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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 1

With reference to a State Finance Commission, consider the following statements:

  1. It is constituted annually by the State government concerned, in consultation with the Governor of the State concerned.
  2. It examines the financial position of the local government bodies in the State concerned.
  3. It reviews the distribution of revenues between rural and urban local governments in the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 1

The State government is required to appoint a State Finance Commission once every five years. So, statement 1 is not correct. This Commission would examine the financial position of the local government bodies in the State. It would also review the distribution of revenues between the State and local governments on the one hand and between rural and urban local governments on the other. This innovation ensures that allocating funds to the rural and urban local bodies will not be a political matter. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 2

Consider the following:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 2

Union List
Union Legislature alone can make laws on these matters.
It includes subjects like: 

  • Defense
  • Atomic Energy
  • Foreign Affairs
  • War and Peace
  • Banking
  • Railways
  • Post and Telegraph
  • Airways
  • Ports 
  • Foreign Trade
  • Currency & Coinage

State List
Normally only the State Legislature can make laws on these matters.
It includes subjects like:

  • Agriculture 
  • Police 
  • Prison 
  • Local Government 
  • Public Heath 
  • Land 
  • Liquor 
  • Trade and Commerce 
  • Livestock and Animal Husbandry 
  • State Public Services

Concurrent List- 
Both the Union and State Legislature alone can make laws on these matters.
it includes subjects like: 

  • Education 
  • Transfer of Property other than Agricultural land 
  • Forests 
  • Trade Unions 
  • Adulteration 
  • Adoption and Succession
    Residuary Powers - Union Legislature alone has the power to legislate on such matters. It includes all other matters not mentioned in any of the Lists. Example- Cyber Laws
    Therefore, the correct answer is b.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 3

With reference to the powers of a State High Court, which of the following statements is/are not correct?

  1. It has original jurisdiction like the Supreme Court to issue writs for restoring fundamental duties.
  2. It exercises superintendence and control over the courts below it.
  3. It advises the President on matters of public importance and law for the State concerned.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 3

The Constitution of India provides for a single integrated judicial system. This means that unlike some other federal countries of the world, India does not have separate State courts. The judiciary structure in India is pyramidal with the Supreme Court at the top, High Courts below them and district and subordinate courts at the lowest level. So, statement 2 is correct. Powers of High Court:

  • Can hear appeals from lower courts.
  • Can issue writs for restoring Fundamental Rights. So, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Can deal with cases within the jurisdiction of the State.
  • Exercises superintendence and control over courts below it.

The Supreme Court of India possesses advisory jurisdiction. This means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which involves interpretation of the Constitution to the Supreme Court for advice. However, the Supreme Court is not bound to give advice on such matters, and the President is not bound to accept such advice. High Courts do not have advisory jurisdiction. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, the answer is b. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 4

Which of the following statements are not correct in the context of the doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution?

  1. It empowered the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights.
  2. It does not apply to the Directive Principles of State Policy under Part IV.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 4

Judiciary advanced the theory of basic structure in the famous case of Kesavananda Bharati in 1973. This
ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways:

  • It has set specific limits to the Parliament's power to amend the Constitution. It says that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution;
  • It allows the Parliament to amend any and all parts of the Constitution (within this limitation); and
  • It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure.

Kesavananda Bharti's case implied that the Parliament could only amend the Constitution and not rewrite it. The power to amend is not a power to destroy. Hence, the Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. So, statement (1) is not correct.
The Supreme Court upholds the harmony and balance between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles in the Minerva Mills case. So, the Basic structure doctrine also applies to the Directive Principles of State Policy. So, statement (2) is also not correct.
Therefore, the answer is d. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 5

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the Fundamental Rights of the minorities in educational matters?

  1. Only religious minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
  2. The right is absolute and not subject to any restrictions by any authority under the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 5

Article 30 (1): All religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. So, statement (1) is not correct. Recently in the TIVlA Pai Foundation case, the Supreme Court held that the state is well within its rights to introduce a regulatory regime in the "national interest" to provide minority educational institutions with well-qualified teachers in order for them to "achieve excellence in education." It said Article 30(1) (right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice) was neither absolute nor above the law. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 6

Which of the following can be considered as evidence of the Indian political system working in federal spirit?

  1. Federalism declared as part of the basic structure
  2. Emergence and growth of regional parties
  3. Creation of new States to fulfil regional aspirations
  4. Setting up of procedural limitations on use of Article 356 by the Center

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 6

Based on various unitary features of the Indian constitution, some political scholars have called Indian federalism 'Quasi-federal' that is a federal arrangement with strong unitary bias. Replying to critics of the Constitution, Ivor Jennings has described it as a "federation with a strong centralising tendency," and Granville Austin called the Indian federalism a "cooperative federalism." Similarly, Supreme Court has reinstated the federal character of the Indian Constitution in SR Bommai case judgement by declaring federalism as part of the 'Basic Structure.' The fact that under the scheme of our Constitution, greater power is conferred upon the Centre vis-a-vis the States does not mean that the States are mere appendages of the Centre. The States have an independent constitutional existence. The fact that during an emergency and in certain other eventualities, their powers are overridden is not destructive of the essential federal feature of the Constitution. They are exceptions, and the exceptions are not a rule. So, statement (1) is correct. According to Pratap Bhanu Mehta, the following trends in the working of the Indian political system reflects its federal spirit: 

  • Territorial disputes between States, for example, between Maharashtra and Karnataka over Belgaum; " Disputes between States over sharing of river water, for example, between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu over Cauvery Water; 
  • The emergence of regional parties and their coming to power in States like Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, etc. So, statement (2) is correct; 
  • The creation of new States to fulfil the regional aspirations, for example, Mizorarn or recently Jharkhand, etc. So, statement (3) is correct; 
  • The demand of the States for more financial grants from the Centre to meet their developmental needs;
  • Assertion of autonomy by the States and their resistance to the interference from the Centre;
  • Supreme Court's imposition of several procedural limitations on the use of Article 356 (President's Rule in the States) by the Centre; so, statement (4) is correct.
    Therefore, the correct answer is d.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 7

Which of the following features reflect the philosophy of Constitution a I ism in Indian Polity?

  1. People's sovereignty as enshrined in the Preamble
  2. Fundamental Rights
  3. Rule of Law
  4. Directive Principles of State Policy
  5. Fundamental Duties
  6. Judicial Review

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 7

Constitutionalism means limited Government. Constitutionalism is primarily based on the notion of people's sovereignty, which is to be exercised - in a limited manner - by a representative government. So, statement (1) is correct. Fundamental Rights are enforceable directly through writ jurisdiction of SC and HC and hence can act as limitations on the acts of Government. So, statement (2) is not correct. The rule of !aw safeguards constitutionalism. Only when the supremacy of the rule of law is established can supremacy of the Constitution exist. So, Statement (3) is correct. Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable, hence cannot contribute to the rule of law. Fundamental Duties are, in fact, constraints/limitations on the part of citizens, not on the Government. So, statements (4) and (5) are not correct. Judicial review and Independent Judiciary ensure the check and balance on the arbitrary power of Government. So, statement (6) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 8

Which of the following statements best describes Indian federalism?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 8

Federalism is a system of Government in which States or Provinces share power with a national government. Cooperative federalism refers to a concept where various States cooperate amongst themselves and with the Centre to achieve growth, development of the States and the nation. Article 1 defines the Indian federation as a 'union of States' where no State has the right to secede and the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the States. So, statement d is correct. In India, there is an unequal division of power between the Centre and the States as provided under the Seventh Schedule, Emergency Provisions, etc. So, statement a is not correct. It is not a result of an agreement among the States like the US Federal system. Elements of federalism were introduced into modern India by the Government of India Act of 1919, which separated powers between the Centre and the provincial legislatures. So, statement bis not correct. In coming together as a Federation, independent (and not dependent) States come together to form a larger unit. Here, States enjoy more autonomy as compared to the holding together kind of federation. Example: USA, Australia, Switzerland. So, statement c is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 9

Which of the following statements best describes "Secularism" in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 9

Secularism is defined as the principle of separation of State from religious institutions. Secularism calls for a doctrine where all religions are given equal status, recognition and support from the State. It can also be defined as a doctrine that promotes the separation of State from religion. Indian Constitution does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the State and gives equal respect to all religions or protects all religions equally. So, statement b is correct. Article 25 (2) allows the interference of the state in religious matters for social reforms and welfare. So, statement c is not correct. India's secularism is more inclusive and positive. It supports all religions and cultures. Muslims are given Haj subsidy, the State spends and helps arrange Kumbh Mela, Amarnath Yatra, etc. So, statement d is not correct. India's model of Secularism is based on the principle of distance model rather than the strict separation of religion and State. So, statement a is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 10

Which of the following features goes against the ideals of "equality" enshrined in the Constitution of India?

  1. Reservation for Socially and Educationally Backward Classes in appointment to Public Offices
  2. Awarding of Padma Awards by the State
  3. Diplomatic immunity to foreign diplomats
  4. Extreme poverty in the population

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 10

The term 'equality' means the absence of special privileges to any section of the society and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity. Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the National Awards-Bharat Ratna, Pad ma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Sri. It ruled that these awards do not amount to 'titles' within the meaning of Article 18 that prohibits only hereditary titles of nobility. Therefore, they are not violative of Article 18 as the theory of equality does not mandate that merit should not be recognized. So, statement (2) is not correct. Affirmative action !ike reservation creates a level playing field and hence promotes equality. So, statement (1) is not correct. Extreme poverty goes against the ideals of economic equality. So, statement (4) is correct. The rule of equality is not absolute and there is a certain constitutional exception under Article 361, which includes the immunity to foreign sovereigns, ambassadors, diplomats and UNO and its agencies. So, statement {3) is not correct. Therefore the correct answer is c. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 11

Which of the following statements with reference to the fundamental rights are not correct?

  1. All of them form a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
  2. They have a transcendental position and can't be abolished.
  3. They can be suspended partially or completely

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 11

In 1973, a landmark judgement ensued in the Kesavananda Bharati case, where the SC held that no part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, was beyond the Parliament's amending power except the "basic structure of the Constitution". Not all of the Fundamental Rights are part of the 'basic structure doctrine. Rather, on a case to case basis, the courts pronounce the features in the basic structure of the Constitution. So, statement {1) is not correct. The Fundamental Rights mentioned in the Constitution of India are not permanent/sacrosanct or have a transcendental position and they can be abolished by the Parliament e.g., the Forty-Fourth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights. So, statement {2) is not correct. Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a national emergency under Articles 358 and 359 of the Constitution. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

  1. Indian Constitution provides for single citizenship only.
  2. Federal states like the USA and Switzerland adopted a system of double citizenship.
  3. The concept of single citizenship in India is adopted from United Kingdom.
  4. A citizen cannot be discriminated against on the grounds of being a resident of any particular State whatsoever.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 12

The Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity {Centre and States). It provides for only single citizenship, that is, Indian citizenship. There is no separate state citizenship, although other federal States like the USA and Switzerland adopted the system of double citizenship. In the USA, each person is a citizen of the USA and the particular State. Thus he enjoys dual sets of rights-one set conferred by the national Government and another by the state government. So, statements (1) and (2) are correct. In India, all citizens, irrespective of the State in which they are born or reside enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country and no discrimination is made between them. However, this general rule of the absence of discrimination is subject to some exceptions, viz, 

  • The Parliament (under Article 16) can prescribe residence within a State or Union Territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that State or Union Territory, or local authority or other authority within that State or Union Territory. 
  • The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means that the State can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens. For example, a State may offer concession in fees for education to its residents. So, Statement (4) is not correct. Like the Canadian Constitution, the India Constitution has introduced the system of single citizenship, and provided uniform rights (except in few cases) to the people of India. It is to promote the feeling of fraternity and unity among them and to build an integrated Indian nation. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 13

In the context of 'full faith and credit clause' in the Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. It ensures that acts and records of one State are recognized in other States as well.
  2. It ensures judgments of both civil and criminal courts are applicable all over India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 13

Public Acts, Records, and Judicial Proceedings Under the Constitution, the jurisdiction of each State is confined to its own territory. Hence, it is possible that the acts and records of one State may not be recognized in another State. To remove any such difficulty, the Constitution contains the 'Full Faith and Credit' clause, which lays down the following: 

  • Full faith and credit is to be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Centre and every State. So, Statement (1) is correct. 
  • The manner in which and the conditions under which such acts, records and proceedings are to be proved and their effect determined would be as provided by the laws of Parliament. 
  • Final judgments and orders of civil courts in any part of India can execute anywhere within India. The rule applies only to civil judgments and not to criminal judgments. in other words. it does not require the courts of a State to enforce the penal laws of another State. So, Statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 14

Consider the following statements: 

  1. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to legislate even on subjects in State List and goods and services tax matters.
  2. This provision does not restrict the power of a State Legislature to make laws on the same matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 14

Parliamentary legislation in the State field is allowed when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution as per Article 249. Suppose the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to GST or a matter in the State List. In that case, the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. The laws cease to have an effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. This provision does not restrict the power of a State Legislature to make laws on the same matter. But, in case of inconsistency between State law and Parliamentary law, the latter prevails. So, Statements (1) and (2) are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with reference to the Chief Minister of a State:

  1. Constitutionally, she has to be a member of the Lower House only.
  2. She is the de jure executive in the parliamentary system of Government.
  3. She holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 15

In the scheme of the parliamentary system of Government provided by the Constitution, the Governor is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive), and the Chief Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive). So statement (2) is not correct. Article 164 only says that the Governor shall appoint the Chief Minister and the Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. According to the constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of the State Legislature. So statement (1) is not correct. The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed and she holds office during the Governor's pleasure. However, this does not mean that the Governor can dismiss them at any time. So statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 16

The initiative 'Be the Brand Ambassador of Tribes India' can be best described as

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 16

Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation Ltd (TRIFED), Ministry ofTribal Affairs, Government of India has launched two interesting competitions, Be the Brand Ambassador of Tribes India and Be a 'Friend' of TRIBES INDIA Contest in association with MyGov.in, the citizen-government engagement platform. These competitions have been launched with the sole objective of promoting tribal craft, culture and lifestyle. Through these innovative contests, awareness about tribal heritage, arts, crafts can be enhanced among the general public. With more knowledge and awareness about tribal heritage, it is hoped that citizens will also contribute to overall tribal empowerment by purchasing more tribal products. "Be the Brand Ambassador of Tribes India" is inviting stories featuring any tribal product (s) from customers across the country. The stories should highlight his/ her experience in using the product and provide details of the product and the place/ shop from where it was purchased. The requirement is that the stories are short videos ranging from 30 seconds to 5 minutes. So, only option c is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 17

Consider the following statements with reference to the Aahaar Kranti Mission:

  1. It promotes the need for a nutritionally balanced diet with the importance of access to all local fruits and vegetables.
  2. It will be the coordinated effort of the Ministry of Food Processing Industries and Ministry of Social Empowerment and Welfare.
  3. It will address the problem of 'hunger and diseases in abundance.'

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 17
  • The Government has launched 'Aahaar Kranti,' a mission dedicated to spreading awareness about nutrition. 
  • The mission is to spread the message of the need for a nutritionally balanced diet and understand the importance of accessibility to all local fruits and vegetables. So, statement (1) is correct. ~ Vijnana Bharati (Vibha) and Global Indian Scientists' and Technocrats' Forum (GIST) have come together to launch the mission with the motto of Uttam Aahaar Uttam Vichaar or 'Good Diet-Good Cognition.' So, statement (2) is not correct. 
  • The 'Aahaar Kranti' movement is designed to address the particular problem being faced by India and the world called 'hunger and diseases in abundance'. Studies estimate that India produces as much as two times the amount of calories that it consumes. However, many in the country are still malnourished. The root cause of this strange phenomenon is a lack of nutritional awareness in all sections of our society. So, statement (3) is correct. 
  • There is a need for a nutritionally balanced diet also in the context of the current COVID-19 pandemic. A healthy body would be able to handle the infection much better with more excellent immunity and higher resilience. 
  • The movement proposes addressing the current situation of hunger in abundance by working to rouse the people to the values of India\ traditional diet, the healing powers of local fruits and vegetables, and the miracles of a balanced diet. It will renew the focus on nutritionally balanced diets - (Uttam evam santulit aahaar) replete in locally sourced fruits and vegetables. 
  • The program will focus on training teachers, who, in turn, will pass on the message to the multitudes of students, and through them to their families and finally the society at large. Such a strategy was adopted to eradicate polio and it turned out to be a grand success. Therefore, the correct answer is c.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 18

Consider the following statements with reference to the Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme:

  1. It aims to provide financial assistance to startups for proof of concept, prototype development, product trials, market entry and commercialization.
  2. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is the nodal department for the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 18
  • Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) has been approved for the next four years, starting from 2021-22. It will be implemented with effect from 1st April 2021. 
  • It aims to provide financial assistance to startups for proof of concept, prototype development, product trials, market entry and commercialization. So, statement (1) is correct. 
  • Rs. 945 Crores corpus will be divided over the next four years for providing seed funding to eligible startups through eligible incubators across India. The scheme is expected to support about 3600 startups 
  • Nodal Department: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. So, statement (2) is correct. " The SISFS will Secure seed funding, Inspire innovation, Support transformative ideas, Facilitate implementation, and Start a startup revolution. 
  • The Scheme will create a robust startup ecosystem, particularly in Tier 2 and Tier 3 towns of India, which are often deprived of adequate funding. Therefore, the correct answer is d.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 19

Consider the following statements with reference to the Compulsory Licensing, recently in the news:

  1. It allows governments to license third parties to produce and market a patented product or process without the consent of patent owners.
  2. The Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS Agreement) specifically lists the reasons that might be used to justify it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 19

Compulsory Licensing allows governments to license third parties (that is, parties other than the patent holders) to produce and market a patented product or process without the consent of patent owners. The demand for compulsory licenses for the manufacture of an affordable generic version of Remdesivir has been raised. Chapter XVI of the Indian Patents Act 1970 and the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights discuss compulsory licensing. So, statement (1) is correct. Any time after three years from the date of sealing of a patent, an application for the compulsory license can be made, provided: " Reasonable requirements of the public have not been satisfied; 

  • The patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price. 
  • Patented inventions are not carried. The TRIPS agreement does not specifically list the reasons that might be used to justify compulsory licensing.
    However, the Doha declaration confirms that the countries are free to determine a national emergency. So, statement (2) is not correct. The first ever license was issued on 9 March 2012 in India for treatment of liver and kidney cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is a.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 20

Consider the following for UCC:

  1. Article 40 in Part IV of the constitution endorses it.
  2. At present no Indian state or UT has implemented it.
  3. The Indian Parliament does not have exclusive jurisdiction over personal laws.

Which of the statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 20
  • Recently, the Supreme Court sought a reply from the Centre on a PIL (Public Interest Litigation) seeking gender and religion-neutral uniform grounds of succession and inheritance for citizens in the country. A UCC refers to a single law applicable to all citizens of India in matters such as marriage, divorce, custody, adoption and inheritance.
  • A UCC is intended to replace fragmented personal laws, which currently govern interpersonal relationships and related matters within different religious communities.
  • Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the ‘State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.’ So, statement (1) is not correct.
  • Goa at present, is the only State in India with a Uniform Civil Code. The Portuguese Civil Code of 1867,which continues to be implemented after India annexed Goa in 1961, applies to all Goans, irrespective of their religious or ethnic community. So, statement (2) is not correct.
  • The Parliament does not have exclusive jurisdiction over personal laws. “Personal laws” are mentioned in the Concurrent List. So, statement (3) is correct.
    Therefore, the correct answer is d.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 21

Which of the following are challenges to millet production in India?

  1. Lower or near absence of production support
  2. Low productivity
  3. A disproportionate focus on rice and wheat

Which of the statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 21

Recently, United Nations General Assembly unanimously approved the resolution sponsored by India to declare 2023 as the International! Year of Millets. In 2018, India had proposed to celebrate 2023 as the International Year of Millets at the Food and Agriculture Organization.
India is the largest producer of millets in the world, with a 41.0% global market share. India produced 11.5 million tonnes of millets in 2020. During 2017-18, the maximum area under millets was in Rajasthan, followed by Maharashtra and Karnataka. Major Millets grow in Kharif season (July to October): Pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), and jowar are Kharif crops.

Challenges to millet production
A disproportionate focus on rice and wheat:
 While almost a third of all major food grains in India constituted millets during 1950-51, this reduced to only around 15% by 2018-19. Also, the area under millet declined from 37 million ha in 1965-66 to 14.72 million ha in 2016-17. So, option (3) is correct.
Low productivity: Most of the millets are grown in arid and semi-arid regions, which are rainfall- dependent due to less profitability. Adequate inputs are not used while sowing. So, option (2) is correct.
The lower or near absence of production support, in terms of input supply and subsidy (seed and nutrients), irrigation support, and marketing support, and lack of modern technology when compared to the help enjoyed by other crops. So, option (1) is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 22

“Pabbi-Anti-terror 2021” military excercise will involve which of the following member states?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 22

Members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) will hold a joint anti-terrorism exercise this year. The decision to have the joint exercise “Pabbi-Anti-Terror- 2021” was announced during the 36th meeting of the Council of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) held in Tashkent Uzbekistan, on March 18, 2021. The multinational military exercise will be organized in Pakistan by the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), of which India is a member.
Therefore, the correct answer is c

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 23

‘Project Dantak’ is established in between which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 23
  • Project DANTAK was established on April 24, 1961, as a result of the visionary leadership of Bhutan’s King and then Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru. So, option c 1s correct. Identifying the utmost importance of connectivity in spurring Bhutan’s socio-economic development and growth, DANTAK was tasked to construct the pioneering motorable roads in the Kingdom. Over the years, DANTAK has met the myriad infrastructure requirements in Bhutan in accordance with the vision of Them Kings and the aspirations of the people in a symbiotic manner. Some other notable projects executed by the project include Paro Airport, Yonphula Airfield, Thimphu ~Trashigang Highway, Telecommunication & Hydro Power Infrastructure, Sherubtse College, Kanglung and India House Estate.
  • The medical and education facilities established by DANTAK in far-flung areas were often the first in those locations. The food outlets along the road introduced the Bhutanese to Indian delicacies and developed a sweet tooth in them. The famous Takthi Canteen midway between Phuentsholing and Thimphu has been a compulsory stop for travellers.
  • As DANTAK celebrates six decades in Bhutan, the project reaffirms its commitment to support the march of Bhutan towards realizing the dreams of His Majesty Druk Gyalpo, the plans of the Royal Government of Bhutan and the aspirations of the people of the kingdom.
    Therefore, the correct answer is c.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 24

Consider the statements with reference to ‘Mucormycosis’

  1. It is a serious but rare viral infection caused by a group of viruses called mucormycetes.
  2. Most commonly affects the sinuses or the lungs after inhaling fungal spores from the air.
  3. It can also occur on skin from cuts,injuries.

Which of the following are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 24

Mucormycosis (previously called zygomycosis) is a serious but rare fungal infection caused by a group of molds called mucormycetes. These molds live throughout the environment. So, statement 1 is not correct. Mucormycosis mainly affects people who have health problems or take medicines that lower the body's ability to fight germs and sickness. It most commonly affects the sinuses or the lungs after inhaling fungal spores from the air. It can also occur on the skin after a cut, burn, or other type of skin injury. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 25

Which mission was aimed at bringing people living in HIV to AntiRetroViral Treatment (ART)?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 25

National strategic plan and mission Sampark was launched on World AIDS Day, 2017. The National Strategic Plan on AIDS/HIV and Sexually Transmitted Infections (SIT), 2017-24 was released. The plan will pave a roadmap for achieving the target of 90:90:90 but also strive along with partners towards fast track strategy of ending the AIDS epidemic by 2030. The mission Sam park was to bring people living with HIV who have left treatment back to the Anti-Retro Viral Treatment (ART). 
Therefore, the correct answer is a. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 26

The National Mission on Quantum technologies and Application (NMQTA) will be implemented by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 26

Quantum Technology is based on the principles of quantum theory, which explains the nature of energy and matter on the atomic and subatomic levels. It concerns the control and manipulation of quantum systems to achieve information processing beyond the limits of the classical world. Its principles will be used to solve extremely complex problems in computing, communications, sensing, chemistry, cryptography, imaging and mechanics. This key ability makes quantum computers extremely powerful compared to conventional computers when solving certain problems like finding prime factors of large numbers and searching large databases. The mission wi!I function under the Department of Science & Technology (DST). It will address the ever increasing technological requirements of society and take into account the international technology trends. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 27

The 'PRISM' Scheme, recently in news, was launched by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 27

The Ministry of Science & Technology has inaugurated an Alignment and Awareness Event for the publicity of the DSIR-PRISM Scheme. So, option bis correct. PRISM stands for Promoting Innovations in Individuals, Start-ups and MSMEs. It is an initiative of the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR). It is aimed at transforming an individual innovator into a successful technopreneur by promoting, supporting, and funding implementable and commercially viable innovations created for society. Under the initiative, an Indian innovator- student, professional and common citizen - is provided technical, strategic, and financial assistance by DSIR for idea development, prototype development and pilot scaling, and patenting. The program is implemented across various sectors from energy to healthcare to waste management and others. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 28

Consider the following statements with reference to 'Nano sniffer':

  1. It is the world's first Micro sensor-based Explosive Trace Detector.
  2. It is a 100% Made in India product in terms of research, development and manufacturing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 28

The Union Minister of Education has launched Nano Sniffer, the world's first Micro sensor-based Explosive Trace Detector (ETD). It is developed by Nano Sniff Technologies and an IIT Bombay incubated startup. So, statement (1) is correct. Nano Sniffer is a 100% Made in india product in terms of research, development & manufacturing. It can detect explosives in less than 10 seconds and it also identifies and categorises explosives into different classes. It detects all classes of military, conventional and homemade explosives. It gives visible & audible alerts with a sunlight-readable colour display. So, statement (2) is correct. Nano Sniffer provides trace detection of the nano-gram quantity of explosives & delivers results in seconds. It can accurately detect a wide range of military, commercial and homemade explosives threats. Further analysis of the algorithms also helps in the categorization of explosives into the appropriate class. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 29

Consider the following statements with reference to the Rare Diseases and National Policy on Rare Diseases:

  1. A rare disease affects a smaller percentage of the population compared to other diseases and its prevalence is very high.
  2. The policy categorizes rare diseases into ten categories for better targeting of diseases.
  3. The policy aims to strengthen tertiary health care facilities for the prevention and treatment of rare diseases through designating health facilities as 'Centers of Excellence.'

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 29

A rare disease is a disease that affects a smaller percentage of the population compared to other diseases and its prevalence is very low. So, statement (1) is not correct. Delhi High Court directed the Centre to set up a Rare Diseases Committee, a Rare Diseases Fund, and finalize and notify the National Health Policy for Rare Diseases on or before 31st March 2021. Hence, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has approved the National Rare Disease Policy 2021. Aim of the policy: 

  • To increase focus on indigenous research and local production of medicines. 
  • To lower the cost of treatment of rare diseases. 
  • To screen and detect rare diseases early at early stages, which will in turn help in their prevention. 

The policy has categorized rare diseases into three groups: 

  • Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment. 
  • Group 2: Those requiring long-term or lifelong treatment. 
  • Group 3: Diseases for which definitive treatment is available, but challenges are to make an optimal patient selection for benefit, very high cost and lifelong therapy. So, statement (2) is not correct Centers of Excellence: 
  • The policy aims to strengthen tertiary health care facilities to prevent and treat rare diseases by designating eight health facilities as 'Centers of Excellence.' These will also be provided one-time financial support of up to Rs. 5 crores for up-gradation of diagnostics facilities. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 30

Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of electronics items or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?

  1. Beryllium
  2. Cadmium
  3. Chromium
  4. Heptachlor
  5. Mercury
  6. Lead
  7. Uranium

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 30

Electrical and electronic waste (e-waste) contains multiple toxic metals. However, there is currently a lack of exposure data for metals on workers in formal recycling plants. A recent study by CSE evaluates workers' exposure to metals, using biomarkers of exposure in combination with monitoring of personal air exposure. 
Following is the list of toxic metal exposure found: 

  1. Beryllium 
  2. Cadmium 
  3. Chromium 
  4. Cobalt, 
  5. Indium, 
  6. Lead, 
  7. Mercury 
  8. Vanadium
    Therefore, the correct answer is b.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 31

The terms 'Maze, Lockers and RaaS' sometimes in the news are related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 31

Explanation: Ransomware is a type of malicious software that infects a computer system and displays messages that demand a price to be paid to mitigate the issue. Key Attacks: Ransomware attacks are one of the most common cyber-attacks among organizations this year. The common types of ransomware include Crypto malware, Maze, Doxware, Scareware, Lockers, RaaS and others. Also, some of the popular ransomware attacks include Cryptoiocker, TeslaCrypt, Petya, Bad Rabbit, among others. For Instance: Cognizant Ransomware Attack In April, IT services giant - Cognizant admitted that the company had faced a ransomware attack. The IT giant revealed that its network had been infected with Maze ransomware, which a ransomware group is known for releasing stolen data to the public if the victim does not pay to decrypt it. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 32

PARAM-Siddhi and Mihir', sometimes in the news are related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 32

Param Siddhi is a High-Performance Computing-Artificial Intelligence (HPC-AI) supercomputer developed by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) at the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing. Pratyush and Mihir are the supercomputers established at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (llTM), Pune and the National Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecast (NCMRWF), Naida, respectively. They are the fastest supercomputer in India, with a maximum speed of 6.8 Peta Flops. Therefore, the correct answer is d.
National Supercomputing Mission: The Mission envisages empowering our national academic and Research and Development (R&D) institutions spread over the country by installing a vast supercomputing grid comprising more than 70 high-performance computing facilities. These supercomputers will also be networked on the National Supercomputing grid over the National Knowledge Network (NKN).
Aim: The Mission includes the development of highly professional High-Performance Computing (HPC) aware human resource for meeting the challenges of developing these applications. Nodal Agency: Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY). 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 33

Consider the following pairs: Term Meaning

  1. Quasar : explosion of a star
  2. Constellation group of stars that appears to form a pattern
  3. Nebula : giant cloud of dust and gas in space

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 33
  • Quasar - A quasar is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus (AGN), in which a supermassive black hole with mass ranging from millions to billions of times the mass of the Sun is surrounded by a gaseous accretion disk. So, statement 1 is correct. 
  • Constellation - A constellation is a group of stars that appears to form a pattern or picture like Orion the Great Hunter, Leo the Lion, or Taurus the Bull. Constellations are easily recognizable patterns that help people orient themselves using the night sky. There are 88 "official" constellations. So, statement 2 is correct 
  • A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space. Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a dying star and other nebulae are regions where new stars are beginning to form. So, statement 3 is correct Therefore, the correct answer is d.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 34

Consider the following statements regarding the recently setup Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS):

  1. Cabinet Secretary is the Chairman of the group.
  2. Its objective is to provide support and facilitation to global investors for investing in India.
  3. It helps to create projects with all approvals and makes land available for allocation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 34

Recently, an Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) and Project Development Cells (PDCs) in Ministries/Departments of Government of India for attracting investments in India was established. This new mechanism will reinforce India's vision of becoming a US$5 trillion economy by 2024-25. Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) 

  • The objective of EGoS is to provide investment support to global investors by bringing synergies and ensure timely clearances from different departments and Ministries. So, statement (2) is correct. 
  • Its chairperson is the Cabinet Secretary with the CEO of NITI Aayog and secretaries of other departments as the members. So, Statement (1) is correct. A 'Project Development Cell' (PDC) was also set up to develop investible projects in coordination between the Central Government and State Governments and thereby grew the pipeline of investible projects in India and, in turn, increases FDI inflows. 

Its objectives are: 

  • To create projects with all approvals, land available for allocation, and complete Detailed Project Reports for adoption/investment by investors. So statement (3) is not correct. 
  • To identify issues that need to be resolved to attract and finalize the investments and put forth these before the Empowered Group. Therefore, the correct answer is c.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 35

With reference to PM-CARES Fund, consider the following statements:

  1. It consists of voluntary contributions from individuals and organizations apart from the budgetary support from the Central Government.
  2. The donations to this Fund qualify for the exemptions· from the income tax.
  3. It can be used for providing financial assistance and grants of payments of money to theaffected population.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 35

PM-CARES (Prime Minister's Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund) Fund was forrned in 2020 amidst the CoVID-19 outbreak as a public charitable trust. The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support. So, statement (1) is not correct. 

  • Its objective is to render financial assistance, provide grants of payments of money or take such other steps as may be deemed necessary by the Board of Trustees to the affected population. So, statement (3) is correct. 
  • Donations to PM CARES Fund would qualify for 100% exemption under the Income Tax Act, 1961. It will also qualify to be counted as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013. So, statement (2) is correct. 
  • PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened. This enables PM CARES Fund to accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries. Therefore, the correct answer is a.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 36

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the ULPIN scheme launched recently?

  1. It is a unique number to be provided to every plot of land in the country within a year.
  2. It is launched in all the States of the country.
  3. It will integrate land records with revenue court records and bank records.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 36

ULPIN scheme is also called "the Aadhaar for land" - a number that would uniquely identify every surveyed parcel of land and prevent land fraud, especially in rural India, where land records are outdated and disputed. The identification will be based on the longitude and latitude of the land parcel and is dependent on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps. This is the next step in the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP), which began in 2008 and has been extended several times as its scope grew. 

  • Under ULPIN Scheme, the Government plans to issue a 14-digit identification number to every plot of land in the country within a year. So, statement (1) is correct. 
  • The Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) scheme has been launched in 10 States this year and will be rolled out across the country by March 2022. So, statement 2 is incorrect. So, statement (2) is not correct. 
  • It will subsequently integrate its land records database with revenue court records and bank records and Aadhaar numbers voluntarily. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 37

Recently the Government has launched the 'Sahakar Mitra Scheme.' Which of the following is notcorrect regarding the scheme?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 37

Recently, the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare has launched a Scheme on Internship Programme (SIP), i.e., Sahakar Mitra. Sahakar Mitra would also provide an opportunity to professionals from academic institutions to develop leadership and entrepreneurial roles through cooperatives as Farmers Producers Organizations (FPO). 

  • It aims to help cooperative institutions access innovative ideas of young professionals while the interns will gain experience working in the field to be self-reliant. So, statement (1) is correct.
  • The scheme is an initiative by the National Cooperative Development Corporation (f\JCDC), the cooperative sector development finance organization. So, statement (2) is correct. 
  • Professional graduates in disciplines such as Agriculture and allied areas, IT, etc., will be eligible for internship. Professionals who are pursuing or have completed their MBA degrees in Agri-business, Cooperation, Finance, International Trade, Forestry, Rural Development. Project Management, etc., will also be eligible. So, statement (4) is not correct. 
  • Each intern will get financial support over a four months internship period. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the answer is d.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 38

'KRITAGYA Hackathon' was launched recently with an aim to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 38

A hackathon named "KRITAGYA" has been planned by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) under the National Agricultural Higher Education Project (NAHEP). 

  • It aims to promote potential technology solutions for enhancing farm mechanization with special emphasis on women-friendly equipments. So, statement a is correct. 
  • Students, faculties and innovators/entrepreneurs from any university/technical institution can apply and participate in the event in the form of a group. 
  • One group of maximum 4 participants can compete, with not more than one faculty and/or more than one innovator or entrepreneur. Participating students can collaborate with local start-ups, students from technology institutes and win Rs. 5 lakhs, Rs 3 lakhs, and Rs. 1 lakh as first, second and third prizes. Therefore, the correct answer is a.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 39

Consider the following statements in the context of Production Linked Incentive Scheme:

  1. It aims to invite foreign investors to set up their manufacturing units in India.
  2. It promotes the local manufacturers to expand their units and generate employment.
  3. It provides cash subsidies to companies as a percentage of incremental sales.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 39

The PLI Scheme was introduced as a part of the National Policy on Electronics by the IT Ministry to give incentives of 4-6% to electronic companies, manufacturing electronic components like mobile phones, transistors, diodes, etc. This scheme was introduced in line with India's Atmanirbhar Bharat campaign. 

  • The scheme invites foreign companies to set up units in India. So, statement (1) is correct. 
  • It also aims to encourage local companies to set up or expand existing manufacturing units and generate more employment and cut down the country's reliance on imports from other countries. So, statement (2) is correct. 
  • Production Linked Incentive or PLI scheme is a scheme that aims to give companies incentives on incremental sales from products manufactured in domestic units. Under the PLI scheme, cash subsidies will be provided to companies as a percentage of incremental sales from the base year. The base year is the year when the scheme comes into effect. The incentive wi!I depend on the 'disadvantage' faced by each sector in domestic manufacturing and wil! vary from sector to sector. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.  
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 40

Consider the following statements with reference to technical recession:

  1. It describes two consecutive quarters of decline in output.
  2. India has never entered into a technical recession.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 40

According to recent estimates published by National Statistical Office (NSO), the Indian economy registered a positive GDP growth rate in the third quarter of 2020-21. Hence India has come out of a Technical Recession. 

  • A technical recession is a term used to describe two consecutive quarters of decline in output. In the case of a nation's economy, the term usually refers to back-to-back contractions in real GDP. So, statement (1) is correct. 
  • India's economy contracted for two successive quarters in 2020. With the contraction in two successive quarters, India entered into a technical recession for the first time in history. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 41

Consider the following statements regarding cotton cultivation in India:

  1. India is the second-largest producer of cotton in the world.
  2. Indian long-staple cotton is branded as 'Kasturi Cotton' in the world cotton market.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 41

Cotton is one of India's most important fiber and cash crops and plays a dominant role in the industrial and agricultural economy of the country. It provides the basic raw material (cotton fiber) to the cotton textile industry. There are four cultivated species of cotton viz. Gossypium arboreum, G.herbaceum, G.hirsutum and G.barbadense. e The Ministry ofTextiles has launched the 1st ever brand and logo for Indian Cotton on 2nd World Cotton Day. 

  • India's premium Cotton would be known as 'Kasturi Cotton' in the world cotton trade. The branding, Kasturi Cotton, would initially be applicable to long-staple cotton that is grown in India and meets prescribed standards. The Kasturi Cotton brand represents whiteness, brightness, softness, purity, uniqueness and lndianness. So, statement (2) is correct. 
  • India is the largest cotton producer and the largest consumer of cotton in the world. So, statement (1) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 42

With reference to RBl's Open Market Operations (OMO), consider the following statements:

  1. It is the sale and purchase of government securities and treasury bills by the RBI.
  2. The RBI does not undertake OMO of securities issued by State governments.
  3. Its objective is to regulate the money supply in the economy.
  4. The RBI carries it out through Commercial banks and does not directly deal with the public.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 42

Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducted first-ever open market operations (OMO) in State Development Loans (SDLs) and purchased Rs 10,000 crore of bonds under the scheme. The SDLs are the securities issued by States to manage their own finances. So, statement (2) is not correct. In India, Central Government issues both treasury bills and bonds or dated securities, while State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities called SDLs. SDLs are bonds issued by State governments and interest rates are usually higher than Central government securities (G-secs). 

  • Open market operations are the sale and purchase of government securities and treasury bills by RBI or the central bank of the country. So, statement (1) is correct. 
  • The objective of OMO is to regulate the money supply in the economy. When the Reserve Bank feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to the sale of securities, thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market. So, statement (3) is correct. 
  • RBI carries out the OMO through Commercial banks and does not directly deal with the public. So, statement (4) is correct. 
  • OMO is one of the tools that RBI uses to smoothen the liquidity conditions through the year and minimize its impact on the interest rate and inflation rate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 43

Consider the following statements regarding Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund:

  1. It is established under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
  2. Individual entrepreneurs are eligible to get loans under the scheme.
  3. The Government of India will provide a 3% interest subvention to eligible beneficiaries.
  4. The eligible beneficiaries are needed to contribute a minimum of 10% margin money.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 43

Government has announced for setting up of Rs. 15000 crores Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund under Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan stimulus package. So, statement (1) is correct. " AHIDF would facilitate much-needed incentivization of investments in establishing such infrastructure for dairy and meat processing and value addition infrastructure and establishing animal feed plants in the private sector. 

  • The eligible beneficiaries under the Scheme would be Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), MSMEs, Section 8 Companies, Private Companies. So, statement (2) is correct. 
  • Individual entrepreneurs need to provide a minimum 10% margin money contribution and the balance 90% would be the loan component rnade available to the individuals by Scheduled banks. So, statement (4) is correct. 
  • The Government of India will provide a 3% interest subvention to eligible beneficiaries. There will be two years moratorium period for the principal loan amount and six years repayment period thereafter. So, statement (3) is correct. The Government of India would also set up a Credit Guarantee Fund of Rs. 750 crore to be managed by NABARD. Credit guarantee would be provided to those sanctioned projects which are covered under MSME defined ceilings. Guarantee Coverage would be up to 25% of the Credit facility of the borrower. Therefore, the correct answer is d.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 44

Consider the following statements:

  1. Personal Income is the part of the National Income which is received by the households.
  2. Private income is the total of factor incomes and transfer incomes received from all sources by the private sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 44

Personal Income is the part of the National Income which is received by the households. The formula for calculating Personal Income (Pl) isPersonal income (Pl)= National Income - Undistributed profits (profits utilised by manufacturers for further production) - Net interest payments made by households - Corporate tax+ Transfer payments to the households from the Government and firms( old-age pensions, unemployment compensation, relief payment etc.). So, statement (1) is correct. Private income is the total of factor incomes and transfer incomes received from all sources by the private sector (private enterprise and households) within and outside the country. The formula for Private Income isPrivate Income= Factor income from net domestic product accruing to the private sector+ National debt interest+ Net factor income from abroad+ Current transfers from Government+ Other net transfers from the rest of the world. The concept of private income is broader than personal income because private income consists of personal income+ profit tax+ undistributed profit. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with reference to the recently released HDI (Human development index) Report, 2020:

  1. It is published by the United Nations Development Programme.
  2. It introduced a new metric to reflect the impact caused by each country's per-capita carbon emissions.
  3. India falls in the category of low human development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 45

Published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), it is a statistical tool used to measure a country's overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions. So, statement (1) is correct. The social and economic dimensions of a country are based on the health of people, their level of educational attainment and their standard of living. For the first time, the United Nations Development Programme introduced a new metric to reflect the impact caused by each country's per-capita carbon emissions and its material footprint, which measures the number of fossil fuels, metals and other resources used to make the goods and services it consumes. This metric is called the Planetary Pressures-adjusted HDI, or PHDI. So, statement (2) is correct. India's HDI value for 2019 is 0.645, which puts it in the medium human development category. India has been positioned at 131 out of 189 countries and territories, according to the report. So, statement (3) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 46

Which of the following steps taken by the Government pertains to the skilling of the population?

  1. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
  2. Udaan
  3. YUVA
  4. New Education Policy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 46

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is implemented to enable many Indian youths to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them secure a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills were also assessed and certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) category. So, option (1) is correct. Udaan program is a special initiative to address the needs of the educated unemployed in J&K. Udaan program is focused on the youth of Jam mu & Kashmir (J&K) who are graduate, postgraduate and three year diploma engineers. The aim is to provide skills and job opportunities to the youth. So, option (2) is correct. The 'YUVA' initiative by Delhi Police aims to connect with youth by upgrading their skill as per their competencies. It will help them to get gainful employment under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Vojna under the Ministry of Skill Development. So, option (3) is correct. New Education Policy also aims to usher in an era of relevant skilling, So, option (4) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 47

The terms TRIPS and TRIMS, often in the news, are related to which of the following organization?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 47

TRIPS & TRIMS are terms related to the WTO. So, option bis correct. Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) This agreement forbids the host country to disc:-iminate against investments from abroad vis-a-vis domestic investment, i.e., the agreement requires investment to be freely allowed by nations. Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Intellectual property rights seek to protect and provide legal recognition to the creator of the intangible illegal use of his creation. It includes patents, copyrights, geographical indications, trademarks, industrial circuits, designs and trade secrets. Since the law governing these aspects varies vastly across countries, the agreement stipulates a basic homogeneity of the l0w so that no infringement of rights occurred. This required some changes in the domestic laws of countries, including India. As a result, India amended the Copyright Act, the Patents Act, and the Trade and Merchandise Act. The pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries are expected to be hit the hardest. Another impact on India is expected to be in the transfer of technology from abroad. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 48

Consider the following statements regarding "Total fertility rate":

  1. It is the level of fertility at which a population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next.
  2. It is a better indicator of the potential for population change than the birth rate.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 48

Replacement Level Fertility is the level of fertility at which a population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next. However, the migrant people are excluded from the calculation. A TFR of 2.12, i.e., two children per woman, is considered the replacement rate for a population, resulting in relative stability in total population numbers. So, statement (1) is not correct. Total Fertility Rate may be defined as the average number of children born to a woman if she experiences the current fertility pattern throughout her reproductive span (15-49 years). The total fertility rate is a more direct measure of the level of fertility than the birth rate since it refers to births per woman. This indicator shows the potential for population change in a country. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 49

Which of the following statements is not true in the context of pulses?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 49

Pulse crops are cultivated in Kharif, Rabi and Zaid seasons of the Agricultural year. So, statement a is correct. Nitrogen-fixing properties improve soil fertility. Reduces the cost of artificial fertilizers and prevents resultant soil pollution. So, statement bis correct. Pulses improve the nutrient content of the soil by fixating nitrogen; thus, if other crop types are taken on the same land, the quality of soil helps in improving the productivity of other crop types. Thus, pulses are taken in rotation with other crops. So, statement c is correct. Pulses are water-efficient crops. It can be cultivated in arid and poor soil. So, statement d is not correct. Therefore, the answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 50

Which of the following can be considered as the causes of poverty in India?

  1. Social, economic and political inequality
  2. Social inclusion
  3. Unemployment
  4. Indebtedness
  5. Lack of Capital and Entrepreneurship

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 50
  1. Social, economic and political inequality Increasing inequality slows down the process of poverty reduction and dampens economic growth. It also affects political stability and increases social tensions, which hampers law and order, which hampers the day-to-day activities and trade and commerce, which causes low economic growth and thus poverty. So, option (1) is correct.
  2. Social inclusion ensures the reduction of inequalities, eliminating any forms of exclusion and discrimination, and achieving social justice and cohesion. This helps in poverty alleviation and not the cause of poverty. So, option (2) is not correct. 
  3. Unemployment: The magnitude of poverty is directly linked to the unemployment situation. The present employment conditions don't permit a reasonable level of living, causing poverty. Unemployment doesn't help one to achieve the fullest potential rather lowers self-esteem. So, option (3) is correct. 
  4. Indebtedness: A number of studies have shown that this level of debt affects people's ability to make decisions, including financial decisions, causing them to focus on short-term income over long term gains, among other effects. Thus, indebtedness can cause behavioural changes that promote future poverty. Thus it will be a corrupt action. So, option (4) is correct. 
  5. Lack of Capital and Entrepreneurship: The shortage of capital and entrepreneurship results in a low level of investment and job creation. So, option (5) is correct. Unless the root causes of structural exclusion and discrimination are addressed, it will be challenging to support sustainable, inclusive growth and rapid poverty reduction. Therefore, the correct answer is c.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 51

Which of the following indicators are used in calculating Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI)?

  1. Maternal mortality
  2. Nutrition
  3. Access to electricity
  4. Access to telephone

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 51

Multidimensional Poverty Index The Multidimensional Poverty Index was launched by the UNDP and the OPHI in 2010. MPI is based on the idea that poverty is not one-dimensional (not just depends on income and one individual may lack several basic needs like education, health, etc.), rather it is multidimensionai. The index shows the proportion of poor people and the average number of deprivations each poor person experiences at the same time. MPI uses three dimensions and ten indicators which are: 

  • Education: Years of schooling and child enrollment (1/6 weightage each, total 2/6); 
  • Health: Child mortality and nutrition (1/6 weightage each, total 2/6); 
  • Standard of living: Electricity, flooring, drinking water, sanitation, cooking fuel and assets (1/18 weightage each, total 2/6) A person is multi-dimensionally poor if she/he is deprived in one-third or more (means 33% or more) of the weighted indicators (out of the ten indicators). Those who are deprived in one-half or more of the weighted indicators are considered living in extreme multidimensional poverty. MPI is significant as it recognizes poverty from different dimensions compared to the conventional methodology that measures poverty only from the income or monetary terms. So, only options (2) and (3) are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 52

Consider the following statements with respect to Biofortification:

  1. It improves the nutrient profile of the food by manually adding nutrients during processing.
  2. It is a cost-effective source of conveying micronutrients to the population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 52

Fortification is the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient, i.e., vitamins and minerals (including trace elements) in food, to improve the nutritional quality of the food supply and provide public health benefit with minimal health risk. It is the process by which the nutritional quality of food crops is improved through agronomic practices, conventional plant breeding, or modern biotechnology. It differs from conventional fortification in that it aims to increase nutrient levels in crops during plant growth rather than through manual means during the processing of the crops. Therefore, it may present a way to reach populations where supplementation and conventional fortification activities may be difficult to implement and/or limited. So, statement (1) is not correct. 

Examples of biofortification projects include: 

  • iron-biofortification of rice, beans, sweet potato, cassava and legumes; 
  • zinc-biofortification of wheat, rice, beans, sweet potato and maize; 
  • provitamin A carotenoid-biofortification of sweet potato, maize and cassava; and 

Amino acid and protein-biofortification of sorghum and cassava. Biofortification is a realistic and cost-effective source of conveying micronutrients to populations with limited access to different diets and other micronutrient interventions. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 53

Consider the following statements regarding the "Most Favoured Nation (MFl'J)" principle of the World Trade Organisation (WTO):

  1. It is a principle of non-discriminatory trade.
  2. A member country can grant more favours to any Most Favoured Nation.
  3. Free Trade Agreements have been exempted from the MFN principle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 53

Under WTO agreements, countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners. In general, MFN means that every time a country lowers a trade barrier (import duties) or opens up a market or gives some country a special favour, it has to do so for the same goods or services from all its trading partners whether rich or poor, weak or strong. According to the WTO, though the term IVlFN "suggests special treatment, it actually means non-discrimination." However, exemptions allowed to this rule include free trade pacts and special benefits to poor nations. So, statement (2) is not correct and statement (1) is correct. Article 21b(iii) of GATT states that "Nothing in this Agreement shall be construed to prevent any contracting party (including india in this case) from taking any action which it considers necessary for the protection of its essential security interests taken in time of war or other emergencies in international relations." So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 54

Karst topography is a result of which type of weathering process?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 54

Weathering denotes the process of wearing, breaking up, and fragmentation of the rock that creates the surface of the ground and that remains exposed to the weather. Chemical weathering is when chemicals in the rain and moving water react with rocks and minerals to change or weaken them somehow. Chemical weathering always causes some type of chemical reaction within the rock or mineral itself. The process results from forces of weather like rain action, variations in temperature, and frost action. Any limestone or dolomitic region showing typical landforms produced by the action of groundwater through the processes of solution and deposition are called Karst topography. In rocks like limestone or dolomites rich in calcium carbonate, the surface water as well as groundwater through the chemical process of solution and precipitation deposition develops varieties of landforms. Thus, primarily it is a form of chemical weathering. So, option b is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 55

Consider the following characteristics of minerals:

  1. It is commonly used in the electrical/electronic Industry.
  2. It is commonly found in igneous and metamorphic rocks.
  3. Its crystals can easily be split into extremely thin elastic plates.

Which of the following minerals best suits the features given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 55

Mica is used in various products ranging from drywalls, paints, fillers, especially in parts for automobiles, roofing and shingles, electronics, etc. Their major use is as electrical insulators in electronic equipment. So, statement (1) describes Mica. This characteristic is described as perfect basal cleavage. Mica is common in igneous and metamorphic rock and is occasionally found as small flakes in sedimentary rock. So, statement (2) describes Mica. Mica comprises potassium, aluminium, magnesium, iron, silica, etc. Micas are a group of minerals whose outstanding physical characteristic is that individual mica crystals can easily be split into extremely thin elastic plates. So, statement (3) describes the mineral, Mica. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 56

Which of the following are the examples of depositional landforms?

  1. Moraines
  2. Eskers
  3. River Deltas
  4. Canyons
  5. Sinkholes
  6. Stalagmites

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 56

Moraines- When the glacier melts or retreats, it deposits its load (debris carried) in different parts. The debris thus deposited is called moraines. Hence they are examples of depositional landform. So, option (1) is correct. Glaciers can also contain sinuous flows of melt water that occur in ice tunnels at the base of the ice. The beds of these subsurface glacial streams are composed of layers of sand and gravel. When the ice melts from around the melt water tunnels, the beds of sand and gravel are deposited on the Earth's surface as long twisting ridges known as eskers. Eskers are depositional landforms. So, option (2) is correct. A river delta is a landform created by the deposition of sediment carried by a river as the flow leaves its mouth and enters slower-moving or stagnant water. So, 'River Deltas' are depositional Landforms. So, option (3) is correct. A canyon or gorge is a deep cleft between escarpments or cliffs resulting from weathering and the erosive activity over geologic time scales. So, Canyons are Erosional Landforms. So, option (4) is not correct. Sinkholes are cavities in the ground that form when water erodes an underlying rock layer. Two types of sinkholes exist. One forms when the roof of a cave collapses and exposes the underground cavern-the second type forms when water dissolves the rock underneath the soil and creates an underground chasm. So, Sinkholes are Erosional Landforms. So, option (5) is not correct. Stalagmite is an upward-growing mound of mineral deposits precipitated from water dripping onto the floor of a cave. Most stalagmites have rounded or flattened tips. So, Stalagmites are Depositional Landforms. So, option (6) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 57

Which of the following reasons are behind the maximum thickness of the troposphere at the equator?

  1. The centripetal force due to Earth's rotation is maximum at the Equator.
  2. High insolation leads to stronger convection currents over the Equator.
  3. Air is less dense at the Equator.
  4. The higher gravitational pull on atmospheric gases is at the Poles.

Select the corr1 and 2 onlyect answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 57

Charles' law, one of the laws of Ideal gases, says that in an ideal gas, when pressure is constant, the density decreases with increasing temperature. Heat differential on the planet's surface causes convection currents to flow from the equator to the poles. The hot air rises and the Earth is not equally heated everywhere. The troposphere is thicker over the equator than the poles because the equator is warmer. This implies that the warmer the weather, the thicker the troposphere is. So, the simple reason behind it is thermal expansion of the atmosphere at the equator and thermal contraction near the poles. So, statement (2) is correct. The surface is being heated strongly throughout the year and air warmed by contact with it is expanding and rising. The air all the way up to the troposphere is less dense than air to the north and south over equatorial regions. Due to this, the density of the air is maximum at the equator. The almost same amount of atmospheric mass exists at both equator and poles, but only the air density is less at the equator and greater at poles. So, statement {3) is correct. Gravity is lowest at the equator and highest at poles as the earth is spherical. Thus, the atmosphere is pulled with more force near the poles and leads to contraction of the atmosphere. So, statement (4) is correct. Due to the rotation speed to the Earth is greatest at the equator, the atmosphere tends to bulge out due to friction and Carioles force. So, statement (1) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 58

Which of the following statements best describe 'tropical Easterlies'?

  1. These winds blow from subtropical high-pressure belts towards sub-polar low-pressure belts
  2. These get deflected to the right in Northern Hemisphere and to the left in Southern Hemisphere.
  3. These are also known as trade winds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 58

Winds blowing from subtropical high-pressure belts towards sub-polar low-pressure belts are known as westerlies. So, statement (1) is not correct. These winds should have blown from the north to south in the Northern Hemisphere and south to north in the Southern Hemisphere, but they get deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere due to the Carioles effect and Ferrell's law. Thus, they blow as northeastern trades in the Northern Hemisphere and south-eastern trades in Southern Hemisphere. So, statement (2) is correct. They are also known as Trade winds, and they blow steadily in the same direction. They are noted for consistency in both force and direction. Trade winds have been used by captains of sailing ships to cross the world's oceans for centuries and enabled colonial expansion into the Americas and trade routes to become established across the Atlantic and Pacific oceans. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 59

Caucasus Mountains system stretches between

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - Question 59

The Caucasus Mountains are a mountain system at the intersection of Europe and Asia. It stretches between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea. It is surrounded by the Caucasus region and is home to Mount Elbrus, the highest peak in Europe. It was in the news due to the conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan. Therefore, the correct answer is d.