of the fruit. Today, the kiwis of the region are the only certified organic fruit of their kind in the country. 
  • Kiwi (Actinidia deliciosa) which is otherwise also known as Chinese gooseberry is an important fruit crop of temperate regions and is widely grown in the mid-hills of Himachal Pradesh, J & K, Sikkim, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Kiwis grow as vines, so require a number of supporting planting materials, such as fencing, iron posts etc. The Kiwi fruit vine grows well between 900 to 1600 m above mean sea level. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • The certification: Organic certification was provided by the Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North East Region (MOCVD-NER), a scheme for the northeastern states by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare under the Central government. 
  • An agricultural practice/product is considered organic when there are no chemical fertilisers or pesticides involved in its cultivation process. Such certifications in India can be obtained after a strict scientific assessment done by the regulatory body, Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 17

He studied mathematics at the Cambridge University. He worked as secretary of the Indian National Association. He was elected the first President of Sadharan Brahmo Samaj. He was

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 17
  • Ananda Mohan Bose was an Indian politician, academician, social reformer, and lawyer during the British Raj. 
  • After his schooling he left for England and enrolled himself as a student of Higher Mathematics at Christ Church College, Cambridge. In 1874, he became the first Indian Wrangler (a student who has completed the third year of the Mathematical Tripos with first-class honours) of the Cambridge University. 
  • With Surendranath Bannerjee as his mentor and through his own organisational ability, Ananda Mohan Bose set up a number of pioneering institutions. The Calcutta Students Association was the earliest attempt made to organise students for constructive political work. The Indian Association was the first political organisation at an All India level to institute a vigorous constitutional agitation for rights and privileges of the Indian citizens. One of it's by products was the convening of the, first National Conference in 1883 which became a precursor of the Indian National Congress (1885). Bose was associated with the Congress since its inauguration and was elected President of its Madras Session in 1898. 
  • The Sadharan Brahmo Samaj was formed in a public meeting of Brahmos held in Calcutta in May 1878. Anandamohan Bose was appointed the first President. Shib Chandra Deb the first Secretary and Umesh Chandra Dutta the Assistant Secretary. Later It not only became a church and a congregation but also an active centre for the spread of education and social uplift.
    Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 18

During the colonial period in India, William Adam's report was concerned with

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 18
  • In the 1830s, William Adam, a Scottish missionary, toured the districts of Bengal and Bihar. He had been asked by the Company to report on the progress of education in vernacular schools. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. 
  • Adam found that there were over 1 lakh pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar. These institutions were set up by wealthy people, or the local community. The system of education was flexible. There were no fixed fee, no printed books, no separate school buildings etc. Classes were often held under trees, or in the temples. Fee depended on the income of parents. Adam discovered that this flexible system was suited to local needs. For instance, classes were not held during harvest time where rural children often worked in the fields. Adam’s enquiries provide a fair picture of the indigenous system of education as it existed at the beginning of the 19th century.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 19

Consider the following statements with reference to Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme:

  1. Under this programme, Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) procure and blend up to 10% ethanol in petrol.
  2. It has been extended to all States and UTs.
  3. The price of Ethanol is administered by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 19
  • The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (MoP&NG). The EBP seeks to achieve blending of Ethanol with Petrol with a view to reducing pollution, conserving foreign exchange and increasing value addition in the sugar industry enabling them to clear cane price arrears of farmers. 
  • The Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) are to procure ethanol from domestic sources at remunerative prices fixed by the government. Under the EBP Programme, OMCs procure and blend up to 10% ethanol in petrol. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  • The government has set targets of 10% bioethanol blending of petrol by 2022 and to raise it to 20% by 2030 under the Ethanol Blended Programme (EBP). 
  • The Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (MoP&NG) vide its notification has extended the programme to the whole of India except Union Territories of Andaman Nicobar and Lakshadweep islands. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
  • Government has notified administered price of ethanol since 2014. For the first time during 2018, the differential price of ethanol-based on raw material utilized for ethanol production was announced by the Government. 
  • The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has approved higher ethanol price derived from different sugarcane-based raw materials under the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme for the forthcoming sugar season 2020-21.
    Hence, statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 20

With reference to the GST collections in India, arrange the following in increasing order of their contribution to GST revenue since its introduction:

  1. Public limited company
  2. Private limited companies
  3. Public Sector Undertakings
  4. Proprietorship Firms

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 20
  • The Goods and Services Tax was implemented in India on July 1, 2017. The government aimed to bring in an indirect tax regime with a theory of ‘One Nation, One Tax’. 
  • The public listed companies in India contributed the highest amount of Goods and Services tax revenues for the government. These companies comprise a mere 0.62 percent of the overall taxpayer base, but they contributed 35.29 percent of the GST revenues, revealed the statistical report of GST Network after three years of GST. On the flip side, the proprietorships with the maximum 80.18 percent taxpayer base contributed 13.35 percent of the revenue. The contributions of PSU companies also remained significant as they comprised only 0.02 percent share in the taxpayer base but accounted for 9.12 percent of the total GST revenue. 
  • The GST revenue in the country remained skewed as most of the revenues have been generated by businesses with an annual turnover above Rs 5 crore. These businesses comprising a taxpayer base of 7 percent contributed 80.7 percent to overall GST revenue. While 22 percent of the taxpayers recorded nil tax liability under GST, 28 percent of the taxpayers having an annual turnover of up to Rs 20 lakh accounted for 1-2 percent of the revenue.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 21

India's foreign exchange reserves have risen by over $100 billion since the lockdown announced in March-end. In this context, which of the following are the reasons for the increase in India's forex reserves?

  1. High FDI and FPI inflows
  2. Increase in exports
  3. Decline in crude oil prices
  4. Increase in gold imports

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 21
  1. Recently, India’s forex reserves have crossed an unprecedented mark — over half trillion USD — placing India only behind China and Japan in Asia. During the 10-month period between September 2019 and July 2020, the foreign exchange reserves have swelled by $100 billion. 
  2. Reasons for the surge in Forex Reserves: 
    • FPI and FDI inflows: Rise in foreign exchange inflows through Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). Between April and December 2019, FPIs pumped in a net $15.1 billion, according to the RBI. Between September 2019 and March 2020 foreign direct investments stood at $23.88 billion 
    • Dip in crude oil prices: India’s oil import bill declined as the global spread of coronavirus led to a crash in the Brent crude oil prices. 
    • Import savings: Lockdown across countries in response to Covid-19 pandemic impacted global trade and has resulted in a sharp dip in import expenditure — electronics, gold and also crude oil prices among others. Exports also declined but the decline in imports is more than exports which resulted in import savings. 
    • Dip in gold imports: Gold which was a big import component for India witnessed a sharp decline in the quarter ended June 2020 following the high prices and the lockdown induced by the Covid-19 pandemic.
      Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 22

A fault is a fracture or zone of fractures between two blocks of rock. In this context, arrange the following seismic faults from east to west.

  1. Bhima fault
  2. Malda fault
  3. Allah Bund fault
  4. Churachandpur mao fault

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 22
  1. A fault is a fracture or zone of fractures between two blocks of rock. Faults allow the blocks to move relative to each other. This movement may occur rapidly, in the form of an earthquake - or may occur slowly, in the form of creep. Faults may range in length from a few millimetres to thousands of kilometres. Most faults produce repeated displacements over geologic time. 
  2. During an earthquake, the rock on one side of the fault suddenly slips with respect to the other. The fault surface can be horizontal or vertical or some arbitrary angle in between. 
  3. Some major faults in India: 
    • The Churachandpur Mao Fault is named after two places in Manipur and runs north-south into Myanmar along the border of Champhai. Mizoram is caught between two geological faults. These are the Churachandpur Mao Fault and the Mat Fault, which runs northwest-southeast across Mizoram, beneath river Mat near Serchhip and thus experiences frequent tremors. 
    • Malda Fault: It is the fracture in the rock observed in the Malda district of West Bengal. The fault runs several layers deep below the earth's surface and is formed during the upliftment of the Himalayas. It separates the Meghalaya Plateau from the Chota Nagpur Plateau. 
    • Bhima fault: found in the southern part of the river Bhima basin in Maharashtra. The Southern part of Bhima basin was displaced transversely towards west. The net slip of this fault on the northern part is about 35 km. Second-order shears are numerous in the area. Gravity and thrust faults are also observed in the region. Folds of plunging, non-plunging and superposed types are identified. The basin seems to be tilted towards the north at 5° or, possibly, the central part of the basin is sunken. 
    • The Allah Bund Fault scarp is an elongated steeply dipping south-facing scarp bordered on the south by the salt-encrusted surface of Rann of Kutch. On June 16, 1819, one of the biggest earthquakes hit the Indian sub-continent. The tremblor, which created a ridge 90 km long, 16km wide and 3-4 m high in Greater Rann - all in less than a minute - continues to intrigue geologists and earth scientists event today.
      Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 23

With reference to the National Investigation Agency (NIA) of India, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Home Affairs
  2. It is empowered to investigate and prosecute offences committed within and outside India.
  3. It can investigate cases related to counterfeit currency and cyberterrorism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 23
  • The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a statutory body which was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008 in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terrorist attacks. 
  • NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India which functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • NIA Act, 2008 empowers the NIA to investigate and prosecute offences within India and NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered the agency to investigate offences committed outside India, subject to international treaties and domestic laws of other countries. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • NIA act empowers the NIA to take suo motu cognisance of terror activities in any part of India and register a case, to enter any state without permission from the state government, and to investigate. 
  • The investigated cases by NIA are trailed under special courts whose judges are appointed by the Central government on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of the High Court with jurisdiction in that region. 
  • The NIA can also make an application to the Chief Justice of the High Court for appointment of a Judge to preside over the Special Court. 
  • NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019 widened the power of NIA : Originally The NIA can investigate and prosecute offences under The Atomic Energy Act, 1962, The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, and The Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982, among other entries. The amendment has allowed the NIA to investigate, in addition, cases related to (i) human trafficking, (ii) counterfeit currency or banknotes, (iii) manufacture or sale of prohibited arms, (iv) cyber-terrorism, and (v) offences under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
  • Recently, National Investigation Agency (NIA) was empowered to investigate offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 24

Organic Photovoltaic (OPV) cells are receiving attention of scientists in recent years. In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. OPVs can be made using polymers.
  2. OPVs are far more efficient than Silicon based solar cells.
  3. OPVs result in flexible solar panels that can be installed on curved surfaces.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 24
  1. Traditional crystalline solar cells are typically made of silicon. An organic solar cell uses carbon-based materials and organic electronics instead of silicon as a semiconductor to produce electricity from the sun. In an organic solar cell, the photovoltaic process is the same, but carbon-based compounds are used instead of silicon as the semiconducting material. 
  2. OPV cells are categorized into two classes: 
    • Small-molecule OPV cells, 
    • Polymer-based OPV cells 
  3. Small-molecule OPV cells use molecules with broad absorption in the visible and near-infrared portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. Polymer-based OPV cells use long-chained molecular systems for the electron-donating material. Most organic photovoltaic cells are polymer solar cells. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  4. Comparison with Silicon-based Solar cells:
    • Silicon solar cells use crystalline silicon, while organic cells use carbon-based organic compounds applied in a thin layer to a synthetic backing. Because organic cells are made using an ink-based application and can exhibit transparentness, they usually result in a flexible solar panel that can be installed in more unique ways than traditional solar panels. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
    • Efficiency: A solar cell’s efficiency measures what percentage of incoming sunlight that hits the solar cell is converted to electricity. Crystalline silicon PV cells have laboratory energy conversion efficiencies over 25% for single-crystal cells and over 20% for multi-crystalline cells. Organic solar cells have exhibited efficiencies topping out near 11 per cent. OPVs still have a way to go before they can compete with silicon-based solar cells in terms of efficiency alone. Hence statement 2 is not correct.  Hence option (b) is the correct answer
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

  1. Recession is contraction in economic activities for at least two consecutive quarters.
  2. Indian economy entered recession for the first time in its history during the 1991 economic crisis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 25
  • In any economy, a recessionary phase is the counterpart of an expansionary phase. When the GDP contracts from one quarter to another, the economy is said to be in a recessionary phase. 
  • When a recessionary phase sustains for long enough, it is called a recession. In other words, when the GDP contracts for a long enough period, the economy is said to be in a recession. 
  • Recession is defined as two or more consecutive quarters of negative economic growth, which is most commonly measured using the real gross domestic product (GDP). An economic recession is broad as a downturn in the GDP of a nation for at least two successive quarters, ie, 6 months. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  • During the first quarter of 2020-21, the GDP of India declined by 23.9% and RBI predicts that India’s economy will contract by 8.6% in the second quarter (July, August, September) of the current financial year. 
  • While this pace of contraction is considerably slower than the 23.9% decline in the real gross domestic product (GDP) during the first quarter (April, May, June), the contraction of Q2 is crucial because it implies India that has entered a “technical recession” in the first half of 2020-21— for the first time in its history. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
  • Typically, recessions last for a few quarters. But if they continue for years, they are referred to as “depressions”. Depressions are drastic economic downturns in which real GDP falls by 10% or more. They are far more severe than recessions and their effects can be felt for years. Depressions are known to cause calamities in banking, trade, and manufacturing, as well as falling prices, extremely tight credit, low investment, rising bankruptcy, and high unemployment. 
  • A slowdown, on the other hand, means that the pace of the GDP growth has decreased (but positive). It means the production and earnings of these economies are not growing at the same pace as, say, last year.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 26

‘Partners in Population and Development (PPD)’, recently seen in the news is:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 26
  • Recent Context - Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare digitally addressed the Inter-Ministerial Conference by ‘Partners in Population and Development (PPD)’. 
  • About Partners in Population and Development (PPD): It is an international Inter-Governmental Organization (IGO) grouping of 27 developing countries. Its vision is to promote South-South cooperation towards the attainment of the global population and reproductive health agenda for sustainable development through the governments, NGOs and private sector organizations. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 27

Consider the following pairs: Places in news Country

  1. Norilsk Russia
  2. Sinjar Syria
  3. Nantaz Iran

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 27
  • Recent Context: There are certain places of the world is news such as 
  • Norilsk (Russia): In June, Russian President Vladimir Putin declared a state of emergency after a spill of over 20,000 tonnes of massive diesel reservoir at a power plant near the city of Norilsk into a Siberian river. It is regarded as second-largest oil spill in modern Russian history in terms of volume. 
  • Sinjar (Iraq): Turkey conducted “Operation Claw-Eagle,” hit suspected Kurdish rebels targets in several regions in Iraq’s north, including Sinjar. 
  • Nantz (Iran): It is one of the main underground uranium enrichment site of Iran. It was in the news as On July an explosion and massive fire occurred at the nuclear centre which raised the question of security measures of nuclear sites.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 28

In which of the following areas can Geographic Information System (GIS) technology be used?

  1. Identify and map electrification status of villages
  2. Curb illegal mining
  3. Map assets in the urban areas
  4. Developing information system regarding land banks

Select the correct answer using code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 28
  1. Geographic Information System (GIS) is a computer system used for capturing, storing, checking and displaying data with regard to positions on the Earth’s surface. Rooted in geography, GIS integrates numerous types of data, analyses spatial locations and organises these layers of information into maps and 3D visualisations. The ubiquitous use of the geographic information system (GIS) across Multiple platforms and sectors makes it the new age fire that powers our systems, enables globalisation and is integrated with almost every New technology being used. 
  2. In India, GIS is being used in variety of application such as 
    • Mapping all Central Government land parcels, including that of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). 
    • Rural Electrification System: Identify and map electrification status of villages under Grameen Vidyutikaran App (GARV). 
    • Mining Surveillance System: Curb illegal mining through automatic remote sensing detection. 
    • Industrial Information System (DIPP): GIS based master plan for industrial areas, zones, parks etc. 
    • Road Information System: Geo-mapping present status of lanes, impedances of national highways, state highways etc. 
    • GlS-enabled BHARAT MAPS to enhance governance and improve planning and monitoring in New India. 
    • For crop and agriculture insurance. 
    • To provide a facility to map assets/amenities and facilitate developmental planning under AMRUT scheme.
      Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 29

Consider the following pairs: Site River bank

  1. Harappa Ravi
  2. Kalibangan Ghagghar
  3. Chanhudaro Luni

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 29
  1. The Bronze Age Indus Valley Civilization or Harappan Civilization was the culmination of a long and sustained cultural evolution in the Indus Valley and surrounding areas. 
  2. IVC site River bank 
    • Harappa: Ravi Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. 
    • Mohenjodaro: Indus 
    • Chanhudaro: Indus Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched. 
    • Lothal: Bhogava 
    • Kalibangan: Ghaggar Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. 
    • Banawali: Ghaggar 
  3. Harappa is the first discovered site of this civilization excavated in 1921 by a team led by Daya Ram Sahni. It was a major urban centre during its mature phase surrounded by extensive walls. It is located in Punjab Province, Pakistan, on an old bank / bed of the River Ravi. 
  4. Kalibangan (black bangles) is in Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan. It was located on the banks of now dried up Saraswati River. The oldest ploughed field, evidence of earliest recorded Earthquake (which might have ended this city itself), Fire-Altars, Charging bull, tiled floor, two kinds of burials (circular and rectangular graves), bones of camels etc. are important findings of Kalibangan. Further, this site was different from Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro in the following respects: The bricks in other sites were baked ones, while Kalibangan bricks are earthen ones. There was no drainage system in Kalibangan. Due to these, Kalibangan is not considered a well planned city as comparable to other important sites of Indus Valley. 
  5. Chanhudaro is situated 130 kms south of Mohenjo-Daro in Sindh and is the only harappan city which does not have a fortified citadel. The Chanhu Daro has given evidence of factories of various figurines, seals, toys, bone implements so it has been interpreted that it was a settlement with lots of artisans and was an industrial town.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 30

Consider the following pairs in the context of mahajanapadas of ancient India and the famous rulers associated with them: Mahajanapada Ruler

  1. Magadha Vasudeva
  2. Kosala Prasenjit
  3. Avanti Pradyota

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 30
  • Angutara Nikaya, a Buddhist scripture mentions 16 great kingdoms or Mahajanapadas at the beginning of the 6th century BCE in India. They emerged during the Vedic Age. 
  • Bimbisara was the first king of Magadha to have standing army and contemporary to the Buddha. 
  • He was the first who started matrimonial alliances to strengthen its position as a king after defeating Brahamadutta , the king of Anga. 
  • He married to the Mahakosaladevi , the princess of Koshala and sister of the Kosala prince Prasanjit, Licchhavi princes Chellana and Khema ,princess of Madra clan of Punjab. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. 
  • Mahajanapada of Avanti with its capital at Ujjain under the king Chanda Pradyota Mahasena was a serious rival of Magadha. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. 
  • But, both of them ultimately thought it is wise to become friends and Bimbisara even sent his physician Jivaka to cure Pradyota of Jaundice. 
  • Vasudeva I was a Kushan emperor, last of the "Great Kushans." His name, Vasudeva, is that of the father of Krishna, the popular Hindu God, and he was the first Kushan king to be named after the Indian God. He converted to Hinduism during his reign. His name reinforces the notion that his center of power was in Mathura. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 31

Consider the following statements with reference to the Right to Constitutional Remedies:

  1. Under this right, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of ordinary legal rights.
  2. Right to Constitutional Remedies is a basic feature of the Constitution.
  3. The right cannot be suspended even during a national emergency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 31
  • Article 32 deals with the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’, or affirms the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution. It is one of the fundamental rights listed in the Constitution that each citizen is entitled. 
  • Dr Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
  • It states that the Supreme Court “shall have the power to issue directions or orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by this Part”. 
  • Therefore, only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights and so on. The violation of a fundamental right is the sine qua non for the exercise of the right conferred by Article 32. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
  • In other words, the Supreme Court, under Article 32, cannot determine a question that does not involve Fundamental Rights. Article 32 cannot be invoked simply to determine the constitutionality of an executive order or legislation unless it directly infringes any of the fundamental rights. 
  • Article 32 also states that the right guaranteed by this Article “shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution”. Thus the Constitution provides that the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of the fundamental rights during a national emergency (Article 359). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 32

 In the context of Mauryan Architecture, consider the following statements:

  1. The Lion Capital at Sarnath was built in commemoration of the historical event of Mahaparinirvana.
  2. The Bull capital of Ashoka from Rampurva has a mixture of both Persian and Indian elements.
  3. Ashokan pillars were usually made of Chunar sandstone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 32
  • The tradition of constructing pillars is very old and it may be observed that the erection of pillars was prevalent in the Achaemenid empire as well. But the Mauryan pillars are different from the Achaemenid pillars. The Mauryan pillars are rock-cut pillars thus displaying the carver’s skills, whereas the Achaemenid pillars are constructed in pieces by a mason. 
  • Stone pillars were erected by Ashoka, which have been found in the north Indian part of the Mauryan Empire with inscriptions engraved on them. Ashokan pillars are quite similar to each other in form and dimensions. They are made of sandstone quarried at Chunar. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
  • The top portion of the pillar was carved with capital figures like the bull, the lion, the elephant, etc. All the capital figures are vigorous and carved standing on a square or circular abacus. Abacuses are decorated with stylised lotuses. Some of the existing pillars with capital figures were found at Basarah-Bakhira, LauriyaNandangarh, and Rampurva in Bihar, Sankisa and Sarnath in Uttar Pradesh. 
  • The Mauryan pillar capital found at Sarnath popularly known as the Lion Capital is the finest example of Mauryan sculptural tradition. It is also our national emblem. It is carved with considerable care—the voluminous roaring lion figures firmly standing on a circular abacus which is carved with the figures of a horse, a bull, a lion and an elephant in vigorous movement. This capital was built by Ashoka in commemoration of the historical event of the first sermon or the Dharmachakrapravartana by the Buddha at Sarnath. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
  • Rampurva Bull capital is a magnificent third century B.C. sandstone capital. It gets the name from the site of its discovery, Rampurva in Bihar. The Rampurva Bull is noted for its delicately sculpted model demonstrating superior representation of soft flesh, sensitive nostrils, alert ears, and strong legs. It has a mixture of Indian and Persian elements. Whereas the motifs on the base, atop the inverted lotus, the rosette, palmette, and the acanthus ornaments are not Indian features, the bull capital is a masterpiece of Indian craftsmanship. The Rampurva Bull sculpture is said to have a velvet touch. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 33

 With reference to Graphene, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an allotrope of carbon.
  2. It is harder than diamond.
  3. It has high electrical conductivity but very low optical transparency.
  4. It can be used to develop anti microbial surfaces.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 33
  1. Graphene is the name for an atom-thick honeycomb sheet of carbon atoms. It is an allotrope of carbon consisting of a single layer of atoms arranged in a two dimensional honeycomb lattice. It is the fundamental element of other allotropes like graphite, charcoal, carbon nanotubes and fullerenes. It is the strongest and thinnest material known to exist. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  2. Properties of Graphene: 
    • Electronic: It has good electrical conductivity. The unique atomic arrangement of the carbon atoms in graphene allows its electrons to easily travel at extremely high velocity without the significant chance of scattering, saving precious energy typically lost in other conductors. 
    • Mechanical: Graphene has good strength as it is harder than diamond. Graphene is about 300 times harder than steel. The tensile strength of graphene exceeds up to 1 TPa (Tetra pascal). Hence statement 2 is correct. 
    • Graphenes have high electrical conductivity and high optical transparency which makes it for transparent conducting electrodes. For example, a single layer of graphene only absorbs 2.3% of light, so 97.7% of light passes through a single layer, with around 0.1% reflected from its initial trajectory. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 
    • Chemical: It is chemically most reactive form of carbon. 
  3. Uses of Graphene: 
    • Graphene derivatives are rapidly emerging as an extremely promising class of antimicrobial materials due to their diverse bactericidal mechanisms and relatively low cytotoxicity towards mammalian cells. Hence statement 4 is correct. 
    • Graphene has a very high carrier mobility but low noise. This property of graphene allows it to be used as the channel in a field-effect transistor. 
    • Graphene oxide made filters could outperform than other techniques of desalination. Graphene oxide made membranes also allow water vapour to pass through it, but are impermeable to other liquids and gases. 
    • Graphene could be used to produce supercapacitors which have a greater energy storage density than is currently available. 
    • Graphene material will also be used in photoelectrochemical energy conversion in sensitised solar cells.
      Hence option (b) is the correct answer
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 34

Consider the following statements with reference to Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme:

  1. It aims to boost domestic manufacturing by extending an incentive on incremental sales of goods manufactured in India.
  2. The Scheme is applicable only for domestic manufacturing companies.
  3. PLI Scheme is compliant with WTO commitments as the quantum of support is not directly linked to exports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 34
  • In order to boost domestic manufacturing and cut down on import bills, the central government introduced a scheme that aims to give companies incentives on incremental sales from products manufactured in domestic units. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  • The scheme aims to give companies incentives on incremental sales from products manufactured in domestic units. The scheme invites foreign companies to set units in India, however, it also aims to encourage local companies to set up or expand existing manufacturing units. Many of Apple's key partners (global smartphone majors) joined PLI scheme. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
  • Initially, the scheme was introduced in Electronics manufacturing and Pharmaceutical industry. Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing notified on 1st April, 2020, extends an incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of goods under target segments that are manufactured in India to eligible companies, for a period of five years subsequent to the base year (FY2019-20). 
  • Recently, Cabinet approves PLI Scheme to 10 key Sectors for Enhancing India’s Manufacturing Capabilities and Enhancing Exports. These sectors are labour intensive and are likely, and the hope is that they would create new jobs for the ballooning employable workforce of India 
  • The objective is really to make India more compliant with our WTO (World Trade Organisation) commitments and also make it non-discriminatory and neutral with respect to domestic sales and exports. PLI is compatible with World Trade Organization commitments as the quantum of support is not directly linked to exports or value-addition. This is unlike some of the earlier schemes like the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS), which were challenged at the WTO. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 35

The term ‘Eternal Blue’, in news recently, is associated with which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 35
  • What Is Eternal Blue? Eternal Blue is an exploit that allows cyber threat actors to remotely execute arbitrary code and gain access to a network by sending specially crafted packets. It exploits a software vulnerability in Microsoft’s Windows operating systems (OS) Server Message Block (SMB) version 1 (SMBv1) protocol, a network file sharing protocol that allows access to files on a remote server. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. 
  • This exploit potentially allows cyber threat actors to compromise the entire network and all devices connected to it. Due to EternalBlue’s ability to compromise networks, if one device is infected by malware via EternalBlue, every device connected to the network is at risk. This makes recovery difficult, as all devices on a network may have to be taken offline for remediation. This vulnerability was patched and is listed on Microsoft’s security bulletin as MS17-010. Malware that utilizes Eternal Blue can self propagate across networks, drastically increasing its impact. For example, Wanna Cry, a crypto ransomware, was one of the first and most well-known malware to use this exploit to spread. Wanna Cry uses the Eternal Blue exploit to spread itself across the network infecting all devices connected and dropping the crypto-ransomware payload. This increased the persistence and damage that Wanna Cry could cause in a short amount of time. This increase has made EternalBlue popular with various malware, such as Trickbot, a modular banking trojan, as well as CoinMiner and Wanna Mine, crypto miners that use the EternalBlue exploit in order to gain access to computing power to mine cryptocurrencies.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 36

Recently Methane Budget 2020 has been released by the Global Carbon Project. In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. Tropical regions are responsible for more than 50 per cent of the entire planet's emissions.
  2. Anthropogenic sources are responsible for nearly 90 per cent of global emissions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 36
  1. Global Carbon Project (GCP) 
    • It is a research project founded in 2001 to slow down and ultimately stop the increase of greenhouse gases. 
    • It integrates knowledge of greenhouse gases for human activities and the Earth system. 
    • GCP creates global budgets for three dominant greenhouse gases — carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide. 
    • The key findings of Methane Budget 2020 are:
      (i) Emissions increased by 9% compared to the last decade.
      (ii) The global increase mainly from anthropogenic sources between Agriculture and Waste and Fossil Fuel.
      (iii) Tropical regions in three continents, Africa, Asia, and South America, were responsible for 64% of the entire planet’s emissions, while temperate regions and the Arctic contributed to 32% and four per cent respectively. Hence statement 1 is correct 
  2. Sources of Methane 
    • Anthropogenic sources are responsible for about 60% of global emissions. Some of these sources include Fossil fuel production, Livestock industry, Rice cultivation, Biomass burning, Waste management. Hence statement 2 is not correct 
    • Natural sources include wetlands, gas hydrates, termites, oceans, freshwater bodies, and other sources such as wildfires. Natural wetlands are responsible for approximately 80% of global methane emissions from natural sources.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 37

Which of the following natural landscapes act as a barrier against coastal hazards?

  1. Mangroves
  2. Salt marshes
  3. Sand dunes
  4. Coral Reefs

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 37
  1. Recently, West Bengal launched a project to plant 5 crore mangrove trees in cyclone-hit Sundarbans. There is growing evidence that mangroves and other natural barriers are critical components in the overall resilience of coastal areas to threats posed by tsunamis, cyclones, and other natural disasters. 
  2. Coastal ecosystems protect against hurricanes, storm surges, flooding, and other coastal hazards – combined protection from coral reefs, seagrass beds, and sand dunes/coastal wetlands/coastal forests are particularly effective. 
  3. Coastal wetlands buffer against saltwater intrusion and adapt to slow sea-level rise by trapping sediment and organic matter. Non-porous natural barriers, such as sand dunes (with associated plant communities) and barrier islands, dissipate wave energy and act as barriers against waves, currents, storm surges, and tsunamis, depending on the magnitude. 
  4. Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal intertidal zone. There are about 80 different species of mangrove trees. All of these trees grow in areas with low-oxygen soil, where slow moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate. Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. 
    • Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, reducing erosion from storm surges, currents, waves, and tides. The intricate root system of mangroves also makes these forests attractive to fish and other organisms seeking food and shelter from predators. 
  5. Salt marshes are coastal wetlands that are flooded and drained by salt water brought in by the tides. They are marshy because the soil may be composed of deep mud and peat. Salt marshes occur worldwide, particularly in middle to high latitudes. Thriving along protected shorelines, they are a common habitat in estuaries. 
    • Salt marshes also protect shorelines from erosion by buffering wave action and trapping sediments. They reduce flooding by slowing and absorbing rainwater and protect water quality by filtering runoff, and by metabolizing excess nutrients. 
  6. A coastal sand dune is a hill of sand built by wind action and an extension of the beach into the land. While a beach is closely linked to the sea and controlled by waves and tides, the dunes are linked to land and are controlled by winds. 
    • Coastal sand dunes are common in different parts of the world. These are natural structures that protect the coastal environment by absorbing energy from wind, tide, and wave action. 
  7. Coral reefs are important for many different reasons aside from supposedly containing the most diverse ecosystems on the planet. They: 
    • protect coastlines from the damaging effects of wave action and tropical storms 
    • provide habitats and shelter for many marine organisms 
    • are the source of nitrogen and other essential nutrients for marine food chains 
    • assist in carbon and nitrogen-fixing 
    • help with nutrient recycling.
      Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 38

Which of the following will be likely benefits of recently launched Patent Prosecution Highway Program?

  1. Accelerated examination of the patent application of Indian MSME in partner countries.
  2. Expedited resolution of bilateral patent disputes between India and partner countries.
  3. Introduction of newer technologies in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 38
  1. Patent prosecution is the process of drafting, filing, and negotiating with the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) in order to obtain patent protection and rights for an invention. 
  2. Patent prosecution is distinct from patent litigation, which describes legal action relating to the infringement of patents. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
  3. Recently, the Union Cabinet approved a proposal for the Bilateral Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) Programme between the Indian Patent Office and patent offices of other interested countries. 
  4. On a pilot basis, a Bilateral Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) program has commenced between the Indian Patent Office (IPO) and the Japan Patent Office (JPO). 
    • With this, the patent offices of India and Japan have inked an agreement for expeditious grant of patents to Indian entities and individuals by entering into the pilot program on PPH for a period of three years. 
    • Under this pilot program, Indian Patent Office may receive patent applications in certain specified technical fields only, like electrical, electronics, computer science, information technology, physics, civil, mechanical, textiles, automobiles and metallurgy while Japan Patent Office may receive applications in all fields of technology. 
  5. The PPH program will lead to benefits like: 
    • reduction in disposal time and pendency of patent applications. 
    • consistency in the quality of granted patents. 
    • more inbound investments by companies.
    • introduction of newer technologies thereby giving a fillip to Make in India. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
    • increasing employment opportunities. 
    • opportunity for Indian inventors including MSMEs and startups to get accelerated examination of their patent applications in Japan. Hence statement 1 is correct
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 39

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘microwave weapons’:

  1. This is a type of direct energy weapon which aims at highly focused energy in the form of sonic and laser.
  2. They are high-frequency electromagnetic radiation to heat the water in the human target skin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 39
  1. Recent Context: Microwave weapons have been seen recently in news in the context of a report rejected by the Indian Army that claimed that the Chinese army had used them to drive Indian soldiers away from their positions in eastern Ladakh. 
  2. Microwave weapons are supposed to be a type of direct energy weapon. Direct-energy weapons damage their target with highly focused energy including laser, sonic, and microwaves are one such type of weapons. Hence statement 1 is correct 
  3. They use beams of high-frequency electromagnetic radiation to heat the water in a human target's skin which causes pain and discomfort. The microwaves agitate the water molecules in the food and their vibration produces heat that cooks the food. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 40

Which of the following payment systems are operated by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?

  1. RuPay
  2. Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
  3. National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT)
  4. National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 40
  1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India. 
  2. NPCI has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems. The Company is focused on bringing innovations in the retail payment systems through the use of technology for achieving greater efficiency in operations and widening the reach of payment systems. 
  3. NPCI has made a significant impact on the retail payment systems in the country. Some of the payment systems operated by NPCI include: 
    • RuPay: RuPay is an Indigenously developed Payment System – designed to meet the expectation and needs of the Indian consumer, banks and merchant eco-system. RuPay supports the issuance of debit, credit and prepaid cards by banks in India and thereby supporting the growth of retail electronic payments in India. 
    • UPI: Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood. 
    • Immediate Payment Service (IMPS): IMPS allow transferring of funds instantly within banks across India which is not only safe but also economical. 
    • Aadhaar enabled Payment System (AePS): To access funds at door step & drive the financial inclusion in India, Aadhaar enabled Payment System (AePS) has been introduced. Since inception it has become instrumental to increase accessibility of basic banking services in underserved areas 
    • National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC): National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has developed the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program to meet the electronic tolling requirements of the Indian market. It provides an electronic payment facility to the customer to make the payments at national, state and city toll plazas by identifying the vehicle uniquely through a FASTag 
  4. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a nation-wide centralised payment system owned and operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It offers round the clock availability of fund transfer on all days of the year.
    Hence, option (d) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 41

Consider the following statements, with respect to the recently passed The Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020:

  1. It provides statutory status to the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).
  2. It mandates the Aircraft Accidents Investigation Bureau (AAIB) to carry out investigations related to aircraft accidents and incidents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 41
  1. Recently, Parliament passed The Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020 which further amended the Aircraft Act, 1934. 
  2. Key provisions of the Act:
    • The act converts three existing bodies under the Ministry of Civil Aviation into statutory bodies under the Act. These three authorities are:
      (i) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) , the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS), and
      (ii) the Aircraft Accidents Investigation Bureau (AAIB). Hence statement 1 is correct.
      (iii) Each of these bodies will be headed by a Director General who will be appointed by the centre.
      (iv) The DGCA will carry out safety oversight and regulatory functions with respect to matters under the act.
      (v) The BCAS will carry out regulatory oversight functions related to civil aviation security.
      (vi) The AAIB will carry out investigations related to aircraft accidents and incidents. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 42

With reference to the FSSAI Food Hygiene Rating Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. This is a mandatory scheme applicable to food businesses supplying food directly to consumers.
  2. It has been launched by the Quality Council of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 42
  • About Hygiene Rating: Quality Council of India (QCI) at the behest of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has come out with a Scheme for approval of Hygiene Rating Audit Agencies to scale up Hygiene Rating by increasing the number of recognised Hygiene Rating Audit Agencies in the country. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • FSSAI Food Hygiene Rating Scheme is an online, transparent scoring and rating process which aims to allow consumers to make informed choices about the places where they eat out & through these choices, encourage businesses to improve their hygiene standards & thus reduce the incidence of food-borne illness. 
  • Hygiene Rating reflects the standards of food hygiene found on the date of inspection by the local authority or recognized third-party audit agency. This is a voluntary scheme applicable to food businesses supplying food directly to consumers either on or off the premises and food businesses are rated on the basis of food hygiene and safety conditions found at the time of inspection. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 43

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

  1. Floating rate bonds are securities carrying a variable coupon rate.
  2. Zero-Coupon Bonds are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 43
  1. Government securities (G-Secs) are debt instruments issued by the government to borrow money. Government of India may issue from time to time the following types of Government Securities: 
    • Securities with fixed coupon rates: The securities will carry a specific coupon rate (rate of interest paid by bond issuers on the bond’s face value) remaining fixed during the term of the security and payable periodically. 
    • Securities with variable coupon rates, viz, Floating Rate Bonds: The Security will carry a coupon rate which will vary according to the change in the Base Rate to which it is related. Hence, statements 1 is correct. 
    • Zero-Coupon Bonds: Zero-Coupon Bonds are issued at a discount and redeemed at par. No interest payment is made on such bonds at periodic intervals before maturity. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 44

Who among the following are associated with All India Kisan Sabha?

  1. Swami Sahajanand
  2. Indulal Yagnik
  3. Acharya Narendra Dev
  4. Bankim Mukherjee

Select the correct answer using code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 44
  • Mainly due to the efforts of the Home Rule activists, Kisan Sabhas were organised in UP. The United Provinces Kisan Sabha was set up in February 1918 by Gauri Shankar Mishra and Indra Narayan Dwivedi. In October 1920, the Awadh Kisan Sabha came into existence. However the need for a central organisation of the peasants was felt by the socialists and the communists. 
  • Their efforts led to the formation of All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) in 1936 with Swami Sahjanand Saraswati as the president and N.G. Ranga as the general secretary. 
  • The Kisan Manifesto, which was adopted in August, contained radical demands, such as the abolition of zamindari, graduated income tax on agricultural income, granting of occupancy rights to all tenants and scaling down of interest rates and debts. A number of CSP leaders and communists following the 1935 Comintern decision to follow a 'united front' strategy joined the AIKS. Acharya Narendra Dev, Indulal Yagnik and Bankim Mukherjee were some of the prominent leaders of AIKS.
    Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 45

Which of the following is/are the likely benefits of the devaluation of a currency in a country?

  1. Imports become cheaper
  2. Purchasing power of currency increases
  3. Sovereign debt burden reduces

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 45
  1. Devaluation is the decision to reduce the value of a currency in a fixed exchange rate. A devaluation means that the value of the currency falls. Currency devaluation involves taking measures to strategically lower the purchasing power of a nation's own currency. 
  2. Advantages of devaluation: 
    • Exports become cheaper and more competitive to foreign buyers. Therefore, this provides a boost for domestic demand and could lead to job creation in the export sector. On the other hand, imports become costlier. 
    • A higher level of exports should lead to an improvement in the current account deficit. This is important if the country has a large current account deficit due to a lack of competitiveness. 
    • A government may be incentivized to encourage a weak currency policy if it has a lot of government-issued sovereign debt to service on a regular basis. If debt payments are fixed, a weaker currency makes these payments effectively less expensive over time. 
  3. Disadvantages of devaluation: 
    • Devaluation is likely to cause inflation, aggregate demand (AD) increases – causing demand-pull inflation 
    • Domestic residents will find imports and foreign travel more expensive. 
    • Firms/exporters have less incentive to cut costs because they can rely on the devaluation to improve competitiveness. 
    • Devaluation also significantly reduces the overseas purchasing power of a nation’s citizens.
      Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 46

 With reference to the administration of the Vijayanagar Empire, consider the following statements:

  1. The provincial governors were always appointed from royal princes.
  2. The office of Nayak (military chiefs) became hereditary.
  3. Under their rule, the Chola traditions of local self-governing institutions were expanded and got strengthened.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 46
  1. The Vijayanagara Empire was based in the Deccan Plateau region in South India. 
    • It was established in 1336 by the brothers Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty 
    • It was also known as the Karnata Empire and the Kingdom of Bisnegar by the Portuguese.
    • It lasted until 1646, although its power declined after a major military defeat in the Battle of Talikota in 1565. 
    • It was named after its capital city of Vijayanagara, whose ruins surround present day Hampi, now a World Heritage Site in Karnataka. 
    • It maintained the well-functioning administrative methods developed by their predecessors, the Hoysala, Kakatiya and Pandya kingdoms, to govern their territories and made changes only where necessary. 
    • The King (Svamin), ministry (Amatya), territory (Janapada), fort (Durga), treasury (Kosa), army (Daifa), and ally (Mitra) formed the seven critical elements that influenced every aspect of governance.
    • King was the ultimate authority, assisted by a cabinet of ministers (Pradhana) headed by the prime minister (Maha Pradhan). 
    • The empire was divided into five main provinces (Rajya), each under a commander (Dandanayaka or Dandanatha) and headed by a governor. 
  2. Statement 1 is not correct: The governors of provinces were royal princes at first. Later, persons belonging to vassal ruling families and nobles were appointed as governors. The provincial governors had a large measure of autonomy. They held their own courts, appointed their own officers and maintained their own armies. They were allowed to issue their own coins of small denominations. There was no regular term for governors. The governor had the right to impose new taxes or remit old ones. 
  3. Statement 2 is correct and 3 is not correct: The Chola traditions of village self-government were considerably weakened. The growth of hereditary nayakship tended to curb their freedom and initiatives. The Nayaks were the military governors. They were given territories to govern.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 47

The water footprint measures the amount of water used to produce each of the goods and services we use. In this context, consider the following pairs: Type of Water Footprint Definition

  1. Greenwater: The water from precipitation that is stored in the root zone of the soil and evaporated, transpired or incorporated by plants.
  2. Bluewater: The polluted water discharged to a freshwater resource directly through a pipe or indirectly through runoff or leaching from the soil, impervious surfaces, or other diffuse sources.
  3. Greywater: The water sourced from surface or groundwater resources and is either evaporated, incorporated into a product or taken from one body of water and returned to another

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 47
  1. The water footprint measures the amount of water used to produce each of the goods and services we use. It can be measured for a single process, such as growing rice, for a product, such as a pair of jeans, for the fuel we put in our car, or for an entire multi-national company. 
  2. The water footprint can also tell us how much water is being consumed by a particular country – or globally – in a specific river basin or from an aquifer. 
  3. The water footprint has three components: green, blue and grey. Together, these components provide a comprehensive picture of water use by delineating the source of water consumed, either as rainfall/soil moisture or surface/groundwater, and the volume of freshwater required for assimilation of pollutants. 
  4. The Three Water Components: 
    • Greenwater water footprint is water from precipitation that is stored in the root zone of the soil and evaporated, transpired or incorporated by plants. It is particularly relevant for agricultural, horticultural and forestry products. 
    • Bluewater footprint is water that has been sourced from surface or groundwater resources and is either evaporated, incorporated into a product or taken from one body of water and returned to another, or returned at a different time. Irrigated agriculture, industry and domestic water use can each have a blue water footprint. 
    • Greywater footprint is the amount of fresh water required to assimilate pollutants to meet specific water quality standards. The grey water footprint considers point-source pollution discharged to a freshwater resource directly through a pipe or indirectly through runoff or leaching from the soil, impervious surfaces, or other diffuse sources.
      Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 48

Consider the following statements with reference to the recently constituted National Medical Commission (NMC):

  1. It is a statutory body whose members are appointed by the Central Government.
  2. It lays down the policies and codes to ensure the observance of professional ethics in the medical profession.
  3. It assess the requirements in human resources for health and healthcare infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 48
  1. Recently, the central government constituted National Medical Commission (NMC) which replaced the Medical Council. It is a statutory body which is constituted under Section 32 of the National Medical Commission (NMC) Act 2019. 
  2. The acts provides that the Commission shall consist of 32 persons which are to be appointed by the Central Government, namely: 
    • a Chairperson; 
    • ten ex officio Members; and 
    • twenty-two part-time Members 
  3. The chairperson and part time members are appointed by the central government on the recommendation of the search committee (chaired by cabinet secretary). Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  4. Functions of the National Medical Commission o lay down policies for regulating medical institutions, medical researches and medical professionals and make necessary regulations in this behalf; 
    • lay down policies and codes to ensure observance of professional ethics in medical profession and to promote ethical conduct during the provision of care by medical practitioners. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
    • assess the requirements in healthcare, including human resources for health and healthcare infrastructure and develop a road map for meeting such requirements. 
    • take such measures, as may be necessary, to ensure compliance by the State Medical Councils of the guidelines framed and regulations made under this Act for their effective functioning under MCA. 
    • exercise appellate jurisdiction with respect to the decisions of the Autonomous Boards; 
    • frame guidelines for determination of fees and all other charges in respect of fifty per cent. of seats in private medical institutions and deemed to be universities which are governed under the provisions of this Act. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 49

In the context of regulation of electronic media, consider the following statements regarding News Broadcasting Standards Authority (NBSA):

  1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and broadcasting
  2. Its jurisdiction extends over all news channel whether they are its members or not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 49
  1. Recent Context - The centre has informed the SC that there is no legal void in regulating electronic media. 
  2. About News Broadcasting Standards Authority (NBSA) - It is an independent body set up by the News Broadcasters Association. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
  3. Its task is to consider and adjudicate upon complaints about broadcasts. It has laid down the Code of Ethics and Broadcasting Standards for violation of which a complaint may be made. It is empowered to warn, admonish, censure, express disapproval and fine the broadcaster a sum upto Rs. 1 lakh for violation of the Code. 
  4. It comprises of 
    • A Chairperson, being an eminent jurist; 
    • Four eminent persons having special knowledge and/or practical experience in the field of law, education, medicine, science, literature, public administration, consumer affairs, environment, human psychology and/or culture; and 
    • Four eminent editors employed with a broadcaster. 
  5. Any broadcasting channel can become its member as its membership is voluntary. 
  6. It only has jurisdiction over broadcasters that are members of the News Broadcasters Association. It does not have any statuary rights as it is a private association. Its writ extends only to its members. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
  7. About News Broadcasters Association (NBA) - It represents the private television news & current affairs broadcasters. It is the collective voice of the news & current affairs broadcasters in India .It is an organization funded entirely by its members. 
  8. It has presently 26 leading news and current affairs broadcasters (comprising 77 news and current affairs channels) as its members. The NBA presents a unified and credible voice before the Government, on matters that affect the growing industry
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 50

In the context of economy, Potential GDP refers to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 50
  • Like GDP, potential GDP represents the market value of goods and services, but rather than capturing the current objective state of a nation’s economic activity, potential GDP attempts to estimate the highest level of output an economy can sustain over a period of time. 
  • According to OECD’s Economic Outlook publication, Potential gross domestic product (GDP) is defined as the level of output that an economy can produce at a constant inflation rate. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 51

Consider the following statements with respect to the economic policies during the 19th century British rule in India:

  1. The British economic policies resulted in the ruin of feudalism in Indian Society.
  2. Cultivation of crops like opium and oilseeds increased.
  3. Number of people depending on agriculture decreased due to exploitation under the land revenue systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 51
  1. During the British rule, the structure and operation of Indian economy were determined by the interests of the British economy.
    • Drain of Wealth: The Constant flow of wealth from India to England for which India did not get an adequate economic, commercial or material return has described as the Drain of Wealth from India. Major Constituents of Economic Drain are
      (i) Home charges: Dividend to the shareholders of the East India Company, Interest on Public Debt raised abroad, Civil and Military charges, Store purchases in England,
      (ii) Interest on Foreign Capital investments 
    • One way free trade: Cheap and machine-made imports flooded the Indian market after the Charter Act of 1813 allowing one-way free trade for the British citizens. On the other hand, Indian products found it difficult to penetrate the European markets due to high tariffs. 
    • Deindustrialisation led to decline of many cities and a process of ruralisation of India. Many artisans, faced with diminishing returns abandoned their professions, moved to villages and took to agriculture. This resulted in increased pressure on land. Hence there was an increased dependence of population on agriculture which was a major cause of poverty. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 
    • The introduction railways in India inaugurated a new economic era. Railways served commercial, administrative and defence interests of British. In 1853, Dalhousie started the “guarantee system” by which the railway companies were guaranteed a minimum interest of 5% percent on their investment. The government retained the right of buying the railway at the end of the period of contract. 
    • Emergence of Intermediaries: Under British rule, new intermediaries such as merchants, money lenders and other moneyed class emerged. These new zamindars, with increased powers but with little or no avenues for new investments, resorted to land grabbing and sub-infeudation. Hence British led to increase in feudalism in Indian society. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
    • Commercialisation of Agriculture: Agriculture began to be influenced by commercial considerations. Commercial crops like cotton, jute, groundnut, oilseeds, sugarcane, tobacco, Opium etc., increased. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 52

Consider the following pairs: Index/Report Published by

  1. Global Social Mobility Index : World Economic Forum
  2. Human Freedom Index 2020 : United Nations Human Rights Council
  3. Urban Quality of Life Index : UN-Habitat

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 52
  1. Some of the important indices recently seen in the news are: 
    • Recently, India has been ranked very low at 76th place out of 82 countries on a new Social Mobility Index compiled by the World Economic Forum, while Denmark has topped the charts. The Global Social Mobility Index by World Economic Forum benchmarks 82 global economies and is designed to provide policy-makers with a means to identify areas for improving social mobility and promoting equally shared opportunities in their economies, regardless of their development. Social mobility can be understood as the movement in personal circumstances either “upwards” or “downwards” of an individual in relation to those of their parents. In absolute terms, it is the ability of a child to experience a better life than their parents. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. 
    • Measuring countries across five key dimensions distributed over 10 pillars — health; education (access, quality and equity); technology; work (opportunities, wages, conditions); and protections and institutions (social protection and inclusive institutions) — shows that fair wages, social protection and lifelong learning are the biggest drags on social mobility globally. The Areas of improvement for India include social protection (76th) and fair wage distribution (79th).
    • FAO Food Price Index: The FAO Food Price Index (FFPI) is a measure of the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food commodities. It consists of the average of five commodity group price indices weighted by the average export shares of each of the groups over 2014-2016. It measures changes for a basket of cereals, oilseeds, dairy products, meat and sugar. 
    • Some flagship Publications of FAO include: The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA), The State of the World's Forests (SOFO), The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI), The State of Food and Agriculture (SOFA), The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets (SOCO). Other initiatives include Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS). The Codex Alimentarius Commission or CAC is the body responsible for all matters regarding the implementation of the Joint FAO/WHO Food Standards Programme. 
    • Human Freedom Index: The Human Freedom Index presents the state of human freedom in the world based on a broad measure that encompasses personal, civil, and economic freedom. Human freedom is a social concept that recognizes the dignity of individuals and is defined here as negative liberty or the absence of coercive constraint. Because freedom is inherently valuable and plays a role in human progress, it is worth measuring carefully. The Human Freedom Index is a resource that can help to more objectively observe relationships between freedom and other social and economic phenomena, as well as the ways in which the various dimensions of freedom interact with one another. The report is co-published by the Cato Institute and the Fraser Institute. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched. 
    • Urban Quality of Life (UQoL) Index: IIT-Bombay, recently released its Urban Quality of Life Index, wherein the institution compared the life quality in various cities all over India on the basis of some common denominations and ranked them accordingly. It has various categories of comparisons including water, power, electricity, literacy rate, gender parity, the employment rate among others. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 53

With reference to Natural Capital Accounting and Valuation of the Ecosystem Services (NCAVES), consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to assist partner countries in improving the monetary measurement of their ecosystems and ecosystem services.
  2. It is being implemented only in Brazil, China, India, Mexico and South Africa.
  3. It has been launched by the United Nations Statistics Division and Convention on Biological Diversity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 53
  1. Natural Capital Accounting and Valuation of the Ecosystem Services (NCAVES) India Forum2021 The NCAVES Project, funded by EU, has been jointly implemented by the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the Secretariat of the Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD). India is one of the five countries taking part in this project - the other countries being Brazil, China, South Africa and Mexico. Hence statement 2 and statement 3 are correct. 
  2. The project funded by the European Union through its Partnership Instrument (PI), aims to 
    • Improving the measurement of ecosystems and their services (both in physical and monetary terms) at the (sub)national level; Hence statement 1 is correct. 
    • Mainstreaming biodiversity and ecosystems at (sub)national level policy planning and implementation; 
    • Contribute to the development of internationally agreed methodology and its use in partner countries;
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 54

Consider the following statements with reference to allotment of Party symbols:

  1. Allotment of symbols to political parties is governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
  2. Election Commission acts as a court for settling disputes related to allotment of election symbols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 54
  • Due to high illiteracy rates, India’s election commission historically has assigned visual symbols to political parties to help voters identify their candidate of choice. The symbols also help the several unrecognised parties and independent candidates differentiate themselves from one another and help voters identify the party of their choice. 
  • The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) order, first promulgated in 1968, mandates the Election Commission to provide for “specification, reservation, choice and allotment of symbols at parliamentary and assembly elections, for the recognition of political parties”. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
  • As per the guidelines, to get a symbol allotted, a party/candidate has to provide a list of three symbols from the EC’s free symbols list at the time of filing nomination papers. Among them, one symbol is allotted to the party/candidate on a first-come-first-serve basis. 
  • As per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) (Amendment) Order, 2017, party symbols are either “reserved” or “free”. While eight national parties and 64 state parties across the country have “reserved” symbols, the Election Commission also has a pool of nearly 200 “free” symbols that are allotted to the thousands of unrecognised regional parties that pop up before elections. 
  • When a recognised political party splits, the Election Commission takes the decision on assigning the symbol. The ECI acts as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them. Hence, statement 2 is correct
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - Question 55

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Jainism?

  1. Jainism holds that every atom has a soul.
  2. The concept of "Anekantavada" implying that the truth can be viewed from aneka or various angels is a distinguishing feature of Jainism.
  3. Jainism specifies householders to practice virtues called anuvrata.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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