UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 below.
Solutions of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 questions in English are available as part of our course for UPSC & UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 solutions in Hindi for UPSC course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 1

Consider the following statements with reference to Atal Bhujal Yojana:

  1. It aims to promote sustainable groundwater management with community participation in select over- exploited and water-stressed areas.

  2. It is a World Bank-assisted project with a 50:50 contribution between the Government of India and the World Bank.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 1
  • It is a Central Sector Scheme to be implemented over a period of five years from 2020-21 to 2024-25, with World Bank assistance.

  • Atal Bhujal Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme for facilitating sustainable groundwater management with an outlay of INR 6000 crore. Out of this, INR 3,000 crore will be a loan from the World Bank and INR 3,000 crore as a matching contribution from the Government of India (GoI).

  • The objective is to improve groundwater management in priority areas in the country through community participation and to foster behavioral changes that promote conservation and efficient use of water.

Additional information

  • The priority areas identified under the scheme fall in the states of Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. These States represent about 25% of the total number of over-exploited, critical, and semi-critical blocks in terms of groundwater in India. They also cover two major types of groundwater systems found in India - alluvial and hard rock aquifers- and have varying degrees of institutional readiness and experience in groundwater management

  • The scheme will also facilitate the convergence of ongoing Government schemes in the states by incentivizing their focussed implementation in identified priority areas.

  • Funds under the scheme will be made available to the participating states as Grants.

  • Hence both the statements are correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS) scheme:

  1. It aims to provide vocational training to non-literate, neo-literate and school dropouts in the age group of 15-45 years.

  2. It is implemented through NGOs with 100% grants from the Government of India.

  3. Jan Shikshan Sansthans are registered under the Societies Registration Act,1860.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 2
  • Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS) scheme (formerly known as Shramik Vidyapeeth) is implemented in the country since 1967 to improve the skills and knowledge of the vulnerable. Earlier it was under the Ministry of Human Resources Development later it was transferred to the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship in 2018.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The mandate of the scheme is to provide vocational skills in non-formal mode to non-literate, neo-literates, persons with rudimentary level of education upto 8th and school drop-outs upto 12th standard in the age group of 15-45 years.

  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct: It is implemented through NGOs with 100% grants from the Government of India. Jan Shikshan Sansthans are registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. The affairs of Jan Shikshan Sansthan are managed by respective Board of Management approved by the Government ofIndia.

  • Recently MSDE launched guidelines to re-energize the Shikshan Sansthans. Some of which includes Alignment of JSS course to National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF), Evidence-based assessment system, Linking JSS to PFMS (Public Finance Management system), Easy Online certification, etc.

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding the All India Council For Technical

Education (AICTE):

  1. AICTE was established in the year 1986 in accordance with the provisions of the National Policy of Education (NPE), 1986.

  2. Apart from managing the technical education system in India, it also provides quality assurance through accreditation.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS):

  1. It seeks to provide rural youth avenues to take part in the process of nation- building.

  2. It is the largest grassroots-level youth organization in the World.

  3. It is chaired by the Minister of Youth Affairs And Sports.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 4
  • Nehru Yuva Kendras were established in the year 1972 with the objective of providing rural youth avenues to take part in the process of nation-building as well as providing opportunities for the development of their personality and skills. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • In the year 1987-88, Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS) was set up as an autonomous organization under the Government of India, Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, to oversee working of these Kendras.

  • NYKS is the largest grassroots level youth organization; one of its kind in the world. It channelizes the power of youth on the principles of voluntarism, self-help and community participation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • NYKS has targeted to identify areas of harnessing youth power for development by forming Youth Clubs, which are village-level voluntary action groups of youth, at the grassroots level to involve them in nation-building activities. The core strength of NYKS lies in its network of youth clubs. Youth Clubs are village-based organizations working for community development and youth empowerment.

  • The basic objective for the creation of youth clubs is to render community support through developmental initiatives involving activities with a particular focus on youth empowerment. The implementation of programs and activities of youth clubs is based on local needs and requirements by mobilizing resources from various government departments and other agencies, which include both national, State level and multilateral institutions. The youth clubs and its member volunteers form the base of the NYKS’s vastnational rural network.

  • It is chaired by the Minister of Youth Affairs And Sports. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 5

Which of the following vaccines are covered under Mission Indradhanush?

  1. Inactivated Polio Vaccine

  2. Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine

  3. Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine

  4. Tetanus and Adult Diphtheria Vaccine

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 5
  • Mission Indradhanush was launched in 2014 to cover all those children who have been partially vaccinated or not vaccinated during routine immunization rounds. The objective the schemes is to increase full immunization coverage to at least 90 per cent of children by 2020.

  • Under the mission, vaccination is provided against 12 Vaccine-Preventable Diseases (VPD) i.e. diphtheria, Whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, hepatitis B, meningitis and pneumonia, Haemophilus influenzae type B infections, Japanese encephalitis (JE), rotavirus vaccine, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and measles-rubella (MR). However, Vaccination against Japanese Encephalitis and Haemophilus influenzae type B is being provided in selected districts of the country. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

  • The Ministry is being technically supported by WHO, UNICEF, Rotary International and other donor partners. Mass media, interpersonal communication, and sturdy mechanisms of monitoring and evaluating the scheme are crucial components of Mission Indradhanush.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 6

With reference to „Adopt a Heritage: Apni Dharohar, Apni Pehchaan‟ scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tourism, in collaboration with the Ministry of Culture and the Archaeological Survey of India.

2. The sites can be adopted by private and public sector companies and individuals.

3. The oversight committee has the power to terminate a memorandum of understanding in case of non-compliance or non-performance.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 6
  • The ‘Adopt a Heritage: Apni Dharohar, Apni Pehchaan’ scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tourism, in collaboration with the Ministry of Culture and the Archaeological Survey of India. It was launched in September 2017 on World Tourism Day by President Ram Nath Kovind. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Under it, the government invites entities, including public sector companies, private sector firms as well as individuals, to develop selected monuments and heritage and tourist sites across India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The sites/monument are selected on the basis of tourist footfall and visibility and can be adopted by private and public sector companies and individuals — known as Monument Mitras — for an initial period of five years. The Monument Mitras are selected by the ‘oversight and vision committee,’ co-chaired by the Tourism Secretary and the Culture Secretary, on the basis of the bidder’s ‘vision’ for the development of all amenities at the heritage site. There is no financial bid involved. ‘Monument Mitras’ and take up the responsibility of developing and upgrading the basic and advanced tourist amenities at these sites as per their interest and viability in terms of a sustainable investment model under CSR. They would also look after the Operation & Maintenance of the same.

  • The Monument Mitras, in turn, will get limited visibility on the site premises and on the Incredible India website. The oversight committee also has the power to terminate a memorandum of understanding in case of non-compliance or non-performance. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Some of the featured Heritage sites are Fathepur Sikri (Agra), Chand Baoli (Abhaneri village of Rajasthan), Pangong Tso (Ladakh) etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 7

The Kessler Syndrome is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 7

Kessler Syndrome

  • This is an idea proposed by NASA scientist Donald Kessler in 1978.

  • It states that if there was too much space junk in orbit, it could result in a chain reaction where more and more objects collide and create new space junk in the process, to the point where Earth's orbit becomes unusable.

    • It is also known as “collisional cascading”.

  • This cascade of collisions first came to NASA’s attention in the 1970s when derelict Delta rockets left in orbit began to explode creating shrapnel clouds.

  • Kessler proposed it would take 30 to 40 years for such a threshold to be reached and today, some experts think we are already at critical mass in low-Earth orbit at about 560 to 620 miles (900 to 1,000 kilometres)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 8

With reference to Indo-Pak war of 1971, which of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 8
  • Statement a is incorrect. It was not the Indian Army, but the Indian Navy launched a surprise attack on the Karachi harbour under the code name 'Operation Trident'.

  • Statement b is incorrect. It was the Karachi agreement in which the agreement was signed between Military Representatives of India and Pakistan regarding the Establishment of a Ceasefire Line in the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

  • Statement c is correct. Both India and Pakistan agreed that the relation between the two countries would be governed by the principles of the United Nations Charter

  • Statement d is incorrect. China maintain the neutrality in the war. However, US supported the Pakistan and also warned India against taking military action.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 9

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar?

  1. He founded the Widow Remarriage Association in 1850s

  2. Barna Parichay, a book on Bengali alphabet is written by him.

  3. He was strongly against the priestly monopoly of scriptural knowledge.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 9

Statement 1 is incorrect. It was mainly due to the efforts of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820-91), the principal of Sanskrit College, Calcutta, that the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856, was passed. But the Widow Remarriage Association in 1850s was founded by Vishnu Shashtri Pandit and not by Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

Statement 2 is correct. He wrote down the Bengali alphabet as we know it today. His original publication on the subject is called Barna Parichay literally, An Introduction to the Alphabet.

Statement 3 is correct. He was strongly against the priestly monopoly of scriptural knowledge. For this he opened the Sanskrit college to Non-Brahmins.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 10

Match the following Governor-General and their reforms taken by them.

Q. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 10
  • Correct pair 1 is : Lord Reading (1921-1926) repealed the Press act of 1910 and the Rowlatt act of 1919

  • Correct pair 2 is: Lord Irwin (1926-31) announced the Deepavali declaration that the objective of the British was to grant Dominion status to India. However, Irwin never promised for granting the Dominion Status to India.

  • Correct pair 3 is : Lord Linlithgow (1936-44) announced the August offer to seek cooperation of India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 11

Which of the following statements is correct about the Mauryan administration?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 11
  • Statement a is incorrect. Subordinate courts at the provincial capitals and districts were under the supervision of Amatyas.

  • Statement b is incorrect. The Samharta was the highest officer in charge of assessment of all revenues of the empire.

  • Statement c is incorrect. The Sannidhata was the chief custodian of state treasury and store house.

  • Statement d is correct. Adyakshas were the superintendents who controlled the economic activities of the state related to agriculture, trade and commerce, weights and measures, crafts such as weaving and spinning, mining and so on.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 12

Which of the following is correct about the local administration of Cholas?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 12
  • Statement a is incorrect. Ur is a smaller administrative unit than Nadu. Settlements of peasants, known as ur. Groups of such villages formed larger units called nadu.

  • Statement b is correct. Rich peasants of the Vellala caste exercised considerable control over the affairs of the nadu under the supervision of the central Chola government.

  • Statement c is incorrect. land gifted to brahmanas were called brahmadeya.

  • Statement d is incorrect. Each brahmadeya was looked after by an assembly or sabha of prominent Brahmana landholders. These assemblies worked very efficiently.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 13

As per Kantar India’s Brand Footprint report, which is the most chosen FMCG brand in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 13

Parle remained the most chosen Fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) brand for the tenth year in a row in 2021.

This was revealed in the latest Kantar India’s Brand Footprint 2022 report. It is followed by Amul, Britannia, Clinic Plus, Tata and Ghadi. The report ranked these brands based on Consumer Reach Points (CRPs), based on actual purchases and the frequency of those purchases.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 14

What is the theme of the ‘World Day Against Trafficking in Persons’ in 2022?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 14

‘World Day Against Trafficking in Persons’ is observed every year on 30 July. This year the theme of the event is “Use and abuse of technology”.

The Blue Heart Campaign was also launched where the blue heart represents the sadness of those who are trafficked, as well as the cold-heartedness of those who buy and sell fellow human beings.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with reference to the Scheduled Tribes and Other

Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act of 2006:

  1. It aims to democratize and recognize the tribal identity.

  2. It grants rights to use forest products such as timber.

  3. It empowers the Gram Sabha to make recommendations concerning possession and duration of the possession of forest land.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 15

The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act of 2006, also known as the Forest Rights Act, is pivotal legislation that governs and provisions for the legal rights of the forest-residing communities, particularly the indigenous Adivasi tribal community, over the territory and natural resources that they have been dispossessed of. After the introduction of the current Forest Rights Act, rights were also provided to the community for protecting and managing the forest. The Act aims to shift away from the excess state control of the forests which were kept away from the purview of public discourse and discussion. Thus, it democratizes and gives a respectful recognition to the tribal identity. So, statement (1) is correct.

Section 3(1 )(c) provisions for the rights to use minor, "traditionally" collected products

manufactured by forests such as tendu patta, herbs or plants of medicinal benefits. Nonetheless, timber has been left excluded from this list as this would have facilitated rampant deforestation.

So, statement (2) is not correct.

The role of the entire Gram Sabha, and not merely the Gram Panchayat, has been given due importance in the Act. The Gram Sabha members are given the authority to recommend who possesses and cultivates the land, the duration of the possession or/and cultivation, etc. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

  1. Central Administrative Tribunal is a constitutional body made by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

  2. Members of the defence forces and officers and servants of the Supreme Court are excluded from the jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal.

  3. As per the Constitution, only one tribunal for the Centre and one for each State may be established.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 16

Tribunals were not a part of the original Constitution; it was incorporated in the Indian Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. The CAT was set up on 1st November 1985 as a statutory body under tl1e Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985. So, statement (1) is not correct.

It has jurisdiction to deal with service matters about the Central Government employees or any Union Territory, or local or other Government under the control of the Government of India, or of a corporation owned or controlled by the Central Government. Members of the defence forces and officers and servants of the Supreme Court are excluded from the jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal. So, statement (2) is correct.

It has ·17 regular benches, 15 of which operate at the principal seats of High Courts and the remaining two at Jaipur and Lucknow. These Benches also hold circuit sittings at other seats of High Courts. The tribunal consists of a Chairman, Vice-Chairman and Members. The members are drawn, both from judicial and administrative streams, to give the tribunal the benefit of expertise both in legal and administrative spheres. The appeals against the orders of an Administrative Tribunal shall lie before the Division Bench of the concerned High Court. Under Article-323A, only one Tribunal for the Centre and one for each State or two or more States may be established. So, statement (3) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 17

Which of the following Directive Principles is not based on Gandhian ideology?

authority to function as self-government units.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 17

Some of the DPSPs are based on Gandhian ideology. They represent the program of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement. To fulfill the dreams of Gandhi, some of his ideas were included in the Constitution as Directive Principles. They require the State:

  • To organize village panchayat and endow them with necessary powers and authority to function as self-government units (Article 40). So, statement (a) is correct.

  • To promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperative basis in rural areas (Article 43).

  • To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of cooperative societies. (Article 438). So, statement (b) is correct.

  • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46). So, statement (c) is correct.

  • To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health (Article 4 7).

  • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).

  • To organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48) is based on Liberal-Intellectual Principles, representing the ideology of liberalism. So, statement ( d) is not correct.

  • Therefore, the answer is ( d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 18

Consider the following statements with reference to the office of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:

  1. Originally the Constitution did not make any provision with respect to this office.

  2. The Constitution specifies the qualifications, tenure and service conditions of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

  3. The Linguistic Minorities are determined state-wise, and it falls under the Ministry of Culture.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 18

Originally, the Constitution did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for

Linguistic Minorities. State Reorganization Commission (1953-55), under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali, made such a recommendation. Later, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution in this regard. So, statement (1) is correct.

The officer is appointed by the President. Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure and service conditions of Special Officer for linguistic minorities. So, statement {2) is not correct.

Accordingly, the office was created in 1957 with Allahabad as headquarter and three regionai offices at Belgaum, Chennai and Kolkata. The officer is called the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. As far as the Union government is concerned, the office falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Linguistic Minorities are determined on a state-wide basis.

So, statement (3) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 19

Consider the following statements with reference to the Fundamental Rights:

  1. The State cannot restrict any citizen from using public bathing Ghats whatsoever as it infringes the right to equality of an individual.

  2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act ( 1955) deems the social boycott of individuals or their exclusion from religious services as an 'offence under untouchability.'

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 19

Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. The article says that no citizen shall be subjected to any disability, liability, restriction, or condition on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth with regard to:

  • Access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or

  • The use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly by State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public. The word 'discriminate' means 'to make an adverse distinction with regard to' or 'to distinguish unfavourably from others.'

  • Use of the word 'only' connotes that discrimination on other grounds is not prohibited.

  • Thus, in the case of a citizen suffering from a deadly communicable disease, the State can restrict that person from using bathing ghats to ensure public health safety. So, statement ·1 is not correct.

Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955):

Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955), the Act declares the following acts as offences:

  • Preventing any person from entering any place of public worship or from worshipping therein or justifying untouchabiiity on traditional, religious, philosophical, or other grounds;

  • Denying access to any shop, hotel, or places of public entertainment or Insulting a person belonging to a scheduled caste on the ground of untouchability;

  • Refusing to admit persons in hospitals, educational institutions, or hostels established for public benefit or even preaching untouchability directly or indirectly; and

  • Refusing to sell goods or render services to any person. However, the Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955) does not cover the social boycott of a few individuals or their exclusion from religious services. Thus, the Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955) does not deem the social boycott of individuals or their exclusion from religious services as an 'offense under untouchability.' So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is ( d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 20

With reference to Jute Sector in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Jute Corporation of India Limited (JCI) has a mandate for the procurement of raw jute without any quantitative limit from the growers at the Minimum Support Price (MSP).

  2. At present, 50% of the foodgrains and 20% of sugar are required to be mandatorily packed in jute bags.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 20

Statement 1 is correct: The Jute Corporation of India Limited (JCI) was incorporated by the Government of India (GOI) in 1971 as a price support agency with a clear mandate for the procurement of raw jute without any quantitative limit from the growers at the Minimum Support price (MSP) declared in each year by the GOI based on the recommendations made by Commission for Agricultural Cost & Prices (CACP).

Statement 2 is not correct: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has approved reservation norms for mandatosry use of jute in packaging for the Jute Year 2021 -22 (1st July 2021 to 30th June 2022). The Mandatory packaging norms approved for Jute Year 2021-22 provide for 100% reservation of the foodgrains and 20% of sugar to be compulsorily packed in jute bags.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 21

Consider the following statements in reference to the Ahom kingdom:

  1. It was founded by Chaolung Sukaphaa.

  2. Treaty of Yandaboo was signed between Britishers and Ahoms.

  3. Forced labour was prevalent in the Ahom kingdom.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 21

Statement 1 is correct. The founder of Ahom kingdom was Chaolung Sukaphaa. He founded Ahom kingdom in 1228.

Statement 2 is correct. Treaty of Yandaboo was signed between Britishers and Ahoms in 1826, following which Ahom kingdom became part of the British India.

Statement 3 is correct. The Ahom state depended upon forced labour. Those forced to work for the state were called paiks.

Knowledge Base: The Ahom dynasty (1228–1826) ruled the Ahom kingdom in present-day Assam, India for nearly 598 years. The dynasty was established by Sukaphaa, a Shan prince of Mong Mao who came to Assam after crossing the Patkai mountains. The Ahoms ruled the land till the province was annexed to British India in 1826 with the signing of the Treaty of Yandaboo.

Ahom society was divided into clans or khels. A khel often controlled several villages.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 22

Consider the following statements with respect to Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (Veer Savarkar):

  1. He founded the Indian Independence league.

  2. He wrote his famous book Six glorious epochs of Indian history in Marathi

  3. He participated in the Swadeshi movement

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 22
Option b is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Rash Bihari Bose founded the Indian Independence league. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar founded the Free India Society. He has also founded the Abhinav Bharat Society.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Six Glorious Epochs of Indian History, was written by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in Marathi a few years before his death in 1966.

  • Six Glorious Epochs provides an account of Hindu resistance to invasions of India from the earliest times. It is based on historical records, accounts of foreign travellers, and the writings of colonial historians.

  • Statement 3 is correct. He participated in the Swadeshi movement. Savarkar was also against foreign goods and propagated the idea of Swadeshi. In 1905, he burnt all the foreign goods in a bonfire on Dussehra.

Knowledge Base: Veer Savarkar was born in 1883.Savarkar was an Indian freedom fighter,

activist, politician, lawyer, writer and formulator of Hindutva philosophy. Savarkar was also the first political leader to set independence as India’s goal in the 1900s. Veer Savarkar had called the 1857 revolt as the first war of independence. He has written a book called “The Indian War of Independence 1857”

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 23

Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. Nav-ratnas in the court of King Akbar?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 23

Option a is incorrect. Mullah do Piaza acted as the minister of Home Affairs in Akbar’s court. Fakir Aziao-din acted was a sufi mystic and advisor in Akbar’s court.

Option b is incorrect. Shaikh Abu al-Fazal ibn Mubarak was also known as Abu'l-Fazl, Abu'l Fadl and Abu'l-Fadl 'Allami. He was the author of Akbarnama and Ain-I-Akbari. He also translated the Bible into the Persian language.

Faizi was a poet laureate and Abul Fazal’s brother. He was one of the Navratnas of Akbar and was given the status of Malik-ush-Shu’ara (Court Poet) by Akbar.

He translated “Lilavati (Sanskrit work in Maths by Bhaskaracharya)", into Persian.

Option c is incorrect. Raja Todar Mal was the Finance Minister of the Mughal empire during Akbar's reign and was one of the Navaratnas in Akbar's court. He (and not Fakir Aziao din) introduced standard weights and measures, a land survey and settlement system, revenue districts, and officers. This system of maintenance by Patwari is still used in the Indian Subcontinent which was improved by the British and the Government of India.

Option d is correct. Abdul Rahim Khan-i- Khana was a poet and one of the most important dewans of Akbar’s court. Known for his Urdu couplets and his Sanskrit books on astrology like Khetakautukam and Dwatrimshadyogavali, the village of Khan Khana, in the Nawanshahr district of Punjab is named after him.

He was the son of Bairam Khan, Akbar’s trusted guardian and mentor.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 24

It is the largest dam of India by volume. It is also largest artificial lake in India. It is constructed on one of the tributaries of Ganga. The above information refers to which dam?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 24

Option a is incorrect. Bhakra Nangal Dam

Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh in northern India. The dam forms the Govind Sagar reservoir. The dam is located at a gorge near the upstream Bhakra village in Bilaspur district of Himachal Pradesh of height 226 m.

Option b is correct. Rihand Dam Rihand Dam also known as Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar, is the largest dam of India by volume. The reservoir of Rihand Dam is called Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar and is India's largest artificial lake. It is situated on Son River, a tributary of Ganga. Rihand Dam is a concrete gravity dam located at Pipri in Sonbhadra District in

Uttar Pradesh, India.

Option c is incorrect. Hirakud dam Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, about 15 kilometres from Sambalpur in the state of Odisha in India. Behind the dam extends a lake, Hirakud Reservoir, 55 km long. It is one of the first major multipurpose river valley projects started after India's independence.

Option d is incorrect.

The Tehri Dam is the tallest dam in India. It is a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam on the Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand, India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 25

Which of the following statement is correct with respect to Heat waves?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 25
  • Option a is incorrect. Heat waves occur when actual maximum temperature is ≥45°C.
  • Option b is incorrect. Heat waves is a period of abnormally high temperatures that occurs during the summer season. In India, heat waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July.
  • Option c is correct. Severe heat waves occur when temperature departure from normal is greater than 6.4°C.
  • Option d is incorrect. To declare a heat wave, the set criteria should be met at least in 2 stations in a Meteorological subdivision for at least two consecutive days and it will be declared on the second day Knowledge Base:

A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer season. In India, Heat Waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July.

Heat Wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40 degree C for Plains and at least 30 degree C for Hilly regions

Following criteria are used to declare heat wave:

Based on Departure from Normal:

  1. Heat Wave: temperature Departure from normal is 4.5°C to 6.4°C.

  2. Severe Heat Wave: temperature Departure from normal is >6.4°C.

Based on Actual Maximum Temperature (for plains only):

  1. Heat Wave: When actual maximum temperature ≥ 45°C.

  2. Severe Heat Wave: When actual maximum temperature ≥47°C.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 26

Consider the following statements:

  1. If India declares war against the Islamic State (ISIS), it must be approved by the President.

  2. The President's satisfaction in the promulgation of the Ordinance is final and conclusive, and beyond judicial review.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 26
Every executive action that the Indian Government takes is to be taken in the President's name. He may/may not make rules to simplify the transaction of business of the Central Government. He seeks administrative information from the Union government. He requires PM to submit, for consideration of the Union Council of Ministers, any matter on which a Minister has taken a decision but which has not been considered by the UCoM.

The President of India is the Chief Commander of the Indian Armed Forces. Any decision to

conclude peace or war is finally approved by him. However, after his approval, the Parliament must also assent to it within a certain period of time. So, statement 1 is correct.

Article 123 deals with the Ordinance making power of the President. The President has many legislative powers and this power is one of them. Supreme Court in RC Cooper vs. Union of India (1970) held that the President's decision to promulgate Ordinance could be challenged on the grounds that 'immediate action' was not required, and the Ordinance had been issued primarily to bypass debate and discussion in the legislature. It was argued in DC Wadhwa vs. the State of Bihar (1987) that the legislative power of the executive to promulgate Ordinances is to be used in exceptional circumstances and not as a substitute for the law-making power of the legislature.

So, it is not outside the purview of judicial review. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

  1. It is to be established by the State for every district having a population of more than a million.

  2. In the case of a district having Zilla Parishad, the chairperson of that Zilla Parishad is the co-chairperson of the DDMA.

  3. It comprises ten members, including the chairperson.

Q. Which of the statements given above are not correct with reference to the District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA)?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 27

The DDMA acts as the district planning, coordinating and implementing body for disaster

management and takes all measures for disaster management purposes in the district in

accordance with the guidelines laid down by the NOMA and the SOMA.

Every state government should establish a District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) for every district in the State. A DDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding seven. The Collector (or District Magistrate or Deputy Commissioner) of the district is the ex-officio chairperson of the DDMA. The elected representative of the local authority is the ex-officio co-chairperson of the DDMA. But, in the case of Tribal Areas (as referred to in the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India), the chief executive member of the district council of the autonomous district is the ex-officio co-chairperson of the DDMA. So, statements 1 and 3 are not correct.

The chief executive officer of the DDMA, the superintendent of police and the chief medical officer of the district, are the ex-officio members of the DDMA. Not more than two other district-level officers are appointed by the state government as members of the DDMA. In the case of a district where Zilla Parishad exists, the chairperson of that Zilla Parishad is the co-chairperson of theDDMA. The chief executive officer of the DDMA is appointed by the state government. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 28

Which of the following are potential application areas for "Gold Nano Particles"?

  1. Electronics

  2. Photodynamic Therapy

  3. Therapeutic Agent Delivery

  4. Sensors

  5. Diagnostics

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 28

Gold Nano Particles (GNPs) are melted at much lower temperatures (300 °C) than bulk gold (1064 0C). NPs have been found to impart various desirable properties to different day-to-day products.

For example, GNPs are found to have greater solar radiation absorbing ability than conventional bulk gold, which makes them a better candidate for use in the photovoltaic cell manufacturing industry.

Applications of GNP

  • Electronics - As the world of electronics becomes smaller, nanoparticles are important components in chip design. Nanoscale gold nanoparticles are being used to connect resistors, conductors, and other elements of an electronic chip. So, application 1 is correct.

  • Photodynamic Therapy - Near-IR absorbing gold nanoparticles (including gold nanoshells and nanorods) produce heat when excited by light at wavelengths from 700 to 800 nm. This enables these nanoparticles to eradicate targeted tumors. When light is applied to a tumor containing gold nanoparticles, the particles rapidly heat up, killing tumor cells in a treatment also known as hyperthermia therapy. So, application 2 is correct.

  • Therapeutic Agent Delivery - Therapeutic agents can also be coated onto the surface of gold nanoparticles. The large surface area-to-volume ratio of gold nanoparticles enables their surface to be coated with hundreds of molecules (including therapeutics, targeting agents, and anti-fouling polymers). So, application 3 is correct.

  • Gold nanoparticles are used in a variety of sensors. For example, a colorimetric sensor based on gold nanoparticles can identify if foods are suitable for consumption. Other methods, such as surface-enhanced Raman spectroscopy, exploit gold nanoparticles as substrates to measure the vibrational energies of chemical bonds. This strategy could also be used for the detection of proteins, pollutants, and other molecules label-free. So, application 4 is correct.

  • Diagnostics - Gold nanoparticles are also used to detect biomarkers in the diagnosis of heart diseases, cancers, and infectious agents. They are also common in lateral flow immunoassays, a common household example being the home pregnancy test. So, application 5 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 29

In the context of ANANYA, consider the following statements:

  1. Defense Institute of Advanced Technology, Pune has developed it to combat COVID- 19 by disinfecting all types of surfaces.

  2. It is an alcohol-based spray and is effective for more than 24 hours.

  3. It can be used on masks, PPEs and hospital linens only.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 29

Defence Institute of Advanced Technology Pune has developed a Nano-technology based

disinfectant spray to combat COVID-19 by disinfecting all types of surfaces. It has been named "ANANY A." So, statement 1 is correct.

It can be used by anyone, from a common person to a healthcare worker, for individual as well as large-scale use. This is a water-based spray and will be effective for more than 24 hours. This formulation adheres very effectively to fabric, plastic and metallic objects, and its toxicity to humans is negligible. The shelf life of the spray is said to be more than six months. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The spray can be used on masks, PPEs, hospital linens, as well as other likely contaminated surfaces such as medical instruments, elevator buttons, doorknobs, corridors and rooms, etc. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 30

Which of the following is/are the byproducts of photosynthesis?

  1. Oxygen

  2. Carbon dioxide

  3. Water

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 30

Photosynthesis is the process in which light energy is converted to chemical energy in the form of sugars. In a process driven by light energy, glucose molecules (or other sugars) are constructed from water and carbon dioxide, and oxygen is released as a byproduct. The glucose molecules provide organisms with two crucial resources: energy and fixed-organic-carbon. So, oxygen is the byproduct of photosynthesis. So, option 1 is correct.

The water is oxidized within the plant cell, meaning it loses electrons, while the carbon dioxide is reduced, meaning it gains electrons. This transforms the water into oxygen and the carbon dioxide into glucose. The plant then releases the oxygen back into the air and stores energy within the glucose molecules. So, options 2 and 3 are not correct.

Inside the plant cell are small organelles called chloroplasts, which store the energy of sunlight.

Within the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast is a light-absorbing pigment called chlorophyll, which is responsible for giving the plant its green color. During photosynthesis, chlorophyll absorbs energy from blue- and red-light waves and reflects green-light waves, making the plant appear green.

Therefore the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 31

With reference to National Marine turtle Action plan 2021-26, consider the following Statements: 

  1. It will enhance livelihoods of coastal communities through sustainable ecotourism.

  2. The action plan is proposed to be adopted at local government level.

  3. The CSR funds will be used to fund the Marine turtle Action plan.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 31
  • Statement 1 is correct. National Marine turtle Action plan 2021-26 will enhance livelihoods of coastal communities through promoting sustainable ecotourism.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. With a view to conserve marine turtles, associated species and their habitats, the following action plan is proposed to be adopted at the National and State Government level.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Mainstream the turtles and their habitats conservation into the production sectors with active participations of industrial sectors including financial supports from their CSR Fund.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 32

With reference to Inequality, select the correct option:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 32
  • Option 1 is incorrect. Natural inequalities are considered to be the result of the different characteristics and abilities with which people are born. It is generally assumed that natural differences cannot be altered.

  • Option 2 is correct. Social inequalities are those which are created by society and are based on values in which we live. Certain societies may, for instance, value those who perform intellectual work over those who do manual work and reward them differently. They may treat differently people of different race, or colour, or gender, or caste. Differences of this kind reflect the values of a society and some of these may certainly appear to us to be unjust.

  • Option 3 is incorrect. Political and legal equality by itself is not sufficient to build a just and egalitarian society, however it is an important component of it.

  • Option 4 is incorrect. Inequality which is relatively untouched over generations is more dangerous for a society.If in a society certain classes of people have enjoyed considerable wealth, and power, over generations, the society would become divided between those classes and others who have remained poor over generations. Over time such class differences can give rise to resentment and violence.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 33

The ‘Bhagoria festival’ seen in the news recently, is associated with which of the following states?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 33
Option A is correct. The Bhagoria festival, also known as the Bhagoria Haat festival, is celebrated by the tribal people (Bhil, Bhilala, Pateliya, etc.) of the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. It has an agricultural significance attached to it as it coincides with the end of harvesting of crops. People celebrate it to mark the completion of harvesting. Also, this festival provides an opportunity for thousands of tribal men and women to choose a life partner of their own choice
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 34

With reference to migratory birds and flyways consider the following statements:

  1. While flying in V formation each bird flies slightly above the bird in front of him

  2. Each group of migratory bird follows a different route during migration

  3. All birds migrate from northern breeding areas to southern wintering grounds.

  4. Some bird species detect polarized light, which they use it for navigation at night.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 34

Statement 1 is correct.IN V formation each bird flies slightly above the bird in front of him, resulting in a reduction of wind resistance. The birds take turns being in the front, falling back when they get tired.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Many different species share broadly similar routes, which have been loosely split

into eight major flyways. These flyways are like bird super-highways across the sky.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The majority of birds migrate from northern breeding areas to southern wintering grounds. However few birds breed in southern parts of Africa and migrate to northern wintering grounds, or horizontally, to enjoy the milder coastal climates in winter. Other birds reside on lowlands during the winter months and move up a mountain for the summer.

Statement 4 is correct. Some bird species can detect polarized light, which many migrating birds may use for navigation at night. They are also able to orientate by the sun during the day, by the stars at night, and by the geomagnetic field at any time.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 35

With reference to ‘Zero Liquid discharge’ which of the following statement is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 35

Statement a is incorrect. Zero liquid discharge (ZLD) is an engineering approach to water treatment where all water is recovered and contaminants are reduced to solid waste. It decreases the cost associated with waste management.

Statement b is correct. ZLD helps to recirculate all the water back to the process with zero liquid waste.

Statement c is incorrect. Currently the Centre government is examining various options of moving forward on the country’s ZLD policy and trying to make a balance between the environmental protection and industrial development.

Statement d is incorrect. According to the experts for semiconductor industry, meeting ZLD standards might be difficult as ultra-clean water is needed for chip manufacturing.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 36

In plants, DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is present in which of the following organelle?

  1. Mitochondria

  2. Nucleus

  3. Ribosome

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 36

DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other

organisms. Nearly every cell in a person's body has the same DNA.

The information in DNA is stored as a code made up of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA consists of about 3 billion bases, and more than 99 percent of those bases are the same in all people.

In eukaryotic cells, most DNA is located in the cell nucleus (though some DNA is also contained in other organelles, such as in the mitochondria and the chloroplast in plants). Nuclear DNA is organized into linear molecules called chromosomes. So, DNA is present only in mitochondria and the nucleus. So, options 1 and 2 are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 37

Consider the following statements regarding the properties of a colloid:

  1. It is a heterogeneous mixture and is unstable.

  2. The size of particles of a colloid is large and can be seen by naked eyes.

  3. These are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it and make its path visible.

  4. Fog, clouds, mist and coloured gemstone are some of the examples of colloid.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 37

A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture and quite stable So, statement 1 is not correct.

The size of particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by naked eyes. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through thern and rnake their path visible. So, statement 3 is correct.

Common examples of colloids are-

So, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 38

Consider the following statements about flora and fauna of a particular biome:

  1. It consists of trees like beech, oak, maple and cherry.

  2. Most animals are familiar vertebrates and invertebrates.

  3. These are the most productive agricultural area on the Earth.

Q. Which of the following biomes has the above-defined characteristics?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 38

A biome is a large area characterized by its vegetation, soil, climate, and wildlife. There are five major types of biomes: aquatic, grassland, forest, desert, and tundra, though some of these 01 omes can be further divided into more specific categories, such

as freshwater, marine, savanna, tropical rainforest, temperate rainforest, and taiga.

  • Tundra biome: Devoid of trees except for stunted shrubs in the southern part of tundra biome, ground flora includes lichen, mosses and sedges. The typical animals are reindeer, arctic fox, and polar bear. Reptiles and amphibians are almost absent. So, option (a) is not correct.

  • Temperate deciduous forest: The flora includes trees like beech, oak, maple and cherry.

  • Most animals are familiar vertebrates and invertebrates. These are the most productive agricultural area on Earth. So, option (b) is correct.

  • e Savannah: Grasses with scattered trees and fire-resisting thorny shrubs. The fauna includes antelopes, buffaloes, zebras, elephants and rhinoceros: the carnivores include lion, cheetah, hyena, and mongoose, and many rodents. So, option (c) is not correct.

  • Grassland: Grasses dominate the vegetation. The fauna includes large herbivores like bison, antelope, cattle, prairie dog, wolves, and a richly diverse array of ground-nesting birds. So, option (d) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 39

Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to joint forest Management?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 39

Joint Forest Management (JFM) is a partnership involving both the forest departments and local communities in natural forest management. The Government of India introduced the concept through the National Forest Policy of 1988.

In JFM, the local communities are involved in the planning of the conservation programme.

The people have controlled access to the forest areas and are permitted to harvest the resources in a sustainable manner. In return, they act as the guardians of the forest. So, options (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

The key element in JFM is that communities can manage the use of forests by members and exclude non-members. The benefits to them are direct access and control on the use and sale of most NTFPs and a share in the income from timber and other intangible benefits from local ecosystem services - like water recharge, pollination, wildlife habitat, etc. Thus the involvement of communities in the conservation of forests and wildlife is of paramount interest.

So, option (c) is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 40

Consider the following statements regarding Mangroves for the Future (MFF):

  1. It is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development.

  2. The International Union for Conservation of Nature and the United Nations Development Programme developed it in 2004.

  3. India and Malaysia are both members of the initiative.

  4. It works towards strengthening Integrated Coastal Management institutions and empower civil society.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 40
Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development. It was former United States President Bill Clinton's vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters. So, statement 1 is correct.

In response to this vision, IUCN and the UNDP developed Mangroves for the Future in 2006. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Maldives, Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and VietNam are the member countries.

Outreach countries: Malaysia. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Objectives:-

  • Improve, share and apply knowledge to support the conservation, restoration and sustainable use of coastal ecosystems.

  • Strengthen Integrated Coastal Management institutions and empower civil society (including local communities) to engage in decision-making and management that conserves, restores and sustainably uses coastal ecosystems.

  • Enhance coastal governance at all levels (regional, national, provincial, district and community) to encourage integrated management programmes and investments that are ecologically and socio-economically sound, and promote human well-being and security. So, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 41

With reference to the Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022, consider the following statements:

  1. The Bill extends the jurisdiction of Indian courts and lays out penal provisions for crimes on the continent who are part of the Indian expedition.

  2. The Bill fulfils the obligations of India under the Madrid Protocol.

Q. Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 41
Recently, the Parliament passed the Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022.

Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022

About:

  • It is the first domestic legislation with regard to Antarctica in India.

  • Applicable to Indian citizens as well as foreign citizens.

Objective:

  • To demilitarise Antarctica; use of Antarctica for peaceful purposes; promote international scientific cooperation in Antarctica.

  • The Bill seeks to give effect to the Antarctic Treaty, the Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources, and the Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty.

Key Features:

  • Prohibit Indian expedition to Antarctica without a permit or written authorisation of another party to Antarctic Treaty.

  • Extend jurisdiction of Indian courts to Antarctica and lays out penal provisions for crimes on the continent by Indian citizens, and foreign citizens who are part of Indian expeditions.

  • The act directs the creation of a fund called the Antarctic fund that will be used for protecting the Antarctic environment.

  • The Bill also establishes a ‘Committee on Antarctic Governance and Environmental Protection.’

  • Prohibits mining, dredging and activities that threaten the pristine conditions of the continent.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 42

With reference to the African Swine Fever, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a contagious hemorrhagic viral disease affecting domestic and wild pigs.

  2. It is the only virus with a double-stranded DNA genome.

  3. It is also called Hog Cholera.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 42
  • Statement 1 is correct: African swine fever (ASF) is a highly contagious hemorrhagic viral disease of domestic and wild pigs, which is responsible for serious economic and production losses.

  • Statement 2 is correct: According to the World Organisation for Animal Health, ASF is caused by a large DNA virus of the Asfarviridae family. African swine fever virus is the only virus with a double-stranded DNA genome known to be transmitted by arthropods.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: As of now, there is no approved vaccine against ASF unlike classical swine fever (‘Hog Cholera’) which is caused by a different virus. Classical Swine Fever (CSF) is one of the most important viral diseases of domestic pigs and wild boar. It is also called Hog Cholera.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 43

With reference to the Vikas engine of ISRO, consider the following statements:

  1. It belongs to the family of liquid fueled rocket engines.

  2. It is used to power both Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

  3. It has been indigenously designed and made with no foreign contribution.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 43
Option a is correct.

Statement 1 is correct. Vikas belongs to family of liquid fuelled rocket engines conceptualized and designed by ISRO’s Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre in the 1970s.

Statement 2 is correct. It is the workhorse liquid rocket engine powering second stage of India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), second stage and four strap-on stages of Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle (GSLV) and is part of first stage i.e., twin engine core liquid stage (L110) of GSLV Mk-III.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The early production VIKAS engines used imported French components which were later replaced by domestically produced equivalents. ISRO and the French Space agency signed a deal to co-develop a 60-ton liquid-fuel engine. While the engine was not an all-new model, it was an improvised version of a smaller French engine in the Viking series. The French had named their engine Viking, but the Indian-side, led by Nambi Narayanan, that negotiated the contract had decided on an Indian name - Vikas.

Knowledge Base: Liquid-fueled engines are more fuel-efficient as they can be switched on and off, they can lift heavier payloads/satellites. Liquid engines also have lesser vibration and can burn for longer durations when compared to their solid counterparts. While a solid engine burns out after use, the liquid engine can be tested, re-used after cleaning and reassembly. Most advanced rockets in the world are primarily dependent

on liquid-fueled engines. If and when solids are used, they are only for the initial thrust (using boosters) at lift-off.

A cryogenic rocket engine is a rocket engine that uses a cryogenic fuel or oxidizer, that is, its fuel or oxidizer (or both) are gases liquefied and stored at very low temperature.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 44

With reference to carbon trading, consider the following:

  1. A carbon credit represents the right to emit a measured amount of GHG.

  2. The Paris Agreement allows voluntary carbon trading between corporations but not countries.

  3. Paris agreement establishes Sustainable development mechanism as a new carbon market instrument

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 44

Statement 1 is correct. A carbon credit is a permit that allows the company that holds it to emit a certain amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases. One credit permits the emission of a mass equal to one ton of carbon dioxide.

The carbon credit is one half of a so-called "cap-and-trade" program. Companies that pollute are awarded credits that allow them to continue to pollute up to a certain limit. That limit is reduced periodically. Meanwhile, the company may sell any unneeded credits to another company that needs them.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Paris Agreement allows voluntary trading between countries to meet their NDC goals. If a country reduces more GHG emissions than its target, it can sell the emission reduction to another country as an “internationally traded mitigation outcome” (ITMO).

Statement 3 is correct. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement established the Sustainable Development Mechanism (SDM) as a new carbon market instrument for the period after 2020. Its purpose is inter alia to replace the existing mechanisms under the Kyoto Protocol, the CDM and JI with a more effective climate tool. Like the earlier Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), this mechanism allows private sector participation in GHG mitigation, aims to contribute to sustainable development, and channels a share of the proceeds to adaptation in vulnerable developing countries.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 45

Which country has announced to launch a new joint international semiconductor research hub with Japan?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 45
The United States and Japan have decided to launch a new joint international semiconductor research hub.

The U.S and Japanese economic talks was recently held to work on joint research for next-generation semiconductors and to establish a secure source of the vital components.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 46

Which of the following pair of mountain passes and the states/UTs they are located in, have been correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 46
.
  • Pair 1 is correctly matched. Nathu La Pass - It is located in the state of Sikkim. This famous pass is located in the India- China border and was reopened in 2006. It forms a part of an offshoot of the ancient silk route.

  • It is one of the border trading posts between India and China.

  • Pair 2 is correctly matched. Shipki La Pass - It is located through Sutlej Gorge. It connects Himachal Pradesh with Tibet. It is India’s third border post for trade with China after Lipu Lekh and Nathula Pass.

  • Pair 3 is correctly matched. Jelep La Pass - This pass passes through the Chumbi valley. It connects Sikkim with Lhasa, the capital of Tibet.

  • Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Lanak La Pass - This is located in the Aksai Chin in the Ladakh Union Territory and not in Jammu and Kashmir. It connects Ladakh and Lhasa.

  • Pair 5 is correctly matched. Lipu Lekh Pass – It is located in Uttarakhand. It connects Uttarakhand with Tibet. This pass is an important border post for trade with China. The pilgrims for Manasarovar travel through this pass. It was in news due to Nepal redrawing its political map.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 47

With reference to whale strandings, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Individual whale strandings are mostly attributed to injury or sickness.

  2. One of the reason is they follow schooling fish or other prey into shallow waters and

become disoriented.

  1. Sonar signals and other man-made loud underwater noises can also cause stranding.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 47

Beaching refers to the phenomenon of dolphins and whales stranding themselves on beaches. There are around 2,000 strandings each year worldwide, with most resulting in the death of the animal. Whales are known to strand themselves on beaches worldwide and do so singularly or iri groups. While individual strandings are mostly attributed to injury or sickness, it is not clear why exactly whales beach themselves in groups. So, statement 1 is correct.

Possible Reasons behind Whale Mass Strandings:

  • Some whales follow schooling fish or other prey into shallow waters, which causes the whales to become disoriented, due to which they get stranded. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Another reason could be panic from being trapped by a predator such as killer whales or sharks.

  • Another possibility is that whales might be drawn to land by prey-rich currents.

  • Some scientists believe that sonar signals and other man-made loud underwater noises may contribute to beaching events. So, statement 3 is correct.

  • Further, the shape of the beach and the coastline could also have a role to play.

Therefore, the correct answer is ( d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 48

The 'Emissions Gap Report' is published by the

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 48

The Emissions Gap Reports are annual science-based assessments of the gap between

countries' pledges on greenhouse gas emissions reductions and the reductions required to deliver a global temperature increase below two °C by the end of this century.

Each year the reports also feature an assessment of key opportunities for bridging the gap. The reports have gained a wide reputation as a scientifically authoritative source of timely and policy-relevant information to key decision-makers, informing the UNFCCC process and - looking forward - implementing the Paris Agreement.

  • The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released the 'Emissions Gap Report,' according to which India is the fourth-largest emitter of Green House Gases (GHGs). So, option ( c) is correct.

  • The world will fail to meet the 1.5°C temperature goal of the Paris Agreement unless global greenhouse gas emissions fall by 7.6 percent each year.

  • The top four emitters (China, USA, E.U. and India) contributed to over 55% of the total emissions over the last decade, excluding emissions from a land-use change such as deforestation.

    • The rankings would change if land-use change emissions were included, with Brazil likely to be the largest emitter.

  • Sectors that are the largest emitters Energy> Industry> Forestry >Transport> Agriculture >Building.

  • It is a flagship report from UNEP and it assesses the gap between anticipated emissions in 2030 and levels consistent with the 1.5°C and two °C targets of the Paris Agreement.

Therefore the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 49

Consider the following statements regarding a purely capitalist economy:

  1. It is based on the policy of minimum governmental interference in the economic affairs of individuals.

  2. There is no restriction on the ownership of assets and accumulation of wealth.

  3. The goods produced are distributed among people on the basis of people's needs.

  4. The government coordinates the production decisions of the citizens.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 49

Capitalism is an economic system in which private individuals or businesses own capital

goods. The production of goods and services is based on supply and demand in the general

market-known as a market economy-rather than through central planning-known as a planned economy or command economy. The purest form of capitalism is free market or laissez- faire capitalism.

  • In a capitalist economy, the government does not coordinate the production decisions of the citizens. Individuals are free to choose any occupation. The firms are also free to sell their product in the markets of their choice. So, statement 4 is not correct.

  • The capitalist or free enterprise economy is the oldest form of economy. Earlier economists supported the policy of 'laissez fair' meaning leaves free. They advocated minimum government intervention in economic activities. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • In a capitalist society, the goods produced are distributed among people not on the basis of what people need but on the basis of Purchasing Power-the ability to buy goods and services. So, statement 3 is not correct.

  • In a capitalist system, all individuals have the right to own property. An individual can acquire property and use it for the benefit of his own family. There is no restriction on land ownership, machines, mines, factories and to earn profit and accumulate wealth. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 50

: Consider the following statements regarding the White Label ATMs:

  1. They are owned and operated by non-banks entities.

  2. The ATM machine does not have any brand name of the Bank.

  3. They also provide cash deposit or cash acceptance facility.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 50

Non-bank entities that set up, own and operate ATMs are called "White Label A TM Operators" (WLAO), while the ATMs are known as "White Label ATMs" (WLAs). The WLAO's role is confined to the acquisition of transactions of all banks' customers by establishing technical connectivity with the existing authorized, shared ATM Network Operators I Card Payment Network Operators. The role of WLAs is that it provides banking services to the customers of banks in India based on the cards issued by banks.

The rationale to allow non-bank entities to set up WLAs has been to increase the geographical spread of A TMs for increased/enhanced customer service, especially in semi-urban I rural areas.

  • ATMs set up, owned, and operated by non-banks are called white-label ATMs (WLA TMs). Non-bank ATM operators are authorized under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, by the RBI. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • White Label A TMs are like normal ATMs. However, a cash deposit or cash acceptance facility is not permitted at the WLA. So, statement 3 is not correct.

  • The difference is this ATM machine does not have any branding of Bank. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • These machines are usually deployed by NBFC (Non-Banking Financial Institutions).

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 51

With reference to Directorate of Enforcement (ED), consider the following statements:

  1. The ED enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) which is a criminal law.

  2. The ED works under the control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 51

Recently, the National Socialist Council of Nagalim (Isak-Muivah) marked 25 years

of ceasefire with the Government of India (GoI).

Statement 1 is not correct: Directorate of Enforcement enforces the following laws:

  • Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) - A Civil Law, with officers empowered to conduct investigations into suspected contraventions of the Foreign Exchange Laws and Regulations, adjudicate contraventions, and impose penalties on those adjudged to have contravened the law.

  • Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) - A Criminal Law, with the officers empowered to conduct investigations to trace assets derived out of the proceeds of crime, to provisionally attach/ confiscate the same, and to arrest and prosecute the offenders found to be involved in Money Laundering.

Statement 2 is not correct: is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 52

The business cycle is the downward and upward fluctuations of gross domestic

product (GDP). Consider the following statements regarding the boom phase of the

business cycle:

  1. There is a decrease in the inflation

  2. Increase in the unemployment

  3. Consumer spending increases

Q. Which of the above takes place during the boom phase of the business cycle?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 52

The term "business cycle" refers to economy-wide fluctuations in production, trade, and general economic activity. From a conceptual perspective, the business cycle is the upward and downward movements of levels of GDP (gross domestic product) and refers to the period of expansions and contractions in the level of economic activities around a long-term growth trend. An economic boom is the expansion and peak phases of the business cycle. It's also known as an upswing, upturn, and a growth period. During a boom, key economic indicators will rise like:

  • In the boom phase, strong consumer demand is the leading force. Families are confident about the future, so they buy more now. They know they'll get better jobs, and their home values and investments will increase in value. This demand means companies have to boost supply, which they do by hiring new workers. Capital is easily available, so consumers and businesses alike can borrow at low rates. That stimulates more demand, creating a virtuous circle of prosperity. So, option 3 is correct.

  • If overall spending is growing rapidly enough, unemployment can be temporarily pushed below the natural rate. So, option 2 is not correct. If demand outstrips supply, the economy can overheat. Also, if there's too much capital chasing too few goods, it causes inflation. When this happens, investors and businesses try to outperform the market. They ignore the risk of bad investments to achieve gain. So, option 1 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 53

With reference to the Paris Climate Agreement, consider the following:

  1. It is a legally binding international treaty on climate change

  2. The Paris Agreement aims to scale up climate finance for developing nations to $500 billion a year by 2020.

  3. Parties aim to reach global peaking of greenhouse gas emissions (GHGs) by 2050.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 53

Statement 1 is correct. The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change. It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 of UNFCCC in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Paris Agreement builds on the financial commitments of the 2009 Copenhagen Accord, which aimed to scale up public and private climate finance for developing nations to $100 billion (not $ 500 bn) a year by 2020. The Copenhagen pact also created the Green Climate Fund to help mobilize transformational private finance using targeted public dollars. The Paris Agreement established the expectation that the world would set a higher annual goal by 2025 to build on the $100 billion target for 2020 and would put mechanisms in place to achieve that scaling up. Unfortunately, collective contributions continue to fall short, reaching approximately $79 billion in 2019.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels. To achieve this long-term temperature goal, countries aim to reach global peaking of greenhouse gas emissions ‘as soon as possible’ to achieve a climate-neutral world by mid-century.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 54

In the context of drainage system of river Sutlej, which of the following statement is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 54

Option a is incorrect. Indus river also known as the Sindhu, is the westernmost of the Himalayan rivers in India. It originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu (31°15' N latitude and 81°40' E longitude) in the Tibetan region at an altitude of 4,164 m in the Kailash Mountain range. The Sutlej originates in the ‘Raksas Tal’ near Manasarovar in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab.

Option b is incorrect. Beas river flows through the Kullu valley and forms gorges at Kati and Largi in the Dhaoladhar range. It enters the Punjab plains where it meets the Sutlej near Harike.

Sutlej river flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains.

Option c is correct. Sutlej is an antecedent river (continued flowing in its course despite the upliftment of area as Himalayas). It is a very important tributary as it feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal project. Indus River system

Option d is incorrect. Jhelum river in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders – a typical feature associated with the mature stage in the evolution of fluvial land form.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 55

“Monsoon rainfall in Indian subcontinent is adversely impacted during ‘El Nino Modoki’

phase.” In this context, El Nino Modoki is associated with strong anomalous warming in which one of the following regions?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 55
El Nino Modoki is associated with strong anomalous warming in the central tropical Pacific and cooling in the eastern and western tropical Pacific. During El Nino modoki event, warming is observed more in the central part with cooling on its both sides that is in the eastern and western Pacific Ocean.

El Nino and El Nino Modoki:

El Nino is characterized by strong anomalous warming in the eastern equatorial Pacific and the El Nino Modoki is associated with strong anomalous warming in the central tropical Pacific and cooling in the eastern and western tropical Pacific.

Impact of El Nino Modoki:

The Indian summer monsoon is seen to be strongly affected by El Niño Modoki. Using observations and atmospheric general circulation model experiment results, they have shown that the central Pacific warming of that year caused a teleconnection to the subtropical northwest Pacific and that in turn suppressed the rainfall over India causing one of the severest droughts over the region.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 56

With reference to Parliamentary privileges in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Members of the Parliament can refuse to give evidence in a court of law when Parliament is in session.
  2. Parliament can punish only members of the house for breach of its privileges.
  3. President and Attorney general of India are entitled to the privileges of the Parliament.
  4. The process of codification of Parliamentary privileges was completed by 1989 on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.

Q. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 56

Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.

Statement 1 is correct. Members of the Parliament are exempted from jury service. They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when Parliament is in session.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliament collectively can punish members as well as outsiders for breach of its privileges or its contempt by reprimand, admonition or imprisonment (also suspension or expulsion, in case of members).

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Constitution has extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees. These include the attorney general of India and Union ministers. Parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Parliament, till now, has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges. They are based on five sources: 1. Constitutional provisions, 2. Various laws made by Parliament, 3. Rules of both the Houses, 4. Parliamentary conventions, and 5. Judicial interpretations.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 57

Consider the following statements regarding the “Causes of Power Sector losses” in India:

  1. Poor distribution infrastructure because of high accumulated losses of State Discoms.

  2. Higher Plant Load Factor, leading to declining capacity utilisation of thermal power plant.

  3. Technical and Commercial (AT&C) losses in power sector.

Q. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 57

Statement 1 is correct. The accumulated losses of State discoms (after adjusting for subsidies received from state governments) had increased. Discoms across the country have been facing high levels of losses and are struggling with debt. This makes it difficult for them to purchase power and invest in the distribution network. This leads to a shortfall in power supply, and poor distribution infrastructure.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The capacity utilisation of thermal power plants (also called Plant Load factor or PLF) has declined from 78% in 2009-10 to 61% in 2018-19. Low PLF implies that thermal plants have been lying idle.

Statement 3 is correct. Aggregate Technical and Commercial (AT&C) loss is the ratio of power for which the discom did not receive any payment to the total electricity procured by the utility. According to Economic Survey 2020-21, India's Technical and Commercial (AT&C) losses have been over 20 per cent of generation, which is more than twice the world average.

Other causes of the Power sector continue to face losses are as follows:

  1. Increasing Non-Performing Assets in the sector: As per the RBI, public sector banks have the highest NPAs, most of which are in the power and the telecom sector. It also noted that the most severe shock to the power sector will cause the banking system NPAs to rise by about 68 bps.

  2. High Cost of Power: The Standing Committee on Energy (2017) noted that higher tariff is also a key reason for lower electricity demand. There is a latent demand for power, which will surface once tariff is made more affordable.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 58

Which one of the following statement is correct regarding the Fundamental right under Article 25 of the constitution?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 58
Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion.

Option a is incorrect. Right to propagate under Article 25 does not include right to convert another person to one’s own religion. Forcible conversion impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’ available to all the persons alike.

Option b is incorrect. Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals). Moreover, these rights are available to all persons—citizens as well as non-citizens.

Option c is incorrect. According to Article 26 and not Art 25, every religious denomination or any of its section shall have right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. Article 25 guarantees rights of individuals while Article 26 protects collective freedom of religion.

Option d is correct. Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).

Knowledge Base: These rights under Art 25 are subject to public order, morality, health and other provisions relating to fundamental rights.

Like the rights under Article 25, the rights under Article 26 (Freedom to Manage Religious Affairs) are also subject to public order, morality and health but not subject to other provisions relating to the Fundamental Rights.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 59

Which of the following is the objective of 'disinvestment in the public sector

Undertakings?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 59
Disinvestment is the action of an organization or government selling or liquidating an asset or subsidiary.

The term' disinvestment' is used to indicate the process of privatization. The primary objectives of disinvestment are:

  • Releasing the large number of public resources locked up in non- strategic PSEs, for redeployment in areas that are much higher on the social priority, such as basic health, family welfare, primary education and social and economic infrastructure;

  • Stemming further outflow of these scarce public resources for sustaining the unviable non- strategic PSEs;

  • Reducing the public debt; Transferring the commercial risk to the private sector wherever the private sector is willing and able to step in;

  • Releasing other tangible and intangible resources, such as large manpower currently locked up in managing PSEs, and their time and energy, for redeployment in high Priority social sectors that are short of such resources.

  • Improve corporate governance.

  • Realize the productive potential of CPSEs through improved efficiency and profitability.

  • CPSE's wealth should rest in the hands of the people.

  • Raise resources for the government.

Therefore the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 60

With reference to London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a benchmark interest rate at which major global banks lend to one another in the international interbank market for short-term loans.

  2. It is calculated using the Waterfall Methodology.

  3. It has been subject to manipulation, scandal, and methodological critique.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 60
LIBOR rose for the fourth straight session, rising roughly 2.5 basis points to

2.83229%, the highest since November 2008.

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: LIBOR is a benchmark interest rate at which major global banks lend to one another in the international interbank market for short-term loans.

  • It serves as a globally accepted key benchmark interest rate that indicates borrowing costs between banks.

Administered by

  • the Intercontinental Exchange, which asks major global banks how much they would charge other banks for short-term loans.

  • The rate is calculated using the Waterfall Methodology, a standardised, transaction-based, data-driven, layered method.

  • It has been subject to manipulation, scandal, and methodological critique, making it less credible today as a benchmark rate.

  • It is being replaced by the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR) on June 30, 2023, with phase-out of its use beginning AFTER 2021

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 61

Which state Police was recently honoured with the ‘President’s colour’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 61

Vice President Venkaiah Naidu recently awarded the prestigious President’s colour to Tamil Nadu Police. The Vice President presented the award on behalf of the supreme commander of the armed forces of India. ‘The President’s Colours’ is the highest honour presented to any Military or State police in recognition of its exceptional service of at least 25 years to the nation.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 62

Which of the following steps can help to reduce the Current Account Deficit?

  1. Devaluation of the currency

  2. Imposition of higher taxes on imports

  3. Reducing the interest rate

  4. Liberalization of FDI norms

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 62
The current account deficit is a measurement of a country's trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the products it exports. The current account includes net income, such as interest and dividends, and transfers, such as foreign aid. However, these components make up only a small percentage of the total current account. The current account represents a country's foreign transactions and, like the capital account, is a component of a country's balance of payments (BOP).
  • If there is a devaluation of the currency, the price of imported goods increases and therefore, the quantity demanded of imports falls. Exports will become cheaper, and there will be an increase in the number of exports. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • The imposition of higher taxes on imports will reduce the demand for the imported goods and thus helps to balance CAD. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Higher interest rates wili increase the cost of debt and mortgage repayments and leave people with less money to spend. Therefore, this will reduce their consumption of imports, improving the current account. So, reducing the interest rate will increase the supply of money in the market and demand will increase. which can affect the CAD negatively. So, statement 3 is not correct.

  • Foreign direct investment (FOi) inflows reduce the current account deficit and also the external financing needs. Lifting restrictions on FOi inflow will continue to increase the stability of sources funding the current account deficit So, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 63

Consider the following statements regarding the Sovereign External Debt:

  1. It is the debt owed by the central government to external agencies.

  2. Borrowings from IMF and Fil investment in government securities are both included in it.

  3. It is always issued in a domestic currency.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 63
  • Sovereign debt is a central government's debt. Sovereign debt is also called government debt, public debt, and national debt.

  • It is debt issued by the national government in a foreign currency to finance the issuing country's growth and development. So, statement 3 is not correct.

  • Sovereign debt can either be internal debt or external debt. If categorized as internal debt, it is debt owed to lenders who are within the country. If categorized as externai debt, it is debt owed to lenders in foreign areas. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • Sovereign debt is usually created by borrowing government bonds and bills and issuing securities. Countries that are less creditworthy than others directly borrow from world organizations like The World Bank, the IMF, and other international financial institutions. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 64

Consider the following statements about money multiplier:

  1. It indicates that the banking system generates a higher money supply out of money given by the Central Bank.

  2. Financial inclusion in India has led to an increase in the money multiplier.

  3. The more individuals hold cash in hand, the value for the multiplier will be higher.

Q. Which of the statements given above is not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 64

The Money Multiplier refers to how an initial deposit can lead to a bigger final increase in the

total money supply. The money multiplier is a key element of the fractional banking system.

  • There is an initial increase in bank deposits (monetary base)

  • The Bank holds a fraction of this deposit in reserves and then lends out the rest.

  • This bank loan will, in turn, be re-deposited in banks a!lowing a further increase in bank lending and a further increase in the money supply. So, statement 1 is correct. In India, the recent push to financial inclusion has led to people holding less cash in hand (relative to deposits), leading to an increase in the money multiplier. So, statement 2 is correct.

A country's money multiplier depends on two factors-how much individuals (and businesses) hold in cash and how much banks hold as reserves. The more individuals hold cash in hand, the less the banking system will create money and hence a lower value for the multiplier. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 65

Consider the following statements with reference to the Judicial Reforms of Cornwallis:

  1. He separated the judiciary from the executive.

  2. The distinction between civil suits and revenue disputes was abolished.

  3. The criminal cases were to be decided on the basis of secular penal code.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 65

Cornwallis separated the judiciary from the executive. In this field, he tried to perfect the system established by Warren Hastings. So, statement 1 is correct.

Civil Courts:

  • The distinction between civil suits and revenue disputes was abolished. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • A regular hierarchy of courts was constituted. At the bottom of the organization were the courts of Munsifs, who were Indians. These courts were authorized to decide cases of disputes involving not more than rupees fifty.

  • Above the courts of Munsifs were the courts of Indian Registrars who could take up cases involving disputes up to rupees two hundred only.

  • Then there were district courts that heard appeals from the lower courts and wherein English judges decided disputes with the help of Indian assessors.

  • Above district courts were four provincial courts established at Patna, Dacca, Murshidabad and Calcutta, respectively. These courts dealt with original cases and also heard appeals from the lower courts. These courts were placed under three English judges who decided cases with three native assessors.

  • At the top of all was the Sadar Diwani Adalat at Calcutta, wherein the cases were decided by the governor-general and the members of his council with the assistance of Chief Qazi, two Muftis and two Pandits.

  • Over and above it, an appeal could be made to the King of Britain and his Council.

  • These courts could decide the cases involving Europeans as well. Besides, many rules were framed concerning the functioning of these courts.

Criminal Courts:

Circuit Courts that moved from one place to another for dispensing justice were established in districts under English judges.

  • Above them were four provincial courts established at Patna, Dacca, Murshidabad and Calcutta, respectively. English judges presided over these courts. These courts could award a death sentence to a person but with the prior permission of the Sadar Nizamat Adalat.

  • The Sadar Nizamat Adalat was established at Calcutta, where the cases were decided by the "Governor-general-in-Council". It was the highest criminal court. However, an appeal against its judgment could be made to the King of Britain and his Council.

  • In all these courts, the English judges were assisted by native assessors. Besides the establishment of different courts, some following measures were also passed:

  • It was decided that the civil disputes would be decided according to community !aws, viz., the Hindu laws would decide the cases of the Hindus. In contrast, the cases of the Muslims would be decided by the Muslim laws.

  • The criminal cases would be decided based on Muslim laws. So, statement 3 is not correct.

  • The government officials were held responsible for their actions in their official capacity and therefore, cases would be instituted against them in their official capacity.

  • The Governor-general-in-Council had the right to pardon or reduce the punishment given to an individual. However, the last appeal for a pardon could be made by an individual to "British King in Council."

  • The Supreme Court also remained there. It, however, decided the cases involving only the Europeans.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 6 - Question 66

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constituent Assembly of India:

  1. Cripps Mission proposed setting up of a Constituent Assembly where mainly Indians would decide the Constitution.

  2. August Offer proposed that the making of the Constitution was to be solely in Indian Hands.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?