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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 1

Consider the following statements with reference to the electoral bonds scheme:

  1. It can be purchased by an individual or a business entity in cash or cheque from specific branches of any bank.
  2. All political parties registered with the election commission are eligible to receive donations through such bonds.
  3. The bonds are issued in two denominations of Rs. 10,000 and Rs.1,00,000.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 1

An electoral bond is an interest-free banking instrument whereby a citizen or a business entity in India is eligible to purchase (either through cheque or digital payments) the bond from specific branches of the State Bank of India for 10 days each in months of January, April, July, and October. As per the business rules unveiled by the government in 2018, EB can be purchased by a person, who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India. Further, a person being an individual can buy electoral bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Only political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 that have secured not less than 1 percent of votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State are eligible to receive such donations. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Other highlights of EB are that the bonds will be valid for 15 days only and shall not carry the donor's name, although the payee will have to fulfil KYC (Know Your Customer) norms at the bank. What is important here is no report is required to be submitted by receiving parties in case of donations received via electoral bonds. In other words, neither donors nor political parties are legally bound to reveal the details of donations. Thus, opacity is ingrained with this new instrument for political funding.
  • Electoral bonds are available in the denomination of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lac, Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore. Almost 99 percent of donations received by political parties between March 2018 and January 24, 2019, were as electoral bonds of Rs 10 lakh and Rs one crore, a right to information (RTI) application revealed in November 2019. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 2

Arrange the following regions of India in the correct order from north to south:

  1. Galwan Valley
  2. Pangong Tso
  3. Daulat Beg Oldi
  4. Hot Spring

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 2

The correct order from North to South is Daulat Beg Oldi, Galwan Valley, Hot Spring and Pangong Tso. Hence, option C is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 3

Consider the following statements with reference to Mission innovation:

  1. It is a global initiative to promote clean energy research and development.
  2. It is a joint initiative of IRENA and UNEP.
  3. India is a founding member.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 3

Mission Innovation (MI) is a global initiative of 24 countries and the European Commission (on behalf of the European Union) working to reinvigorate and accelerate global clean energy innovation with the objective to make clean energy widely affordable. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • Mission Innovation was announced on November 30, 2015 due to pioneering efforts by India, France and USA, as world leaders came together in Paris to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate change Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The mission's objective is to accelerate the pace of clean energy innovation (research and development) to achieve performance breakthroughs and cost reductions to provide widely affordable and reliable clean energy solutions that will revolutionise energy systems throughout the world over the next two decades. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Its goals are:

  • A substantial boost in public-sector investment in clean energy R&D at the national level of MI members.
  • Increased private sector engagement and investment in energy innovation, particularly in key Innovation Challenges.
  • Many new or strengthened voluntary cross-border networks and partnerships on energy innovation, greater engagement from innovators, and accelerated progress in addressing specific Innovation Challenges.
  • Greater awareness amongst MI members and the wider clean energy community of the transformational potential of energy innovation, the progress being made, and the remaining critical clean energy innovation gaps and opportunities.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Carrying Capacity of an Ecosystem:

  1. It refers to the largest population size that an ecosystem can sustainably support without degrading the ecosystem.
  2. It depends on both biotic and abiotic components in the ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 4

Carrying capacity

  • It is the maximum sustainable population of a species the environment can sustain for an indefinite period of time given available resources. This is the point where the population theoretically cannot grow any larger and it is not growing any larger. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • For functional purposes, carrying capacity will typically be an upper limit, but certain circumstances can temporarily take a population above this (though the population will decrease sharply thereafter).
  • Carrying capacity is determined and affected by a number of variables.
  • The total geographic space available to a species determines the population number (biotic), but so does the amount of energy (abiotic) available for that species to consume. Interactions with other species, including humans, will also affect carrying capacity. The biotic factors refer to the living components of an ecosystem, and the abiotic factors refer to the non-living, chemical and physical components of the ecosystem. Therefore, both the abiotic and biotic resources affect the survival and reproduction process. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The carrying capacity for any given area is not fixed.
  • It can be altered by improved technology, but mostly it is changed for the worse by pressures which accompany a population increase.
  • As the environment is degraded, carrying capacity actually shrinks, leaving the environment no longer able to support even the number of people who could formerly have lived in the area on a sustainable basis. No population can live beyond the environment's carrying capacity for very long.
  • Carrying capacity can be increased by the amount of food available, the local extinction of a competitor, an increase in species fertility, a decrease in predation, an increase in the amount of habitat available for use, and adaptations to the environment, such as resistance to disease or adaptations that serve to decrease the amount of energy spent on obtaining food.
  • Carrying capacity can be decreased by disease, an increase in predation, hunting or harvesting by humans, a decrease in available habitat such as habitat destruction by humans, parasites, competition with another species for a resource, or changes in the weather that make the species less suited to the environment.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. In Cooperative federalism, the Centre and the States share a vertical relationship, where they “cooperate” in the broader public interest.
  2. In Competitive federalism, the relationship between the Central and the State governments is horizontal and between the State governments is vertical.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 5

Federation is a system of national and local governments, combined under joint sovereignty or pooled sovereignty with both national as well as federal units having sovereign spheres assigned to them by the Constitution. In Cooperative federalism, the Centre and the States share a horizontal relationship, where they “cooperate” in the broader public interest. It is an essential tool to enable the States’ participation in the formulation and implementation of national policies.

The Union and the States are constitutionally obliged to cooperate on the matters specified in Schedule VII of the Constitution. So, statement 1 is not correct. In Competitive federalism, the relationship between the Central and the State governments is vertical and between the State governments is horizontal.

This idea of Competitive federalism gained significance in India post-1990s economic reforms. In Competitive federalism, the States need to compete among themselves and also with the Centre for benefits. The States compete with each other to attract funds and investments, which facilitates efficiency in administration and enhances developmental activities. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 6

With reference to the Provincial Elections of 1946 in British India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Muslim League performed better than in the Provincial Elections of 1937.
  2. It managed to form ministries only in Bengal and Sind.
  3. Punjab was the only province where a coalition government was formed

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 6

In the 1946 provincial elections, Congress formed its ministries in Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Central Provinces, Madras, NWFP, Orissa and United Provinces. The Muslim League formed its ministries in Bengal and Sind. A coalition consisting of the Congress, Unionist Party and the Akalis was formed in Punjab. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.

  • The Muslim league performed better compared to the elections of 1937. It gained 86.6% of the Muslim votes and got a majority in Bengal and Sindh. Compared to the 1937 elections, the League clearly established itself as the dominant party among Muslims. Hence statement 1 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 7

Which of the following groups is most likely to benefit from an appreciation of the Rupee?

  1. Importers in India
  2. Exporters in India
  3. Borrowers through ECBs
  4. Exporters to India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 7

Currency appreciation is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency. Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including the government policy, interest rates, trade balances and business cycles. A Rupee appreciation takes place when its value increases in relation to other currencies, say US Dollar. For instance, there would be an appreciation in the Rupee if the dollar/rupee exchange rate moves from ₹70/$ to ₹65/$. Importers in India would be benefitted as they would have to pay less in Rupee terms for the same amount of (say dollar) imports in case of Rupee appreciation.

So, statement 1 is correct. Exporters in India would stand to lose as they would receive less in Rupee terms for the same amount of (say dollar) exports in case of Rupee appreciation.

So, statement 2 is not correct. In the case of Rupee appreciation, entities in India borrowing under the ECB route would have their borrowing costs reduced as they would have to pay less in Rupee terms. They would benefit from the Rupee appreciation. So, statement 3 is correct. Exporters to India would gain in case of the Rupee appreciation.

For instance, a person exporting Rs. 10,000 worth of goods to India from, say, the US would receive more in terms of the US dollar if the Rupee appreciates from Rs. 70/$ to Rs. 65/$. So, statement 4 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 8

Consider the following statements with reference to Hedge Funds:

  1. They are unregistered private investment partnerships or funds.
  2. They are available to qualified or accredited high net worth individuals.
  3. Hedge funds are subject to regulatory provisions similar to Mutual Funds.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 8

To hedge means to safeguard, and in the context of investing, it means to protect against risks. Hedge funds are alternative investments using pooled funds that employ different strategies to earn active return, or alpha, for their investors. Hedge funds may be aggressively managed or make use of derivatives and leverage in both domestic and international markets with the goal of generating high returns.

  • The Features & Benefits of Hedge Funds: Hedge fund industry in India got a green flag in 2012 when the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) allowed alternative investment funds (AIF).
  • They have the following features: High Net-Worth Investors: Only qualified or accredited investors can invest in hedge funds. They are mainly high net worth individuals (HNIs), banks, insurance companies, endowments, and pension funds. The minimum ticket size for investors investing in these funds is Rs 1 crore. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Diverse Portfolio: Hedge funds have a comprehensive portfolio of investments ranging from currencies, derivatives, stocks, real estates, equities, and bonds. Yes, they necessarily cover all the asset classes only limited by the mandate.
  • Higher Fees: They work on the concept of both expense ratio and management fee. Globally, it is ‘Two and Twenty’, meaning there is a 2% fixed fee and 20% of profits. As for hedge funds in India, the management fee can be well below 2% to below 1%. And the profit-sharing varies between 10% to 15% generally.
  • Higher Risks: Hedge funds investment strategy can expose funds to huge losses. The Lock-in period generally for investment is relatively long. Leverage used by these funds can turn investments into a significant loss.
  • Taxation: The Category III AIF (hedge funds) is still not given pass-through status on tax. This implies that income from these funds is taxable at the investment fund level. Hence, the tax obligation will not pass through to the unit-holders. This is a disadvantage for this industry as they are not on a level playing ground with other mutual funds.
  • Regulations: It is not required that hedge funds be registered with the securities markets regulator and have no reporting requirements including regular disclosure of Net Asset Values (NAV). i.e. they are unregistered private investment partnerships or funds. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Mutual funds are registered with securities markets regulator and are subject to the provisions of the relevant regulations such as offer/issue of units/securities, disclosure and reporting requirement, valuation for the purpose of computation of NAV, conflict of interest issue and limit leverage. Hedge funds are not required to be registered and therefore, are not subject to similar regulatory provisions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs) in India.

  1. Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs) are diverse ecosystems which include woodland savannas, shrublands and grasslands, to rocky outcrops, ravines and dunes.
  2. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 protects against the diversion of ONEs for development purposes.
  3. They also have animal species like black buck and great Indian bustard.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 9

When we recently mapped these Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs), we discovered that they are staggeringly diverse, ranging from woodland savannas, shrublands and grasslands, to rocky outcrops, ravines and dunes. ONEs also have a remarkable assemblage of animal species, many of which, such as the black buck and the critically endangered great Indian bustard, occur only in the Indian subcontinent. India’s ONEs continue to be misunderstood, misrepresented, and destroyed. Successive governments have carried forward a colonial legacy of terming ONEs as ‘wastelands’ and sought to make them ‘productive’; they have tried to ‘develop’ them, thereby incentivising their erasure. Unlike with forests, there are no conservation laws that protect against diversion of biodiversity-rich ONEs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 10

Consider the following statements about a casting vote in House of Parliament:

  1. The Speaker does not vote in the House except when there is a tie at the end of voting in a House.
  2. Till date, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has not been called upon to exercise this casting vote.
  3. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha doesn't exercise casting vote because he is not a member of Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 10

Statement 1 is correct: Though a member of the House, the Speaker does not vote in the House except on those rare occasions when there is a tie at the end of a decision. This is known as the casting vote of the Speaker. It is provided under Article 100 in The Constitution

  • However, if at any sitting of the House a resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, he is not to preside at that sitting. But, he can vote at all on such resolutions or on any other matter during such proceedings as being a member of the Lok Sabha.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Till date, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has not been called upon to exercise this unique casting vote.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: Under the Constitution, the Chairman exercises only a casting vote in the case of equality of votes. However, if at any sitting of the House a resolution for the removal of the Chairman from his office is under consideration, he is not to preside at that sitting. He cannot also vote at all on such a resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings as he is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 11

Consider the following statements:

  1. A unicorn is any privately owned firm with a market capitalization of less than USD 1 million.
  2. The average annual growth rate of Indian unicorns is more than that of the U.S. and the U.K.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 11

A unicorn is any privately owned firm with a market capitalization of more than USD 1 billion. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It denotes new entities dedicated to offering creative solutions and new business models, among other things. Recently, the number of unicorns in India reached the 100-mark.

One unicorn means a startup of at least Rs 7,500 crore turnover. The total valuation of these unicorns is USD 330 billion, that is over Rs 25 lakh crore. The average annual growth rate of Indian unicorns is more than that of the U.S., the U.K. and many other countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding “United Nations Climate Change Conference (CoP26)”?

  1. The Glasgow Climate Pact was signed to reduce non-carbon dioxide greenhouse gas emissions, including methane.
  2. India signed up for the Global Methane Pledge.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 12

The Glasgow Climate Pact, an agreement signed during the 2021 United Nations Climate Change Conference (CoP26), recognised the need to consider further actions to reduce non-carbon dioxide greenhouse gas emissions, including methane, by 2030.

Hence, statement 1 is correct. The US and the European Union launched the Global Methane Pledge at COP26 in Glasgow. More than 100 countries have committed to cutting methane emissions by 30% by 2030. India has not signed up for the Global Methane Pledge. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 13

With reference to the GST Composition Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. Taxpayers registered under the scheme pay a small tax on their turnover.
  2. Taxpayers are eligible for the input tax credit.
  3. The scheme aims to reduce the taxpayer's administrative burden.

Which of the statements given above are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 13

GST composition scheme is a tax-paying mechanism offered to small businesses. When compared to normal GST filing, the composite scheme offers two main benefits: reduced paperwork and compliance, and lower tax liability.

  • Businesses registered under composition schemes are required to pay GST at 1% to 6% depending on the type of business activity conducted by the business entity.
  • Under the scheme, tax filing gets easier as one needs to file just one quarterly return and one annual return.
  • At present, the GST composition scheme limit is 1.5 crores i.e. businesses/individuals with an annual turnover of up to Rs. 1.5 crore can opt for registration under the GST composition scheme.
  • The limit for the GST composition scheme for the North Eastern States and hill states is lower than 1.5 crores which is decided by the GST Council.
  • Under the provisions of the GST Act, a range of businesses in the manufacturing and services sectors are allowed to register under the composition scheme.
  • However, the GST composition scheme is not applicable to the following persons/entities: Non-resident taxable person or a casual taxable person of Businesses/persons supplying goods through an e-commerce portal operator that collects tax at source on businesses/persons engaged in inter-state supply of goods o manufacturer of tobacco products, tobacco substitutes and pan masala o Businesses/persons who have purchased goods from an unregistered supplier
  • 1.6 million taxpayers (17 percent of the total) are registered under the composition scheme, the current threshold for which is fixed at Rs. 1.5 crore.
  • They pay a small tax (1 percent, 2 percent or 5 percent) on their turnover and are not eligible for input tax credits. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.
  • This set up minimises their administrative burden, but also makes it difficult for them to sell to larger firms, which would not be able to secure input tax credits on such purchases. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • For this reason, about 1.9 million (24 percent of total regular filers) of the registrants sized between the GST threshold of Rs 20 lakhs and the composition limit4 who could have opted for the composition scheme chose not to do so and instead decided to file under the regular GST. Put differently, more than 54.3 per cent (1.9/(1.9+1.6)) of those eligible to register under the composition scheme, chose instead to be regular filers.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 14

The Labour Movement during the 1920s was influenced by Communists and radical nationalists and became very strong, which was visible through frequent strikes and demonstrations all over the country. Which of the following steps were taken by the British government to deal with this upsurge?

  1. Official Secrets Act, 1923
  2. Public Safety Bill, 1928
  3. Trade Disputes Act, 1929
  4. First Royal Commission on Labour

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 14

The workers under Communist and radical nationalist influence participated in a large number of strikes and demonstrations all over the country between 1922 and 1929. There were various strikes and also numerous workers’ meetings organised on May Day, Lenin Day, the anniversary of the Russian Revolution, and so on.

  • The Government, nervous of the growing militancy and political involvement of the working class, and especially at the coming together of the nationalist and the Left trends, launched a two-pronged attack on the labour movement. On one hand, it enacted repressive laws like the Public Safety Bill, 1928 and Trade Disputes Act 1929 and arrested in one swoop virtually the entire radical leadership of the labour movement and launched the Meerut Conspiracy Case in 1929 against them. On the other hand, it attempted concessions like the appointment of the First Royal Commission on Labour in 1929. Hence, options 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
  • The labour movement suffered a major setback partially due to this Government offensive and partially due to a shift in the stance of the Communist-led wing of the movement. From about the end of 1928, the Communists reversed their policy of aligning themselves with and working within the mainstream of the national movement. This led to the isolation of the Communists from the national movement and greatly reduced their hold over even the working class. Further, the Communists got isolated within the AITUC and were thrown out in the split of 1931.
  • The Official Secrets Act, 1923 was meant for ensuring secrecy and confidentiality in governance, mostly on national security and espionage issues. It was not related to the labour movement. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with respect to the Gini coefficient?

  1. It is designed by the World Bank to measure inequality patterns in an economy.
  2. The lower the coefficient, the higher the inequality in an economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 15

The Gini index or Gini coefficient is a statistical measure of distribution developed by the Italian statistician Corrado Gini in 1912. It is often used as a gauge of economic inequality, measuring income distribution or, less commonly, wealth distribution among a population. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • The coefficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and 1 representing perfect inequality. A country in which every resident has the same income would have an income Gini coefficient of 0. A country in which one resident earned all the income, while everyone else earned nothing, would have an income Gini coefficient of 1. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Gini index is often represented graphically through the Lorenz curve, which shows income (or wealth) distribution by plotting the population percentile by income on the horizontal axis and cumulative income on the vertical axis.
  • In 2016, the International Monetary Fund in its regional economic outlook for Asia and Pacific said that India’s Gini coefficient rose to 0.51 in 2013 from 0.45 in 1990.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 16

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right to freedom of religion in the Constitution of India?

  1. Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion
  2. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
  3. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion
  4. Freedom of conscience

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 16
  • Articles 25 to 28 of the constitution provide for the Right to freedom of religion, in terms of
  • Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25).
  • Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
  • Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27).
  • Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article 28).
  • Cultural and educational rights: The Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions is provided under Article 30, a part of Cultural and educational rights under Part III of the constitution.
  • Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is provided under Article 15 of the constitution, a part of Right to Equality under Part III of the constitution.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 17

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding recommendations in the banking sector?

  1. The recommendation of the entry of business houses into the banking sector was made by the Narasimham Committee, 1998.
  2. An RBI Working Group recently suggested bringing down the government stake in public banks below 33%.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 17

Recommendations of Different Committees: Many committees had proposed bringing down the government stake in public banks below 51%: The Narasimham Committee proposed to bring down the government stack in public sector banks below 33%.

Hence statement 1 is not correct. The P J Nayak Committee suggested that to bring down the government stack in public sector banks below 50%. An RBI Working Group recently suggested the entry of business houses into the banking sector. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 18

Consider the following statements with reference to a nineteenth-century rebellion/ uprising:

  1. This rebellion took place in Chotanagpur and Singhbhum regions of Bihar and Odisha during 1831-1832.
  2. The main reason for its outbreak was the imposition of British law which threatened the power of the hereditary local chiefs.
  3. They tried to destroy the properties of the outsiders (whom they called 'suds') by setting them to fire.
  4. But in a few weeks, the British were successful in suppressing it with the help of the British Army.

Which of the following rebellions is being described in the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 18

Kol Uprising: The Kols were one of the tribes inhabiting the Chhotanagpur area and Singhbhum areas. They lived in complete autonomy under their traditional chiefs but this changed when the British came. Along with the British, came the moneylenders and the merchants. These outsiders were called "suds" by kols.

  • The Kols then lost their lands to farmers from outside due to acts of the then raja of Chotanagpur, who for the greed of high rents, evicted tribes from their traditional landholdings. They were also made to pay huge amounts of money in taxes. This led to many becoming bonded labourers.
  • The British judicial policies also caused resentment among the Kols.
  • There was an insurrection in 1831-32 which saw the Kols organise themselves and revolt against the British and the moneylenders.
  • The main form of rebellion was plunder and arson. The properties of outsiders were aimed but not their lives.
  • This armed resistance went on for two years after which it was brutally suppressed by the British with their superior weaponry. The Kol Rebellion was so intense that troops had to be called in from Kolkata and Banaras to crush it.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 19

X is prevented from entering a public park on the grounds that he is not a citizen of India. He further finds he is not allowed to purchase a house and reside in the capital city. He is later arrested and is barred from making a representation against his detention. Further, he is prevented by the jail authorities from offering prayers to his religious god. X can file a writ petition against violation of his certain Fundamental rights.

How many maximum writ petitions could be filed by X?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 19

Fundamental Rights available only to citizens and not to foreigners

  • Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
  • Protection of six rights regarding freedom of:
    • speech and expression,
    • assembly,
    • association,
    • movement,
    • residence, and
    • profession (Article 19).
  • Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
  • Protection of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29).
  • Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).

Fundamental Rights available to both citizens and foreigners (except enemy aliens):

  • Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22).The second part of Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court.
  • The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed.
  • The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25).
    • Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).
  • Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20).
  • Right to elementary education (Article 21A). Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23). Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc., (Article 24). Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
  • Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27). Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article 28).
  • Thus, only two of his Fundamental rights are violated i.e when he is arrested under preventive detention and not allowed to make a representation and when he is prevented from carrying out his religious practice. Hence, he can file a maximum two such writ petitions against these violations.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 20

Consider the following statements with respect to Core Investment Companies (CICs):

  1. CICs are specialised companies which carry business in the acquisition of shares and securities.
  2. Securities and Exchange Board of India is entrusted with the responsibility of regulating CICs.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 20

Core Investment Company (CIC) is a non-banking financial company carrying on the business of acquisition of shares and securities and which (a) holds not less than 90 percent of its net assets in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies and (b) its investments in the equity shares in group companies constitutes not less than 60 percent of its net assets as on the date of the last audited balance sheet. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The Reserve Bank of India is entrusted with the responsibility of regulating and supervising the Non- Banking Financial Companies by virtue of powers vested by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Over the last few years, RBI has carved out some specialised NBFCs like Core Investment Companies (CICs), NBFC- Infrastructure Finance Companies (IFCs) etc.
  • Core Investment Companies (CICs) are companies holding shares, bonds and debentures and are categorised as NBFCs by the RBI. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • CICs having asset size of 100 crore or above are categorised as Systemically Important Core Investment Companies (CICs-ND-SI) and are required to obtain Certificate of Registration from the Reserve Bank.
  • Recently, with an objective to strengthen core investment companies (CIC), a working group formed by the Reserve Bank of India recommended measures such as including periodical inspection of the companies and formation of board-level committees.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding “Drone-Based Vaccine Delivery Model, i-drone”?

  1. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has devised a Drone-Based Vaccine Delivery Model, idrone.
  2. The northeastern states have been approved to use this drone technology for delivering vaccines in remote areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 21

Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has devised a Drone-Based Vaccine Delivery Model, i-drone. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Telangana and North-East states have been approved to use this drone technology for delivering vaccines in remote areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct. It has been designed to facilitate vaccine delivery to tough and hard-to-reach terrains of India. It will help in overcoming the gaps in current vaccine delivery mechanisms and can be used in delivering important life-saving medicines, collecting blood samples etc. This technology can also be used in critical situations. It can be a game changer in addressing the challenges in health care delivery, particularly health supplies in difficult areas.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 22

Which of the following is not correct about Rabindranath Tagore?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 22
  • Rabindranath Tagore is one of the literary giants of modern India. He was internationally acknowledged as a literary genius and awarded the Nobel prize in 1913 for his poetic collection ‘Gitanjali’. Along with being an accomplished literary genius, Rabindranath Tagore was an outstanding scholar, thinker, and intellectual.
  • His intellectual or philosophical development was impacted by Upanishads, Vaishnavism, Brahmo Samaj, Bhagavad Gita, ModernWestern thought and Literature, Christianity, and the liberal and humanist philosophy of Brahmo Samaj etc. Upanishads were instrumental in moulding Tagore's philosophy and especially his humanist values.
  • Tagore's Philosophical discourses in ‘Santiniketan’, ‘Sadhana’, ‘The Religion of Man’,‘Man’, ‘Manusher Dharma’, and ‘Sanchyar’ were profoundly impacted by the teachings of the Upanishads. Tagore admitted in his various writings that Upanishads have been the fundamental source of his inspiration. He was mainly inspired by the Upanishadic doctrine that in the beginning ‘There was one Brahman, who wanted to be many and so created this world’ (Tai tri Upanishads, p. 2-6). Hence option (d) is correct.
  • He urged the masses to avoid victimology and instead seek self-help and education, and he saw the presence of the British administration as a "political symptom of our social disease". He maintained that, even for those at the extremes of poverty, "there can be no question of blind revolution"; preferable to it was a "steady and purposeful education". He was educationally a revolutionary and strongly believed that there should be a system of education suited to India.
  • It should be the system in which the cultures of east and the west should unite and where there should be a platform for understanding each other. In the words of G. Ramchandran, Gurudev never accepted that the object of education was simply the accumulation of knowledge. Hence option (c) is correct.
  • Rabindranath Tagore was not a member of the Indian National Congress, thus he never presided over any session. But he firmly held political views. He was categorically clear about the real political work that remained undone in the country.
  • He believed that all our energies must be directed to alleviate poverty, to inculcate amity amongst communities and all manner of people and to foster values of freedom and self- reliance, ‘atmashakti’. Swaraj for him was not just political freedom but freedom from hunger, disease, servitude, and ignorance. Hence option (b) is correct.
  • The INC Madras Session of 1898 was presided over by Ananda Mohan Bose. Hence option (a) is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 23

With reference to commercial livestock rearing, consider the following statements:

  1. It is practised on a large-scale and involves simultaneous rearing of different animals.
  2. It is mainly practised in the agrarian South Asian countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 23

Unlike nomadic herding, commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive. Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western cultures and is practised on permanent ranches. These ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcels, which are fenced to regulate the grazing. When the grass of one parcel is grazed, animals are moved to another parcel. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.

  • This is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goats and horses. Products such as meat, wool, hides and skin are processed and packed scientifically and exported to different world markets. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Rearing of animals in ranching is organised on a scientific basis. The main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care of the animals.
  • New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay and the United States of America are important countries where commercial livestock rearing is practised. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 24

Consider the following statements about Parliamentary Privileges in Lok Sabha:

  1. Parliamentary Privileges are available only for the Members of Parliament.
  2. Courts have no jurisdiction to take action against a member for his speech made in the House.
  3. Parliament exclusively has the power to punish any individual for breach of privilege or contempt of the House.
  4. It depends solely on the Parliamentary Affairs Minister to refer any question of privilege to the Committee of Privileges.

Which of the statements given above are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Parliamentary Privileges are a set of rights mainly from the members of both the Houses of Parliament. Apart from this, these rights are also given to those individuals who speak and participate in any committee of the Parliament, which includes the Attorney General of India and the Union Ministers.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The freedom of speech available to the members on the floor of the House is different from that available to the citizens under Article 19(2). A law made under this article providing for reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech of the citizens would not circumscribe the freedom of speech of the members within the walls of the House. Members enjoy complete protection even if the words uttered by them in the House are malicious and false to their knowledge. Courts have no jurisdiction to take action against a member for his speech made in the House even if it amounts to contempt of the court.
  • Statement 3 is correct: If any individual or authority violates or disregards any of the privileges, powers and immunities of the House or members or committees thereof, he may be punished for “breach of privilege” or “contempt of the House”. The House has exclusive power to determine as to what constitutes breach of privilege and contempt and punish for such breach. The penal jurisdiction of the House in this regard covers its members as well as strangers and every act of violation of privileges, whether committed in the immediate presence of the House or outside of it.
  • A person found guilty of breach of privilege or contempt of the House may be punished either by imprisonment or by admonition (warning) or reprimand. Two other punishments may also be awarded to the members for contempt, namely, ‘suspension’ and ‘expulsion’ from the House.
  • Statement 4 is not correct: The Speaker or Chairman is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the respective House, its Committees and members. It depends solely on the Speaker or Chairman to refer any question of privilege to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation and report.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 25

In the context of ancient Indian history, Bhrgukaccha, Supara, and Patala were

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 25

The history of India‘s maritime trade goes back to centuries ago. India has been one of the most important points of sea trade in the entire South Asian region since the beginning of maritime trade.

  • Long before the development of the Silk Road, the ships belonging to Indian traders travelled thousands of miles crossing the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea to find their markets in West Asia, East Asia, Southeast Asia, and East Africa. Similarly, merchants from these regions, especially Arabians and Chinese frequently visited the Indian Subcontinent, trading silk, spices, porcelain, ivory, and even slaves.
  • The chief ports of ancient India were on the West Coast—Bharucha, Supara, not far from modern Bombay, and Patala, on the Indus delta.
  • Bhrigu Kaccha: Almost 2000 years ago, Bhrigu Kaccha (Bharuch) was a prominent port in the Indian subcontinent region. Located at the mouth of the river Narmada, Bharukaccha was also known as Barygaza to the merchants from around the world. Bharuch had established trade relations with Arabs, Greeks, and Romans, Africans, Chinese and Egyptians. Bharuch was a terminus for a number of land-sea trade routes and goods were trans-shipped there to send abroad utilising the monsoon winds. The imports into Barygaza were wine, copper, tin, lead, coral, topaz, cloth, gold and silver coins. Exports from the town included plants from the Himalayas, ivory, agate, carnelian, cotton, silk and perfumes. Special gifts were brought by merchants for the king. These included vessels of silver, singing boys, beautiful women, fine wines and fine cloth.
  • Supara: Supara near Mumbai was a prosperous port of the west coast of India since the beginning of the first millennium B.C. Known under the names of Shutparak, and Sopara and identified with Ophir of Solomon’s times by some scholars, this port centre, an outlet to the trade of Deccan, has a rich inscriptional reference. Sopara has been an important port that is known to be connected with the Arabian sea, by an estuary or creek which is known as the Sopara creek even now.
  • Patala: Patala is an ancient port city at the mouth of the Indus River. The historians of Alexander the Great state that the Indus parted into two branches at the city of Patala before reaching the sea. Alexander the Great built a harbour at Patala. Ships used to sail to the Persian Gulf and Arabia from Patala. Also, pepper brought from the south was also exported from here.
  • Other important ports include: Arikamedu Port: Arikamedu, located in today‘s Puducherry, a union territory of India, is known as the port of Podouke in historical documents. With mentions in the Periplus Maris Erythraei and Tamil poems of the Sangam period, Arikamedu is believed to be an active trading port of the region with the Roman Empire as early as the second century BC. Many believe that Arikamedu was a Chola port dedicated to bead making and it was the only port city in the region to have ties with Romans.

Muziris Port: Muziris, the ancient port city located in today‘s Indian state of Kerala, was one of the most important trading ports in the world almost 2,000 years ago. Existing in the first century BC, the Muziris port had played a significant role in connecting the region with the Persians, the Phoenicians, the Assyrians, the Greeks, the Egyptians, and the Roman Empire. While spices, particularly black pepper, were the key item exported from the Muziris port, other commodities shipped include semi- precious stones, diamonds, ivory, and pearls, among others.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 26

Which of the following statements about Is the Presidential Address not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 26

Articles 86 and 87 of the Constitution deal with the Address by the President. Article 86 confers a right on the President to address either the House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together, and for that purpose require the attendance of members. However, since the commencement of the Constitution, the President has not so far addressed a House or Housestogether under this provision.

  • Article 87 deals with Special Address by the President and provides that the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons. Hence, option (a) is correct.
  • Article 87(1) originally required the President to address both Houses of Parliament at the commencement of every session. The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, amended this provision.
  • No other business is transacted till the President has addressed both Houses of Parliament assembled together. Hence, option (b) is correct.
  • As article 87 makes it clear, the Address is to be to both Houses of Parliament assembled together. In other words, it means that if at the time of commencement of the first session of the year, the Lok Sabha has been dissolved and the Rajya Sabha has to meet, then the Rajya Sabha can have its session without the President’s Address. During the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in 1977 and 1991, the Rajya Sabha had its sessions on 1 February 1977 and 3 June 1991, respectively without the President’s Address. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  • In the case of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha, the President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together after the members of the Lok Sabha have made and subscribed the oath or affirmation and the Speaker has been elected by the Lok Sabha. The President addressed both Houses of Parliament assembled together twice in the years 1957, 1962, 1989, 1991, 1996 and in 2009 when general elections also took place after the first session of the year had been held.
  • The President reads the Address in Hindi or English. The other version of the Address in English or Hindi, as the case may be, is generally read out by the Vice-President.
  • When members of the two Houses of Parliament assembled together to hear the President’s Address, it does not constitute a sitting of the Rajya Sabha or the Lok Sabha since a sitting of the Rajya Sabha is duly constituted when it is presided over by the Chairman or Speaker or a member competent to preside over a sitting of the Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha and under the Constitution or the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha. It is also not a joint sitting of the two Houses since it has to be presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence by such person as may be determined by the Rules of Procedure made under clause (3) of article 118 of the Constitution. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
  • The discussion on the Address takes place a few days after it is delivered and in the intervening period, other business is transacted.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 27

John Smith, the Madras Presidency officer, accidentally discovered the entrance to these caves while hunting a tiger in dense undergrowth. They were among the first to be put on the world heritage sites in India. The caves are representative of Buddhist religious art with figures of the Buddha and depictions of the Jataka tales.

Which caves are being described in the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 27

Ajanta Caves, among the first to be put on the world heritage sites in India, include paintings and sculptures which are said to be the finest examples of Indian art. They are representative of Buddhist religious art with figures of the Buddha and depictions of the Jataka tales. The Caves are about 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments which date from the 2nd century BCE to about 480 or 650 CE.

  • On 28 April 1819, John Smith, the Madras Presidency officer, accidentally discovered the entrance to Cave No. 10 deep within the tangled undergrowth while hunting a tiger, which led to the discovery of the showpiece Ajanta caves.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 28

With reference to Kosi River, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a transboundary river which flows between Bhutan and India.
  2. It has the lowest amount of load carrying capacity amongst all the major rivers of India.
  3. It is known as the sorrow of Bihar.

Which of the statements given above are correct:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 28

The Kosi is a trans-boundary river which flows through Tibet, Nepal and India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It has its source in Tibet that includes the world's highest upland, it then drains a large part of Nepal before emerging onto the Gangetic plains. Its three major tributaries, the Sun Kosi, Arun and Tamur meet at one point just upstream of a 10 km gorge cut through the Himalayan foothills.

The river crosses into northern Bihar, India where it branches into distributaries before joining the Ganges near Kursela in Katihar district. The Kosi carries the maximum amount of silt and sand after the Brahmaputra in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It is also known as the “Sorrow of Bihar” as the annual floods affect about 21,000 sq. km. of fertile agricultural lands thereby disturbing the rural economy. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. A Bay is a waterbody usually larger than a Gulf and is more enclosed.
  2. A Strait is a narrow strip of land that connects two larger landmasses and separates two bodies of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 29

A bay and a gulf are almost similar except that a bay is smaller than a gulf. A bay connects to a larger water body such as an ocean or a lake. It is partly surrounded or demarcated by land and has a wide mouth which accesses the water body. Bays can be formed in various ways. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Large bays were created as a result of plate tectonics. As the Pangaea supercontinent broke along the indented fault line, the continents moved apart leading to the formation of the largest bays in the world. The largest bay in the world is the Bay of Bengal. Glacial and river erosion are also responsible for the formation of a bay.
  • A gulf is a large bay. It is the portion of the sea that penetrates into land or a deep inlet to the sea that is partly surrounded by land. Just like a bay, gulfs are formed as a result of plate tectonics. As the Pangaea supercontinent broke along the curved fault line, continents separated leading to the formation of large bays known as gulfs. The Gulf of Mexico formed about 300 years ago through plate tectonics. It originated in Lake Triassic as a result of rifting in the Pangaea. Gulfs are important for commerce and tourism while agricultural activities may be practised nearby.
  • An isthmus is a narrow strip of land that connects two larger landmasses and separates two bodies of water. Isthmus has been a strategic location for centuries. They are natural sites for ports and canals linking terrestrial and aquatic trade routes. Isthmuses are also key sites for communications and cultural exchange, as well as military outposts. The Isthmus of Panama in Panama links the continents of North and South America, and separates the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
  • A strait is a narrow body of water that connects two larger bodies of water. It may be formed by a fracture in an isthmus. A strait can also be formed by a body of water overflowing land that has subsided or has been eroded. The Bosporus, which links the Black Sea and the Aegean Sea, was formed this way. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

  1. No egg-laying mammals are found in India.
  2. Some species of reptiles can glide in the air.
  3. Some species of fish can change their gender during their lifetime.

Which of the statements given above are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 30

Monotremes are one of the three main groups of living mammals, along with placentals (Eutheria) and marsupials (Metatheria). The monotremes are typified by structural differences in their brains, jaws, digestive tract, reproductive tract, and other body parts compared to the more common mammalian types. In addition, they lay eggs rather than live young, but like all mammals, the female monotremes nurse their young with milk. There are only five living monotreme species: the duck-billed platypus and four species of echidna (also known as spiny anteaters). All of them are found only in Australia and New Guinea. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Draco is a genus of agamid lizards that are also known as flying lizards, flying dragons or gliding lizards. These lizards are capable of gliding flight; their ribs and their connecting membrane may be extended to create "wings" (patagia), the hindlimbs are flattened and wing-like in cross-section, and a flap on the neck (the gular flag) serves as a horizontal stabiliser and are sometimes used in warning to others. Much like aircraft wings are built of struts with a membrane stretched across, these flying dragons have elongated ribs that support a flap of skin, called the patagia. This allows them to glide an average of 8m as they jump between trees. Their slender tails act as rudders for steering. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The bluehead wrasse is a fish that lives in small social groups in coral reefs in the Caribbean. Only the male has a blue head – signalling his social dominance over a harem of yellow-striped females. If this male is removed from the group, something extraordinary happens: the largest female in the group changes sex to become male.

Her behaviour changes within minutes. Within ten days, her ovaries transform into sperm-producing testes. Within 21 days she appears completely male. Clownfish, wrasses, moray eels, gobies and other fish species are known to change sex, including reproductive functions. A school of clownfish is always built into a hierarchy with a female fish at the top. When she dies, the most dominant male changes sex and takes her place. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 31

In the context of the architectural achievements during the Delhi Sultanate, consider the following monuments:

  1. Arhai (or Adhai) Din ka Jhonpra
  2. Siri Fort
  3. Quwwat-ul Islam mosque

Which of the monuments given above was/were built during the rule of the Khalji Dynasty?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 31

Khilji Dynasty (1290-1320) was founded by Jalal-ud-din Khilji in 1290 AD. It was the second dynasty to rule the Delhi Sultanate, after the Mamluk dynasty.

  • The second ruler of the Khalji dynasty, Alaud-Din Khalji built two important monuments, 1. Alai Darwaza and 2. Siri Fort. It is believed that Siri Fort (a fort city) in Delhi was built in the wake of the Mongol invasion. Located north of Mehrauli and east of Hauz Khas, this fort city of Siri was laid in 1303. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque was built by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, founder of the Mamluk dynasty. Alai Darwaza forms the southern gateway of the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque. Hence option 1 is not correct.
  • Arhai (or Adhai) Din ka Jhonpra was constructed during the rule of the Mamluk dynasty, which started during the reign of Qutb-ud-din Aibak.

Hence option 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 32

Which among the following is/are the main reasons behind the flow of Ganga and Brahmaputra river system towards the Bay of Bengal?

  1. Frequent shifting of courses of Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers
  2. Upliftment of Delhi Ridge
  3. Down thrusting of the Malda gap

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 32

It is opined that in due course of time Indo– Brahmaputra river was dismembered into three main drainage systems

the Indus and its five tributaries in the western part;

the Ganga and its Himalayan tributaries in the central part; and of the stretch of the Brahmaputra in Assam and its Himalayan tributaries in the eastern part.

  • The dismemberment was probably due to the Pleistocene upheaval in the western Himalayas, including the uplift of the Potwar Plateau (Delhi Ridge), which acted as the water divide between the Indus and Ganga drainage systems.
  • Likewise, the down thrusting of the Malda gap area between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau during the mid-Pleistocene period diverted the Ganga and the Brahmaputra systems to flow towards the Bay of Bengal.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 33

Consider the following statements:

  1. The State Election Commissions work under the overall supervision of the Election Commission of India.
  2. Delimitation of constituencies for panchayat and municipal elections is done according to the law made by respective state governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 33

Difference between ECI vs SEC

  • Supervision and conduct of elections are entrusted with two constitutional authorities: the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the State Election Commissions (SECs).
  • Set up in 1950, the EC is charged with the responsibility of conducting polls to the offices of the President and Vice President of India, to Parliament, and to the state Assemblies and Legislative Councils. The SECs, which were appointed in each state more than four decades after the EC was set up, supervise municipal and panchayat elections.
  • Although the two authorities have a similar mandate, they are independent of each other and draw powers from different laws. For e.g. The SEC in Bengal draws its powers from the West Bengal State Election Commission Act, 1994. It has nothing to do with the Representation of the People Act, which lays down the EC’s powers. Each SEC is governed by a separate State Act. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Under the Constitution, the establishment of local self-government institutions is the responsibility of the states (entry 5, List II, Seventh Schedule). However, experience showed that not all state governments were serious about empowering Panchayati Raj institutions as elections were not being conducted regularly. The Constitution was amended in 1992 to define the term (five years) for these institutions. Simultaneously, another provision was made for setting up a constitutional authority, the SEC, on the lines of the EC to conduct regular panchayat elections. The SEC was to be appointed by the respective state governments.
  • The provisions of Article 243K of the Constitution, which provides for setting up of SECs, are almost identical to those of Article 324 related to the EC. In other words, the SECs enjoy the same status as the EC. For example, like the removal of a Chief Election Commissioner, the State Election Commissioner can only be removed by impeachment. In 2006, the Supreme Court emphasised that the two constitutional authorities enjoy the same powers. In Kishan Singh Tomar vs Municipal Corporation of the City of Ahmedabad, the Supreme Court directed that state governments should abide by orders of the SECs during the conduct of the panchayat and municipal elections, just like they follow the instructions of the EC during Assembly and Parliament polls.
  • Under Article 243K (4), the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, elections to the Panchayats. Delimitation Commission is constituted by the notification of the state government.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 34

Which of the following are not major tectonic plates?

  1. Antarctica plate
  2. Arabian plate
  3. India-Australia-New Zealand plate
  4. Nazca plate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 34

A tectonic plate (also called lithospheric plate) is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock, generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere.

The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates. Young Fold Mountain ridges, trenches, and/or faults surround these major plates.

The major plates are as follows:

  • Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
  • North American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the South American plate along the Caribbean islands) plate
  • South American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the North American plate along the Caribbean islands) plate
  • Pacific plate
  • India-Australia-New Zealand plate
  • Antarctic Plate containing the continent of Antarctica, the Kerguelen Plateau and extending outward under the surrounding oceans of Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate

Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate

  • Some important minor plates are listed below:
  • Cocos plate: Between Central America and Pacific plate
  • Nazca plate: Between South America and Pacific plate
  • Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass of Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
  • Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea)
  • Fuji plate: North-east of Australia
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 35

Consider the following statements regarding the “United Nations Security Council (UNSC)”?

  1. It was established by the UN Charter in 1945 with its headquarters in New York.
  2. The presidency of the UNSC rotates every month its 15 members.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 35

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) was established by the UN in 1945. The council is headquartered in New York. in 1945. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The council has 15 members: the five permanent members and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms. The five permanent members are the United States, the Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom.

It is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. The other 5 organs of the United Nations are—the General Assembly (UNGA), the Trusteeship Council, the Economic and Social Council, the International Court of Justice, and the Secretariat. Its primary responsibility is to work to maintain international peace and security. Each member of the Security Council has one vote. Decisions of the Security Council on matters are made by an affirmative vote of nine members including the concurring votes of the permanent members.

A "No" vote from one of the five permanent members blocks the passage of the resolution. Any member of the United Nations which is not a member of the Security Council may participate, without vote, in the discussion of any question brought before the Security Council whenever the latter considers that the interests of that member are specially affected. The council's presidency is a capacity that rotates every month among its 15 members. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 36

Emperor Harsha was the contemporary of which of the following kings?

  1. Shashanka
  2. Pulakeshin II
  3. Rajaraja Chola
  4. Amoghavarsha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 36

Harsha was an Emperor who ruled North India from 606 to 647 CE. He was a member of the Vardhana dynasty. His capital was at Kannauj. Shashanka was the first independent king of a unified polity in the Bengal region, called the Gauda Kingdom and is a significant figure in Bengali history. He reigned in the 7th century AD.

  • He was a contemporary of Harsha and also visited his assembly. Pulakeshin II was the most famous ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi. During his reign, the Chalukya kingdom expanded to cover most of the Deccan region in peninsular India.
  • He defeated Harsha on the banks of Narmada and thwarted his southward march. Rajaraja Chola I was a renowned king who ruled over the Chola kingdom of southern India between 985 and 1014 CE.
  • During his reign, the Cholas expanded beyond South India with their domains stretching from Sri Lanka in the south to Kalinga in the north. Raja Raja Chola also launched several naval campaigns that resulted in the capture of the Malabar Coast as well as the Maldives and Sri Lanka.
  • Raja Raja built the Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur, one of the largest Hindu temples. He was not a contemporary of Harsha.
  • Amoghavarsha I was a Rashtrakuta emperor, the greatest ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, and one of the great emperors of India. His reign of 64 years is one of the longest precisely dated monarchical reigns on record. He reigned in the 9th century Deccan and was not a contemporary of Harsha.

Therefore, the correct option is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 37

Which of the following come(s) under the judicial powers of the President of India?

  1. Appointment of the Chief Justice and the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
  2. Appointing a Commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other backward classes.
  3. Appointing the Attorney-General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 37

The judicial powers and functions of the President are

  • He appoints the Chief Justice and the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • He can seek advice from the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact. However, the advice tendered by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President.
  • He can grant pardon, reprieve, respite and remission of punishment, or suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence:
    • In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court-martial;
    • In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union law; and
    • In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death Appointing the Attorney-General of India and appointing a Commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other backward classes come under the Executive powers and functions of the President. So, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 38

Pastoral nomadism is practised in which of the following regions?

  1. Tundra region of Eurasia
  2. South-West Africa
  3. Central China
  4. Island of Madagascar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 38

Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport. They move from one place to another along with their livestock depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water. Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of tradition. Pastoral nomadism is associated with three important regions. The core region extends from the Atlantic shores of North Africa eastwards across the Arabian peninsula into Mongolia and Central China. The second region extends over the tundra region of Eurasia. In the southern hemisphere, there are small areas in South-west Africa and on the island of Madagascar. So, all of the statements are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 39

Consider the following statements with reference to the Tribes Advisory Council:

  1. It has to be established in all the States having tribal areas, as stated in the Constitution.
  2. It has 20 members, three-fourths of which are to be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes of the State concerned in the State Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 39

Each State having scheduled areas (and not tribal areas) has to establish a Tribes Advisory Council to advise on the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes. So, statement 1 is not correct. It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes of the State concerned in the State Legislative Assembly. A similar Council can also be established in a State having Scheduled Tribes but not scheduled areas therein if the President so directs. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 40

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘commercial livestock ranching’:

  1. It is a specialised activity in which different types of animals are reared.
  2. It is primarily associated with western cultures and is practised on permanent ranches.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 40

Commercial livestock ranching is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goats and horses. Products such as meat, wool, hides and skin are processed and packed scientifically and exported to different world markets.

So, statement 1 is not correct. Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western cultures and is practised on permanent ranches. These ranches cover large areas and are divided into several parcels, which are fenced to regulate the grazing. When the grass of one parcel is grazed, animals are moved to another parcel.

The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture. New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay and the United States of America are important countries where commercial livestock rearing is practised. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 41

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF):

  1. It is the USA's statutory commission that monitors the freedom of religion abroad.
  2. It has designated India as a country of ‘particular concern’ in its 2020 Annual Report.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 41

USCIRF is an independent, bipartisan, U.S. federal government Commission created by the 1998 International Religious Freedom Act (IRFA) that monitors the universal right to freedom of religion or belief abroad.
So, statement 1 is correct. USCIRF uses international standards to monitor religious freedom violations globally and makes policy recommendations to the President, the Secretary of State, and the U.S. Congress. The US Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) has designated India as a country of "Particular Concern" (CPC) in its Annual Report of 2020, saying the country was "engaging in and tolerating systematic, ongoing and egregious religious freedom violations."
So, statement 2 is also correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 42

Which of the following is not a part of the Tripitakas?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 42
Tripitaka is the Buddhist canon written in Pali. It contains three parts - Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka. It contains various books. Therigatha, a part of Sutta Pitaka, consists of 73 poems — in which the early nuns (bhikkhunis) recount their struggles and accomplishments along the road to arahantship.

Dhammapada is a collection of sayings of the Buddha in verse form. It is also a part of Sutta Pitaka. Suttavibhanga is the book in Vinaya Pitaka and contains rules for the behaviour of monks. They are called Patimokkha rules. It is divided into two parts, covering the rules for monks and nuns, respectively. Acharanga Sutra is the first of the twelve Angas, part of the agamas (religious texts) which were compiled based on the teachings of Mahavira. Thus, it belongs to Jainism. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 43

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 43
Biotechnology is the technology that utilises biological systems, living organisms or parts of this to develop or create different products. Red biotechnology refers to medical biotechnology as it deals with the production of drugs and dealing with the analysis and cure of diseases. So, pair 1 is correct. Green biotechnology is a branch that deals with the agriculture sector. Agriculture with the study of tissue culture techniques, growing transgenic plants and applications of genetic engineering are few areas covered under green biotechnology. So, pair 2 is not correct. White biotechnology is industry biotechnology dealing with various biotech products. Its main application is the commercial production of various useful organic substances, such as acetic acid, citric acid, acetone and antibiotics like penicillin, streptomycin, and mitomycin. So, pair 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 44

Which of the statements is not correct regarding the Special and Differential Treatment (S&D) provisions under the WTO?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 44
As part of reforms at the WTO, the US wants the formulation of some guidelines that countries with high economic growth are prevented from taking benefits of special and differential treatment (S&DT), which is meant for developing and poor nations. The WTO Agreements contain special provisions which give developing countries special rights and which give developed countries the possibility to treat developing countries more favourably than other WTO Members. These special provisions include, for example, longer periods for implementing agreements and commitments or measures to increase trading opportunities for developing countries. So, statement (a) is correct.

Currently, any WTO member can designate itself as a developing country and avail these benefits. The US had submitted its suggestions to the WTO that states that self-declaration puts the WTO on a path to failed negotiations and it is also a path to institutional irrelevance. So, statement (b) is not correct. In the Doha Declaration, member governments agreed that all special and differential treatment provisions are an integral part of the WTO agreements and that these provisions should be reviewed to strengthen them and make them more effective and operational.

More specifically, the declaration (together with the Decision on implementation-related Issues and Concerns) mandates the Committee on Trade and Development (CTD) to identify which of those special and differential treatment provisions are mandatory and to consider the legal and practical implications of making mandatory those which are currently non- binding.

Also, the Committee is to find ways in which developing countries, particularly the LDCs, may be assisted to make the best use of special and differential treatment. So, statements (c) and (d) are correct. Therefore, the answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 45

Consider the following statements.

  1. Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 notified by the Centre called for a ban on single-use plastics (SUPs) by the end of 2022.
  2. According to the Plastic Waste Management Rules, all states and UTs are required to send annual data to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) on plastic waste.
  3. With the present technology, not more than 75% of the plastics are recyclable.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 45

Single-use plastics (SUPs) are those that are discarded after one-time use. Besides the ubiquitous plastic bags, SUPs include takeaway food containers, disposable cutlery, straws, and stirrers, processed food packets and wrappers, cotton bud sticks, etc. Of these, foamed products such as cutlery, plates, and cups are considered the most lethal to the environment. The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 notified by the Centre called for a ban on “non-recyclable and multi-layered” packaging by March 2018, and a ban on carry bags of thickness less than 50 microns (which is about the thickness of a strand of human hair). The Rules were amended in 2018, with changes that activists say favoured the plastic industry and allowed manufacturers an escape route.

The 2016 Rules did not mention SUPs. On World Environment Day in 2018, India pledged to phase out SUPs by 2022. A notification by the Environment Ministry on Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021, said: “The manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of… single-use plastic, including polystyrene and expanded polystyrene commodities shall be prohibited with effect from the 1st July, 2022.” There is no comprehensive data on the volume of the total plastic waste in the country.

According to the Plastic Waste Management Rules, all states and UTs are required to send annual data to the CPCB; however, many states and UTs have failed to comply. About 94% of plastics are recyclable. India recycles about 60%; the rest goes to landfills, the sea, and waste-to energy plants. Most experts view recycling as an interim measure until plastic is completely phased out from daily use.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of membership to the Lok Sabha.
  2. The territorial representation ensures due representation to minorities in the membership of Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 46

Though the Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of Rajya Sabha, It has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok Sabha. Instead, it has adopted the system of territorial representation for the election of members to the Lok Sabha.

So, statement 1 is not correct. Under territorial representation, every member of the legislature represents a geographical area known as a constituency. From each constituency, only one representative is elected.

Hence such a constituency is known as a single-member constituency. In this system, a candidate who secures the majority of votes is declared elected. This simple majority system of representation does not represent the whole electorate. In other words, it does not secure due representation to minorities (small groups).

So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding the Tiger Triumph exercise:

  1. It is a bilateral tri-service amphibious military exercise between India and the USA.
  2. It is India's first-ever tri-service military exercise with any country.
  3. The exercise took place at Kakinada near Visakhapatnam coast in 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 47

Tiger Triumph is the first U.S.-India military exercise that includes all three of India’s military services - Army, Navy and Air Force. The training focused on humanitarian assistance and disaster relief, and it will include amphibious operations.

So, statement 1 is correct. This exercise took place at Kakinada, off Visakhapatnam coast. The exercise was held in two phases. The harbour phase was held in Visakhapatnam and included training visits, subject matter expert exchanges, sports events and social interactions. Both forces then sailed southward to Kakinada where the second phase took place. So, statement 3 is correct.

India has previously only held tri-service exercises with Russia. So the USA becomes the second country with which India has a trilateral exercise. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 48

Consider the following statements with reference to the State Disaster Relief Fund:

  1. It’s a statutory fund available with State Governments for responses to notified disasters.
  2. The State Government may use up to 90% of the funds for providing immediate relief to the victims of ‘local’ natural disasters, which are not included in the notified list.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 48

The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF), constituted under Section 48(1)(a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, is the primary fund available with State Governments for responses to notified disasters. The Central Government contributes 75% of SDRF allocation for general category States/UTs and 90% for special category States/UTs (NE States, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir). The annual Central contribution is released in two equal instalments as per the recommendation of the Finance Commission.

SDRF shall be used only for meeting the expenditure for providing immediate relief to the victims. So, statement 1 is correct. Disaster(s) covered under SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost and cold waves. Local Disaster: A State Government may use up to 10 percent of the funds available under the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural disasters that they consider to be ‘disasters’ within the local context in the State and which are not included in the notified list of disasters of the Ministry of Home Affairs subject to the condition that the State Government has listed the State-specific natural disasters and notified clear and transparent norms and guidelines for such disasters with the approval of the State Authority, i.e., the State Executive Authority (SEC).

So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 49

Who among the following used Urdu for the first time for poetic expression?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 49
He was an intellectual giant of many languages, with knowledge of Turkish, Arabic, Persian and the vernaculars of northern India — the Khariboli, (Urdu and Hindi both being developed forms of it). He also learned Sanskrit. Khusrow is also regarded as the “father of qawwali”, and introduced the ghazal style of song into India.

He is considered the father of Urdu literature. His poetry is written in Hindavi which is a mixture of Persian and other North Indian languages of that era including Awadhi and Braj bhasha. He authored over 90 books. His famous book entitled Rahat-ul-Mohibbeen encompasses the discourses of Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya. But he is known and popular for his “paheliyan” and “Dohas”, which form part of Indian folklore. Rest of the poets are famous Urdu poets belonging to the later Mughal era. Amir Khusro belongs to the heyday of the Sultanate era. Therefore, the correct answer is (d)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 50

Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. All Fundamental Rights are enforceable in the court of law, whereas it is not the same case with Fundamental Duties.
  2. All Fundamental Rights are available to citizens only, whereas Fundamental Duties are a set of duties for all those residing in India.
  3. All Fundamental Rights were present even in the original Constitution, whereas all Fundamental Duties were added later.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 50

Fundamental Rights is a charter of rights contained in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the Constitution of India. These Fundamental Rights are important as they possess intrinsic value. Part III of the Constitution does confer Fundamental Rights and confirms their existence and gives them protection. These are enforceable rights, as their violation can amount to appeal to the Supreme Court under Article 32. Some of the Fundamental Rights are also available to foreigners. Fundamental Rights cannot be diluted or abridged by any other ordinary legislation. It can only be diluted or abridged by amending the Constitution itself.

And as ruled by the Supreme Court in many judgments, the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be altered. On the other hand, any other legal right may be diluted by ordinary legislation. Thus with the evolution of the Constitution, many new rights were added to Part III of the Constitution. When the Constitution was adopted in the year 1949, it did not contain a provision for Fundamental Duties.

The Parliament realised the need for inserting the Fundamental Duties as a part of the Indian Constitution and required every citizen of India to adhere to those duties. By the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, a new part (Part IVA) was inserted for providing Fundamental Duties of a citizen of India. These are non- Justiciable by nature, that is, their violation doesn’t amount to appeal before the courts as a matter of right. So, statement 1 is correct and statements 2 and 3 are not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 51

Injeti Srinivas Committee was formed for making recommendations on

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 51
Injeti Srinivas Committee: A High Level Committee on CSR was formed in 2018 under the Chairmanship of Injeti Srinivas. The main recommendations included making CSR expenditure tax deductible, allowing the carry-forward of unspent balance for a period of 3-5 years, and aligning Schedule VII of the Companies Act with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 52

Which of the following statements is/are the characteristics of the welfare approach to Human Development?

  1. This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities.
  2. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.
  3. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - Question 52

1. This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities.

The welfare approach to Human Development is primarily focused on providing basic needs and improving the well-being of individuals. It views people as recipients of development efforts, such as healthcare, education, and social services. This approach aims to ensure that the benefits of development are directly channeled to individuals, especially the poor and marginalized, to improve their living conditions.

2. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.

This statement describes the human development approach, rather than the welfare approach. The human development approach goes beyond just providing basic needs and focuses on enhancing people's capabilities and choices to improve their overall quality of life. It emphasizes building human capabilities in areas such as health, education, and access to resources, enabling people to participate in the development process actively and make informed decisions about their lives.

3. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.

This statement is characteristic of the welfare approach to Human Development. The welfare approach primarily focuses on the provision of basic needs, such as food, shelter, healthcare, and education, to specific vulnerable groups. It does not pay much attention to the aspect of human choices or empowering individuals to participate in the development process actively. The emphasis is on ensuring that people's basic needs are met, rather than on expanding t