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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 below.
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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 1

Consider the following statements.

1. In India according to Information Technology Act 2000, an admin of any messaging service say WhatsApp can be held liable for a post made by a member in the group.

2. Vicarious liability means, the responsibility imposed on one person for the wrongful actions of another person.

3. Vicarious liability is applicable to only civil cases and not criminal cases.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 1

In the absence of a special penal law creating vicarious liability, an admin of a WhatsApp group cannot be held liable for the objectionable post by a group member. There is no law by which an admin of any messaging service can be held liable for a post made by a member in the group. A WhatsApp admin cannot be an intermediary under the IT Act.

Vicarious liability in a broader sense, is the responsibility imposed on one person for the wrongful actions of another person. This often occurs in the context of civil law—for example, in employment cases. In a criminal context, vicarious liability assigns guilt, or criminal liability, to a person for wrongful acts committed by someone else.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding International Space Station (ISS).

1. The International Space Station which is a partnership of five countries, is the only operational space laboratory as of now, orbiting the earth in a trajectory about 400 km above the land surface.

2. The ISS is not always manned continuously.

3. The ISS is used for carrying out a variety of zero-gravity experiments, space exploratory studies, and technology development.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 2

The International Space Station is the only operational space laboratory as of now, orbiting the earth in a trajectory that is about 400 km above the land surface. It is operated by more than 15 partner countries. Apart from Russia and the United States, Canada, Japan and several members of the European Space Agency are partners in the ISS.

The ISS has been manned continuously since the start of operations in 1998. At any given time, there is a crew of six astronauts on board.

According to NASA, 240 individuals from 19 countries have so far been to the ISS. The facility is used for carrying out a variety of zero-gravity experiments, space exploratory studies, and technology development.

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 3

Which of the following has the power to cancel the Certificate of Registration (CoR) issued to mobile app-based lending operators, for their illegal lending activities?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 3

The Reserve Bank cancelled the Certificate of Registration (CoR) issued to P C Financial Services Pvt Ltd, New Delhi, which was primarily engaged in mobile app-based lending operations through an app called ‘Cashbean’.

The RBI said the CoR of the company has been cancelled on account of supervisory concerns such as gross violations of RBI directions on outsourcing and know your customer norms.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Brucellosis.

1. Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection caused by the virus of the genus Brucella.

2. The infection can spread from animals to humans, most commonly through the consumption of raw or unpasteurized dairy products.

3. Brucellosis can also spread through air.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 4
  • Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection caused by the bacteria of the genus Brucella.
  • The bacterial infection can spread from animals to humans, most commonly through the consumption of raw or unpasteurized dairy products.
  • Animals that are most commonly infected include sheep, cattle, goats, pigs, and dogs, among others.
  • Sometimes, the bacteria that cause brucellosis can spread through the air or through direct contact with infected animals.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 5

Reverse Osmosis Systems can remove

1. Metal ions

2. Aqueous salts

3. Lead

4. Bacteria

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 5

Reverse osmosis can remove many types of dissolved and suspended chemical species as well as biological ones (principally bacteria) from water.

Reverse Osmosis Systems will remove common chemical contaminants (metal ions, aqueous salts), including sodium, chloride, copper, chromium, and lead; may reduce arsenic, fluoride, radium, sulfate, calcium, magnesium, potassium, nitrate, and phosphorous.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 6

Consider the following statements.

1. India’s key exports to Russia include mobile phones and pharmaceuticals while India’s key imports from Russia are crude oil, coal and diamonds.

2. Russia is the world’s largest exporter of Wheat.

3. Of the total quantity of annual tea imports by Russia, more than half is from India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 6

Russia is India’s 25th largest trading partner with exports of $2.5 billion and imports of $6.9 billion in the first nine months of FY2022. India’s key exports to Russia include mobile phones and pharmaceuticals while India’s key imports from Russia are crude oil, coal and diamonds.

More than a quarter of the world’s wheat export comes from Russia and Ukraine.

Russia is the world’s largest exporter of wheat, accounting for more than 18% of international exports.

Egypt is the world’s biggest importer of wheat.

Of the approximate volume of 145 million kg of annual tea imports by Russia, 40 million kg is from India. Close to 45% of these is from South India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding Swift (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications) messaging system.

1. It is a messaging network that financial institutions use to securely transmit information and instructions through a standardized system of codes.

2. SWIFT facilitate funds transfer and sends payment orders.

3. SWIFT India is a consortium of all Indian public sector banks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 7

It is a messaging network that financial institutions use to securely transmit information and instructions through a standardized system of codes. Under SWIFT, each financial organization has a unique code which is used to send and receive payments.

  • SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer: rather, it sends payment orders, which must be settled by correspondent accounts that the institutions have with each other.
  • The SWIFT is a secure financial message carrier — in other words, it transports messages from one bank to its intended bank recipient. It acts as the Gmail of global banking services.

It was founded in 1973 to end reliance on the telex system, an international system used especially in the past for sending written messages.

It is a member-owned cooperative, based in Brussels.

SWIFT doesn’t hold deposits. It’s overseen by the National Bank of Belgium and representatives from the U.S. Federal Reserve System, the Bank of England, the European Central Bank, the Bank of Japan, and other major central banks.

SWIFT India is a joint venture of top Indian public and private sector banks and SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication). The company was created to deliver high quality domestic financial messaging services to the Indian financial community.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 8

While recommending minimum support prices (MSPs), the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) looks at the following factors?

1. The market price trends at both domestic and international level

2. The likely implications of an MSP on consumers of that product

3. A minimum of 30 per cent as the margin over the cost of production

4. Inter-crop price parity

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 8

While recommending MSPs, the CACP looks at the following factors:

* the demand and supply of a commodity;

* its cost of production;

* the market price trends (both domestic and international);

* inter-crop price parity;

* the terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture (that is, the ratio of prices of farm inputs and farm outputs);

* a minimum of 50 per cent as the margin over the cost of production; and

* the likely implications of an MSP on consumers of that product.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding Trans fats.

1. All natural fats and oils are a combination of monounsaturated, polyunsaturated and saturated fatty acids.

2. Trans fatty acids are formed during industrial partial hydrogenation of vegetable oil.

3. High intake of Trans fats reduces low density lipoproteins (LDL) and insulin levels.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 9

All natural fats and oils are a combination of monounsaturated, polyunsaturated and saturated fatty acids. 

Trans fatty acids are formed during industrial partial hydrogenation of vegetable oil, a process widely commercialized to produce solid fats.

Trans fat increases low density lipoproteins (LDL), triglycerides and insulin levels and reduces beneficial high density lipoproteins (HDL).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding Diphtheria.

1. Diphtheria is a disease that is common amongst children in India that is caused by a bacterium.

2. It only affects the respiratory system.

3. Vaccination for Diphtheria is covered under Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 10

Diphtheria is caused by a bacterium now known as Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The disease would start out as an infection of the respiratory tract and the bacterium would secrete a toxin that injured and then destroyed cells. A thick grey substance, from the cellular waste secreted from battling the bacterium, would envelop the pharynx and stick to the tissues and obstruct breathing. The effects of this could travel as far the heart and kidneys.

Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) is a vaccination programme launched by the Government of India in 1985. The programme now consists of vaccination for 12 diseases- tuberculosis, diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, hepatitis B, diarrhoea, Japanese encephalitis, rubella, pneumonia (haemophilus influenzae type B) and Pneumococcal diseases (pneumococcal pneumonia and meningitis).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding the role played by Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) in promoting millets production and export.

1. APEDA has developed its own Virtual Trade Fair (VTF) application to facilitate interaction among exporters, producer organizations and international buyers

2. A series of Virtual Buyer-Seller Meets (BSM) with Embassies, importers, exporters and product associations from India have been organized.

3. APEDA has created Nutri Cereals Export Promotion Forum to remove the bottlenecks in the supply chain of nutria-cereals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 11

APEDA has developed its own Virtual Trade Fair (VTF) application to facilitate interaction among exporters, producer organizations and international buyers.

In March 2021, APEDA organized its first Virtual Trade Fair – India Rice and Agro Commodity Show, which saw the participation of millet exporters also. A series of Virtual Buyer-Seller Meets (BSM) with Embassies, importers, exporters and product associations from India have been organized.

To give impetus to the export of potential products as well as to remove the bottlenecks in the supply chain of nutria-cereals, APEDA has created Nutri Cereals Export Promotion Forum which also included millets exports. It has also organized a sensitization programme for millet start-ups to familiarize them about export opportunities.

APEDA has signed an MOU with Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR) for making a strategy for promotion of millets and millet value added products. It has initiated a study on ‘Refinement of Millet Value Chain for Export Markets: Preparation of export strategy in wake of International Year of Millets, 2023’ through IMMR.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 12

Which of the following communicable diseases are mainly transmitted through air?

1. Measles

2. Polio

3. Cholera

4. Tuberculosis

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 12

Measles is a highly contagious virus that lives in the nose and throat mucus of an infected person. It can spread to others through coughing and sneezing. If other people breathe the contaminated air or touch the infected surface, then touch their eyes, noses, or mouths, they can become infected.

Cholera is spread mostly by unsafe water and unsafe food that has been contaminated with human feces containing the bacteria.

Poliovirus is usually spread from person to person through infected fecal matter entering the mouth. It may also be spread by food or water containing human feces and less commonly from infected saliva.

TB bacteria are spread through the air from one person to another. The TB bacteria are put into the air when a person with TB disease of the lungs or throat coughs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 13

Earth-observation satellites are mainly used for which of the following purposes?

1. Mapping of resources like water and fishes

2. Soil assessment

3. Meteorology

4. Cartography

5. Geospatial contour mapping

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 13

What are earth-observation satellites used for?

  • Land and forest mapping and monitoring, mapping of resources like water or minerals or fishes, weather and climate observations, soil assessment, geospatial contour mapping are all done through earth-observation satellites.

They are intended for non-military uses such as environmental monitoring, meteorology, cartography and others.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the title Grandmaster.

1. Grandmaster is the highest title or ranking that a chess player can achieve.

2. The Grandmaster title is awarded by the GlobalAssociation of International Sports Federations (GAISF).

3. The title Grandmaster is valid for life, unless a player is stripped of the title for a proven offence such as cheating.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 14

Grandmaster is the highest title or ranking that a chess player can achieve. The Grandmaster title — and other chess titles — is awarded by the International Chess Federation, FIDE, the Lausanne-Switzerland-based governing body of the international game.

Besides Grandmaster, the Qualification Commission of FIDE recognises and awards seven other titles. All the titles, including that of Grandmaster, are valid for life, unless a player is stripped of the title for a proven offence such as cheating.

FIDE has so far recognised fewer than 2,000 Grandmasters out of the millions who play the game around the world. A vast majority of Grandmasters have been male. Russia (and the erstwhile USSR) has produced the most Grandmasters in the world, followed by the United States and Germany.

India became a chess powerhouse in the 2000s, and now has more than 70 Grandmasters.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 15

Which of the following are generally the features of Parliamentary government?

1. Separation of powers between the legislative and executive organs.

2. Membership of the ministers in the legislature

3. Dissolution of the lower House

4. Majority party rule

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 15

The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and co-ordination between the legislative and executive organs while the presidential system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs. 

Other major features are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives; (b) Majority party rule, (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, (d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature, (e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, (f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding President’s Fleet Review.

1. President’s Fleet Review is the President taking stock of the Navy’s capability where the Navy showcases all types of ships and capabilities it has.

2. It takes place once in two years.

3. In terms of significance, the Navy’s Presidential review is second only to the Republic Day Parade.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 16

In simplest terms, it is the country’s President taking stock of the Navy’s capability. It showcases all types of ships and capabilities the Navy has. It takes place once under every President, who is the supreme commander of the armed forces.

The President is taken on one of the Naval ships, which is called the President’s Yacht, to look at all the ships docked on one of the Naval ports.

So far, 11 Presidential Fleet Reviews have been conducted since Independence, of which two have been International Fleet Reviews, in 2001 and 2016. In terms of significance, the Navy’s Presidential review is second only to the Republic Day Parade.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 17

Consider the following statements.

1. India’s share in the global production of millets is more than 50%.

2. The top importers of millets from India are USA, Russia and China.

3. In India, Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) has been working towards facilitating shipments of millets by Indian exporters and helping them make inroads into new markets.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 17

Currently, India is the fifth largest exporter of millets in the world, according to 2020 data, with exports continuously increasing at around 3% CAGR in the last five years ending with 2020.

Major exporter of millets are USA, Russian Federation, Ukraine, India, China, Netherlands, France, Poland and Argentina.

The top three importers of millets from India in 2020-21 were Nepal (USD 6.09 million), UAE (USD 4.84 million) and Saudi Arabia (USD 3.84 million). 

Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) has been aggressively working towards facilitating shipments of millets by Indian exporters and helping them make inroads into new markets. 

India is the world leader in the production of millets with share of around 41% of total world production in 2020.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 18

Reserve Bank of India plans to launch its owncentral bank digital currency (CBDC) next fiscal. In this context consider the following statements regarding CBDC.

1. CBDC is a legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form.

2. It is similar to a fiat currency issued in paper and is interchangeable with any other fiat currency.

3. CBDC will be backed by the blockchain technology.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 18

CBDC is a legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form. It is similar to a fiat currency issued in paper and is interchangeable with any other fiat currency. The RBI is expected to launch the CBDC from the upcoming financial year. This follows the government’s plans to launch the CBDC that will be backed by blockchain technology.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 19

The “Wolbachia method” sometimes seen in news is regarding the control of

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 19

A study suggests that the “Wolbachia method” could be used to significantly reduce the incidence of dengue fever, a mosquito-borne disease, in populations where the illness is endemic.

  • Scientists have tested this method in a 27-month trial in Yogyakarta, Indonesia.
  • They found that using the Wolbachia method reduced the occurrence of dengue in the treated population by 77%.

How it works?

  • This method involves introducing Wolbachia, a type of bacteria, into populations of Aedes aegypti, the mosquito species responsible for spreading dengue.
  • When the Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes breed with their wild counterparts, the percentage of mosquitoes carrying the bacterium grows.
  • It is not fully understood why the Wolbachia bacterium interferes with the transmission of dengue. One theory is that the bacterium prevents dengue viruses from replicating in mosquito cells.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 20

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)issues orders and directions on subjects such as

1. Tariffs

2. Direct to Home (DTH) services

3. Mobile number portability

4. Increasing broadband penetration in India

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 20

TRAI regularly issues orders and directions on various subjects such as tariffs, interconnections, quality of service, Direct To Home (DTH) services and mobile number portability.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding Payment for Ecosystem Services (PES):

  1. These are the fines imposed on the farmers for mismanagement of their land to cause ecological losses.
  2. It mainly focuses on the “polluter pays” principle.
  3. In India, Himachal Pradesh launched the first Payment for Eco-System Services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 21

Payments for ecosystem services (PES), also known as payments for environmental services (or benefits), are incentives offered to farmers or landowners in exchange for managing their land to provide some sort of ecological service. So, statement (1) is not correct. Payment for Ecosystem Services (PES) mainly focuses on Beneficiary Pays Principle (BPP). So, statement (2) is not correct. Himachal Pradesh launched the first payment for ecosystem services in India. So, statement (3) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 22

Consider the following statements with respect to the Acts related to the forests in India:

  1. The Indian Forest Act, 1927 was enacted to ‘consolidate the law related to forest, the transit of forest produce and the duty liable on timber and other forest produce’.
  2. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 was enacted to regulate diversion of forest lands for non-forestry purposes.
  3. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted to increase the forest and tree cover in India up to 33 percent of the total geographical area.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 22

The Indian Forest Act, 1927- was enacted to ‘consolidate the law related to forest, the transit of forest produce, and the duty liable on timber and other forest produce’. So, Statement (1) is correct. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 was enacted to regulate diversion of forest lands for non-forestry purposes. So, Statement (2) is correct. The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in the year 1986. It was enacted with the main objective to provide the protection and improvement of environment and for matters connected therewith. The Act is one of the most comprehensive legislations with a pretext to protection and improvement of the environment. The first mention of 33% of forest area appears to have been mentioned in the Forest Policy of 1952. So, Statement (3) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 23

Which of the following Act(s) does not come under the jurisdiction of the National Green Tribunal (NGT)?

  1. Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
  2. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
  3. Indian Forest Act, 1927
  4. Biological Diversity Act, 2002

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 23

The NGT has the power to hear all civil cases relating to environmental issues and questions that are linked to the implementation of laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act. These include the following: The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977; The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980; The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981; The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; The Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and various laws enacted by States relating to forests, tree preservation etc. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 24

Consider the following statements with respect to the National Parks in India:

  1. All the North-eastern states in India have National Parks.
  2. Punjab and Ladakh do not have any National Park.
  3. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Jharkhand have only one National Park each.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 24

The north-eastern states of Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram collectively have more than 30 national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, bird sanctuaries and tiger reserves in North East India. So, Statement (1) is correct. Only Punjab does not have any National Park. Hemis National Park (or Hemis High Altitude National Park) is a high-altitude national park in the eastern Ladakh Union Territory of the Republic of India.
Globally famous for its snow leopards, it is believed to have the highest density of them in any protected area in the world. It is the only national park in India that is north of the Himalayas, the largest notified protected area in India (largest National park) and is the second largest contiguous protected area, after the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve and surrounding protected areas. So, Statement (2) is not correct. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Jharkhand each have one National Park only. They are Dudhwa National Park of Uttar Pradesh, Valmiki National Park of Bihar and Betla National Park of Jharkhand. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 25

 With respect to Gangetic Dolphins, consider the following statements:

  1. These are found in river Ganga only.
  2. They have been classified as “critically endangered” by IUCN.
  3. These species are practically blind and rely on bio-sonar waves to move around.
  4. Gangetic Dolphins have been recognized as National aquatic animal of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 25

Gangetic Dolphin Ganges River Dolphin is a sub-species of river dolphins, found in the Ganga and Brahmaputra Rivers. So, statement (1) is not correct. These species are practically blind and rely on bio-sonar waves to move around. So, statement (3) is correct.There are almost 2500 river dolphins in Ganga and their population is diminishing. River dolphins have been classified as “endangered” and not “critically endangered” by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) in 1966. So, statement (2) is not correct. Gangetic Dolphins have been recognized as National aquatic animal of India. So, statement (4) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 26

Consider the following statements related to Biodiversity Hotspots:

  1. Eastern Himalayas and the Western Ghats are biodiversity hotspots in India.
  2. The biodiversity hotspots are mostly confined to the tropical regions of the world.
  3. It represents regions that have experienced considerable habitat loss but not present changing land-use patterns.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 26

Biodiversity Hotspots - Hotspots are the richest and most threatened reservoirs of plant and animal life of the earth. They have the maximum number of endemic species. They occupy 1.4% of the earth’s surface and 20% of the world’s human population lives in these areas. Currently, 35 biodiversity hotspots have been identified, most of which occur in tropical forests. India hosts 4 biodiversity hotspots: the Western Ghats, the Eastern Himalayas, the Indo-Burma region and the Sundaland. So, statement (1) is correct. To qualify as a hot spot, a region must meet two strict criteria: 

  1. Species endemism: the region must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemics, and 
  2. Degree of threat: the region has to have lost at least 70% of its original habitat. 

The biodiversity hotspots are mostly confined to the tropical regions of the world. One idea is that tropical regions harbour greater biodiversity because they are especially fertile grounds for forming new species i.e., “cradles of diversity.” Another idea is that biodiversity hotspots are less likely to lose the species they already have. So, statement (2) is correct. Biodiversity hotspots do not make allowances for changing land-use patterns. Hotspots represent regions with considerable habitat loss, but this does not mean they are experiencing ongoing habitat loss. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 27

Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Mangroves for the Future’ program:

  1. It is co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP.
  2. It promotes investment in coastal ecosystem conservation.
  3. In India, it is overseen by the National Coordination Body (NCB).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 27

Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development. It is co-chaired by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the UN Development Program (UNDP). So, statement (1) is correct. It provides a platform for collaboration among different agencies, sectors and countries, addressing challenges to coastal ecosystems and livelihood issues.
The MFF program's primary focus in India is on improving the scientific knowledge base to feed into national policies for enhanced management of coastal and marine ecosystems. It comprised of a range of governmental departments, NGOs, inter-governmental organizations and academic institutions. MFF’s program of work in India is overseen by a National Coordination Body (NCB). The National Strategy and Action Plan (NSAP) guide the work of the NCB. So, Statements (2) and (3) are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 28

Which of the following pairs of wetlands and their states or UTs is/ are correctly matched?

  1. Tso Kar wetland complex- Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Asan Conservation Reserve- Uttarakhand
  3. Keetham Lake- Maharashtra
  4. Kabartal- Bihar

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 28

Tso Kar wetland Complex is in Ladakh. It is a high altitude wetland complex in Changthang Cold Desert Wildlife sanctuary. It is an Important Bird Area (IBA) and lies on Central Asian Highway. So, pair (1) not correctly matched. Asan Conservation Reserve- 1 st Ramsar site for the state of Uttarakhand. It is in Dehradun district of Uttarakhand and lies on Asan River running down to its confluence with Yamuna River. So, pair (2) correctly matched. Keetham lake- is also called as Sur Sarovar Lake. It is in Uttar Pradesh and was originally created to supply water to Agra city.
It is a natural habitat of sarus crane and spotted eagle. It is an important bird haven for resident and migratory birds migrating on Central Asian Highway. It is a bird sanctuary and an IBA. So, pair (3) not correctly matched. Kabartal- It is the first Ramsar site of Bihar. It is a freshwater marsh of North Bihar’s Begusarai district. It lies over Indo-Gangetic plains and acts as a vital flood buffer. It is an important stopover along the Central Asian Flyway. So, pair (4) correctly matched. All the 4 wetlands are recently recognised as Ramsar sites. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 29

Arrange the following regions in decreasing order of their respective leopard population:

  1. Gangetic Plains
  2. Central region and Eastern Ghats
  3. North Eastern hills
  4. Western Ghats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 29

According to the Union environment ministry, there has been an over 60 per cent increase in the population of leopards in India since 2014. There were at least 12,852 leopards in the country in 2018 compared to 7,910 leopards estimated in 2014. Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of leopards – 3,421, followed by Karnataka – 1,783. Maharashtra at 1,690 has the third-largest population of leopards in the country, according to the ‘Status of leopards in India, 2018’ report. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 30

The term ‘Anthropocene’, often used to denote the present geological time interval in which human activities profoundly alter many conditions of earth, was coined by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 30

The term anthropocene was coined by Paul Crutzen and Eugene Stoermer in 2000. Anthropogenic Epoch is an informal interval of geologic time, making up the third worldwide division of the Quaternary Period (2.6 million years ago to the present). It is characterized as the time in which the collective activities of human beings (Homo sapiens) began to substantially alter Earth’s surface, atmosphere, oceans, and systems of nutrient cycling. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 31

Consider the following statements:

1. Foreign funding of persons in India is regulated under Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act.

2. The FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Finance.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 31
  • FCRA regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect the internal security of the country.
  • The Act, first enacted in 1976 was amended in the year 2010 and then 2020.
  • Section 5 of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 gives the Union government “unchecked and unbridled powers” to declare an organisation as being one of political nature and deny it access to funds from sources abroad.
  • FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 32

Consider the following statements about Collective Security Treaty Organisation:

1. It is an intergovernmental military alliance that came into effect in 2012.

2. Its origin can be traced to the Tashkent Treaty.

3. In the CSTO, aggression against one signatory is perceived as aggression against all.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 32
  • It is an intergovernmental military alliance (six countries) that came into effect in 2002.
  • Its’ origin can be traced to the Collective Security Treaty, 1992 (Tashkent Treaty).
  • The headquarter is located in the Russian capital of Moscow.
  • The objectives of the CSTO is to strengthen peace, international and regional security including cybersecurity and stability, the protection on a collective basis of the independence, territorial integrity and sovereignty of the member states.
  • In the CSTO, aggression against one signatory is perceived as aggression against all.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 33

Consider the following statements about domestic systemically important bank (D-SIB).

1. RBI declares only Public Sector Banks as domestic systemically important bank.

2. Banks become systemically important due to their size, cross-jurisdictional activities and interconnection.

3. Banks whose assets exceed 2% of GDP are considered part of this group

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 33
  • Reserve Bank of India has released its list of Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) in 2021.
  • It has identified the state-owned lender State Bank Of India and the private lenders ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank as systemically important banks, which are perceived as banks, ‘too big to fail’.

What are D-SIBs?

  • The system of D-SIBs was adopted in the aftermath of the 2008 financial crisis where the collapse of many systematically important banks across various regions further fueled the financial downturn.
  • D-SIBs are important for the country’s economy. In events of distress, the government supports such banks and if such a bank fails, it would lead to disruption of the country’s overall economy.
  • RBI finalizes such banks after considering factors like size, complexity, lack of substitutability and interconnectedness of the banks, state reports.

How are D-SIBs determined?

  • Since 2015, the RBI has been releasing the list of all D-SIBs. They are classified into five buckets, according to their importance to the national economy.
  • In order to be listed as a D-SIB, a bank needs to have assets that exceed 2 percent of the national GDP. The banks are then further classified on the level of their importance across the five buckets.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 34

Consider the following activities :

1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field

2. Inspecting the craters of an active volcano

3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis.

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully ​carried out using drones?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 34
  • S1: This is widely used in developed countries to save manpower.
  • S2: Drones can go where volcanologists can’t, e.g. craters of volcanoes, giving researchers access to potentially life-saving data.
  • Scientists flew a small drone over the blowhole of a few humpback whales in the US and Canada to collect the microbes living inside their breath. Sampling the community of microbes and bacteria living inside whales, called the microbiome, can help us better understand what makes a healthy whale, and what happens when a whale gets sick.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 35

Consider the following statements:

1. The Special Protection Group was created in 1985.

2. The SPG protects Prime Minister and his immediate family members only.

3. The SPG force is controlled by the Indian Army.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 35
  • The Special Protection Group (SPG) is an agency of the Government of India whose sole responsibility is protecting the Prime Minister of India.
  • In March 1985, following the recommendations of a committee set up by the Home Ministry, a special unit was created for this purpose under the Cabinet Secretariat. This unit, initially called the Special Protection Unit, was renamed as Special Protection Group in April 1985.
  • The SPG protects Prime Minister and his immediate family members. It also protects the former prime ministers.
  • The SPG force is controlled by the Union Government. The directors and assistance directors of the group are appointed by the Union Government.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 36

The Horn of Africa is a term used to denote the region containing

1. Djibouti

2. Eritrea

3. Ethiopia

4. Somalia

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 36

Horn of Africa is a peninsula and the easternmost projection of the African continent. The Horn of Africa consists of the countries of Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, and Somalia.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 37

Recently, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) discovered remains of an ancient temple dating back to the Gupta period (5th century) in a village in Uttar Pradesh’s Etah district. As per the ASI, the inscription on the stairs of the temple possibly reads ‘Sri Mahendraditya’, which was the title of Kumaragupta I and the stairs led to a structural temple built during the Gupta period.

Which one of the following inscriptions is being referred in the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 37
  • Archeologists have found ‘shankhalipi’ inscriptions on the stairs on an ancient temple dating back to the Gupta period in Uttar Pradesh’s Etah district.
  • The inscriptions mention ‘Sri Mahendraditya’, the title of Kumaragupta I of the Gupta dynasty.

About the Shankhalipi script:

  • Shankhalipi or “shell-script” describe ornate spiral characters assumed to be Brahmi derivatives that look like conch shells or shankhas.
  • They are found in inscriptions across north-central India and date to between the 4th and 8th centuries.
  • The inscriptions consist of a small number of characters, suggesting that the shell inscriptions are names or auspicious symbols or a combination of the two.
  • The script was discovered in 1836 on a brass trident in Uttarakhand’s Barahat by English scholar James Prinsep, who was the founding editor of the Journal of the Asiatic Society of Bengal.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 38

With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 38

From the book by Upinder Singh, “Forced labour (vishti) became more common than before in this period. The fact that it is mentioned along with taxes in land grant inscriptions suggests that, it was considered, a source of for the state, a sort of tax payed by the people. The fact that most of the inscriptions referring to vishti come the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar region may suggest that this practice was more prevalent in these areas”.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).

1. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Science and Technology.

2. It is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.

3. It is chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 39

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. The committee is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the enviornment including experimental field trials.
GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CCand co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 40

Consider the following statements:

1. Food fortification is the process by which plant breeder’s breed in traits of improved nutrition to crops.

2. In India, the regulation of all activities related to Food fortification is governed by 

Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations, 2018.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 40
  • • S1: Biofortification is the process by which plant breeder’s breed in traits of
  • improved nutrition to crops.
    • Food fortification is defined as the practice of adding vitamins and minerals to commonly consumed foods during processing to increase their nutritional value.
  • S2: As per the Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods)
  • Regulations, 2018.
    • (1) When fortification of a food is made mandatory, it shall be based on severity and extent of public health need as demonstrated by generally accepted scientific evidence.
    • (2) The Food Authority may, specify mandatory fortification of any staple food on the directions of the Government of India.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 41

Consider the following statements about National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED):

1. It was established on Ambedkar Jayanti on 14 April 1975.

2. It was setup with the object to promote co-operative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers.

3. It is registered under the Multi State Co-operative Societies Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 41
  • National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) was established on Gandhi Jayanti on 2 October 1958.
  • NAFED is registered under the Multi State Co-operative Societies Act. It was setup with the object to promote co-operative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers.
  • Agricultural farmers are the main members of NAFED, who have the authority in the form of members of the General Body in the working of the body.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 42

Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme:

1. It was launched under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.

2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.

3. It is for the Unorganized Sector on All India basis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 42
  • Launched under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan, the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganized segment of the food processing industry and to promote formalization of the sector and provide support to Farmer Producer Organizations, Self Help Groups, and Producers Cooperatives along their entire value chain.
  • It is for the Unorganized Sector on All India basis.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 43

Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India can raise the expenditure limit for candidates contesting elections.

2. All candidates are required to submit their expenditure statement to the ECI within 90 days of the completion of the elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 43

The Election Commission of India has raised the expenditure limit for candidates contesting elections.

The following changes have been made:

  • The expenditure limit for candidates for Lok Sabha constituencies was increased from Rs 54 lakh-Rs 70 lakh (depending on states) to Rs 70 lakh-Rs 95 lakh.
  • The spending limit for Assembly constituencies was hiked from Rs 20 lakh-Rs 28 lakh to Rs 28 lakh- Rs 40 lakh (depending on states).
  • The enhanced amount of Rs 40 lakh would apply in Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Punjab and ₹28 lakh in Goa and Manipur.

Election Expenditure Limit:

  • Under Section 77 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, every candidate shall keep a separate and correct account of all expenditure incurred between the date on which they have been nominated and the date of declaration of the result.
  • All candidates are required to submit their expenditure statement to the ECI within 30 days of the completion of the elections.
  • An incorrect account or expenditure beyond the cap can lead to disqualification of the candidate by the ECI for up to three years, under Section 10A of RPA, 1951
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 44

Consider the following statements about National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):

1. It has been constituted under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

2. It is set up under the Chairmanship of the Minister for Environment and Forests.

3. It lays down standards and guidelines for tiger conservation in the Tiger Reserves, apart from National Parks and Sanctuaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 44
  • S1 and S2: The Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 was amended in 2006 to provide for constituting the National Tiger Conservation Authority responsible for implementation of the Project Tiger plan to protect endangered tigers. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is set up under the Chairmanship of the Minister for Environment and Forests. The Authority will have eight experts or professionals having qualifications and experience in wildlife conservation and welfare of people including tribals, apart from three Members of Parliament of whom two will be elected by the House of the People and one by the Council of States.
  • S3: The Authority, interalia, would lay down normative standards, guidelines for tiger conservation in the Tiger Reserves, apart from National Parks and Sanctuaries. It would provide information on protection measures including future conservation plan, tiger estimation, disease surveillance, mortality survey, patrolling, report on untoward happenings and such other management aspects as it may deem fit, including future plan for conservation.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 45

In which one of the following States is Kuno National Park located?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 45

Cheetah reintroduction project

The Government is preparing to translocate the first batch of eight from South Africa and Namibia to Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh soon after the situation linked to the current third wave of Covid-19 becomes normal, and total 50 in various parks over a period of five years.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

1. The Asiatic cheetah is classified as a “critically endangered” species by the IUCN Red List, and is believed to survive only in Africa.

2. Cheetah is a keystone species of dry forests, grasslands and savannahs.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 46

Stat1: The Asiatic cheetah is classified as a “critically endangered” species by the IUCN Red List, and is believed to survive only in Iran.

Stat2: Cheetahs are a keystone species in the savanna.

  • A keystone species is a species which has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance, a concept introduced in 1969 by the zoologist Robert T. Paine.
  • Such species are described as playing a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community, affecting many other organisms in an ecosystem and helping to determine the types and numbers of various other species in the community.
  • Without keystone species, the ecosystem would be dramatically different or cease to exist altogether. Some keystone species, such as the wolf, are also apex predators.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 47

Article 348 of the Constitution of India was in news recently, is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 47

Article 348 in The Constitution Of India 1949. 348. Language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts and for Acts, Bills, etc. (1) notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Part, until Parliament by law otherwise provides.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 48

Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.

2. The Executive power of the State is vested in Governor.

3. The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 48
  • S1 and S2: State executive consists of Governor and Council of Ministers with Chief Minister as its head. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President for a term of five years and holds office during his pleasure. Only Indian citizens above 35 years of age are eligible for appointment to this office. Executive power of the State is vested in Governor.
  • S3: The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 49

Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 49

The ‘Sarkaria Commission’ recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and should be a detached figure without intense political links and that he should not have taken part

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 50

Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor is merely appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Chief Minister of State.

2. Unlike the President of India, a Governor of State does not have a fixed term.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 50
  • S1: The governor is merely appointed by the president on the advice of the Central government.
  • S2: Unlike the president, a governor does not have a fixed term. He/she holds office at the pleasure of the ruling party in the centre.
  • Both the manner of the appointment and the uncertainty of tenure conspire to make the incumbent an object of the Central government in politically charged circumstances.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 51

With reference to the Process of Recombinant DNA Technology, arrange the following in the correct sequence:

  1. Cutting the gene at the recognition sites
  2. Isolation of Genetic Material.
  3. Amplifying the gene copies
  4. Ligation of DNA Molecules.
  5. Insertion of Recombinant DNA into Host.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 51

The complete process of recombinant DNA technology includes a specific sequence:

Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 52

In the context of Zika Virus Disease, consider the following statements:

  1. The funeral procession or burial ceremonies involving direct contact with the deceased's body may lead to transmission of the disease.
  2. It can be transmitted from mother to foetus during pregnancy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 52

 Zika virus disease is caused by a virus transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquitoes, which bite during the day. Symptoms are generally mild and include fever, rash, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, malaise or headache. Symptoms typically last for 2–7 days. Most people with Zika virus infection do not develop symptoms. Zika virus infection during pregnancy can cause infants to be born with microcephaly and other congenital malformations, known as congenital Zika syndrome. Infection with Zika virus is also associated with other complications of pregnancy including preterm birth and miscarriage.
An increased risk of neurologic complications is associated with Zika virus infection in adults and children, including Guillain-Barre syndrome, neuropathy and myelitis. Zika virus is also transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy, through sexual contact, transfusion of blood and blood products, and organ transplantation. So, the statement (2) is correct. The funeral procession or burial ceremonies involving direct contact with the deceased's body may lead to transmission of Ebola virus disease. So, the statement (1) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 53

Consider the following statements with regard to a matter where paternity of a child is an issue, and DNA testing is used to ascertain biological father and mother:

  1. Mitochondrial inheritance can be used to trace the biological mother and father of a female child only.
  2. The “Y” chromosome inheritance is used to identify the biological father of a male child only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 53

Unlike nuclear DNA, which is passed in equal parts to a child from both parents, mitochondria are inherited solely from mothers. So, statement (1) is not correct. Y-linked inheritance is only from father to son. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 54

With reference to ‘fifth generation or 5G’ technology, which of the following statements are correct?

  1. 5G provides a peak download rate of up to 20GBPS.
  2. LTE is technologically advanced than 5G.
  3. 5G can transmit large amounts of data faster than 4G.
  4. 5G has very low latency, even for high mobility devices.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 54

The term 5G is used to describe the next-generation of mobile networks beyond Long Term Evolution (LTE) mobile networks. So, statement (1) is correct. Advantages  5G network speeds have a peak data rate of 20 GB/s for the downlink and 10 GB/s for the uplink, much faster than 4G technologies. So, statement (2) is not correct and statement 3) is correct.  Latency in a 5G network could get as low as 4 milliseconds in a mobile scenario and can be as low as 1 millisecond in ultra-reliable low latency communication scenarios. So, statement (4) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 55

With the present state of development, ‘Blockchain Technology’ can effectively do which of the following?

  1. Cryptocurrency Exchange
  2. Supply Chain Monitoring
  3. IoT Operating system
  4. Anti-Money laundering tracking system
  5. Original content creation

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 55

Blockchain technology is a structure that stores transactional records (known as the block) of the public in several databases (known as the chain) in a network connected through peer-to-peer nodes. This storage is referred to as a digital ledger. The three key principles of blockchain technology are transparency, decentralization and accountability. Blockchain applications go far beyond cryptocurrency and bitcoin.
With its ability to create more transparency and fairness while also saving businesses time and money, the technology is impacting a variety of sectors such as, Secure sharing of medical data  Music royalties tracking Cross-border payments Real-time IoT operating systems, for instance Filament.  Personal identity security Anti-money laundering tracking system, for instance Civic. Supply chain and logistics monitoring  Voting mechanism Original content creation, for example MEDIACHAIN Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 56

With reference to Big Data, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a set of data that describes and gives information about other data.
  2. It is a huge volume of data received from a source which cannot be stored or processed using traditional database software.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 56

Metadata describes and gives information about other data. It provides information about a certain item's content. For example, an image may include metadata that describes how large the picture is, the colour depth, the image resolution, when the image was created, and other data. A text document's metadata may contain information about how long the document is, who the author is, when the document was written, and a short summary of the document. So, statement (1) is not correct. The phrase "big data" is often used to describe large amounts of data. It does not refer to a specific amount of data, but rather describes a dataset that cannot be stored or processed using traditional database software. So, statement (2) is correct.Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 57

With reference to the 2Africa project, consider the following statements:

  1. China is expanding its spy net across Africa.
  2. Beijing uses surveillance to advantage its companies competing for contracts, spy on U.S. officials, and influence African officials.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 57

2Africa is one of the largest subsea cable projects in the world running 37,000 km long, connecting Europe, the Middle East, and 16 countries in Africa, and will provide internet capacity and reliability across much of the Middle East and Africa supporting the growth of 4G, 5G, and fixed broadband access for hundreds of millions of people and businesses.
Working with local partners, China Mobile International, Facebook, MTN GlobalConnect, Orange, etc, Telecom Egypt, Vodafone and WIOCC will partner to build 2Africa. Telecom Egypt will provide 2Africa with brand-new Trans Egypt crossing routes, with the option to have a seamless optical path between East Africa and Europe. So, neither statement (1) nor (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 58

In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

  1. In Augmented Reality (AR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real life objects or surroundings.
  2. In Virtual Reality (VR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
  3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
  4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 58

Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, statement (1) and statement (3) are correct. Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, statement (2) and statement (4) are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 59

With reference to Denial-Of-Service (DoS) cyber threat, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal traffic of a targeted server, service or network by overwhelming the target or its surrounding infrastructure with a flood of Internet traffic.
  2. These attacks are carried out with networks of Internet-connected machines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 59

A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is an intentional cyberattack carried out on networks, websites, and online resources to restrict access to its legitimate users. This is usually done by overloading the target network or site with fake system requests, preventing legitimate users from accessing it, sometimes crashing or damaging a system outright.
DoS attacks may last anywhere from a few hours to many months. So, statement (1) is correct. A common type of DoS attack that is prevalent on the web is called the distributed denial-of service (DDoS) attack that relies on infected computers or devices from around the world in a coordinated effort to block access. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 60

With the present state of development ‘Quantum Communication Technology’ has applications in which of the following?

  1. Solving complex computing problems
  2. Imaging
  3. Mechanics
  4. Aero Space Engineering
  5. Cryptography

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 60


Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 61

With reference to the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI), consider the following statements:

  1. It will be supported by a Secretariat, to be hosted by the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in Paris, as well as by two Centres of Expertise - one each in Montreal and Paris.
  2. India has joined as a founding member to support responsible and human-centric development and use of Artificial Intelligence (AI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 61

GPAI is an international and multi-stakeholder initiative to guide the responsible development and use of AI, grounded in human rights, inclusion, diversity, innovation, and economic growth. With this, India has joined the league of leading nations and economies including the US, the UK, EU, Australia, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Mexico, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, and Singapore for launch of GPAI. It was launched in June 2020. So, statement (2) is correct. It will be supported by a Secretariat, and hosted by the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in Paris and two Centres of Expertise - one each in Montreal and Paris. So, statement (1) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 62

With reference to INS Kavaratti recently in news, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an indigenously built Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) stealth corvette under Project 28 (Kamorta class).
  2. It is designed by the Indian Navy's in-house organisation, Directorate of Naval Design (DND), and built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
  3. The ship has up to 90 per cent indigenous content and the use of carbon composites for the superstructure is a commendable feat achieved in Indian shipbuilding.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 62

The last of the four indigenously built Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) stealth corvettes ‘INS Kavaratti’ under Project 28 (Kamorta class) was commissioned into the Indian Navy. So, statement (1) is correct. The potent stealth ASW corvette, Kavaratti has been indigenously designed by the Indian Navy’s in-house organisation Directorate of Naval Design (DND), and built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) in Kolkata. So, statement (2) is correct.
This initiative portrays the growing capability of the Indian Navy, GRSE and the nation in becoming self-reliant, in tune with the national objective of ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’. The ship has up to 90% indigenously built content and the use of carbon composite for the superstructure is a commendable feat achieved in Indian shipbuilding. So, statement (3) is correct.
The ship’s weapons and sensors suite are predominantly indigenous. Kavaratti has state-of the-art weapons and sensor suite which are capable of detecting and destroying submarines. In addition to its anti-submarine warfare capability, the ship has a credible self-defence capability and good endurance for long-range deployments. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 63

In the context of FELUDA COVID-19 test kit, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a coronavirus detection test developed by Tata Sons.
  2. It uses indigenously developed CRISPR gene-editing technology to identify and target the genetic material of SARS-CoV2.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 63

The Feluda test, a coronavirus detection test developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and commercialised by Tata Sons. So, statement (1) is not correct. FELUDA, which stands for FNCAS9 Editor-Limited Uniform Detection Assay, is also unlike antigen tests in that it uses a CRISPR-cas9 based system and therefore more accurate in detecting the virus. So, statement (2) is correct.
The test still requires a nasal swab to be collected and sent to a lab, promises to be quicker than the gold-standard test because it doesn’t need the expensive RT-PCR (Reverse transcription-quantitative polymerase chain reaction) machine that can set back a lab by at least ₹25 lakh. A smaller, cheaper more portable machine called a thermocycler, which costs around ₹25,000, is employed and once the viral RNA is extracted, it takes anywhere from 45 minutes to an hour to confirm the presence of the virus. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 64

In the context of DNA vaccine, consider the following statements:

  1. A DNA vaccine consists of a bacterial plasmid with a strong viral promoter.
  2. DNA vaccines are efficient at generating T-cell responses that may kill targeted cancerous cells or cells infected by the targeted virus or bacteria.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 64

DNA vaccines are third generation vaccines, made up of small, circular pieces of bacterial DNA, plasmids. These plasmids are genetically engineered to produce specific antigens from a pathogen. The DNA is injected into the cells of the body where the host cell then interprets the DNA and uses it to synthesize the pathogen’s proteins. An immune response is then triggered when the pathogen’s proteins are recognized as foreign to the immune system. So, both statements (1) and (2) are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 65

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Green Climate Fund (GCF) aims for a 60:40 ratio between mitigation and adaptation investments over time.
  2. The Global Environment Facility (GCF) serves as a financial mechanism to the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 65

The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is the world’s largest dedicated fund helping developing countries reduce their greenhouse gas emissions and enhance their ability to respond to climate change. It was set up by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010. GCF has a crucial role in serving the Paris Agreement, supporting the goal of keeping average global temperature rise well below 2 degrees C.
It does this by channelling climate finance to developing countries, which have joined other nations in committing to climate action. The GCF aims for a 50:50 ratio between mitigation and adaptation investments over time. So, statement (1) is not correct. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems. The GEF provides funding to assist developing countries in meeting the objectives of international environmental conventions.
The GEF serves as a "financial mechanism" to five conventions: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and Minamata Convention on Mercury. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 66

Which of the following releases the “Greenhouse Gas Bulletin Report”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 66

The WMO Greenhouse Gas Bulletin reports on atmospheric concentrations of greenhouse gases. Emissions represent what goes into the atmosphere. Concentrations represent what remains in the atmosphere after the complex system of interactions between the atmosphere, biosphere, lithosphere, cryosphere and the oceans. About a quarter of the total emissions are absorbed by the oceans and another quarter by the biosphere. So, option b is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 67

Consider the following statements:

  1. Greater the humidity in the air, higher will be the speed of sound.
  2. The speed of sound decreases with the increase in temperature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 67

Greater humidity means the presence of water vapour. The density of water vapour is less than dry air. The speed of sound is inversely proportional to the density of a medium so greater the humidity in the air, higher will be the speed of sound. So, statement (1) is correct. The speed of sound in air is directly proportional to the square root of temperature which means as the speed of sound in air will increase with the rise in temperature. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 68

Which of the following raw materials were procured by the Harappans for craftwork?

  1. Chalcedony
  2. Iron
  3. Lapis lazuli
  4. Copper

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 68

Carnelian is a form of chalcedony that has been turned red by heating. It is rarely found in nature. Heating the stone causes the oxides of iron to become yellow, orange and red. It was one of the most popular and widespread semi-precious stones in the ancient Near East and India, and became one of the most valuable stones after lapis lazuli in the manufacture of jewellery and seals. Harappans made various ornaments and beads out of it. So, option (1) is correct. Harappa was a Bronze Age civilization that was based primarily on the copper alloy.
So, option (2) is not correct while (4) is correct. Lapis lazuli artifacts have been found at various sites like Bhirrana, which is one of the oldest sites of Indus Valley Civilization. It was highly valued by the Indus Valley Civilization and apparently they set up long distance posts like Shortughai to procure it from other regions. So, option (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 69

Which of the following statements regarding Vedas is/are not correct?

  1. Atharva Veda is primarily the book of sacrificial prayers which contains the rituals of the Yajnas.
  2. Yajur Veda throws light on the beliefs and practices of the non-Aryans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 69

The Yajur Veda contains not only hymns but also rituals to accompany their recitation, the latter reflecting the social and political milieu of the time. So, statement (1) is correct. The Atharva Veda contains charms and spells to ward off evils and diseases, its contents throwing light on the beliefs and practices of the non-Aryans. So, statement (2) is correct. The collections of Vedic hymns or mantras are known as the Samhitas.
The Rig Veda Samhita is the oldest Vedic text, based on which we have described the early Vedic age. For the purpose of recitation, the prayers of the Rig Veda were set to tune, and this modified collection was known as the Sama Veda. The Vedic Samhitas were followed by the composition of a series of texts known as the Brahmanas. These are replete with ritualistic formulae and explain the social and religious meaning of rituals. All these later Vedic texts were compiled in the upper Gangetic basin in c. 1000-500 BC. Therefore, the answer is d. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 70

Consider the following statements with respect to the Vaisheshika school of philosophy:

  1. It considers the philosophy governing the universe as realistic and objective.
  2. It believes that the laws of karma guide the universe.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 70

Kanada, who also wrote the basic text governing the Vaisheshika philosophy, is considered the founder of this school. It believes in the physicality of the Universe and is considered to be the realistic and objective philosophy that governs the universe. They argue that everything in the universe was created by the five main elements: fire, air, water, earth and ether (sky).
These material elements are also called Dravya. So, statement (1) is correct. They also believe that the laws of karma guide this universe, i.e. everything is based on the actions of human beings. We are rewarded or punished according to our actions. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 71

Consider the following statements regarding Bodhisattva:

  1. The Bodhisattvas seek to understand reality through wisdom and actualize it through compassion.
  2. The idea of the Bodhisattva is central to Mahayana ideology.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 71

Both of the statements given about Bodhisattva are correct. Here's an analysis:

  1. The Bodhisattvas seek to understand reality through wisdom and actualize it through compassion.

    • This statement is correct. Bodhisattvas are enlightened beings who strive to attain wisdom (understanding the true nature of reality) and practice compassion to help all sentient beings achieve enlightenment.
  2. The idea of the Bodhisattva is central to Mahayana ideology.

    • This statement is also correct. In Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisattva ideal is central. Bodhisattvas are revered as beings who have attained a high level of enlightenment and vow to help others achieve the same before fully entering nirvana themselves.

Since both statements are correct, the answer to the question of which statements are not correct is:

           4. Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 72

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 72

The early Vedic society was pastoral, cattle rearing being the dominant occupational activity. A pastoral society relies more on animal wealth than on agricultural activities. Hymns of Rig Veda yield extensive evidence of the importance of cattle in Early Vedic Society. Many linguistic expressions in the Rig Veda are associated with the cow (gau). 

  • Gomat: cattle were the chief measure of wealth. Someone who owned many cattle was called a Gomat. 
  • Gojit: winner of a cow was referred as a hero. So, pair (1) is correctly matched. 
  • Gavishti, Gavesana, Gavyat: These were terms used for conflicts and battles. 
  • Gopati: The Raja or the chief was called Gopati, meaning one who protects the cow. 
  • Godhuli (dusk) and Samgava (morning): A term used for a measure of time. So, pair (3) is not correctly matched. 
  • Gavyuti: A measure of distance. So, pair (2) is not correctly matched. 
  • Duhitr: Daughter is called Duhitr or one who milks the cows. 
  • Gotra: Kinship units are labelled as Gotra. 

All these terms are derived from gau (cow) and suggest that social, religious, economic and all important areas of Rig Vedic life centered on the rearing of cows. Literary reference to pasture lands, cow pen, dairy products and domestic animals are also found in most of the hymns and prayers. Therefore, the answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 73

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Abhidhamma Pitaka?

  1. It is a scripture of Mahayana Buddhism only.
  2. It contains the philosophical aspects of Buddhism.
  3. It was first compiled in Sanskrit and then translated to Prakrit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 25 - Question 73

Gautama Buddha’s three main disciples known as Upali, Ananda and Mahakashyap remembered his teachings and passed them on to his followers.It is believed that soon after the Buddha’s death a Council was called at Rajagriha where Upali recited the Vinaya Pitaka (rules of the order) and Ananda recited the Sutta Pitaka (Buddha’s sermons or doctrines and ethics).
Sometime later the Abhidhamma Pitaka consisting of the Buddhist philosophy came into existence. So, statement (2) is correct. It is the last of the three pitakas constituting the Pali Canon, the scriptures of Theravada Buddhism. So, statements (1) and (3) are not correct. It is a detailed scholastic reworking of material appearing in the Suttas, according to schematic classifications. It does not contain systematic philosophical treatises, but summaries or enumerated lists. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

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