UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 below.
Solutions of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 questions in English are available as part of our course for UPSC & UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 solutions in Hindi for UPSC course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding tardigrades:

1) They are known as water bears and often found on lichens and mosses.

2) They can survive in extreme cold and hot temperatures.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 1
Tardigrades, also known as water bears or moss piglets, are small invertebrate animals that are found in a variety of habitats including lichens, mosses, and other plant matter. They are known for their ability to survive extreme conditions, including extreme cold and hot temperatures, desiccation (lack of water), and exposure to high levels of radiation. They are able to survive these extreme conditions by entering a state of suspended animation, in which their metabolic activity slows down significantly, allowing them to survive for extended periods of time without food or water. Tardigrades are also very small, typically measuring only a few millimeters in length, and are found on every continent, including Antarctica.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 2

In the context of the Second Anglo-Maratha War, consider the following statements:

1) It resulted in the British gaining Odisha, while the Marathas gained territories north of the Yamuna river.

2) The Battle of Assaye and the Battle of Laswari are related to the Second Anglo-Maratha war.

Q.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 2
The Second Anglo-Maratha War was a conflict that took place in India between 1803 and 1805, and resulted in the defeat of the Maratha Confederacy by the British East India Company. The conflict began after the Maratha Confederacy, which was a group of Maratha states in western and central India, refused to accept the British demand for tribute and instead formed an alliance with the French. The war was fought in several major battles, including the Battle of Assaye and the Battle of Laswari, which were both significant victories for the British. The war did not result in any territory exchanges between the British and the Marathas, and instead resulted in the British gaining greater control over the Maratha states and establishing a stronger presence in India.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 3

With reference to Indo-Russia relations, consider the following statements:

1. Both countries regularly conduct the Tri-Services exercise ‘INDRA’.

2. INS Vikramaditya, the sole aircraft carrier operated by India, is also Russian in origin.

3. Both India and Russia are implementing the Rooppur Nuclear Power Project in Bangladesh.

4. India and Russia have only one inter-governmental commission i.e., on Military-Technical

Cooperation (IRIGC- MTC).

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 3
Tri-Services exercise ‘INDRA’ is a joint training between Indian and Russian Armies to jointly plan and conduct counter-terror operations under the UN mandate. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

INS Vikramaditya is Russian in origin. It is a former USSR carrier vessel and entered into service with the Indian Navy in 2013. Launched in the early 1980s. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Rooppur project is the first initiative under an Indo-Russian deal to undertake atomic energy projects in Bangladesh. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

India and Russia have two Inter-Governmental Commissions – one on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), and another on Military-Technical Cooperation (IRIGC- MTC). Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, (D) is the answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 4

Which of the following statements regarding the photic zone of an aquatic ecosystem is/are correct?

  1. It is the lowest layer of the aquatic ecosystem, where light penetration is restricted.
  2. Both photosynthesis and respiration activities take place in this region.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 4

Based on light penetration and plant distribution, aquatic ecosystems are classified as photic and aphotic zones

Photic zone: Photic zone (euphotic zone, epipelagic zone) is the uppermost layer of the ocean that receives sunlight, enabling it to perform photosynthesis. It undergoes a series of physical, chemical, and biological processes that supply nutrients into the upper water column. So, statement 1 is not correct.

The photic zone is home to the majority of marine life, due to its location. Ninety per cent of marine life lives in the photic zone, which is approximately two hundred meters deep. This includes phytoplankton (plants), including dinoflagellates, diatoms, cyanobacteria, and zooplankton, which are known as the consumers in the photic zone. Both photosynthesis and respiration activities take place in this zone. So, statement 2 is correct.

Aphotic zone is the portion of a lake or ocean where there is little or no sunlight. It is formally defined as the depths beyond which less than 1% of sunlight penetrates. The aphotic zone is positioned below the littoral and photic zones to the bottom of the lake, where light levels are too low for photosynthesis. Respiration occurs at all depths, so the aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption. Only respiration activities take place this

deep, the unlit region is also known as the profundal zone.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The President of the Board of Control became the Minister for Indian Affairs, while the Board was empowered to superintend all administrative affairs in India.

  2. The Governor-General in Council was empowered to legislate for the whole of British Territories in India, and these laws were to be applicable to all persons.

Q. Which of the following British-era legislation resulted in the changes mentioned above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 5
The Charter Act of 1833 was a British legislative act that made several significant changes to the administration of British India. One of the main provisions of the act was the creation of the Secretary of State for India, who was responsible for the administration of British India and was also the President of the Board of Control. The Board of Control was a body that oversaw the administration of British India and was empowered to superintend all administrative affairs in India. The act also granted the Governor-General in Council the power to legislate for the whole of British India, and these laws were to be applicable to all persons within the territories. The Charter Act of 1833 was one of several acts passed by the British Parliament that regulated the administration of British India and shaped the development of the country during the colonial period.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding ozone:

  1. It is a more stable allotrope of oxygen than diatomic oxygen.

  2. It is found mainly in stratosphere, between 100 and 500 km from the Earth’s surface.

  3. UV rays that are absorbed by the ozone layer are harmful only to animals on Earth and not to plants.

Q. Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 6

Ozone, or trioxygen, is an inorganic molecule with the chemical formula O3. It is a pale blue gas with a distinctively pungent smell. It is an allotrope of oxygen that is much less stable than the diatomic allotrope O2, breaking down in the lower atmosphere to O2. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Ozone is found mainly in the upper atmosphere, an area called the stratosphere, between 10 and 50 km from the Earth’s surface. Though it is talked of as a layer, ozone is present in the atmosphere in rather low concentrations. Even at places where this layer is thickest, there are not more than a few molecules of ozone for every million air molecules. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Ozone molecules perform a vital function. By absorbing the harmful ultraviolet radiations from the Sun, the ozone molecules eliminate a big threat to life forms on Earth. UV rays can cause skin cancer and other diseases and deformities in plants and animals both. As UV rays interact with cells, they interact with surfaces of both animals and plants. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 7

Which of the following statements best describes a Nidhi Company?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 7
A Nidhi company is a type of non-banking financial company (NBFC) in India that is registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Nidhi companies are specifically formed for the purpose of borrowing and lending money amongst their members, and they operate on a mutual benefit basis. They are typically owned and controlled by their members, who are also their borrowers and lenders. Nidhi companies are required to follow the regulations and guidelines set by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). They are not allowed to lend to non-members or raise money from the public, and their primary business activity must be borrowing and lending to their members. The liability of the members of a Nidhi company is limited to their agreed contribution in the company.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 8

Consider the following statement with reference to Judicial Review:

  1. It is essential for maintaining Judicial Supremacy.

  2. It is essential for checking the possible misuse of power by the Legislature and the Executive.

  3. It is a device for protecting the rights of the people and strengthening democracy.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 8
Judicial Review is a process under which the Executive actions or the Legislative statutes are subject to review by the higher Judiciary. A court with authority for Judicial Review may invalidate Laws, Acts and governmental actions that are incompatible with a higher authority: an Executive decision may be invalidated for being unlawful or a statute may be invalidated for violating the terms of a Constitution. It has been playing an

important and desired role in the protection and development of the Constitution. It has helped the Supreme Court of India in exercising its constitutional duties as the final interpreter of the Constitution.

  • Judicial Review is essential for maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution (and not Judicial Supremacy). So, statement 1 is not correct.

  • It is essential for checking the possible misuse of power by the Legislature and the Executive. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Judicial Review is a device for protecting the rights of the people and hence strengthens democracy. So, statement 3 is correct.

  • It is essential for securing the independence of the Judiciary by strengthening its own position vis-a-vis the Executive and the Legislature.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding Corona bonds:

  1. The European Union has floated Corona bonds to fight the Covid-19 pandemic and its effects.

  2. It is designed to support governments in economically weaker countries in the European Union by channelling funds from more affluent countries.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 9
Corona bond is a proposed debt instrument in Euro-Zone that uses a common currency. It is not proposed in the European Union. The Euro-zone is a geographical and economic zone consisting of EU member states which have adopted the Euro as their common currency. The Euro-zone is the concrete evidence of European integration, and 19 countries out of 28 EU members adopted the Euro as their common currency. So,

statement 1 is not correct.

The Euro-zone is to issue debt through its bailout fund jointly. It has done so in the past through the European Stability Mechanism, which borrows on the market against the security of its capital provided by Euro-zone governments. It is about pooling liabilities and not channelling funds from one country to another. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 10

Which of the following variables are used to calculate the Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index published by the UNDP?

  1. Nutrition

  2. Child Mortality

  3. Learning outcomes

  4. Access to drinking water

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 10
The Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is a measure of poverty that was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to provide a more comprehensive and nuanced understanding of poverty than traditional measures that focus solely on income. The MPI is calculated using a combination of variables that reflect different dimensions of poverty, including nutrition, child mortality, and access to education, health care, and other basic services. The MPI uses three dimensions of poverty: health, education, and living standards, which are further sub-divided into ten indicators. The indicators used to calculate the MPI include malnutrition, child mortality, years of schooling, school attendance, access to clean water, electricity, and other basic services. Access to drinking water is one of the indicators used to measure living standards.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 11

Consider the following statements.

  1. Thermal power plants are the largest consumers of coal in India.

  2. Commission for Air Quality Management coordinates air pollution norms in Delhi and adjoining States.

  3. Commission for Air Quality Management is a statutory body established by the government that replaced the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA).

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 11
The use of coal as fuel in industrial, domestic units will be banned in the National Capital Region (NCR) from January 2023 but the ban wouldn’t apply thermal power plants — incidentally the largest users of coal, according to a notification by the Commission for Air Quality Management, that coordinates air pollution norms in Delhi and adjoining States.

The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is a statutory body formed under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas, Act 2021.

The CAQM has replaced the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) which was appointed by the Supreme Court.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 12

Consider the following statements.

  1. A neural network is an Artificial Intelligence (AI) tech that attempts to mimic the web of neurons in the brain to learn and behave like humans.

  2. Facial recognition software, voice recognition software and the Translate apps are the examples for Artificial Intelligence (AI).

  3. CAPTCHA test aims to limit technology access to humans and keep the bots away.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 12
Facebook’s facial recognition software which identifies faces in the photos we post, the voice recognition software that translates commands we bark at Alexa, and the Google Translate app are all examples of AI tech.

We use the CAPTCHA, to limit technology access to humans and keep the bots at bay. A CAPTCHA ("Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart") is a type of challenge–response test used in computing to determine whether the user is human.

A neural network is an AI tech that attempts to mimic the web of neurons in the brain to learn and behave like humans. Early efforts in building neural networks targeted image recognition.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 13

Consider the following statements about certain constitutional provisions.

  1. Provisions relating to persons with disability and old age are provided for both in Directive Principles of State Policy (Part V) and Fundamental Duties (Part IVA).

  2. Provisions relating to prevention of substance abuse are provided for in Fundamental Rights (Part III).

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 13
The Constitution of India has several provisions that relate to the rights and duties of citizens, including provisions for the protection of the rights of persons with disabilities and the elderly, and provisions for the prevention of substance abuse. However, these provisions are not found in the same parts of the Constitution.

Provisions relating to the rights and welfare of persons with disabilities and the elderly are found in Part III (Fundamental Rights) and Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Constitution. Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, and this right extends to the protection of the life and dignity of persons with disabilities and the elderly. The Directive Principles of State Policy, which are contained in Part IV of the Constitution, also contain provisions that require the state to take measures to ensure the welfare of persons with disabilities and the elderly, and to protect and improve the environment for the benefit of future generations.

Provisions relating to the prevention of substance abuse are not found in Part III (Fundamental Rights) or Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Constitution. Instead, these provisions are found in various laws that have been enacted by the Indian Parliament, such as the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, and the Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 14

Innate immunity employs which of the following barriers in humans?

  1. Acid in the stomach

  2. Eye tears

  3. Mucus coating lining the respiratory tract

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 14
Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense against infections and other external threats. It consists of a series of physical, chemical, and biological barriers that help to prevent the entry of pathogens into the body and protect against infection. Some of the barriers employed by innate immunity in humans include:
  1. Acid in the stomach: The stomach produces hydrochloric acid, which helps to kill bacteria and other pathogens that enter the body through the digestive system.

  2. Eye tears: Tears contain enzymes and antibodies that help to kill bacteria and other pathogens that come into contact with the eyes.

  3. Mucus coating lining the respiratory tract: The respiratory tract is lined with mucus, which helps to trap and remove particles, including pathogens, from the air we breathe.

Together, these barriers form a vital part of the body's immune system and help to protect against infections and other external threats.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 15

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Saka era was founded by King Gandharvasena of the Shatavahana dynasty.

  2. The Saka era is used to indicate the year by Gazette of India and All India Radio News Broadcast.

Q. Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 15
The Saka era is a historical era used in India that is based on the traditional Indian calendar. It is also known as the Saka samvat or the Saka calendar. The Saka era was founded by King Shalivahana of the Shatavahana dynasty, who ruled in western and central India in the 2nd century CE. The Saka era is used to indicate the year in the traditional Indian calendar, and it is also used in official government communications and documents, such as the Gazette of India and All India Radio News Broadcast. However, it is not used as a commonly accepted system of dating in India, and the Gregorian calendar is more widely used for civil and official purposes.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 16

According to a new study, around one in 500 men could be carrying an extra X or Y chromosome (either XXY or XYY). Such people are at increased risk of

1. Type 2 diabetes

2. Pulmonary embolism

3. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

4. Venous thrombosis

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 16
Around one in 500 men could be carrying an extra X or Y chromosome, most of them unaware, according to researchers at the universities of Cambridge and Exeter. This puts them at increased risk of diseases such as type 2 diabetes, atherosclerosis and thrombosis, the researchers report in a study published in Genetics in Medicine.

Sex chromosomes determine our biological sex. Men typically have one X and one Y chromosome, while women have two Xs. However, some men also have XXY or XYY.

Men with either XXY or XYY had higher risks of several other health conditions. They were three times more likely to have type 2 diabetes, six times more likely to develop venous thrombosis, three times as likely to experience pulmonary embolism, and four times more likely to suffer from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 17

The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment currently extends assistance to Non-Governmental Organizations working for the welfare of disadvantaged sections of the society. Which of the following types of organizations is/are eligible to get assistance?

1. Body registered under the Society's Registration Act, 1860.

2. Indian Red Cross Society or its branches

3. A for-profit body with at least two years of experience in social welfare

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 17
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is a government ministry in India that is responsible for the welfare of disadvantaged and marginalized sections of society, including persons with disabilities, Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs). The ministry provides financial and technical assistance to Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) that are working for the welfare of these disadvantaged groups.

According to the guidelines of the ministry, NGOs that are eligible to receive assistance include bodies that are registered under the Society's Registration Act, 1860, and the Indian Red Cross Society or its branches. For-profit bodies are not eligible to receive assistance from the ministry. The ministry provides assistance to NGOs based on their experience in social welfare and the extent to which they are able to contribute to the welfare of disadvantaged groups in society.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 18

Consider the following statements.

1. Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Kerala.

2. Yakshagana is a temple art form that depicts mythological stories and Puranas.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 18
Justification: Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Karnataka. It is a temple art form that depicts mythological stories and Puranas. It is performed with massive headgears, elaborate facial make-up and vibrant costumes and ornaments. Usually recited in Kannada, it is also performed in Malayalam as well as Tulu (the dialect of south Karnataka).

It is performed with percussion instruments like chenda, maddalam, jagatta or chengila (cymbals) and chakratala or elathalam (small cymbals).

More than 900 Yakshagana scripts, including the ones printed in 1905 and 1907, have now been digitised and made available online for free, thanks to the voluntary community effort by some Yakshagana lovers who did it under the banner Yakshavahini, a registered trust.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 19

Consider the following with regards to Special Central Assistance (SCA) to Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan (SCSP) where 100% assistance is given as an additive to SCSP of the States/ UTs on the basis of certain criteria. These criteria include

1. Extent of protected forest area in the state

2. Relative backwardness of the states/UT

3. Geographical area of the state

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 19
Justification: Special Central Assistance (SCA) to Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan (SCSP): It is a policy initiative for development of Scheduled Castes in which 100 % assistance is given as an additive to SCSP of the States/ UTs on the basis of certain criteria such as SC population of the States/UTs, relative backwardness of States/UTs, percentage of SC families in the States/ UTs

covered by composite economic development programmes in the State Plan to enable them to crossthe poverty line, etc.

It is an umbrella strategy to ensure flow of targeted financial and physical benefits from all the general sectors of development for the benefit of Scheduled Castes. Under this Scheme, the States/UTs are required to formulate and implement Special Component Plan (SCP) for Scheduled Castes as part of their annual plans by earmarking resources.

Learning: Scheme of Assistance to Scheduled Castes Development Corporations (SCDCs): Share Capital contribution is released to the State Scheduled Castes Development Corporations (SCDCs) under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in the ratio of 49:51 between Central Government and State Governments.

There are in total 27 such State-level Corporations which are working for the economic development of Scheduled Castes, although some of these Corporations are also catering to the requirements of other weaker sections of the Society, e.g. Scheduled Tribes, OBCs, Minorities etc.

The main functions of SCDCs include identification of eligible SC families and motivating them to undertake economic development schemes, sponsoring the schemes to financial institutions for credit support, providing financial assistance in the form of the margin money at a low rate of interest, providing subsidy out of the funds made available to the States under the Scheme of Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan of the States to reduce the repayment liability and providing necessary tie up with other poverty alleviation programmes.

The SCDCs are playing an important role in providing credit and missing inputs by way of margin money loans and subsidy to the target group. The SCDCs finance the employment oriented schemes covering diverse areas of economic activities which inter-alia include (i) agriculture and allied activities including minor irrigation (ii) small scale industry (iii) transport and (iv) trade and service sector.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 20

Consider the following with regards to Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS).

  1. BEPS refers to the phenomenon where companies invest in a host country via shell companies situated in tax havens to reduce their tax liability.

  2. The Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent BEPS is an outcome of the World Economic Forum BEPS Project.

  3. India recently ratified the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent BEPS.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 20
Justification: Statement 1: Base erosion and profit shifting refers to the phenomenon where companies shift their profits to other tax jurisdictions, which usually have lower rates, thereby eroding the tax base in India. The companies need not invest via shell companies to be accused of BEPS.

Statement 2 and 3: India in July 2019 ratified the international agreement to curb base erosion and profits shifting (BEPS)– Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures.

The Convention is an outcome of the OECD / G20 BEPS Project to tackle base erosion and profit shifting through tax planning strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low or no-tax locations where there is little or no economic activity, resulting in little or no overall corporate tax being paid.

Learning: Under BEPS Action 13, all large multinational enterprises (MNEs) are required to prepare a country-by-country (CbC) report with aggregate data on the global allocation of income, profit, taxes paid and economic activity among tax jurisdictions in which it operates. This CbC report is shared with tax administrations in these jurisdictions, for use in high level transfer pricing and BEPS risk assessments.

The Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) Action 13 report (Transfer Pricing Documentation and Country-by-Country Reporting) provides a template for multinational enterprises (MNEs) to report annually and for each tax jurisdiction in which they do business the information set out therein. This report is called the Country-by-Country (CbC) Report.

What CBC contains?

Aggregated country-by-country information relating to the global allocation of income, the taxes paid, and certain other indicators of a multi-national company.

A list of all the constituent entities of the multi-national company operating in a particular jurisdiction and the nature of the main business activity of each constituent entity.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 21

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding plastic waste?

1. Extended Producer Responsibility has been given legal force through Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021.

2. Different types of plastic including PET (Polyethylene Terephthalate), used to make soft drink bottles and clothing are found in Antarctica’ Ross ice shelf.

3. Biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water indicates plastic pollution of the water body.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 21
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) was introduced through Plastic Waste Management Rule 2016 but has been given legal force through Plastic Waste Management (PWM) Amendment Rules, 2021.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

Researchers gathered samples of snow from 19 different sites in the Ross Ice Shelf in Antarctica and discovered plastic particles in all of them.

There were 13 different types of plastic found, with the most common being PET (Polyethylene Terephthalate), commonly used to make soft drink bottles and clothing.

The possible sources of microplastics were examined. Hence statement 2 is correct. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) indicates the amount of oxygen demand for both organic and inorganic substances in the water body. So, COD is the true indication of pollution in any water body. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is the amount of dissolved oxygen (DO) needed to break down organic material present in a given water or water body.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 22

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Jal Jeevan Mission?

1. It was launched under the stewardship of the Ministry of Rural Development.

2. It is solely focused on grey water management.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 22
Jal Jeevan Mission was launched in 2019, it envisages supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.

JJM looks to create a jan andolan for water, thereby making it everyone’s priority. It comes under Jal Shakti Ministry. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The mission ensures functionality of existing water supply systems and water connections, water quality monitoring and testing as well as sustainable agriculture. It also ensures conjunctive use of conserved water, drinking water source augmentation, drinking water supply system, grey water treatment and its reuse.

Hence, statement 2 is not correct

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 23

National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment 2021 is released by which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 23
The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions released National eGovernance Service Delivery Assessment 2021 to boost the e-government endeavors at all levels of governance and also to embark on the journey for Digital Government excellence.

The framework covers services under G2B (Government to Businesses) and G2C (Government to Citizens) segments under six sectors viz. Finance, Labour & Employment, Education, Local Government & Utilities, Social Welfare (including Agriculture & Health) and Environment (including Fire) sectors.

Therefore, option C is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 24

Which of the following Policies, Acts, or Programmes have a bearing on the welfare and maintenance of Senior Citizens?

1. National Policy on Ageing, 2017 (NPOA)

2. Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act

3. Central Sector Scheme of “Integrated Programme for Older Persons”(IPOP)

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 24
Background: Constant increase in life expectancy due to improvement in the health care facilities over the years is one of the main reasons for rapid increase in proportion of population of Senior Citizens.

As per Census 2011, the total population of Senior Citizens (people aged 60 years and above) is 10.38 crore, of which population of males and females are 5.11 crore and 5.27 crore respectively.

The share of senior citizens in the total population as per Census 2011 is 8.57%. As per the May 2006 Report of the “Technical Group on Population Projections” constituted by the National Commission on Population published by the Office of the Registrar General of India this share is expected to increase to 10.70 % in 2021 and to 12.40% in 2026.

Justification: S1: No such policy was released in 2017.

The following Policies, Act, and Programmes which aim at welfare and maintenance of Senior Citizens, especially for indigent senior citizens, are being dealt with in the Ageing Division:-

1. National Policy on Older Persons (NPOP) –The existing National Policy on Older Persons (NPOP) was announced in January 1999 to reaffirm the commitment to ensure the well-being of the Older Persons. The Policy envisaged State support to ensure financial and food security, health care, shelter and other needs of Older Persons, equitable share in development, protection against abuse and exploitation, and availability of services to improve the quality of their lives. Keeping in view the changing demographic pattern, socio-economic needs of the Senior Citizens, social value system and advancement in the field of science and technology over the last decade, a new National Policy for Senior Citizens is under finalization to replace the NPOP, 1999.

2. Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 (MWPSC Act) - The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens (MWPSC) Act, 2007 was enacted in December 2007 to ensure need based maintenance for Parents and Senior Citizens and their welfare.

3. Central Sector Scheme of “Integrated Programme for Older Persons”(IPOP) - Under the Scheme, financial assistance is provided to Government/ Non-Governmental Organizations/Panchayati Raj Institutions/ local bodies etc. for running and maintenance of various projects for the welfare of indigent Senior Citizens under the Scheme of IPOP.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 25

With reference to the Centre for Indian Knowledge Systems (CIKS), consider the following.

1. It looks into the root of ancient knowledge systems to gain a strong understanding of their workings and rationale.

2. It awards Geographical Indication (GI) tags to Indian heritage products.

3. It is responsible for regulating biopiracy in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 25
Justification: CIKS was registered as an independent trust in 1995. The activities of the centre are supported through grants from government agencies, private agencies, donations from individuals and the sale of educational and training material.

Statement 1: For e.g. CIKS is developing methods for organic vegetable cultivation using recipes found in Vrkshayurveda, for e.g. treating with milk and ghee will help latex yielding verities give a bumper harvest

The understanding and knowledge gained by CIKS is then leveraged to develop solutions that are practical and feasible in today's context.

Its community seed bank project is aimed at identifying important traditional seed varieties and orienting the agricultural community towards conserving and cultivating them.

Learning: CIKS initiatives in biodiversity conservation have helped farmers in Tamil Nadu conserve over 180 indigenous seed varieties - hence protecting the dwindling genetic base and giving farmers a way to beat stress situations.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 26

Which of the following best describes the term ‘presumption of constitutionality’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 26
Presumption of constitutionality is a legal principle that is used by courts to interpret laws made by the Parliament or other legislative bodies. Under this principle, courts assume that laws passed by the legislature are constitutional, unless there is strong evidence to the contrary. This principle is based on the idea that the legislature is a democratically elected body that represents the will of the people, and that its laws are therefore generally consistent with the Constitution Presumption of constitutionality is an important principle in constitutional law, as it helps to ensure that the laws of the country are interpreted and applied in a way that is consistent with the Constitution. It is often applied by courts when considering challenges to the constitutionality of laws, and it requires the party challenging the law to present strong evidence that the law is unconstitutional. This principle applies to both federal and state laws in many countries, including India, the United States, and Canada.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 27

Consider the following statements with reference to Mahatma Jyotirao Phule:

  1. He was influenced by some western thinkers and their ideas on social justice.

  2. He argued that the Aryans were foreigners, who came from outside and defeated and subjugated the true children of the country.

  3. He formed the Satyashodhak Samaj to focus on the rights of the depressed classes and the issue of women empowerment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 27
Mahatma Jyotirao Phule was a social reformer and activist from India who is best known for his work on social justice and equality. Phule was influenced by the ideas of western thinkers on social justice, and he was a strong advocate for the rights of the oppressed and marginalized communities in India. He argued that the Aryans were foreigners who came to India from outside and defeated and subjugated the true children of the country, and he believed that the caste system in India was a tool of oppression that was used to keep these communities subjugated.

To further his work on social justice and equality, Phule formed the Satyashodhak Samaj, an organization that focused on the rights of the depressed classes and the issue of women empowerment. Through his work with the Satyashodhak Samaj and other organizations, Phule made significant contributions to the social and political landscape of India, and he is widely regarded as one of the pioneers of social reform in the country.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 28

India enacted the “Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act, 2001” to comply with obligations to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 28
India enacted the "Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001" to comply with its obligations under the World Trade Organization (WTO). The Act is designed to protect the rights of farmers and plant breeders, and to encourage the development of new plant varieties in India. It provides a legal framework for the protection of plant varieties, and establishes a system for the grant of plant breeders' rights. The Act also requires that farmers be granted certain rights, such as the right to save, use, sow, resow, exchange, share, or sell farm-saved seed/propagating material of protected varieties.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding the species of crocodilians:

1) The gharial is not found outside India and Nepal.

2) The gharial is listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List.

3) All three species of crocodilians are found only in the state of Odisha.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 29
Odisha has renewed its efforts to revive the population of gharials in their natural habitat by releasing five reptiles, fitted with radio transmitters, into the Satkosia gorge of Mahanadi - the southernmost limit of gharials’ home range in India.

Its scientific name is Gavialis Gangetic. As compared to alligators and crocodiles, a gharial has a very long and narrow snout (instead of a broad snout). They are a fresh-water crocodile. Gharial prefers deep fast flowing rivers, however adult gharial has also been observed in still water branches (jheel) of rivers and in comparatively velocity-free aquatic environments of deep holes (kunds) at river bends and confluences.

Globally Gharial is found only in India and Nepal. In India too, the major ‘breeding’ populations are confined to two rivers only:

  • River Girwa: It originates in Nepal and runs through Katerniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary.

  • River Chambal: It supports the largest population of Gharials in the wild.

So, statement 1 is correct.

The three species of crocodilians found in India are:

(1) Gharial (Or freshwater crocodile),

(2) Saltwater crocodile; and

(3) Mugger crocodile.

It has been listed as critically endangered in the IUCN Red List since 2007. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Odisha is the only state in India having all three species — Gharial, Mugger, and Saltwater crocodile. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 30

Consider the following statements with reference to Minor Forest Produce:

1. They provide both subsistence and cash income for people who live in or near forests.

2. It is strongly linked to women’s financial empowerment as most of the Produces are collected and used/sold by women.

Q. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 30
Minor forest produce (MFP) refers to a diverse range of non-timber forest products that are collected from forests for subsistence or commercial purposes. These products include items such as bamboo, honey, resin, gum, lac, wax, leaves, nuts, berries, and medicinal plants, among others.

Statement 1 is correct. Minor forest produce plays an important role in the livelihoods of people who live in or near forests. It provides both subsistence and cash income for these communities, as they use these products for their own consumption or sell them in local markets.

Statement 2 is also correct. Minor forest produce is strongly linked to women's financial empowerment, as many of these products are collected and used/sold by women. Women often play a significant role in the collection, processing, and marketing of MFP in many communities, and the income generated from the sale of these products can contribute to their economic independence and empowerment.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 31

With reference to Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY), Consider the following statements:

1. It meant to highlight the cause of physically disabled persons and provide them with a congenial environment

2. It provides aids and assistive living devices to senior citizens belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) category

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 31
Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) is a central sector scheme funded from the Senior Citizens’ Welfare Fund. The fund was notified in the year 2016.

It aims to provide aids and assistive living devices to senior citizens belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) category who suffer from age-related disabilities such as low vision, hearing impairment, loss of teeth and locomotor disabilities.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 32

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Neobanks ?

1. They work independently and not in partnership with traditional banks.

2. PayPal is an example of Neobank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 32
A neobank is a kind of digital bank without any branches. Rather than being physically present at a specific location, neobanking is entirely online.

Neobanks are financial institutions that give customers a cheaper alternative to

traditional banks.

They leverage technology and artificial intelligence to offer personalised services to customers while minimising operating costs.

Neobanks work independently or in partnership with traditional banks. Neobanks partner with regulated banks/NBFCs and offer financial services without any physical branches. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

PayPal is not a Neobank. It's an electronic commerce company that facilitates payments between parties through online transfers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 33

Consider the following with regards to Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY).

1. It is being implemented for integrated development of Scheduled Tribes (ST) majority villages and districts.

2. The scheme is funded jointly by the Centre and the States.

3. Each village selected for the scheme is to be adopted by a Member of Parliament (MP).

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 33
Justification: Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY): The Centrally Sponsored Pilot Scheme ‘Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana’ (PMAGY) is being implemented for integrated development of Scheduled Castes (SC) majority villages having SC Population concentration > 50%.

Initially the scheme was launched in 1000 villages in 5 States viz. Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu. The Scheme was further revised w.e.f. 22.01.2015 and extended to 1500 SC majority villages in Punjab, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh,

Telangana, Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, West Bengal and Odisha. The principal objective of the Scheme is integrated development of SC Majority Villages:

  1. Primarily through convergent implementation of the relevant Central and State Schemes;

  2. By providing these villages Central Assistance in form of gap-filling funds to the extent of Rs.20.00 lakh per village, to be increased by another 5 lakh if State make a matching contribution.

  3. By providing gap-filling component to take up activities which do not get covered under the existing Central and State Government Schemes are to be taken up under the component of ‘gap filling’.

To ensure all round development of the selected villages, so that they can indeed become ‘Adarsh Grams’, the said Scheme has been recently revised to capture the Gaps in critical socio-economic ‘Monitorable Indicators’ as part of various sectors/domains. These domains include water and sanitation, education, health and nutrition, agricultural best practices etc. amongst others.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 34

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 34
Initiatives Related to Handicrafts Sector

Ambedkar Hastshilp Vikas Yojana:

  • To support artisans with their infrastructure, technology and human resource development needs. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.

  • The objective of mobilising artisans into self-help groups and societies with the agenda of facilitating bulk production and economies in procurement of raw materials.

Mega Cluster Scheme:

  • The objective of this scheme includes employment generation and improvement in the standard of living of artisans. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

  • This programme follows a cluster-based approach in scaling infrastructure and production chains at handicraft centres, specifically in remote regions.

Comprehensive Handicrafts Cluster Development Scheme:

  • The approach of this scheme is to scale up infrastructure and production chain at handicraft clusters. Additionally, this scheme aims to provide adequate infrastructure for production, value addition and quality assurance. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

  • Here, Pair 1 and Pair 3 are not correctly matched, but Pair 2 is correctly matched. Therefore, option A is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 35

Bharat Gaurav Scheme, recently in news, is associated to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 35
Bharat Gaurav Scheme is a theme-based tourist circuit train, run by both private players and IRCTC, in theme-based circuits.

Under this scheme, trains now have a third segment for tourism. Till now, the Railways had passenger segments and goods segments.

These trains are not regular trains that will run as per a timetable but will be more on the lines of the Ramayana Express being run by the IRCTC.

Hence, option D is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 36

Consider the following with regards to Limited Liability Partnership (LLP).

1. In a LLP, one partner is not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence.

2. LLP is considered a body corporate and a legal entity separate from its partners.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 36
Justification: A Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is a partnership in which some or all partners have limited liability. It therefore exhibits elements of partnerships and corporations. In an LLP, one partner is not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence.

Salient features of an LLP:

  • An LLP is a body corporate and legal entity separate from its partners. It has perpetual succession.

  • Being the separate legislation (i.e. LLP Act, 2008), the provisions of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 are not applicable to an LLP and it is regulated by the contractual agreement between the partners.

Every Limited Liability Partnership shall use the words “Limited Liability Partnership” or its acronym “LLP” as the last words of its name.

Learning: Ministry of Corporate Affairs introduces the “Companies Fresh Start Scheme, 2020” and revised the “LLP Settlement Scheme, 2020” to provide relief to law abiding companies and Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs) in the wake of COVID 19.

What do these schemes entail?

These schemes incentivise compliance and reduce compliance burden during the unprecedented public health situation caused by COVID-19.

The schemes provide a one-time waiver of additional filing fees for delayed filings by the companies or LLPs with the Registrar of Companies during the currency of the Schemes, i.e. during the period starting from 1stApril, 2020 and ending on 30th September, 2020.

They also significantly reduce the related financial burden on them, especially for those with long standing defaults, thereby giving them an opportunity to make a “fresh start”.

Both the Schemes also contain provision for giving immunity from penal proceedings, including against imposition of penalties for late submissions.

They also provide additional time for filing appeals before the concerned Regional Directors against imposition of penalties, if already imposed.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 37

The main objectives of OceanSat-2 are to study

1. Surface winds and ocean surface strata

2. Monitoring of phytoplankton blooms in the ocean

3. Study of atmospheric aerosols and suspended sediments in the ocean water

Consider the following with regards to Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 37
Launched in 2009, it is designed to provide service continuity for operational users of the Ocean Colour Monitor (OCM) instrument on Oceansat-1.

The main objectives of OceanSat-2 are to study surface winds and ocean surface strata, observation of chlorophyll concentrations, monitoring of phytoplankton blooms, study of atmospheric aerosols and suspended sediments in the water.

The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has reported that Oceansat Satellite data are used to prepare the Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ) advisories on the potential rich fishing areas and provide to the sea faring fishermen in all states.

How are these zones identified?

This methodology utilizes data on chlorophyll concentration (Chl) obtained from ISRO’s Oceansat-2 satellite and the sea surface temperature from National Oceanic Atmospheric Administration (NOAA / USA satellites).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 38

Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC), 2011, is a study of socio economic status of both rural and urban households coordinated by the Department of Rural Development. SECC used explicit ‘inclusion’ and ‘exclusion’ criteria to rank households in the census. Which of these is/are such inclusion criteria?

1. Possession of a Kisan Credit Card

2. Manual scavenger families

3. Primitive tribal groups

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 38
Background: SECC-2011 is a study of socio economic status of rural and urban households and allows ranking of households based on predefined parameters. SECC 2011 has three census components which were conducted by three separate authorities but under the overall coordination of Department of Rural Development in the Government of India.

Census in Rural Area has been conducted by the Department of Rural Development (DoRD). Census in Urban areas is under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA). Caste Census is under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs: Registrar General of India (RGI) and Census Commissioner of India.

Ministry of Rural Development commenced the Socio-Economic Caste Census-2011 on 29th June, 2011 through a comprehensive door to door enumeration across the country.

Justification: Total Excluded Households (based on fulfilling any of the 14 parameters of exclusion -

i. Motorized 2/3/4 wheeler/fishing boat.

ii. Mechanized 3-4 wheeler agricultural equipment.

iii. Kisan credit card with credit limit of over Rs. 50,000/-.

iv. Household member government employee.

v. Households with non-agricultural enterprises registered with government.

vi. Any member of household earning more than Rs. 10,000 per month.

vii. Paying incometax.

viii. Paying professional tax.

ix. 3 or more rooms with pucca walls and roof.

x. Owns a refrigerator.

xi. Owns landline phone.

xii. Owns more than 2.5 acres of irrigated land with 1 irrigation equipment.

xiii. 5 acres or more of irrigated land for two or more crop season.

xiv. Owning at least 7.5 acres of land or more with at least one irrigation equipment.

Automatically included (based on fulfilling any of the 5 parameters of inclusion -

i. Households without shelter.

ii. Destitute, living on alms.

iii. Manual scavenger families.

iv. Primitive tribal groups.

v. Legally released bonded labour.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 39

National Highway 231 of India is most likely to be a

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 39
Numbering of highways is based on a consistent system. Three digit numbered highways are secondary routes or branches of a main highway. So, A is the answer. NH 231 passes through Ambedkarnagar- Banda (UP).

All North-South highways will carry EVEN number

All East-West highways will have ODD numbers

All major Highways will be single digit or double digit in number.

North-South highways will increase their numbers from East to West. For example, a particular North-South highway in Central India or Western India will have a higher number than the one in East India. For e.g. NH4 is somewhere in East India where as highway 44 may be towards the west of India while both runs north-south due to the even numbering.

Similarly East-West highways will increase their numbers as we move from North to South.

For e.g. NH1 will be running East-West somewhere in North India while NH 83 may be somewhere down south.

There may be confusion among some roads that may be running diagonally in stretches.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 40

Consider the following about cross-pollination.

1. In cross-pollination, the pollen moves from plant to plant carried mainly by wind or other pollinating agents.

2. Self-pollination is not possible for a plant species outside of laboratory conditions.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 40
Self-pollination occurs when the pollen from the anther is deposited on the stigma of the same flower, or another flower on the same plant. Cross-pollination is the transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on a different individual of the same species.

Cross-pollination: the pollen of one plant fertilizes the ovum of another plant of the same species giving outcrossing or outbreeding. In cross-pollination, the pollen moves from plant to plant carried mainly by wind for some crops or mainly by insects, often bee species, for others. The success of cross-pollination depends on the synchrony of flowering, the longevity of pollen, and sexual compatibility.

Cross-pollinating plants often have the male and female reproductive units on separate plants (termed dioecious). If they are on the same plant, there is self-incompatibility in which the pollen from that plant will not fertilize the female reproductive unit on that plant. With some outcrossing plant species (e.g., apple and cherry), there is interspecific incompatibility between certain varieties but other varieties are compatible. There is usually incompatibility between different species.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 41

With reference to the Agnipath Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It allows patriotic and motivated youth to serve in the Armed Forces for a period of three years.

2. The youth joining the Army will be called Agnigrahi.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 41
Recently, the Government of India has unveiled the Agnipath scheme for recruiting soldiers across the Three services (Army, Navy and Airforce).

Under Agnipath scheme, around 45,000 to 50,000 soldiers will be recruited annually, to serve in the Armed Forces for a period of four years. Hence, statement 1 is not

Correct.

However, after four years, only 25% of the batch will be recruited back into their respective services, for a period of 15 years.

The youth joining the Army will be called Agniveer. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Upon the completion of the 4-years of service, a one-time ‘Seva Nidhi’ package of Rs 11.71 lakhs will be paid to the Agniveers that will include their accrued interest

thereon.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 42

The objectives of “India Handloom Brand” are

1. To ensure social and environmental compliances in production of handlooms

2. To earn the trust of consumers by endorsing the quality of handloom products on certain quality parameters

3. To provide complete tax exemption to the units that qualify under the India Handloom Brand

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 42

Background: A Handloom Mark Scheme was launched by the Government of India in 2006 to provide assurance to the consumers about authenticity of handloom products.

However, it did not cover the aspect of product quality assurance.

Therefore, the India Handloom brand is an initiative for branding of high quality handloom products with zero defects and zero effect on the environment.

Justification: It would differentiate high quality handloom products and help in earning trust of customers by endorsing their quality in terms of raw materials, processing, embellishments, weaving design and other quality parameters and by ensuring social and environmental compliances in their production.

The registration for India Handloom will be granted to certain specified eligible entities in respect of identified product categories which meet prescribed quality parameters.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 43

Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) has been reported to be caused in India by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 43
Acute encephalitis syndrome is a basket term used for referring to hospitals, children with clinical neurological manifestation that includes mental confusion, disorientation, convulsion, delirium, or coma.

Meningitis caused by virus or bacteria, encephalitis (mostly Japanese encephalitis) caused by virus, encephalopathy, cerebral malaria, and scrub typhus caused by bacteria are collectively called acute encephalitis syndrome.

Cause of the disease:

  • Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) is considered a very complex disease as it can be caused by various agents including bacteria, fungi, virus and many other agents.

  • Viruses are the main causative agents in AES cases, although other sources such as bacteria, fungus, parasites, spirochetes, chemicals, toxins and non-infectious agents have also been reported over the past few decades.

  • Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV) is the major cause of AES in India (ranging from 5%-35%).

  • Nipah virus, Zika virus are also found as causative agents for AES.

Learning: The disease most commonly affects children and young adults and can lead to considerable morbidity and mortality.

It is characterized as acute-onset of fever and a change in mental status (mental confusion, disorientation, delirium, or coma) and/or new-onset of seizures in a person of any age at any time of the year.

How is it related to litchi fruits? How it affects?

In India, AES outbreaks in north and eastern India have been linked to children eating unripe litchi fruit on empty stomachs.

Unripe fruit contain the toxins hypoglycin A and methylenecyclopropylglycine (MCPG), which cause vomiting if ingested in large quantities. Hypoglycin A is a naturally occurring amino acid found in the unripened litchi that causes severe vomiting (Jamaican vomiting sickness), while MCPG is a poisonous compound found in litchi seeds.

Measures needed:

  • Increase access to safe drinking water and proper sanitation facilities.

  • Improve nutritional status of children at risk of JE/AES.

  • Preparative measures to be in place before the possible outbreaks.

  • Vector control.

  • Better awareness generation among children, parents through Anganwadi workers, ANMs etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 44

The main objective of e-Kranti is to accelerate e-governance across India. The key principles of e-Kranti are?

1. ICT Infrastructure on Demand

2. Phasing out Cloud storage for enhanced security

3. Mobile First

4. Language Standardization and language Globalization

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 44
The vision is to ensure government-wide transformation by delivering all government services electronically to citizens via integrated, interoperable systems through multiple modes.

Using e-governance to transform governance, the mission of e-Kranti is to: Make all government services accessible to the public in their locality via Common Service Delivery outlets; ensure efficiency, transparency and reliability in such services at affordable costs; and realise the basic needs of common people."

The objectives of 'e-Kranti' are as follows:

  • To redefine NeGP with transformational and outcome oriented e-Governance initiatives.

  • To enhance the portfolio of citizen centric services.

  • To ensure optimum usage of core Information & Communication Technology (ICT).

  • To promote rapid replication and integration of eGov applications.

  • To leverage emerging technologies.

  • To make use of more agile implementation models.

The key principles of e-Kranti are as follows:

  • Transformation and not Translation.

  • Integrated Services and not Individual Services.

  • Government Process Reengineering (GPR) to be mandatory in every MMP.

  • ICT Infrastructure on Demand.

  • Cloud by Default.

  • Mobile First.

  • Fast Tracking Approvals.

  • Mandating Standards and Protocols.

  • Language Localization.

  • National GIS (Geo-Spatial Information System).

  • Security and Electronic Data Preservation.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with respect to National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI):

1. It is a “Not for Profit” Company set up under the Companies Act, 2013 with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India.

2. It is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 45
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.

It is a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 46

Which of the following is the best combination for a material to be used as a fuse in the circuit?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 46
A fuse is a short piece of metal, inserted in the circuit, which melts when excessive current flows through it and thus breaks the circuit. The fuse element is generally made of materials having a low melting point, high conductivity and least deterioration due to oxidation e.g., silver copper etc. It is inserted in series with the circuit to be protected. Under normal operating conditions, the fuse element is at a temperature below its melting point. Therefore, it carries the normal current without overheating. However, when a short-circuit or overload occurs, the current through the fuse increases beyond its rated value. This raises the temperature and fuse element melts (or blows out), disconnecting the circuit protected by it. In this way, a fuse protects the machines and equipment from damage due to excessive currents. So, option (b) is the right combination.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 47

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 47
The PNP is in East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. It lies on the left and right banks of the river Godavari and cuts through the Papikonda hill range of Eastern Ghats. The majority of the area of the park is covered with moist deciduous forests and includes animal species such as tigers, mouse deer, gaur, etc.

Recently, the Forest Department and experts from Kerala and north-eastern states will begin the maiden survey of butterfly species in the Papikonda National Park (PNP). So, statement 1 is not correct.

Gorumara National Park is a National Park in northern West Bengal, India. It is located in the duars region of the Himalayan foothills; it is a medium-sized park with grasslands and forests. It is primarily known for its population of Indian rhinoceros. So, statement 2 is correct.

The Dyanganga Sanctuary is situated in the Buldhana district of Maharashtra. It is a part of the Melghat Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra. It is located near the Dyanganga River which is a tributary of the Tapti River.

Recently a tiger travelled 1300 km distance between Maharashtra and Telangana passing through Dyanganga Wildlife Sanctuary and Tipeshwar Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 48

Consider the following statements regarding the Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP):

1. The programme was taken up by NITI Aayog in 2018.

2. The ADP is essentially aimed at localizing Sustainable Development Goals.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 48
The Aspirational Districts Programme was launched in 2018 by Niti Aayog which aims to transform districts that have shown relatively lesser progress in key social areas.

Aspirational Districts are those districts in India that are affected by poor socio-economic indicators. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Broad Contours of the Programme:

  • Convergence (of Central & State Schemes)

  • Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors),

  • Competition among districts through monthly delta ranking.

Objectives of ADP:

  • It focuses on the strength of each district, identifying low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement and measuring progress by ranking districts on a monthly basis.

  • The Government is committed to raising the living standards of its citizens and ensuring inclusive growth for all – “Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas aur Sabka Vishwas”.

  • The ADP is essentially aimed at localizing Sustainable Development Goals, leading to the progress of the nation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 49

Which of the following events is not associated with Gandhiji’s work in South Africa?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 49
Gandhiji started weekly Indian Opinion in 1903 with the support of Natal Indian Congress, his clients and other notable Indians. The newspaper was published in Gujarati, Hindi, Tamil and English. In 1904, Gandhi relocated

the publishing office to his settlement in Phoenix, located close to Durban. So, statement (a) is correct.

The Immigration Law stated that any Indian had to return to India at the end of a five-year indenture period or had to be re-indentured for further two years. If he refused, an amount of £3 annual tax had to be paid.

Gandhiji protested against this law. So, statement (b) is correct.

During the outbreak of the Boer War in 1899, Gandhiji gathered around 1,100 Indians and organised the Indian Ambulance Corps for the British, not against them. However, ethnic discrimination and torture against Indians continued later. So, statement (c) is not correct.

Supreme Court in South Africa ruled that only Christian marriages were legal in South Africa, turning at one stroke all Indian marriages in South Africa invalid and all Indian wives into concubines. This provoked Indian women, including, Kasturba, to join the struggle with Gandhiji. So, statement (d) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 50

Which of the following statements regarding the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 50
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only international organization dealing with the global rules of trade. Its main function is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible. It provides a rule-based, transparent and predictable, multilateral trading system. The WTO rules envisage non-discrimination in the form of National Treatment and Most Favoured Nation (MFN) treatment to India’s exports in the markets of other WTO Members. So, statement (a) is correct.

The WTO is run by its member governments. All major decisions are made by the membership as a whole, either by ministers (who meet at least once every two years) or by their ambassadors or delegates (who meet regularly in Geneva). Decisions are normally taken by consensus. So, statement (b) is correct.

The topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every two years. It brings together all members of the WTO, all of which are countries or customs unions. The Ministerial Conference can take decisions on all matters under any of the multilateral trade agreements. So, statement (c) is not correct.

The World Trade Organization (WTO) came into being as a result of the evolution of the multilateral trading system starting with the establishment of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in 1947. The protracted Uruguay Round negotiations spanning the period 1986–1994, which resulted in the establishment of the WTO, substantially extended the reach of multilateral rules and disciplines related to trade in goods and introduced multilateral rules applicable to trade in agriculture (Agreement on Agriculture), trade in services (General Agreement on Trade in Services—GATS) as well as Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). So, statement (d) is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 51

Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty enshrined in the Indian Constitution?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 51
Article 51-A states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
  1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideal and institutions

  2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom

  3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. So, option (a) is correct.

  4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

  5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women

  6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. So, option (c) is correct.

  7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wild-life and to have compassion for living creatures

  8. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform. So, option (d) is correct.

  9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

  10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement

  11. Who is a parent or guardian, to provide opportunities for education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years (added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act).

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 52

Consider the following statements with reference to the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):

1. It is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union consisting of all Arab states of the Persian Gulf.

2. All of its current member states are monarchies.

3. The GCC accounts for more than 80% of India’s total oil imports.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 52
The Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf, originally (and still colloquially) known as the Gulf Cooperation Council, is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union consisting of all Arab states of the Persian Gulf except Iraq, namely: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. So, statement 1 is not correct.

All current member states are monarchies, including three constitutional monarchies (Qatar, Kuwait, and Bahrain), two absolute monarchies (Saudi Arabia and Oman), and one federal monarchy (the United Arab Emirates, which is composed of seven member states, each of which is an absolute monarchy with its own emir). So, statement 2 is correct.

The GCC accounts for 42 % of India’s total oil imports (nearly a fifth of India’s crude oil requirements, 18%, is met by Saudi Arabia). India’s dependence on the GCC states has further increased after it was compelled to reduce its oil imports from Iran in 2019, after the US ended the waiver that it had earlier granted to India and other countries regarding the purchase of oil from Iran). So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 53

Consider the following statements regarding the usage of fertilisers in India:

  1. Majority of the requirement of nitrogenous fertilizers in India is fulfilled by imports.

  2. The ratio of fertiliser use is highly skewed in favour of nitrogenous fertiliser against phosphatic and potash fertilisers.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 53
Nitrogenous (N) or Urea fertilizer is the most produced (86%), the most consumed (74%) fertilizer in India. India produces about 80 per cent of its Urea fertilizer needs and the fertilizer industry has the capacity to indigenously meet 50 percent of the country’s phosphatic fertilizers. But India still depends heavily on imports for the raw ingredients for its phosphate (P) and potassium (K) fertilizers. So, statement 1 is not correct.

According to Economic Survey 2013-14, the N:P:K ratio for all India average was 8.2:3.2:1 in 2012-2013 against an ideal recommended 4:2:1. In Punjab and Haryana, two of India’s top agrarian states, the ratio was 25.8:5.8:1 and 22.7:6.1:1, respectively. So, statement 2 is correct.

Excessive use of N (urea) encourages climate change (when lost through denitrification) and groundwater pollution (when lost through leaching). Increase in nitrate content of groundwater in some intensively cropped areas has been reported, which is obviously due to leaching of nitrates beyond the crop root zone. Increase in nitrate content of groundwater is potentially harmful, as it is used for drinking purposes in most of the rural areas.

The Prime Minister in 2017 gave a call to halve urea consumption by 2022. Taking steps in this direction government has proposed to focus on resource-efficient and eco-friendly “zero budget natural farming” in the Budget 2019-20.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 54

Consider the following statements with reference to the Certificate of Origin:

1. It is mandatory for exporters availing benefits under trade agreements between the countries.

2. This Certificate helps in preventing the dumping of goods.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 54
Certificate of Origin is an instrument which establishes evidence on the origin of goods imported into any country. These certificates are essential for exporters to prove where their goods come from and therefore stake their claim to whatever benefits, goods of that importing country may be eligible for in the country of exports. Exporters have to submit a certificate of origin at the landing port of the importing country. India has asked the countries, with which it has free trade agreements (FTAs), to allow imports of goods without the certificate of origin for the time being as the domestic authorities are currently not issuing the document on account of lockdown due to COVID-19 pandemic. The government has allowed issuing certificates of origin-retrospectively to eligible exports under various India’s trade agreements with other countries as offices temporarily closed and unable to issue the certificate of origin. So, statement 1 is correct.

The Certificate helps check the dumping of goods as products of other countries cannot be diverted to claim benefits under FTA. It prevents goods from countries on which anti-dumping duty has been levied from being diverted to FTA member countries. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Dumping – Dumping is when a country or company exports a product at a price that is lower in the foreign importing market than the price in the exporter's domestic market. Because dumping typically involves substantial export volumes of a product, it often endangers the financial viability of the product's manufacturers or producers in the importing nation.

The biggest advantage of dumping is the ability to flood a market with product prices that are often considered unfair. Dumping is legal under WTO rules unless the foreign country can reliably show the negative effects the exporting firm has caused its domestic producers.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 55

Which of the following can be the constitutional grounds for removal of a High Court judge?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 55
A Judge may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on the grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. While the Constitution does not use the word ‘impeachment’, it is colloquially used to refer to the proceedings under Article 124 (for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge) and Article 218 (for the removal of a High Court Judge).

The Constitution provides that a Judge can be removed only by order of the President, based on a motion passed by both the Houses of Parliament. The procedure for removal of the Judges is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968. So, option (c) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 56

Consider the following statements regarding Hybrid Vehicles:

1. It is based on the basic principle that different motors/engines work better at different speeds.

2. They cannot travel a longer distance than electric vehicles.

3. It has two electric motors that operate simultaneously.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 56
The basic principle with hybrid vehicles is that the different motors work better at different speeds; the electric motor is more efficient at producing torque, or turning power, and the combustion engine is better for maintaining high speed. So, statement 1 is correct.

Switching from one engine to another, at the proper time while speeding up yields a win-win in terms of energy efficiency. Hybrid vehicles can travel a longer distance than conventional electric vehicles. This is due to the presence of dual modes of the locomotive (Hybrid). So, statement 2 is not correct.

A hybrid vehicle uses two or more distinct types of power, such as the internal combustion engine to drive an electric generator that powers an electric motor. Other means to store energy include pressurised fluid in hydraulic hybrids. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 57

The theory of the three Sangams establishes that, chronologically, these were

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 57
The Sangam period extended from roughly 400 BC to 200 AD (early Chola period before the interregnum), when the earliest extant works of Tamil literature were written.

The traditional accounts of Iraiyanar Ahapporul mention that there were three Sangams (I, II and III) held, which flourished for 9990 years at frequent intervals.

These were attended by over 8598 scholars. Sage Agastyar was the founding father. The Ahapporul commentary also mentions about their successive order and the deluges occurring during the intervals between them.

These Sangams or academies were patronized by 197 Pandyan kings. According to the tradition, of the three successive Sangams the first two belong to prehistory. All the three were held in the capital of the Pandyas.

As the capital was shifted from time to time, old Madurai was the headquarters of the first Sangam, and the second academy was held at Kapatapuram. Both these centres were washed away by the sea during successive deluges. The third Sangam was located in modern Madurai.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 58

The ruling monarchs of these three chiefdoms were together called as muventars:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 58
Justification: The ruling monarchs of three chiefdoms of the Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas togetherwere called muventars.

The Cholas ruled over the fertile Kaveri basin with Uraiyur as its capital and the important port was Puhar or Kaveripattinam. The most important ruler of this kingdom was Karikal.

The Pandyas ruled over the pastoral and littoral parts with Madurai as capital and Korkai as important port. Nedunjeliyan was the most famous king.

The Cheras controlled the hilly region in the west with Vanji or Karur as its capital and Muciris as the well known port.

The important ruler of the kingdom was Udeyinjiral. The king was called the ventan, and this was not only the time of great kings but also great chieftains who were subordinates of the kings. These chieftains were divided into two—velir and non-velir. There were three kinds of chiefdoms in Tamilakam— Velir or bigger chiefs, Vedar or the biggest chiefs and Kizar who were headman of a small village (ur) bound the kingship. Ashokan edicts also mention the muventars.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 59

The Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, are the set of rules under The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, which has provisions for classification of drugs into different schedules and also guidelines for storage, sale, display. Consider the following about Schedule H1 drugs.

1. All the antibiotics have been classified under H1.

2. Schedule H1 drugs cannot be purchased based on self-medication.

3. The government has recently notified an anti-malarial drug hydroxychloroquine under Schedule H1.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 59
Schedule H1 has been introduced through Gazette notification GSR 588 (E) dated 30-08-2013 to check the indiscriminate use of antibiotics, anti-TB and some other drugs in the country.

The schedule contains certain 3rd and 4th generation antibiotics (not all the antibiotics), certain habit forming drugs and anti-TB drugs.

As per government notification, these drugs are required to be sold in the country with the following conditions:

  • The supply of a drug specified in Schedule H1 shall be recorded in a separate register at the time of the supply giving the name and address of the prescriber, the name of the patient, the name of the drug and the quantity supplied and such records shall be maintained for three years and be open for inspection.

  • The drug specified in Schedule H1 shall be labelled with the symbol Rx which shall be in red and conspicuously displayed on the left top corner of the label, and shall also be labelled with the following words in a box with a red border:

Statement 3: The government has notified anti-malarial drug hydroxychloroquine under Schedule-H1.

  • This was done in exercise of its powers conferred by Section 26B of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 (23 of 1940).

  • The move is aimed at stopping misuse of the drug which has now been allowed by the government for prophylactic use in high risk contacts of Covid-19 patients and healthcare workers treating such patients.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 60

Consider the following about Ethyl Mercaptan.

1. It is a non-toxic non-flammable gas.

2. It is found naturally in small quantities in Petroleum.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 60
IUPAC (International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry) name for the chemical is Ethanethiol. Alternate name for the substance is Ethyl Mercaptan.

It is a colorless gas or clear liquid with a distinct odor. It is highly flammable and toxic.

It occurs naturally as a minor component of petroleum. Ethanethiol is intentionally added to butane and propane to impart an easily noticed smell to these normally odorless fuels that pose the threat of fire, explosion, and asphyxiation. At these concentrations, ethanethiol is not harmful.

In the underground mining industry, ethanethiol or ethyl mercaptan is referred to as "stench gas".

The gas is released into mine ventilation systems to alert mine workers during an emergency. In Ontario, mining legislation dictates that "The alarm system in an underground mine shall, consist of the introduction into all workplaces of sufficient quantities of ethyl mercaptan gas or similar gas to be readily detectable by all workers".

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 61

Overseas citizens of India (OCIs) are allowed to and enjoy parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in which of the following respects?

1. Practicing a private profession in India

2. Registration as a voter

3. Equality of opportunity in public employment

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 61
They enjoy parity with non-resident Indians in respect of inter-country adoption of Indian children.

Entry fees for visiting the national monuments, historical sites and museums in India.

Practicing the following professions in India, in pursuance of the provisions contained in the relevant Acts, namely: Doctors, dentists, nurses and pharmacists etc.

They are not entitled to the following:

  • under article 16 of the Constitution with regard to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

  • under article 58 of the Constitution for election as President.

  • under article 66 of the Constitution for election of Vice-President.

  • under article 124 of the Constitution for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

  • under article 217 of the Constitution for appointment as a Judge of the High Court.

  • under section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950(43 of 1950) in regard to registration as a voter.

  • under sections 3 and 4 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) with regard to the eligibility for being a member of the House of the People or of the Council of States, as the case maybe.

  • OCI is not to be misconstrued as 'dual citizenship'.

  • A registered Overseas Citizen of India is granted multiple entry, multi purpose, life-long visa for visiting India, he/she is exempted from registration with Foreign Regional Registration Officer

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 62

With the reference to Theri Desert, consider the following statements:

1. It is situated in the state of Andhra Pradesh.

2. It consists of red sand dunes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 62
Theri desert is situated in the state of Tamil Nadu and is confined to Thoothukudi district. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The red dunes are called ‘theri’ in Tamil. They consist of sediments dating back to the Quaternary Period and are made of marine deposits.

They have very low water and nutrient retention capacity. The dunes are susceptible to aerodynamic lifts. This is the push that lets something move up. It is the force that is the opposite of weight.

The iron-rich heavy minerals like ilmenite, magnetite, garnet, hypersthene and rutile

present in the soil had undergone leaching by surface water and were then oxidized

because of the favorable semi-arid climatic conditions.

It was due to these processes that the dunes near Tiruchendur, a coastal town of Thoothukudi district are red-colored. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 4 - Question 63