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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 1

Consider the following pairs:

Q. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 1
Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Raigad district, Maharashtra, India. It was created in 1986 to conserve some of the coastal woodland ecosystems of the Western Ghats and consists of 6,979 ha (17,250 acres) of forest, grasslands, and wetlands. The sanctuary is rich in flora and fauna. The forest types are semi-evergreen, evergreen, mixed and dry deciduous forests. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Malai Mahadeshwara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka. Recently a final proposal was made before NTCA to notify the sanctuary as a tiger reserve. Once notified, the Chamarajanagar district will have a rare distinction in the country of harbouring three tiger reserves. It already has Bandipur and Biligiri Ranganatha Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve within its territorial limits. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Recently, Kawal Tiger Reserve is increasingly getting threatened by growing human encroachment rampant poaching and habitat loss. Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in Adilabad district, Telangana. Government of India declared Kawal wildlife sanctuary as Tiger Reserve in 2012. It is the oldest sanctuary in the northern Telangana region. It is well known for its abundant flora and fauna. This sanctuary is a catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 2

Which of the following defence equipments of India are imported from Israel?

1. Phalcon AWACS (Airborne Warning And Control Systems).

2. Heron drones

3. INS Chakra submarine

4. Barak anti-missile defence systems

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 2
Defence Cooperation between India and Israel:
  • India imports critical defence technologies from Israel.

  • There are regular exchanges between the armed forces.

  • There is cooperation on security issues, including a Joint Working Group on CounterTerrorism.

  • Indian armed forces use Israeli Phalcon AWACS (Airborne Warning And Control Systems),

Heron drones to Barak anti-missile defence systems. Hence, option 1, 2 and 4 is correct.

INS Chakra: A submarine of the Russian Akula-2 Class, INS Chakra was commissioned into the Indian Navy on April 4, 2012 and was based in Visakhapatnam. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.

India is also in talks with Russia to lease two nuclear-ballistic submarines, Chakra 3 and Chakra 4, the first of which is expected to be delivered by 2025.

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 3

In which of the following ways the process of calcification affects an irrigated land?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 3
Unlike eluviation, podzolisation and leaching processes, which involve the net down profile movement of soil components, calcification and salinization involve the upwards movement of soluble salts in the soil water.

Calcification tends to occur in a semi-arid and arid area, where evapotranspiration exceeds rainfall. Seasonal percolation of water down through the profile takes soluble salts down to the lower horizons but isn’t sufficient to totally leach them out of the profile. This is augmented by some upward capillary movement of groundwater bringing with it more salts. This leads to the deposition of calcium carbonate (or in some cases gypsum) in the lower soil horizons. The calcium carbonate may precipitate throughout the soil as fine powdery crystals, or it may form discrete concretions and nodules. So, option (b) is correct.

Salinization is a process that functions in a similar way to calcification. It differs from calcification in that the salt deposits occur at or very near the soil surface. Salinization also takes place in much drier climates.

Salinization occurs in arid areas where rainfall is insufficient to leach soluble salts from the soil, whilst evapotranspiration causes the capillary movement of groundwaters containing soluble salts, up through the profile. This leads to increased salinity in the upper soil horizons and can lead to the formation of a salt crust. So, option (c) is not correct.

Saline soils are toxic to many plants; hence salinization has implications for agricultural sustainability.

Increasing soil salinity, for example, is thought to have been an increasing problem in Mesopotamian agriculture. So, statement (a) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding the Parliament of India:

1. Its control over the Executive is an extension of the principle of Parliamentary Supremacy.

2. It ascertains the accountability of the Executive through various Parliamentary Committees.

3. It discusses various issues of national and international significance under its deliberative function.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 4
The Constitution of India established a parliamentary form of government in which the Executive is responsible to the Parliament for its policies and acts. Hence, the Parliament exercises control over the Executive through Question Hour, Zero Hour, Half-An-Hour Discussion, Short Duration Discussion, Calling Attention Motion, Adjournment Motion, No-Confidence Motion, Censure Motion and other discussions. It also supervises the activities of the Executive with the help of its Committees like Committee On Government Assurance, Committee On Subordinate Legislation, Committee On Petitions, etc. The Ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok

Sabha in particular. However, there is no parliamentary supremacy in India. There is only constitutional supremacy. Thus statement 1 is not correct.

The parliamentary control over government and administration in India is more theoretical than practical. In reality, the control is not as effective as it ought to be. The Parliament has less time and expertise to control the administration which has grown in volume as well as complexity. Parliament’s financial control is also hindered by the technical nature of the Demands for Grants. Parliamentary Committees have access to expert opinion, more time to deliberate and shown a prominent role in exercising effective check over the Executive. So, statement 2 is correct.

The Parliament serves as the highest deliberative body in the country. It discusses various issues of national and international significance. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 5

Which of the following statements best describes ‘Plant-based meat’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 5
Plant-based meats are made through unique combinations of plant-derived ingredients and other non-animal products. Cultured meat, also known as cell-based meat, is grown in bioreactors using techniques derived from cellular agriculture. Protein products are also produced by microbes such as algae, yeast, fungi and bacteria.

Plant-based meats are made from plants and are free from cholesterol and antibiotic, but they taste and feel like meat. Cultivated meat is produced by taking a small sample of animal cells and replicating them outside of the animal; the resulting product is real meat, but without the antibiotics, E. coli, almonella, or animal waste. They are made to mimic properties found within natural meats and are considered to be meat substitutes. Compared to meat products, plant-based meats— for the most part — offer consumers a more sustainable and environmentally friendly line up of meat alternatives. These foods represent an enormous opportunity to solve the problems of rampant malnutrition, low farmer

incomes, antibiotic dependency, and inhumane factory farming of animals.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 6

The terms Golden Triangle and Golden Crescent are used in the context of

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 6
The Golden Crescent and the Golden Triangle are the names given to the two of Asia's principal areas of illicit opium production.

The Golden Crescent overlaps three nations, Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan, whose mountainous peripheries define the crescent. Whereas, the Golden Triangle is the area where the borders of Thailand, Laos and Myanmar meet at the confluence of the Ruak and Mekong rivers.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 7

Which of the following are the part of the Pacific Island Countries?

1. Cook Islands

2. Fiji

3. Republic of Marshall Islands

4. Papua New Guinea

5. Solomon Islands

6. Tonga

Select the correct option

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 7
The Foreign Minister of China is currently on an eight-day visit to ten Pacific Island Countries (PICs), and has co-hosted with Fiji the Second China-Pacific Island Countries.
  • The Pacific Island Countries are a cluster of 14 states which are located largely in the tropical zone of the Pacific Ocean between Asia, Australia and the Americas.

  • They include Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Republic of Marshall Islands, Federated States of Micronesia (FSM), Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu.

  • The islands are divided on the basis of physical and human geography into three distinct parts Micronesia, Melanesia and Polynesia.

  • The islands are very small in land area, and are spread wide across the vast equatorial swathe of the Pacific Ocean.

  • The Network is also supported by Australia, a developed country partner that has continuously provided support to the network.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 8

Consider the following statements with reference to lithium-ion batteries:

1. They are considered to be less toxic than conventional batteries.

2. They are not used in Indian electric vehicles sector due to regulatory restrictions.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 8
A lithium-Ion battery or Li-Ion battery is a rechargeable type of battery which features lithium ions that moves from the negative electrode to the positive electrode during discharge and comes back to its original points while charging. Since Li-ion batteries contain less toxic metals than other types of batteries which may contain lead or cadmium, they are generally categorized as non-hazardous waste.

Li-ion battery elements including iron, copper, nickel and cobalt are considered safe for incinerators and landfills. These metals can be recycled, but mining generally remains cheaper than recycling. So, statement 1 is correct.

Lithium-ion batteries are used in the Indian Electric vehicles sector and have already been introduced into the market. Electric cars, 2-wheelers and 3-wheelers are already available in the Indian market.

So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 9

Which of the following statements is not correct with reference to a Money Bill?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 9
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of Money Bills. It states financial matter like an imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government; The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund etc.

It can only be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final. His decision in this regard cannot be questioned in any court of law or in either House of the Parliament or even by the President. When a Money Bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendation and presented to the President for assent, the Speaker endorses it as a Money Bill. So, option (a) is correct.

It can be introduced only by a minister, as s/he is a part of the treasury bench that needs financial resources at its disposition to implement executive actions. So, option (b) is correct.

It cannot be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha should return the Bill with or without recommendations, which may be accepted or rejected by the Lok Sabha. It can be detained by the Rajya Sabha for a maximum period of 14 days only. So, option (c) is correct.

It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President. So, option (d) is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 10

Which of the following is/are reasons for the occurrence of many important battles at Panipat?

  1. Panipat had a strategic location which made it convenient for locations like Khyber pass and Delhi.

  2. Panipat’s surrounding region has a mountainous terrain which was suitable for guerrilla movement—the main mode of warfare at the time.

  3. The duration of monsoon rainfall in the region is long in comparison to other areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 10
Panipat had a strategic location. One of the parties of the war generally came from the north/northwest through the Khyber Pass to get hold over Delhi, the political capital of northern India. The rulers at Delhi considered Panipat as a comfortable strategic ground and hence they preferred to take the fight there. So, statement 1 is correct.

Panipat’s surrounding region had a flat ground which was suitable for cavalry movement—the main mode of warfare at the time. After the construction of the Grand Trunk Road by Sher Shah Suri (1540-45), Panipat was on this route. It became easier for conquerors to find their way there. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The duration of monsoon rainfall in the region is short in comparison to other areas making it easier to fight. The artisans/smiths of these regions were experts in making warfare-related materials and hence it became easier for forces of both parties to replenish their war materials. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 11

Consider the following statements with respect to a Joint Sitting in the Parliament:

1. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the sitting in case of absence of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.

2. It is governed by the Rules of Procedures of the Lok Sabha and not of the Rajya Sabha.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 11
Joint sitting is extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a Bill. A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following three situations after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House: 1) if the Bill is rejected by the other House; 2) if the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill; or 3) if more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it.

The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by the members present at the joint sitting, presides over the meeting. It is clear that the Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting as he is not a member of either House of Parliament. So, statement 1 is not correct.

The quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of the two Houses. The joint sitting is governed by the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha and not of Rajya Sabha. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 12

With reference to the Eco Sensitive Zone (ESZ), consider the following statements:

1. These are areas around Protected Areas, National Park and Wildlife sanctuaries.

2. Activities like commercial mining and tourism are permitted in a regulated way in the zone.

Q. Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 12
Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country should have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum one km starting from their demarcated boundaries.

Statement 1 is correct: The Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) are areas in India notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), GoI around Protected Areas, National Park and Wildlife sanctuaries.

Purpose:

  • To create some kind of "shock absorbers" to the protected areas by regulating and managing the activities around such areas.

  • Therefore, these areas act as a buffer for protected areas and reduce developmental pressures around a wildlife sanctuary or national park.

  • They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.

Statement 2 is not correct: Prohibited activities:

  • Activities like industries which cause pollution Commercial mining, saw mills, establishment of major hydroelectric projects (HEP), commercial use of wood, Tourism, discharge of effluents or any solid waste or production of hazardous substances are all prohibited.

Regulated activities:

  • Activities like felling of trees, establishment of hotels and resorts, commercial use of natural water, erection of electrical cables, drastic change of agriculture system, e.g. adoption of heavy technology, pesticides etc., widening of roads.

Permitted activities:

  • Activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, use of renewable energy sources, adoption of green technology for all activities are permitted.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding mussels:

  1. They act as super-filters by absorbing microplastics and other pollutants.

  2. 2. They are used as bio-indicators to monitor the health of the seas and rivers.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 13
The term mussel is used for several families of bivalve molluscs inhabiting lakes, rivers, and creeks, as well as intertidal areas along coastlines worldwide. The mussel's external shell is composed of two valves that protect it from predators and desiccation.

Recently scientists are deploying mussels across the oceans in the fight against water pollution. They act as 'super-filters', taking in phytoplankton for nourishment along with microplastics, pesticides and other pollutants. As they pump and filter the water through their gills in order to feed and breathe, mussels store almost everything else that passes through. They are a super-filter in the marine world, filtering up to 25 litres of water per day. So, statement 1 is correct.

Like canaries in a coal mine, mussels are widely used as bio-indicators to monitor the health of aquatic environments in both freshwater and marine environments. They are particularly useful since they are distributed worldwide and are sessile. These characteristics ensure that they are representative of the environment where they are sampled or placed. Their population status or structure, physiology, behaviour or the level of contamination with elements or compounds can indicate the status of the ecosystem. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 14

Consider the following characteristics:

  1. Uniformity of temperature throughout the year
  2. Coexistence of a large number of species
  3. Convectional rainfall in the afternoon
  4. Year-round growing season

Q. Which of the following biome is best described through the characteristics given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 14

Characteristics of Tropical Rainforest:

  • The equatorial rainforest supports the greatest biodiversity (number and types of living organisms in an area) on Earth. This is the result of abundant moisture and sunlight.

  • Average daily temperatures are around 28oC with a low diurnal (variation in temperature that occurs from the highs and lows during the day) temperature range. Temperatures rarely fall below 22oC and cloud cover restricts temperatures to 32oC during the day (as the result of cloud cover caused by high levels of evapotranspiration).

  • Rainfall levels are high throughout the year as the result of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ). Convectional rainfall results in annual rainfall levels of around 2000mm. Storms typically occur during the late afternoon as the result of intense heating during the day.

  • Both high levels of rainfall and temperatures contribute to a year-round growing season. High levels of evapotranspiration create an incredibly humid environment.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 15

Considering the following statements with reference to the Woods Dispatch of 1854:

  1. It resulted in the setting up of Universities at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras for higher education.
  2. It advocated the Government of India to take responsibility for the education of masses.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 15

In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the “Magna Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India. It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at the bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. So, statement 1 is correct.

It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the masses, thus repudiating the ‘downward filtration theory’, at least on paper. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

It means education was provided to a small portion of people and through them, it was conveyed to masses. It was stated in the Macaulay Minutes.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 16

With reference to food fortification in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The food fortification logo is assigned by Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks.
  2. Milk, edible oil, wheat flour, salt and rice are approved fortified commodities in India.
  3. According to the State Food Fortification Index, developed by NITI Aayog, Gujarat is the top scorer.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 16

Fortification is the addition of key vitamins and minerals such as Iron, Iodine, Zinc, Vitamins A & D to staple foods such as rice, wheat, oil, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content. These nutrients may or may not have been originally present in the food before processing or may have been lost during processing.

  • In India, Food Fortification is regulated by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India and also assigns the food fortification logo (+F). Under the logo, it is also mandatory to write the tag line "Sampoorna Poshan Swastha Jeevan". Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  •  

    As per the Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations, 2018, as of now only milk, edible oil, wheat flour, salt and rice are the only approved fortified commodities in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  •  

    As per the STATE FOOD FORTIFICATION INDEX (developed by FSSAI), Uttar Pradesh ranks first, based on the various parameters set for food fortification with a score of 9/20. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 17

Which of the following statements is not correct in the context of constitutional reforms introduced by the British through various acts?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 17

Government of India Act 1935: This was the longest act passed by British Parliament

  • provided for the establishment of a Federation of India to be made up of provinces of British India and some or all of the Princely states

  • Abolition of provincial dyarchy and introduction of dyarchy at the centre.

  • Abolition of Indian Council and introduction of an advisory body in its place.

  • Provision for an All India Federation with British Indian territories and princely states.

  • Elaborate safeguards and protective instruments for minorities.

  • The supremacy of the British Parliament.

  • Increase in size of legislatures, an extension of the franchise, division of subjects into three lists and retention of the communal electorate.

  • Separation of Burma from India

  • Joint sittings of both Chambers in certain cases. Hence option (b) is correct.

  • Introduced provincial autonomy and the ministers of the provincial governments were to be responsible to the provincial legislature.

Government of India Act 1919

  • Dyarchy, a system of double government was introduced for the provinces of British India. It marked the first introduction of the democratic principle into the executive branch of the British administration of India. Thus, for the first time, responsible government was seen at the provincial level.

  • The size of the provincial legislative assemblies was increased. Now about 70% of the members were elected.

  • The communal representation was extended and Sikhs, Europeans, and Anglo Indians were included.

    Hence option(c) is not correct.

  • Some women could also vote. In 1921, Bombay (now Mumbai) and Madras (now Chennai) became the first provinces to give the limited vote to women. Hence option (a) is correct.

  • This act made the central legislature bicameral.

  • The communal representation was extended and Sikhs, Europeans, and Anglo Indians were included.

Indian Council Act of 1892

  • It increased the number of additional (non-official) members in the Central and provincial legislative councils but maintained the official majority in them.

  • It gave the legislature, the power of discussing the budget for the first time and addressing questions to the executive. Hence option (d) is correct.

  • The act made a limited and indirect provision for the use of election in filling up some of the nonofficial seats both in the Central and provincial legislative councils. The word “election” was, however, not used in the act.

Indian Councils Act 1909 (Morley Minto reforms)

  • The act enlarged the size of the legislative council both Central and Provincial.

  • It introduced separate and discriminatory electorate.

  • The act empowered the members to discuss the budget and move resolutions before it was approved finally.

  • They were given rights to ask supplementary questions and move resolutions

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 18

Ornamental fisheries refer to the breeding and rearing of colored fish of marine water and freshwater. In this context consider the following statements:

  1. They are predominantly found in the Western Ghats region.
  2. West Bengal is the largest exporter of ornamental fishes.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 18

Ornamental fishes of India are contributing about 1% of the total ornamental fish trade. These fishes are exported to the tune of 69.26 tons, having the value of Rupees 566.66 crores in 2014 – 15. On average, an annual growth rate of about 11 percent has been recorded during the period 1995 to 2014.

  • India has great potentials in Ornamental fish production due to the presence of rich biodiversity of species, favorable climatic conditions, and availability of cheap labor.

  • Inland and marine waters in India possess a rich diversity of ornamental fish, with over 195 indigenous varieties reported from North-East Region and the Western Ghats, and nearly 400 species from marine ecosystems. Among the 195 reported fish species from the North-East Region, 155 species are of ornamental value. The region also exhibits exceptional biodiversity and a high degree of endemism with respect to freshwater ornamental fishes.Prominent among them are Loaches, Eels, Barbs, Catfish, and Goby. On the other hand, the Western Ghats of India is one of the 'Biodiversity Hotspot’ Areas of the world. Among the total freshwater fishes reported from the Western Ghats, 40 are of the ornamental value of which 37 species are endemic to the Western Ghats. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Indian ornamental fish trade mostly deals with freshwater fish (90%) of which 98% are cultured and 2% are captured from wild. The remaining 10% are marine fishes of which 98% are captured and 2% culture. Majority of the Ornamental Fish Breeders in India breed exotic fishes and very few breed indigenous, marine and brackish water fish.

  • Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal mainly practice ornamental fish farming in India. The availability of a vast number of native species has contributed significantly to the development of the ornamental fish industry in the country.

  • North-eastern states, West Bengal, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu are blessed with potential indigenous species.

  • About 90% of native species (85% are from northeast India) are collected and reared to meet export demand. Presently, nearly about 100 native species are reared as aquarium fish.

  • 90% of India exports go from Kolkata followed by 8% from Mumbai and 2% from Chennai. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 19

Consider the following statements about Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business

in Lok Sabha:

1. Any amendment in the rules requires the approval of both the Houses of Parliament.

2. The Committee on Rules recommends any amendments or additions to these rules.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 19
Article 118(1) of the Constitution empowers each House of Parliament to make rules for regulating its Procedure and the Conduct of its business.
  • The final authority for adopting rules for regulating its procedure rests with each House, but a perusal of the rules of the Indian Parliament would indicate that the Presiding Officers in the two Houses are given vast powers by the rules. It is the Speaker who decides the admissibility of a Question; it is she who decides the forms in which amendments may be moved to the Motion of Thanks to the President's Address. With regard to moving amendments to a Bill, the permission of the Chair is required. If a Bill is pending before the House, it is the Speaker who decides whether she should allow amendments to be moved to various clauses of the Bill or not. As regards regulating discussions in the House, it is the Speaker who decides as to when a member shall speak and how long she shall speak. It is left to her to ask a member to discontinue her speech or even decide that what a particular member said may not go on record as part of the proceedings. All in all, she is the final interpreter of Rules in Lok Sabha.

  • There shall be a Committee on Rules to consider matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and to recommend any amendments or additions to these rules that may be deemed necessary. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The Committee on Rules shall be nominated by the Speaker and shall consist of fifteen members including the Chairperson of the Committee. The Speaker shall be the ex-officio Chairperson of the Committee.

  • The recommendations of the Committee shall be laid on the table and within a period of seven days, beginning with the day on which they are so laid, any member may give notice of any amendment to such recommendations.

  • Any notice given by a member of any amendment to the recommendations of the Committee shall stand referred to the Committee who shall consider it and make such changes in their recommendations as the Committee may consider fit. The final report of the Committee after taking into consideration the amendments suggested by the members shall be laid on the Table. Thereafter, on the House agreeing to the report on a motion made by a member of the Committee, the amendments to the rules as approved by the House, shall be promulgated by the Speaker in the Bulletin.

    Thus, amendments to the rules are approved by respective the House only. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • If notice of such amendment has not been given within seven days, the recommendations of the Committee shall be deemed to have been approved by the House and on the expiry of the said period the Speaker shall promulgate in the Bulletin the amendments to the rules as recommended by the Committee. Therefore, the promulgation of the amendments to the rules as recommended by the Committee is done by Speaker only.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 20

What is the purpose of the ‘evolved Laser interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 20

Option B is correct: eLISA aims to measure gravitational waves in the frequency range from 0.1mHz to about 100 mHz. Indian teams have worked on the theoretical aspects of eLISA in the theoretical aspects of measurement of cosmological parameters; using eLISA to set constraints on the dark energy equation of state; developing techniques for time delay interferometry, and so on.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 21

Indian Constitution embodies the concept of "Equality". What are the features of this

Equality?

  1. No person can be discriminated by the State on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
  2. Benefits extended to some persons, even if illegal, can be claimed by the others on the ground that they have been denied the same.
  3. Equal subjection and similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly placed, administrated by ordinary courts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 21

Concept of Equality:

  • Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides that “the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India". There is a prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Hence statement 1 is correct. The said Article is clearly in two parts: while it commands the State not to deny to any person ‘equality before the law’, it also commands the State not to deny the ‘equal protection of the laws’. Equality before law prohibits discrimination. It is a negative concept but negative equality. The concept of ‘equal protection of the laws’ requires the State to give special treatment to persons in different situations in order to establish equality amongst all. It is positive in character.

  • The Concept of Equality in India also embodies "Positive Equality" and never "Negative Equality". It means when any authority is shown to have committed any irregularity or illegality in favor of one individual or group of individuals, others cannot claim the same irregularity or illegality on the grounds of denial of the same. Article 14 of the Constitution of India embodies the concept of positive equality alone and not negative equality, that is to say, it cannot be relied upon to perpetuate illegality or irregularity. The jurisdiction of a higher court cannot be invoked on the basis of a wrong order passed by a lower forum. Supreme Court in its various judgments has stated this concept. Benefits extended to some persons if illegal, cannot be claimed by the others on the ground that they have been denied the same if they do not deserve them in the first place. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • "Equality before the law" means that among equals the law should be equal and should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and be prosecuted for the same kind of action should be the same for all the citizens of full age and understanding without distinction of race, religion, wealth, social status or political influence.

  • The concept of "equality before law" and "equal protection of law" provides the following features:

    The first concept has the following features

    • the absence of any special privileges in favor of any person

    • the equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary courts

    • no person is above the law

    • The second concept has the following features:

    • the equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in privileges conferred and liabilities imposed

    • a similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    • the like should be treated alike without any discrimination.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 22

With reference to the economy, what does the Seigniorage, refers to?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 22
  • Option (b) is correct: Seigniorage is the difference between the value of money and the cost to produce it

    • in other words, it's the economic cost of producing a currency within a given economy or country. If the seigniorage is positive, then the government will make an economic profit; a negative seigniorage will result in an economic loss.

    • Option (a) refers to financial inclusion which is the delivery of financial services at affordable costs to sections of disadvantaged and low-income segments of society.

    • Option (c) refers to the Gross Domestic Product which is the total value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period.

  • Option (d) refers to Sterilization which are the actions taken by a country's central bank to counter the effects on the money supply caused by a balance of payments surplus or deficit.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 23

Which of the following are Literary Works of Kabir Das?

  1. Anurag Sagar
  2. Bijak
  3. Sakhi Granth
  4. Raghuvamsa
  5. Panch Vani

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 23

President Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated Sant Kabir Academy and Research Centre at Sant Kabir Nagar in Uttar Pradesh. Option a is correct:

  • He was a 15th-century Indian mystic, social reformer, poet and saint who had a significant role among the people in India.

    • He was one of the most influential saints

  • The life of Kabir is an epitome of human virtue and his teachings are still relevant even after 650 years today.

  • He is an ideal example of communal solidarity.

  • He believed that God resides within us and took the charge of social emancipation and led his family life as a saint.

Writings/Works:

  • Kabir Das' writings had a great influence on the Bhakti movement and includes titles like Kabir Granthawali, Anurag Sagar, Bijak, and Sakhi Granth,Panch Vani

[Raghuvamsa is literary created by Kalidasa]

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 24

Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 24
  • Rutherford designed alpha scattering experiment to know how the electrons are arranged within an atom. After the experiment, he concluded that:

    • Most of the space inside the atom is empty as most of the alpha-particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected.

    • Very few particles were deflected from their path, indicating that the positive charge of the atom occupies very small space.

    • A very small fraction of alpha-particle were deflected by 180 degree, indicating all the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a small volume within the atom.

  • On the basis of the observations, Rutherford put forward the nuclear model of an atom, which has following features:

    • There is a positively charged centre in an atom called Nucleus. Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.

    • The electrons revolve around the nucleus in well-defined orbits.

    • The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 25

Which of the following is/are the significance of High Nitrogen Steel?

  1. It possesses excellent mechanical and ballistic properties.
  2. It is generally cheaper than single hot- rolled steel composition.
  3. It can be used only for defence purposes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 25

High nitrogen steels (HNS) are a new class of high alloy martensitic, austenitic or duplex grades with up to 0.9 mass% of N in solid solution. They are applied e.g. to stainless tools and bearings, in chemical engineering and for high strength non-magnetic components.

  • High Nitrogen Steel (HNS) possesses excellent mechanical and ballistic properties. It is an ideal material for armour applications and due to its low cost can be used for civilian applications as well as for export also. Hence, statement 1 is correct and 3 is not correct.

  • Defence Metallurgical Research Laboratory has developed nickel-free high nitrogen steel by refining the thermo‐mechanical processing to get better mechanical properties. The ballistic performance tests carried out against small arms projectiles have established that the steel is suitable for use as armour material for futuristic protective applications

 

Salient Features:

  • HNS provides improved ballistic (especially against small arms ammunition) and blast protection than the existing Rolled Homogeneous Armour (RHA) material with reduced thickness

  • Good corrosion resistance

  • Austenitic stainless steel, non‐magnetic.

  • Performance improvement: 30% to 35% compared to RHA steel against soft projectiles.

  • Performance improvement: 5% to 15% compared to RHA steel against armour piercing (AP) projectiles.

  • Equivalent performance in comparison to RHA steel against long rod anti‐tank projectiles.

  • Low cost – about half that of currently produced RHA steels. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Stainless steel maker Jindal Stainless (Hisar) Ltd. has entered into an agreement with Defence Research & Development Organisation under which the government agency will transfer technology to manufacture high nitrogen steel for the defence sector to the company.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 26

Consider the following statements:

  1. If there is equality of votes and no decision has been made, then the Election Commission decides the election by a lottery.
  2. There has been no instance in India, where an election has been decided by

the lottery.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 26
  • Statement 1 is not correct: According to Section 102 of the Representation of the People Act, if there is equality of votes and if one additional vote would entitle either of them to win, and if no decision has been made by the Returning Officer under the provisions of the Act, then the High Court decides by a lot. It is called lottery in elections.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: The candidate who wins the lottery wins the election. In 2017, for instance, in the election to ward number 220 of the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation, Shiv Sena's Surendra Bagalkar and the BJP's Atul Shah got the same number of votes. The result was decided by the lottery, and Mr. Shah won.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding recently published ‘Report on International Religious Freedom’:

1. The report gives its perspective on the status and violations of religious freedom in different countries.

2. It is published by Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights.

3. It is an annual report.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 27

Report on International Religious Freedom

  • It is the annual report on international religious freedom by the US State Department. Hence statement 3 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

  • The report gives its own perspective on the status and violations of religious freedom across the globe and has separate chapters on each of the countries. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • In its recent report on religious freedom alleged India by highlighting issues of concern.

  • India rejected the criticisms saying the observations are based on "motivated inputs and biased views

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 28

Consider the following statements about Attorney General of India:

1. His term in office is ordinarily of 3 years and is eligible for reappointment.

2. He is prohibited from practicing private cases while in office.

3. He cannot represent independent constitutional bodies like Union Public Service Commission and Election Commission of India in any court.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 28
  • Statement 1 is correct: Attorney General (AG)shall hold office for a term of three years from the date on which he enters upon his office. A person who has held or who holds office as an Attorney General shall, on the expiration of his term of office, be eligible for re-appointment to that office for a further term not exceeding three years.

  • A Law Officer shall hold office for a term of three years from the date on which he enters upon his office: Provided that –

    (a) where the post of Additional Solicitor-General for India has been created for a period of less than three years, the person appointed to such post shall hold office for the period for which such post has been created;

    (b) the appointment of a Law Officer may, at any time during his term of office, be terminated by three months’ notice in writing by either side.

    A person who has held or who holds office as a Law Officer shall, on the expiration of his term of office, be eligible for re-appointment to that office for a further term not exceeding three years. Provided that he shall make himself available for duties whenever required by the Government of India.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: AG is not a government servant and is not debarred from private legal practice. Thus, there is no such prohibition provided he shall not:

    • hold briefs in any court for any party except the Government of India or the Government of a State or any University, Government School or College, local authority, Public Service Commission, Port Trust, Port Commissioners, Government aided or Government managed hospitals, a Government company as defined in Section 617 of the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), any Corporation owned or controlled by the State, any body or institution in which the Government has a preponderating interest;

    • advice any party against the Government of India or a Public Sector Undertaking, or in cases in which he is likely to be called upon to advise, or appear for, the Government of India or a Public SectorUndertaking;

    • defend an accused person in a criminal prosecution, without the permission of the Government of India;

    • accept appointment to any office in any company or corporation without the permission of the Government of India;

    • advise any Ministry or Department of Government of India or any statutory organization or any Public Sector Undertaking unless the proposal or a reference in this regard is received through the Ministry of Law and Justice, Department of Legal Affairs.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: It shall be the duty of an Attorney General:

    • to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time, be referred or assigned to him by the Government of India;

    • to appear, whenever required, in the Supreme Court or in any High Court on behalf of the Government of India in cases (including suits, writ petitions, appeal, and other proceedings) in which the Government of India is concerned as a party or is otherwise interested;

    • to represent the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution; and

    • to discharge such other functions as are conferred on him by or under the Constitution or any other law for the time being in force;

  • Where Attorney General appears or does other work on behalf of the bodies of the Union of India such as the Election Commission, the Union Public Service Commission, etc. he shall only be entitled to fees on the scales as same as for the above functions.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. Unlike the National Emergency, Martial Law doesn't affect center-state relations.
  2. Martial Law suspends ordinary laws and institutions in the area, while courts & government continue to work under National Emergency.
  3. Grounds of the imposition of National Emergency has been defined in the Constitution, but no such grounds have been defined for Martial Law.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 29

Martial Law: The most important feature of Martial Law is the military acting independent of civilian authority and control. When a geographical area is put under Martial Law, the military is called out and the military commander is under no legal obligation to take his orders from the civilian authority of the area. The military commander might be required to cooperate with the civilian authorities in the area, but he is allowed to make his own decisions. To that extent, the military acting independent of any civilian supervision clearly distinguishes an area under Martial Law from the military merely acting as an aid to civilian authority (where the military acts under the supervision and command of the civilian authority).

  • It is not described in Indian Constitution. Civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rule and regulations framed outside the ordinary law, implying suspension of ordinary law and the government by military tribunals. It is imposed under the extraordinary circumstances like war, invasion, insurrection, rebellion, riot or any violent resistance to law to repel force by force for maintaining or restoring order in the society. Abnormal powers including imposing restrictions and regulations on the rights of the civilians, can punish the civilians and even condemn them to death. The Supreme Court held that the declaration of martial law does not ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of habeas corpus.

  • The difference with respect to National Emergency:

    • Martial law affects only Fundamental Rights, while national Emergency is broader in scope affecting Centre-State Relationship, Fundamental Rights, Legislative Powers, Revenue Distribution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

    • Military law suspends ordinary law, while courts and government continue in National Emergency. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Martial law imposed to restore the breakdown of law and order due to any reason, while National Emergency can be imposed only on three grounds (Article 352) i.e. War, External aggregation or Armed rebellion. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

  • Martial law is always imposed only in some area of the country but National Emergency can be in some area or the entire country.

  • Article 34: Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of Part III, Parliament may by law indemnify any person in the service of the Union or of a State or any other person in respect of any act done by him in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in any area within the territory of India where martial law was in force or validate any sentence passed, punishment inflicted, forfeiture ordered or other act done under martial law in such area.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 30

Consider the following pairs regarding rural society in the Sangam Age?

Q. Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 30

Some of the earliest works in Tamil, known as Sangam literature, were composed around 2300 years ago. These texts were called Sangam because they were supposed to have been composed and compiled in assemblies (known as sangams) of poets that were held in the city of Madurai.

  • Early Tamil literature (the Sangam texts) mentions different categories of people living in the villages of south India. Large landowners were known as Vellalar, ordinary ploughmen were known as uzhavar and landless labourers, including slaves, were known as kadaisiyar and adimai. It is likely that these differences were based on differential access to land, labour and some of the new technologies. Hence, only pair 2 is correctly matched.

  • In the northern part of the country, the village headman was known as the grama bhojaka. Usually, men from the same family held the position for generations. The grama bhojaka was often the largest landowner. Apart from the gramabhojaka, there were other independent farmers, known as grihapatis, most of whom were smaller landowners. And then there were men and women such as the dasa karmakara, who did not own land and had to earn a living working on the fields owned by others.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 31

Which of the following geographical regions was/were the bone of contention between the Bahmani sultans and the Vijayanagara empire?

  1. Tungabhadra doab
  2. Krishna Godavari delta
  3. Konkan Coast

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 31
  • Hasan Gangu Bahmani, a Turkish officer of Devagiri, established the independent Bahmani kingdom with its capital at Gulbarga in 1347 A.D.

  • The establishment of the Bahmani Sultanate happened just after a decade of establishment of the Vijayanagara empire by Harihara Raya and Bukkaraya in 1336AD.

  • Obviously, the interests of Vijayanagara rulers and Bahmani sultans clashed in three separate and distinct areas:

    • Tungabadra doab: The territory between the rivers Tungabhadra and Krishna known as Tungabhadra Doab was very fertile.

    • Krishna-Godavari delta: This delta had two-fold significance. One, it was very fertile. Two, it had several important ports through which profitable trade was carried with several foreign countries like Ceylon, Indonesia, Malaya, and Burma, etc. Both the powers wanted to have their supremacy over this territory.

    • The fertile coastal plains of Konkan (Modern-day Maharashtra) which had commercially important ports used for carrying out trades with Persia and Arabia. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 32

With reference to Agni-4 missile, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a surface to surface missile having 4000 km strike range .
  2. It is equipped with modern and compact avionics to provide a high level of reliability.
  3. It is developed by Russia’s Almaz Central Design Bureau.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 32

In News : Recently ,India successfully carried out a night launch of the nuclear-capable Agni-4 ballistic missile from the APJ Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha, marking a significant boost to the country's military capabilities.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct : The surface to surface Agni-IV missile having 4000 km strike range is a two stage missile.

  • It is 20-metre long and weighs 17 tonnes.

  • It is equipped with modern and compact avionics to provide a high level of reliability.

    • It is equipped with state-of-the-art Avionics, 5th generation On Board Computer and distributed architecture.

    • It has the latest features to correct and guide itself for in-flight disturbances.

    • The most accurate Ring Laser Gyro based Inertial Navigation System (RINS) and supported by the highly reliable redundant Micro Navigation System (MINGS), ensures the vehicle reaches the target within two digit accuracy

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 33

:Consider the following statements with reference to Birsa Munda:

1. Birsa was influenced personally by Christian missionaries as well as Vaishnava preachings.

2. People raised the white flag as a symbol of Birsa Raj and led a peaceful protest against the British Raj.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 33

Birsa was born in the mid-1870s. The son of a poor father, he grew up around the forests of Bohonda. Birsa went to the local missionary school, and listened to the sermons of missionaries. Later Birsa also spent some time in the company of a prominent Vaishnav preacher. He wore the sacred thread, and began to value the importance of purity and piety. So, statement 1 is correct.

As the movement spread the British officials decided to act. They arrested Birsa in 1895, convicted him on charges of rioting and jailed him for two years. When Birsa was released in 1897 he began touring the villages to gather support. He used traditional symbols and language to rouse people, urging them to destroy “Ravana”. They attacked police stations and churches, and raided the property of moneylenders and zamindars. They raised the white flag as a symbol of Birsa Raj. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 34

Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to albedo?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 34

The portion of incident radiation (energy) reflected back from a surface of a body is called albedo or reflection coefficient or simply reflectivity, which is presented in percentage. For example, 30 percent albedo (reflectivity) means that a particular surface reflects 30 per cent of total incident energy and absorbs only 70 per cent of total incident energy.

Albedo varies depending on:

  • Nature of the surface of the receiving body (smooth surface have higher reflectivity). So, statement 1 is correct.

  • The angle of the Sun with the Earth's surface (greater loss in case of oblique rays). So, statement 3 is not correct.

  • Amount of cloud cover, particulate matter in the atmosphere etc. So, statement 4 is correct.

  • Thus, albedo varies from surface to surface and from morning to evening and from season to season.

The average albedo of Earth is generally taken as about 32%. The albedo of the other planetary bodies has also been estimated e.g. Moon (7%), Mercury (6%), Mars (16%),

Venus (76%), and the remaining other planets (73% to 94%). So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 35

Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the District Planning Committee (DPC)?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 35
District Planning Committee (DPC) is the Committee created as per Article 243ZD of the Constitution of India at the district level for planning at the district and below. The Committee in each district should consolidate the plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities in the district and prepare a draft development plan for the district. So, option (a) is correct.

According to Article 243 ZD(2), the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to:

(a) the composition of the District Planning Committees;

(b) the manner in which the seats in such Committees shall be filled:

Provided that not less than four-fifths of the total number of members of such Committee shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the Panchayat at the district level and of the Municipalities in the district in the proportional ratio between the population of the rural areas and of the urban areas in the district; So, option (b) is not correct and option (d) is correct.

(c) the functions relating to district planning which may be assigned to such Committees; So, option (c) is correct.

(d) the manner in which the Chairpersons of such Committees shall be chosen.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 36

Consider the following properties with reference to a type of nanomaterial:

1. It is composed of carbon atoms linked to three other carbon atoms by covalent bonds.

2. It is also called as Fullerene or C60.

3. It has an electrical property which increases the efficiency of solar cells.

Q. Which of the following types of nanomaterial is described above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 36

Buckyballs, also called fullerenes, were one of the first nanoparticles discovered in 1985.

They are composed of carbon atoms linked to three other carbon atoms by covalent bonds. The covalent bonds between carbon atoms make buckyballs very strong, and the carbon atoms readily form covalent bonds with a variety of other atoms. The most common buckyball contains 60 carbon atoms and is sometimes called C60 or fullerene. They are used in composites to strengthen the material. They have the interesting electrical property of being very good electron acceptors, which means they accept loose electrons from other materials. This feature is useful, for example, in increasing the efficiency of solar

cells in transforming sunlight into electricity.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 37

Consider the following pairs:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 37

Harichand Thakur was born to a peasant family belonging to the Namasudra community. He established the Matua sect of Vaishnavite Hinduism focusing on atma-darshana. The Matua-

Mahasangha followers or "matuas" formed an organisation in Orakandi, Faridpur, Bengal Presidency (now in Bangladesh). The teachings of Thakur emphasised on education as an important tool for upliftment of the community and also tried to end social conflicts. After partition, the Matua sect migrated to West Bengal in India. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Guru Ghasi Das (1756–1836) was Guru (teacher) of the Satnami sect in the early 19th century.

Satnami sect is similar to Sikhism. It was Guru Ghasidas who preached his followers to start treating everyone as the same in the deep forested part of Chhattisgarh. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Prarthana Samaj, was a movement for religious and social reform in Bombay, India, based on earlier reform movements. Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dadoba Pandurang and his brother Atmaram Pandurang in 1867 when Keshub Chandra Sen visited Maharashtra, with an aim to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. It became popular after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined it. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 38

With reference to the Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ are:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 38

Option C is correct: An open market operation (OMO) is an activity by a central bank to give (or take) liquidity in its currency to (or from) a bank or a group of banks. The OMOs are conducted by the RBI in the form of sale and purchase of Government Securities (G-Secs) to adjust liquidity in the market. If there is excess liquidity, then RBI undertakes sale of G-Secs and if there is liquidity crunch, then RBI conducts purchase of G-Secs

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 39

State of Environment Report is published by which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 39

In News

  • 75% of river monitoring stations report heavy metal pollution according to the recent State of Environment Report 2022.

  • It is published by the environmental NGO, the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE).

Key observations of the report:

River Pollution:

  • Three out of every four river monitoring stations in India posted alarming levels of heavy toxic metals such as lead, iron, nickel, cadmium, arsenic, chromium and copper.

    • In about a fourth of the monitoring stations, which are spread across 117 rivers and tributaries, high levels of two or more toxic metals were reported.

    • Of the 33 monitoring stations in Ganga, 10 had high levels of contaminants.

    • The river has high levels of lead, iron, nickel, cadmium and arsenic.

  • India dumps 72% of its sewage waste without treatment.

    • Ten States do not treat their sewage at all, as per the Central Pollution Control Board.

  • Coastline Erosion:

    • Over a third of India’s coastline that is spread across 6,907 km saw some degree of erosion between 1990 and 2018.

    • West Bengal is the worst hit with over 60% of its shoreline under erosion.

    • Twenty-five glacial lakes and water bodies in India, China and Nepal have recorded over

    • 40% rise in their water spread areas since 2009.

  • This has indicated a grave threat to five Indian states and two Union territories.

    • While the global average of the Ocean Health Index, a measure that looks at how sustainably humans are exploiting ocean resources, has improved between 2012 and 2021,

  • India’s score in the index has declined over the same period.

  • Forest Cover:

    • India’s total forest cover has registered a little over a 0.5% increase between 2017 and 2021.

  • Most of the increase has taken place in the open forest category, which includes

commercial plantations.

This has happened at the cost of moderately dense forest, which is normally the area closest to human habitations.

    • At the same time, very dense forests, which absorb maximum carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, occupy just 3% of total forest cover. ○ India has a forest cover of 77.53 million hectares. But recorded forests—the area under the forest department— with forest cover are only 51.66 million. ○ This gap of 25.87 million hectares —a size bigger than Uttar Pradesh— remains unaccounted, the organisation noted.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 40

Which of the following forms a part of the stressed assets of a bank?

1) Non-Performing Assets

2) Restructured Advances

3) Special Mention Account 1

4) Standard loan account with insufficient security

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 40
Stressed assets have been rising rapidly in India, mainly in public sector banks. Several factors can be identified that have led to this situation. These include global slow-down, governance-related issues, political factors as well as mal-intentions and misconduct. The Stressed Advances (SA) ratio of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) followed suit by remaining flat at 9.7 per cent (9.3 per cent Gross NPAs plus 0.4 per cent Restructured Advances) as at end September 2019.

Stressed assets by its definition include Non-Performing Assets, written-off assets and Restructured Advances. A non-performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for 90 days. A restructured advance means a change in the original loan terms done with the mutual consent of both the bank and the borrower to tide over events such as default in a loan, delay in payments, inability to pay due to losses, etc. So, statements (1) and (2) are correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 41

Which of the following animals are responsible for zoonotic disease?

1. Monkeys

2. Bats

3. Rats

4. Pigs

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 41
A zoonosis (zoonotic disease or zoonoses -plural) is an infectious disease that is transmitted between species from animals to humans. For eg. Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD) is caused by Kyasanur Forest disease virus (KFDV), a member of the virus family Flaviviridae. KFDV was identified in 1957 when it was isolated from a sick monkey from the Kyasanur Forest in Karnataka. Since then, between 400-500 humans cases per year have been reported. So, animal 1 is correct.

Nipah virus is a highly lethal, emerging henipavirus that can be transmitted to people from the body fluids of infected bats. Eating fruit or drinking date palm sap that has been contaminated by bats has been flagged as a transmission pathway. So, animal 2 is correct.

The bacteria that cause plague, Yersinia pestis, maintain their existence in a cycle involving rodents and their fleas. Many types of animals, such as rock squirrels, wood rats, ground squirrels, prairie dogs, chipmunks, mice, voles, and rabbits can be affected by the plague. Wild carnivores can become infected by eating other infected animals. So, animal 3 is correct.

Swine Influenza (swine flu) is a respiratory disease of pigs caused by type A influenza virus that regularly causes outbreaks of influenza in pigs. So, animal 4 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 42

Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth Seekers) was founded by?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 42
Option A is correct: Jyotirao Govindrao Phule along with his followers, formed the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth Seekers) to attain equal rights for people from exploited castes. People from all religions and castes could become a part of this association which worked for the upliftment of the oppressed classes.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 43

Consider the following statements with reference to the Governor of a State/s:

1. No civil or criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted against her/his in any court during her/his term of office

2. His emoluments and allowances are determined by the Parliament but charged on the

Consolidated Fund of the State/s concerned.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 43
According to Article 361 of the Constitution, no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President/Governor, in any court during his term of office, including a complete prohibition on the process for the arrest or imprisonment of the officers. It states that any civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the President/Governor shall be instituted during his term of office in any court in respect of any act done or purporting to be done by him in his personal capacity,

whether before or after he entered upon his office as President/Governor until the expiration of two months next after notice in writing has been delivered to the President or Governor. So, Statement (1) is not correct.

As per Article 158, the Governor is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by the Parliament. When the same person is appointed as the Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to her are shared by both States as determined by the President. And as per Article 202(3) (a), the emoluments and allowances of the Governor and other expenditure relating to his office; shall be the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of each State. So, Statement (2) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 44

What was the main intention behind the promulgation of the Defence of India Act, 1915?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 44

British intelligence in North America indicated early in the war that the Ghadr Party, co-ordinating with the Berlin Committee in Germany, and the Indian revolutionary underground was attempting to transport men and arms from the United States and East Asia into India, intended for a revolution and mutiny in the British Indian Army. From August 1914, a large number of Sikh expatriates began leaving Canada and USA under the plans of the Ghadr leadership for fomenting a mutiny in India, whilst in Bengal nationalist crime also increased. Thus pressure mounted on the British authorities in India to pass an act that would stem such revolutionary activities. Thus the Defence of India Act came to pass.

The Defence of India Act (also referred to as the Defence of India Regulations Act), was an emergency criminal law enacted in 1915 by the Governor-General of India. Its main intention was to curtail the nationalist and revolutionary activities of the Indian freedom fighters during and in the aftermath of World War I.

An Act to provide for special measures to secure the public safety and the defence of British India and for the more speedy trial of certain offences. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 45

With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India has laid out conditions with respect to the qualification of persons to be appointed to the Finance Commission.

2. The Supreme Court does not have any original jurisdiction in disputes over matters referred to the Finance Commission.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 45
According to Article 280(2), the Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. In pursuance of this direction, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the Chairman and members of the Commission in the Finance Commission Act, 1951 according to which the Chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four other members should be selected from amongst the following:
  • A judge of High Court or one qualified to be appointed as one.

  • A person who has specialised knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.

  • A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.

  • A person who has special knowledge of economics.

So, statement 1 is not correct.

According to Article 131, the Supreme Court has been excluded from original jurisdiction in these matters:

  • A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument.

  • A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extend to such a dispute.

  • Inter-State water disputes.

  • Matters referred to the Finance Commission. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the States.

  • Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the States.

  • Recovery of damages by a State against the Centre.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 46

Consider the following statements regarding Value Added Method of estimating national income:

1. Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices includes production taxes and excludes production subsidies available on the commodity.

2. GVA at factor cost does not include any taxes.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 46
Gross value added is the output of the country less the intermediate consumption, which is the difference between gross output and net output.

GVA at basic prices includes production taxes and exclude production subsidies available on the commodity. On the other hand, GVA at factor cost includes subsidies and excludes indirect taxes.

GVA at Factor Cost:

  • Include Subsidies

  • Exclude Indirect Taxes

GVA at Basic Price (i.e. Market Price):

  • Exclude Production Subsidies

  • Include Production Taxes

So, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Programme (GSLEP):

1. It is a joint initiative by IUCN and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).

2. Population Assessment of the World's Snow Leopards initiative is overseen by the Steering Committee of GSLEP.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 47
The Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP) seeks to address high-mountain development issues using the conservation of the charismatic and endangered snow leopard as a flagship species. GSLEP is a joint initiative of range country governments, international agencies, civil society, and the private sector. Its goal is to secure the long term survival of the snow leopard in its natural ecosystem. So, statement 1 is not correct. GSLEP launched PAWS (Population Assessment of the World’s Snow Leopards) in 2018 to bring together snow leopard range countries in an effort to accurately estimate their population size and monitor them.

On the occasion of International Snow Leopard Day, the Government of India launched its first national protocol, called the Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI) to assess the population of this elusive and endangered species in India. The Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI) will contribute to the global ‘Population Assessment of the World’s Snow Leopard’s (PAWS) initiative. The ambitious initiative, called PAWS (Population Assessment of the World's SnowLeopards), aims to produce a robust estimate of the threatened cat's population status within the next five years. It is being overseen by the Steering Committee of the Global Snow Leopard & Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP), which includes the Environment Ministers of all twelve snow leopard

range states. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 48

In which of the following regions ‘Coral triangle’ lies?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 48
The Coral Triangle is a roughly triangular area of the tropical marine waters of Indonesia, Malaysia, Papua New Guinea, Philippines, Solomon Islands and Timor-Leste that contain at least 500 species of reef-building corals in each ecoregion. This region encompasses portions of two bio-geographic regions: the Indonesian-Philippines Region, and the Far Southwestern Pacific Region.

The Coral Triangle is recognized as the global centre of marine biodiversity and a global priority for conservation. It is also called the "Amazon of the seas" and covers 5.7 million square kilometres (2,200,000 sq mi) of ocean waters. Its biological resources sustain the lives of over 120 million people. According to the Coral Triangle Knowledge Network, about $3 billion in fisheries exports and another $3 billion in coastal tourism revenues are derived as annual foreign exchange income in the region.

The WWF considers the region a top priority for marine conservation, and the organization is addressing the threats it faces through its Coral Triangle Program, launched in 2007. The centre of biodiversity in the Triangle is the Verde Island Passage in the Philippines, while the only coral reef site declared as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in the region is the Tubbataha Reef Natural Park, also in the Philippines.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 49

With regard to the drought toolbox, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was launched as a part of the Paris climate deal.

2. It will have a particular focus on drought monitoring and early warning systems.

3. It will help countries to develop a National Drought Policy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 49
The Toolbox, developed by the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) as a part of the Drought Initiative through close partnership with WMO, FAO, GWP, National Drought Mitigation Centre of the University of Nebraska and UNEP-DHI, gives drought stakeholders easy access to tools, case studies, and other resources to boost the resilience of people and ecosystems to drought. The UNCCD helps address these challenges through a recently launched Drought Initiative that works to enhance the resilience of communities and ecosystems to drought by developing national action plans. The goal is to promote a paradigm shift in approach to the way drought is managed – from a reactive and crisis-based towards a proactive and risk-based one. The

convention supports over 70 countries in designing comprehensive national plans of action ready to be activated well before the drought strikes. So, statement 1 is not correct.

The Drought Toolbox collates a large number of tools organized in 3 modules-

  • Drought Monitoring and Early Warning.

  • Drought Vulnerability and Risk Assessment.

  • Drought Risk Mitigation Measures.

Drought monitoring and early warning systems typically aim to track, assess and deliver relevant information concerning climatic, hydrologic and water supply conditions and trends. So, statement 2 is correct.

The Toolbox is being designed to provide drought stakeholders with easy access to tools, case studies and other resources to support the design of the National Drought Policy Plan with the aim to boost the resilience of people and ecosystems to drought.

So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 50

In the context of the Attorney-General of India, consider the following statements:

1. S/he has the right to audience in all the Courts in the territory of India.

2. S/he has the right to speak in the Houses of Parliament or in any Committee thereof.

3. S/he is debarred from private legal practise during his tenure in the office.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 50
As per Article 76(3), the Attorney-General of India in the performance of his duties shall have right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Over here right of audience is a right of a lawyer to appear and conduct proceedings in a court on behalf of their client. So, statement 1 is correct.

Article 88 of the Indian Constitution states that every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any Committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member (and not any Committee of the House). He also enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. He can attend the meetings of Parliamentary Committees of which he is not a member only upon invitation. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The Attorney-General is not a full-time counsel for the Government. He is not debarred from private legal practice even. He does not fall in the category of government servants. Yet he has certain limitations the Attorney-General can accept briefs but cannot appear against the Government. He cannot defend an accused in the criminal proceedings and accept the directorship of a company without the permission of the Government. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 51

As recent notifications of the Ministry of Defence, which of the following are eligible for appointment of the Chief of Defence Staff CDS?

1. Lieutenant General

2. Vice Admiral

3. Air Chief Marshal

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 51
The Ministry of Defence has issued three separate notifications amending the rules of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force for the appointment of the next Chief of Defence Staff CDS.The government amended the Army Rules, 1954; the Naval Ceremonial, Conditions of Service and Miscellaneous Regulations, 1963; and the Air Force Regulations, 1964 to add that the “Central Government may, if considered necessary, in public interest, so to do, appoint as Chief of Defence Staff, an officer” who is serving as Lieutenant General, Vice Admiral, Air Marshal or General, Admiral, Air Chief Marshal “or an officer who has retired” from these ranks, “but has not attained the age of sixty-two years on the date of his appointment.”
  • It said the government may extend the service of the CDS for such a period as it may deem necessary subject to a maximum age of 65.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 52

Which of the following statements about the Himalayas is not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 52
An antecedent stream is a stream that maintains its original course and pattern despite the changes in underlying rock topography. However, as the uplift occurs, the stream erodes through the rising ridge to form a steep-walled gorge. Many Himalayan rivers are good examples of antecedent origin. These rivers originated well before the Himalayan region was uplifted. The rivers Indus, Brahmaputra, Sutlej, Kosi and Subansiri originated on the Tibetan side and now traverse the existing mountain ranges, cutting deep gorges. Hence statement (a) is correct.
  • Snow line is the lower topographic limit of permanent snow cover. Snow line in Eastern Himalayas is higher than Western Himalayas (hence statement (b) is not correct) due to following reasons.

  • Latitudinal differences i.e. Eastern Himalayas are located near to Tropics compared to Western Himalayas.

    • Precipitation in Western Himalayas is comparatively low and occurs mostly as snowfall whereas in eastern Himalayas the precipitation is greater and occurs mostly in the form of rain.

  • Kail (Pinus wallichiana) is a coniferous evergreen tree native to the Himalaya, Karakoram and Hindu Kush mountains. It grows in mountain valleys at altitudes of 1800–4300 m. It favours a temperate climate with dry winters and wet summers. Its typical habitats are mountain screes and glacier forelands, but it will also form old-growth forests as the primary species or in mixed forests with deodar, birch, spruce, and fir.

  • Silk Cotton trees (Bombax Ceiba) are widely distributed all over Western Himalayas upto an elevation of 1300 metres above sea level. A characteristic feature of simbal tree is that it is never seen growing in groups and always grows as a single isolated tree. Its flower buds are used as food. Hence statement (c) is correct.

  • The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks are known as Duns. These valleys are deposited with coarse alluvium brought down by Himalayan rivers. Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun and Patli Dun are some of the well-known Duns. Hence statement (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 53

With reference to the ancient history of India, Avadanas form a part of:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 53
  • Avadana is a legendary material centring on Buddha's explanations of events by a person's worthy deeds in a previous life. The Pali cognate of the term is Apadana. Avadana designates both the class of such stories scattered within the Vinaya pitaka and separate collections based upon them. Among the latter is an important anthology of sarvastivada school given the modern title DivyaVandana, consisting of 38 legends including some about great Buddhist emperor Ashoka. The most famous and largest work classified as avadhana is the mahavastu, compilation from the mahasanghika school of ancient Buddhism of miraculous events in the life and former life of Buddha himself. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 54

Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court:

1. Parliament, as well as State Legislatures, can enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court with respect to Union and State List respectively.

2. To date, no such law enlarging the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been passed.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 54

According to Article 138:
Statement 1 is not correct:

  • The Supreme Court shall have such further jurisdiction and powers with respect to any of the matters in the Union List as Parliament may by law confer.

  • The Supreme Court shall have such further jurisdiction and powers with respect to any matter as the Government of India and the Government of any State may by special agreement confer if Parliament by law provides for the exercise of such jurisdiction and powers by the Supreme Court.

  • Hence, in matters in the Union List, Parliament and in any other matter Parliament in concurrence with Government of India and the Government of any State can enlarge the powers and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Hence, State Legislatures don't have any powers regarding the enlargement of powers of the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is not correct:

  • The Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Act, 1970 was passed by the Parliament to enlarge the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in criminal cases to cover cases where the High Court had reversed a lower court order of acquittal of the accused and sentenced him to imprisonment to life or ten years or where it had withdrawn a case from a lower court for trial before itself.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 55

With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements:

1. To become a member, a country must have at least 15% of its region as wetlands.

2. Both the natural and manmade wetlands can be classified as Ramsar wetlands sites.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 55

The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands. It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the Convention was signed in 1971.

Currently, there are 171 members who have ratified it adding up to more than 2300 wetlands of international importance.

There are two requirements of governments which join the Ramsar Convention

Firstly, it is a requirement for each country, when depositing its instrument of ratification or accession, to designate at least one wetland in its territory for the List of Wetlands of International Importance. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Secondly, the government is then expected to formulate and implement planning so as to promote the conservation of the wetlands included in the List of Wetlands of International Importance and as far as possible, the wise use of wetlands in their territory

The Ramsar classifies the types of wetlands as follows:

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Marine/coastal wetlands: coral reefs, shores, lagoons, etc.

  • Inland wetlands: freshwater springs, creeks, marshes, etc

  • Human-made wetlands: Aquaculture ponds, irrigated land, canals, etc. eg Harike Lake in Punjab.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 56

Consider the following statements:

1. India is the largest importer of vegetable oils in the world.

2. Groundnut contributes the highest to the total oilseeds production in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 56

Oilseed cultivation is undertaken across the country in about 26 million ha, covering 72% under rainfed areas and producing around 30 million tonnes of oilseeds. Among nine major oilseeds Soybean (39%), Groundnut (26%) and Rapeseed-Mustard (24%), contribute more than 88% of total oilseeds production in the country. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

India is heavily dependent on imports to meet its edible oil requirements and is the largest importer of vegetable oils in the world followed by China and USA. Of all the imported edible oils, share of palm oil is about 60% followed by soybean oil with a share of 25% and sunflower oil (12%). Import growth in respect of edible oils during the last decade was about 174%. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Hence option a is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 57

Khimp, Pala, Sinia and Murath are the species planted as brushwood to create micro-wind breaks. These are most likely found in which of the following regions of India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 57

Desertification is severe in hot and arid northwestern India which comprises the Thar desert. Of the 32 million hectares (ha) of hot and arid land in the country, Rajasthan holds the maximum share with 62 per cent. The Thar is located between the Aravalli mountain range in the east and the river Indus in the west, and both influence the desert’s climate, landform and hydrology. The Central Arid Zone Research Institute has taken several steps in the state, particularly in western Rajasthan to tackle wind erosion and stabilize sand dunes.

  • CAZRI’s activities include a) fencing of dune areas to protect against biotic interferences; b) creating micro-wind breaks in a parallel stripe or checkerboard patterns by planting locally available brushwood and grass; c) afforestation on dune slopes by directly sowing grass seeds and transplanting seeds of indigenous and exotic species; d) planting grass slips, seeds of grasses or leguminous creepers on the leeward side of the micro-wind breaks; and e) continuous management of dunes till the input cost is recovered.

  • Leptadenia pyrotechnica (khimp), Ziziphus nummularia (pala), Crotalaria burhia (sinia) and Panicum turgidum (murath) were the species planted as brushwood to create micro-wind breaks. Acacia tortilis, Prosopis spp, Acacia senegal, Parkinsonia articulata and Tamarix articulata were planted as trees, and Lasiurus sindicus and Cenchrus ciliaris as grass.

  • Khimp: Leptadenia pyrotechnica is widespread from Senegal to India. It is known as khimp in Hindi and Urdu,"Khipp" in Punjabi. Being highly drought-resistant, Leptadenia pyrotechnica has played an important role in the desert afforestation programs. Ziziphus nummularia (pala) is a species of Ziziphus native to the Thar Desert of western India and southeastern Pakistan and south Iran.

  • Today, the technique is being used in Rajasthan’s desert districts Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner, Jodhpur and Churu. With help from the state forest department, sand dunes over 0.4 million ha have been fixed. At least 14 per cent higher soil moisture and 70 per cent more grain yield of pearl millet was recorded on the lee side of the shelterbelt.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 58

Consider the following statements about Basohli school of Paintings:

1. Basohli paintings are considered among the earliest school of Pahari paintings

2. The well-known miniatures in the form of Rasamanjari belong to this school.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 58

Basholi is a small town in Kathua district of Jammu and Kashmir. It was founded by Raja Bhupat Pal in 1635 and is renowned for a special and vibrant style of Pahari miniature paintings. It is considered as the earliest Centre of painting in the Pahari region under the patronage Raja Kirpal Pal.

  • An artist in name of Devidasa, under the patronage of Kripal Pal, executed miniatures of the Rasamanjari text which was written by poet Bhanu Datta. The miniatures are known as Rasamanjari illustrations.

  • Basohli style of painting is characterized by vigorous and bold lines and strong glowing colours. An illustration from a series of Gita Govind painted by artist manaku in 1730 shows further development of the Basohli style.

  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 59

Mela Kheer Bhawani temple recently seen in the news, it is situated in which of the following ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 59

In News:

  • The Mata Kheer Bhawani Mela at the famous Ragnya Devi temple near Srinagar is being observed after a hiatus of two years owing to the COVID-19 outbreak.The temple is dedicated to the goddess Ragnya Devi. Situated 30 km from Srinagar city, it is one of the most sacred pilgrimage sites for Kashmiri Hindus.

  • The temple gets its name from kheer, or milk and rice pudding, that pilgrims pour into the spring inside the temple complex as an offering to the goddess.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 60

Consider the following statements about the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) species in India:

1. It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world.

2. It is categorised as critically endangered by the IUCN Red List.

3. The largest concentration of GIBs could be found in the state of Gujarat.

4. There exist a national programme for the conservation of the GIBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 60

Statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct. Great Indian bustard, (Ardeotis nigriceps), is large bird of the bustard family (Otididae), one of the heaviest flying birds in the world. The great Indian bustard inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands on the Indian subcontinent; its largest populations are found in the Indian state of Rajasthan.

  • Great Indian bustards are omnivores that feed opportunistically. They prey on various arthropods, worms, small mammals, and small reptiles. Insects such as locusts, crickets, and beetles make up the bulk of their diet during the summer monsoon when rainfall peaks in India and the bird’s breeding season largely takes place.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) had been listed as a "critically endangered" avian species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN).GIB's population had reportedly fallen to 150, according to official data. The major reasons cited for their drastic decline were large-scale unchecked habitat loss, increased poaching, predators (such as feral dogs and eagles), and insufficient measures by state and central governments.

  • Statement 4 is correct.: In 2012 the Indian government launched Project Bustard, a national conservation program to protect the great Indian bustard, along with the Bengal florican (Houbaropsis bengalensis), the lesser florican (Sypheotides indicus), and their habitats from further declines. The program was modeled after Project Tiger, a massive national effort initiated in the early 1970s to protect the tigers of India and their habitat. A conservation centre has been set up at Desert National Park inJaisalmer.

  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun, are working to save the GIB. The Ministry has allotted special funds to the tune of Rs 33 crore,a part of which was used to set up the incubation and chick-rearing centre in Jaisalmer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 61

Which of the following correctly describes the term 'Debt-for-Nature Swap', sometimes

seen in news?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 61
  • Debt-for-nature swaps are financial transactions in which a portion of a developing nation's foreign debt is forgiven in exchange for local investments in environmental conservation measures.

  • It is a voluntary transaction whereby the donor(s) cancels the debt owned by a developing country’s government. The savings from the reduced debt service are invested in conservation projects

  • In 1984, World Wildlife Fund [now the World Wide Fund for Nature] (WWF) initiated the debt-for- nature swap as a mechanism for enhancing conservation efforts in developing countries.

  • The idea arose from the observation that much of the world's biological diversity is harboured in the same countries that face the greatest financial strain from foreign debt burdens.

  • Debt-for-nature swaps leverage funds for use in local conservation efforts, based on the model of debt-equity swaps - in which private sector interests buy discounted debt and exchange it for local currency investments in the indebted country.While debt-for-equity swaps did provide the initial outline for the financial mechanism, debt-for-nature swaps have a very different purpose. A debt-for-equity swap is used to generate profits for the investor.

  • A debt-for-nature swap does not seek profit, but rather to provide additional funds for conservation activities within a country. The debt-for-nature swap differs in that there is no transfer of ownership or repatriation of capital to a foreign investor.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 62

Consider the following statements regarding Dark Fermentation, a process to convert organic waste into biohydrogen:

1. It can take place both in the presence and absence of oxygen.

2. Farm and food waste can be utilized as input material.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 62
  • Dark fermentation is a technology used to convert organic waste into biohydrogen. It takes place in the absence of oxygen i.e. anaerobic conditions. It is a very useful technique considering the two biggest problems of the era being- fuel resource and management of environmental waste. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • This technology uses wastewater from industries, crop residues, livestock or food waste to generate biohydrogen. This hydrogen can be used as a source of energy. It is environment friendly and also solves the problem of fuel required for energy. But the major problem with this technology currently is its low efficiency. Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 63

Consider the following statements with respect to the role of hydroxyl radicals in the

atmosphere:

1. They have a high oxidizing capacity which helps in reducing the concentration of greenhouse gases.

2. They help in killing bacteria and viruses in the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 63
  • Most notably hydroxyl radicals are produced from the decomposition of hydroperoxides (ROOH) or, in atmospheric chemistry, by the reaction of excited atomic oxygen with water. It is also an important radical formed in radiation chemistry since it leads to the formation of hydrogen peroxide and oxygen, which can enhance corrosion.

  • The hydroxyl radical is often referred to as the "detergent" of the troposphere because it reacts with many pollutants, decomposing them through "cracking", often acting as the first step to their removal. In this process, they also aid in killing bacteria or viruses. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The hydroxyl radical, -OH, is the neutral form of the hydroxide ion (OH−). Hydroxyl radicals are highly reactive and consequently short-lived; however, they form an important part of radical chemistry. It also has an important role in eliminating some greenhouse gases like methane and ozone. On a global scale, OH reacts primarily with carbon monoxide (40%) to form carbon dioxide. Around 30% of the OH produced is removed from the atmosphere in reactions with organic compounds and 15% reacts with methane (CH4). The remaining 15% reacts with ozone (O3), hydroperoxy radicals (HO2) and hydrogen gas (H2). Hence statement 1 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - Question 64