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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 1

Consider the following statements about biodiversity loss and its conservation:

  1. Biodiversity loss includes the decrease in the number of a species in a certain habitat.

  2. India has developed a common plan for all states to solve the problem of crop and biodiversity loss at the national level.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 1
  • India has no silver bullet to solve the problem of crop and biodiversity loss at the national level. The natural farming movement in Andhra Pradesh may not be suitable for other states like Punjab.

  • Enrich Your Learning:

    • Biodiversity loss Biodiversity is the totality of genes, species and ecosystems in a defined area. Destroy or a decrease in biodiversity within a species, an ecosystem, a given geographic area, or Earth as a whole is referred as biodiversity loss.

    • Biodiversity loss includes the decrease in the number of a species in a certain habitat. The environmental degradation that leads to the loss can be either reversible or effectively permanent. It describes the decline in the number, genetic variability, and variety of species, and the biological communities in a given area. This loss in the variety of life can lead to a breakdown in the functioning of the ecosystem where decline has happened.

    • A loss in biodiversity simply means that plants and animals are more vulnerable to pests and diseases, and it puts food security and nutrition at risk. Although biodiversity loss is a global problem, it can be countered only with local solutions. There’s no one-size-fits-all approach.

  • Role of Tribal people: Across India, there are scores of indigenous people who have managed to lead meaningful lives without want on destruction of natural ecosystems. Dongria Kondh tribe of Niyamgiri Hills are among the best conservationists in the world. They are known for the spirited defense of their forested habitat against short-sighted industrialization, they have evolved a lifestyle that is in perfect harmony with nature. These tribes, along with marginalized communities living on the fringes of forests and millions of smallholder farmers, are the best hope that India has to preserve biodiversity and ensure food security.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS):

  1. It was established by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).

  2. It identifies current or emerging risks for the global financial system.

  3. The decisions of BCBS do not have legal force.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 2
  • BCBS was established by the central bank Governors of the Group of Ten countries at the end of 1974 in the aftermath of serious disturbances in international currency and banking markets.

  • Enrich Your Learning:

    • Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) BCBS is the primary global standard setter for the prudential regulation of banks and provides a forum for regular cooperation on banking supervisory matters. The Basel Committee was initially named the Committee on Banking Regulations and Supervisory Practices.

    • It was established by the central bank Governors of the Group of Ten countries at the end of 1974 in the aftermath of serious disturbances in international currency and banking markets. It is headquartered at the Bank for International Settlements in Basel. It has 45 members who comprise central banks and bank supervisors from 28 jurisdictions.

    • The committee well known as Basil Committee is the ultimate decision-making body of the BCBS with responsibility for ensuring that its mandate is achieved. The Committee's first meeting took place in February 1975, and meetings have been held regularly three or four times a year since.

    • The Committee has established a series of international standards for bank regulation, most notably its landmark publications of the accords on capital adequacy which are commonly known as Basel I, Basel II and Basel III. The BCBS does not possess any formal supranational authority. Its decisions do not have legal force.

  • Objective:

    • To strengthen the regulation, supervision and practices of banks worldwide with the purpose of enhancing financial stability.

  • Functions:

    • To identify current or emerging risks for the global financial system.

    • To promote common understanding and to improve cross-border cooperation by sharing supervisory issues, approaches and techniques.

    • To establish and promote global standards for the regulation and supervision of banks as well as guidelines.

    • To monitor the implementation of BCBS standards in member countries.

    • To coordinate and cooperate with other financial sector standard setters and international bodies, particularly those involved in promoting financial stability.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 3

Consider the following statements with reference to Charter Act of 1813:

  1. The Act completely ended trade monopoly of east India Company in India.

  2. The Act gave more powers for the courts in India over European British subjects.

  3. It provided for a financial grant for the revival of Indian literature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 3
The trade Monopoly of the company was ended except for the trade in tea and opium and trade with China.

Enrich Your Learning: Charter Act of 1813:

  • The Charter Act of 1813 continued the British Crown’s sovereignty over their possessions in India.

  • The East India Company’s rule was further extended by 20 years.

  • The trade Monopoly of the company was ended except for the trade in tea and opium and trade with China.

  • The act empowered the local governments to tax people subject to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

  • The Act gave more powers for the courts in India over European British subjects.

  • The Act expressly asserted the Crown's sovereignty over British India, allotted 1 lakh rupees, and permitted Christian missionaries to propagate English and preach their religion in India.

  • The act provided for a financial grant towards the revival of Indian literature and the promotion of science.

  • The company was also to take up a greater role in the education of the Indians under them. It was to set aside Rs.1 Lakh for this purpose.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 4

Consider the following statements with reference to evolution of Civil Services under the British:

  1. Lord Cornwallis is attributed as the father of Indian Civil Service.

  2. The Charter Act of 1833 introduced an open competitive examination.

  3. The ICS exam was held in India from 1922.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 4
The Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competitive examination and Indians were allowed to participate.

Enrich Your Learning: Civil Service under the British:

  • Lord Cornwallis is known as the father of Indian Civil Service.

  • The Charter Act of 1833 tried to introduce an open competition for selection of civil servants and stated that Indians should not be debarred from holding any place. But it was highly opposed by the Court of Directors.

  • The Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competitive examination and Indians were allowed to participate. In this regard, a committee on Indian Civil Service- Macaulay Committee was formed in 1854 and the first examination was held in 1855.

  • After the Government of India Act of 1858, the higher civil service in India came to be known as the Indian Civil Services (ICS).

  • Initially the principal posts were reserved for the British only. But after The Indian Civil Service Act, 1861, it was mentioned that a person, whether Indian or European could be appointed to any post (covenanted or uncovenanted) if he had resided for minimum 7 years in India.

  • The Indian Civil Services Act of 1870 carried the process of Indianisation of civil services forward.

  • Satyendranath Tagore was the first Indian to get selected in the Indian Civil Services.

  • Aitchison Committee was appointed by Lord Dufferin in 1886 to recommend changes in the civil services. The Committee recommended that the Covenanted and Uncovenanted Civil Services should be changed into Imperial, Provincial, and Subordinate civil services. The maximum age for entry into civil services should be 23 years.

  • The Islington Commission (1912): 25 % of the posts in the superior civil service should be filled from among Indians, partly by direct recruitment and partly by promotion.

  • The Montagu-Chelmsford Report (1918): India should be the venue for conducting examination for 33 % of the superior posts and that this percentage should increase by 1.5 % annually.

  • From 1922, the ICS exam was held in India.

  • By 1934, there were seven All India Services including the Indian Forest Service, Indian Police, Indian Political Service etc.

  • After independence, the ICS became the Indian Administrative Service (IAS).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 5

Consider the following statements about aerosols and National Carbonaceous Aerosols Programme Project on Carbonaceous aerosol emissions, source apportionment and climate impacts (NCAP-COALESCE project)

  1. Ministry of Earth Science would be the lead agency in the project.

  2. The emission inventory is one of the broad objectives of NCAP-COALESCE.

Which of the above options is/are NOT correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 5
  • IIT Bombay would be the lead agency in the project.

Enrich Your Learning: What are Aerosols?

  • An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets, in the air or another gas. They have both human- made and natural sources.

  • Examples of anthropogenic aerosols are haze, particulate air pollutants and smoke.

What is National Carbonaceous Aerosols Programme Project (NCAP) on Carbonaceous aerosol emissions, source apportionment and climate impacts (NCAP-COALESCE project)?

  • The NCAP-COALESCE project was launched as part of India’s National Climate Action Programme. Under the leadership of IIT Bombay’s Interdisciplinary Programme in Climate Studies, this multi-institutional, coordinated project, would enable teamwork in cutting-edge fundamental research to understand the sources, fate and impacts of carbonaceous aerosols, on climate change in the Indian region.

What are the objectives of NCAP-COALESCE?

  • The broad objectives of this initiative are extensive understanding of carbonaceous aerosol emissions from regional sources including emission inventory, source apportionment, and their seasonal and long-term atmospheric abundance.

How will the project benefit?

  • The project would be a key step to build a strong knowledge base for India related to short-lived climate pollutants, including carbonaceous aerosols.

  • Research activities in the NCAP- COALESCE project should lead to significant advances in our understanding of key areas within the carbonaceous aerosol influence on climate change.

  • The project would also contribute towards building scientific capacity, through training of M.Sc., M.Tech. and Ph.D. students as well as the creation of infrastructure and systems at the participating institutions.

  • Would strengthen scientific networks and provide key new knowledge to underpin government decision-making in regard to climate change.

  • Over a period of time, the NCAP- COALESCE project would emerge as important knowledge and information resource to support national and state actions responding to climate change caused by carbonaceous aerosols.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 6

Consider the following statements with reference to the State Legislatures:

  1. There exists no uniformity in organisation of State Legislatures in India.

  2. Creation/abolition of a State Legislative Council is not deemed as a constitutional amendment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 6
  • The state legislature occupies a pre-eminent and central position in the political system of a state. Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the state legislature.

  • Accordingly, states may have a bicameral or unicameral setting. Most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system. At present (2019), only six states have two Houses (bicameral).

  • These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka. Hence there exists no uniformity in the organisation of state legislatures. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states. According to Article 168 the Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect by special majority.

  • This Act of Parliament is not deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and is passed as an ordinary piece of legislation (i.e., by simple majority). So, Statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 7

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 7
  • Anabaena is a genus of filamentous cyanobacteria that exist as plankton. They are known for their nitrogen-fixing ability, and they form symbiotic relationships with certain plants, such as the mosquito fern. Anabena is capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium ions (inorganic compounds usable by plants).

  • More than 90 per cent of all nitrogen fixation is affected by these organisms, which thus play an important role in the nitrogen cycle. So, statement 1 is not correct. Nitrosomonas is a genus of Gram-negative, rod-shaped chemoautotrophic bacteria. This organism oxidizes ammonia into nitrite as a metabolic process.

  • Nitrosomonas are useful in bioremediation. They are important in the nitrogen cycle by increasing the availability of nitrogen to plants while limiting carbon dioxide fixation. The genus is found in soil, freshwater, and on building surfaces. So, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Nitrobacter is a genus comprising rod-shaped, Gram-negative, and chemoautotrophic bacteria. Nitrobacter plays an important role in the nitrogen cycle by oxidizing nitrite into nitrate in soil and marine systems.

  • Unlike plants, where electron transfer in photosynthesis provides the energy for carbon fixation, Nitrobacter uses energy from the oxidation of nitrite ions, NO2−, into nitrate ions, NO3−, to fulfil their energy needs. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 8

From the locations given below, where would you find the remains of the famous ancient temple of Pandrethan?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 8
The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture. One of the most important temples is Pandrethan, built during the eighth and ninth centuries C.E. In keeping with the tradition of a water tank attached to the shrine, this temple is built on a plinth built in the middle of a tank. Although there was evidence of both Hindu and Buddhist followings in Kashmir, this temple is a Hindu one, possibly dedicated to Shiva. The architecture of this temple is in keeping with the age-old Kashmiri tradition of wooden buildings. Due to the snowy conditions in Kashmir, the roof is peaked and slants slowly outward. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding Tax Buoyancy:

  1. It is the responsiveness of tax revenue with a change in the tax rate.

  2. Tax buoyancy for the financial year 2020 was lowest in the last decade.

  3. In general, it is high for indirect taxes than direct taxes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 9
Tax Buoyancy simply measures the actual or observed change in tax revenue relative to GDP.

Therefore, Tax Buoyancy = Proportionate change in tax revenue/Proportionate change in GDP. So, statement 1 is not correct.

A tax is buoyant when revenues increase by more than, say, 1 % for a 1 % increase in GDP. Tax elasticity is the responsiveness of tax revenue to changes in the tax rate. For example, how tax revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax from 25 % to 22 % indicate tax elasticity.

The direct tax to GDP ratio touched a 3-year low in FY20. The tax buoyancy fell to an 18-year low on account of corporation tax rate cuts and slowdown. The Budget assumes a tax buoyancy of 1.2 for 2020-21 compared to 0.5 (FY20 RE) and 0.8 (FY19) over the last two years. So, statement 2 is correct.

Tax buoyancy will be highest for direct taxes. As the economy grows fast, the additional income generated may go to the rich group. A part of that they have to pay to the government in the form of taxes.

So if the GDP growth rate registers high growth, say nine percent, direct income tax collection will accelerate. Generally, direct taxes are more sensitive to GDP growth rate. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 10

With reference to Escherichia coli (E coli), consider the following statements:

  1. It is commonly found in the gut of humans and cold-blooded animals.

  2. It spreads through the consumption of undercooked meat products and raw milk.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 10
  • Escherichia Coli is a bacterium that is commonly found in the gut of humans and other warm- blooded animals. While most strains are harmless, some species have been linked to intestinal disease as well as aggravating antibiotic resistance. So, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) is a bacterium that can cause severe foodborne diseases. Escherichia Coli infection is usually transmitted through the consumption of contaminated water or food, such as undercooked meat products and raw milk. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Due to the infection, common symptoms include abdominal cramps and diarrhoea, which may be bloody. Fever and vomiting may also occur. Most patients recover within 10 days, although in a few cases the disease may become life-threatening. Recently, the government has commissioned a Rs. 9.3 crore study to assess the microbial diversity along the entire length of river Ganga and to check antibiotic resistance in it.

  • The research project aims to indicate the type of “contamination” (sewage and industrial) in the river and “threat to human health (antibiotic resistance surge)”, and to identify the sources of Escherichia coli.

  • The project will be undertaken by scientists at the Motilal Nehru Institute of Technology, Allahabad; the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur; Sardar Patel Institute of Science & Technology, Gorakhpur, as well as start-up companies, Phixgen and Xcelris Labs.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding the “Zombie ice”:

  1. It is also referred to as dead or doomed ice.

  2. Zombie ice is one that is not accumulating fresh snow even while continuing to be part of the parent ice sheet.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 11
Recently, Scientists predicted that the melting of Zombie Ice will raise the global sea level by 10 inches.
  • The vast majority of Greenland has been covered by an ice sheet for 18 million years due to being largely located within the Arctic Circle.

  • It is also referred to as dead or doomed ice.

  • Zombie ice is one that is not accumulating fresh snow even while continuing to be part of the parent ice sheet.

    • Such ice is committed to melting away and increasing sea levels.

  • This is on account of the warming that has already happened.

  • The research points to an equilibrium state where snowfall from the higher reaches of the Greenland ice cap flows down to recharge the edges of the glaciers and thicken them.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 12

Initiatives like GATI & KIRAN, that were recently in news, are related to which of the Following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 12
  • Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions (GATI):

    • It is a pilot project under the Department of Science and Technology to promote gender equity in science and technology.

    • In the first phase of GATI, 30 educational and research institutes have been selected by DST, with a focus on women’s participation in leadership roles, faculty, and the numbers of women students and researchers.

  • Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN):

    • It a plan under the Department of Science and Technology to encourage women scientists and also preventing women scientists from giving up research due to family reasons, are noteworthy.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 13

Which of the following chemicals are found in E-Waste?

  1. Silver

  2. Erbium

  3. Beryllium

  4. Selenium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 13
  • Silver is used in capacitors, batteries etc.

  • Beryllium is found in switchboards and printed circuit boards.

  • Selenium is found in fax machines, photocopiers etc. Erbium is a bright, soft, malleable, silvery- white metal. It is one of the rare earth metals.

Enrich Your Learning: What is E-Waste?

  • Broadly, E-waste is defined as loosely discarded, surplus, obsolete, broken, electrical or electronic devices. E-waste has been categorized into three main categories, i.e., Large Household Appliances, IT and Telecom and Consumer Equipment.

  • Refrigerator and washing machine represent large household appliances; PC, monitor and laptop represent IT and Telecom, while TV represents Consumer Equipment.

  • Major causes of e-waste are the rapid growth of technology, upgradation of technical innovations and a high rate of obsolescence in the electronics industry. In India, about 1.2 million tonnes of e-waste is generated every year, as per a study conducted by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

  • The top states in order of highest contribution to waste electrical and electronic equipment include Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Delhi, Karnataka, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Punjab. The city-wise ranking of the largest WEEE generators is Mumbai, Delhi, Bengaluru, Chennai, Kolkatta, Ahmedabad, Hyderabad, Pune, Surat and Nagpur.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 14

Consider the following statements about KUSUM (Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) scheme:

  1. It is an initiative of Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare.

  2. Under this scheme, farmers can avail subsidies for purchase of solar powered pumps.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 14
  • It is an initiative of Ministry of Power.

Enrich Your Learning: KUSUM scheme:

  • 'Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan’ (KUSUM) is the full name for the scheme KUSUM. KUSUM scheme is launched on 1 st February, 2018 in Union budget of 2018.

  • It is 4 Year scheme supervised by Indian power ministry. Under this arrangement, the Central Govt. desires to assist as many farmers as possible to install new and improved solar pumps on their farms.

Objective:

  • To install 17.5 lakh off-grid and 10 lakh on-grid solar pumps and 10 gigawatt of solar power plants capacity in rural areas by 2022.

  • To increase farmer income through sale of surplus power, reduce electricity subsidy burden and expand the distributed renewable energy capacity.

  • To provide the farmers with advanced technology to generate power.

  • To enable farmer to sell the extra energy directly to the Power Supply Companies.

Features of Scheme Construction of Plants on infertile Land only: Distribution of solar power pumps:

  • 5 lakh solar powered pumps will be provided to agricultural labors.

Power Generation on small scale:

  • Government will work towards the installation of new solar pumps in farms, which have Diesel pumps.

Subsidy Structure of the Scheme:

  • Each farmer will get subsidy on new solar powered pumps. The farmers will have to tolerate only 10% of the total expenditure while the Central Govt. will provide 60% cost while the remaining 30% will be taken care of by bank as credit.

Power generation from tube- wells:

  • The government will also work toward the installation of unique tube-wells.

Components of the Scheme:

  • Solar Pumps Distribution

  • Construction of Solar Power Factory

  • Modernization of present pumps

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 15

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Global Biodiversity Outlook is a flagship publication of the Convention on Biological Diversity.

  2. The Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity (SCBD) is based in New York, USA.

  3. Aichi Targets are a set of 25 global targets under the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011- 2020.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 15
  • The Global Biodiversity Outlook is a flagship publication of the Convention on Biological Diversity. The report summarizes the progress made towards achieving the objectives of the Convention, such as the Aichi Targets and identifies key actions to achieve these.

  • The Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity (SCBD) is based in Montreal, Canada.

  • Aichi Targets are a set of 20 global targets under the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020.

Enrich Your Learning: Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO)

  • The Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is a periodic report that summarizes the latest data on the status and trends of global biodiversity.

  • It is the flagship publication of the Convention on Biological Diversity. The report summarizes the progress made towards achieving the objectives of the Convention, such as the Aichi Targets and identifies key actions to achieve these.

  • The Outlook is prepared by the Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity based on information from national biodiversity strategies and action plans, national reports submitted by the Parties to the Convention, scientific literature, scenarios, and biodiversity indicators.

  • Till December 2019, the latest report is the Global Biodiversity Outlook-4 report has been published.

What is the Convention of Biological Diversity?

  • The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international legally- binding treaty with three main goals: conservation of biodiversity; sustainable use of biodiversity; fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from the use of genetic resources. The Convention on Biological Diversity covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species and genetic resources.

  • The CBD’s governing body is the Conference of the Parties (COP). This ultimate authority of all governments (or Parties) that have ratified the treaty meets every two years to review progress, set priorities and commit to work plans.

  • The Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity (SCBD) is based in Montreal, Canada.

  • The Convention was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro on 5 June 1992 and entered into force on 29 December 1993. CBD has two supplementary agreements - Cartagena Protocol and Nagoya Protocol.

What are the Aichi Targets?

  • Aichi Targets are a set of 20 global targets under the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011- 2020. The objective of Aichi Target is to address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss, reduce the pressures on biodiversity, safeguard biodiversity at all levels, enhance the benefits provided by biodiversity, and provide for capacity-building.

  • They are grouped under five strategic goals:

    • Address the underlying causes of biodiversity loss by mainstreaming biodiversity across government and society.

  • Reduce the direct pressures on biodiversity and promote sustainable use.

  • Improve the status of biodiversity by safeguarding ecosystems, species and genetic diversity.

  • Enhance the benefits to all from biodiversity and ecosystem services.

  • Enhance implementation through participatory planning, knowledge management and capacity building.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

  1. Formalin is a common adulterant in fish.

  2. Formalin is used mainly to improve the sensory attributes of fish.

  3. In India, Formaldehyde is not permitted for fish preservation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 16
All the given statements are correct.

Enrich Your Learning: Formalin in Fish

  • The adulteration of fish with unapproved chemicals and additives affects its consumers especially human. Formalin (formaldehyde in water) is a common adulterant in fish. Consumption of fish adulterated with formalin can cause health conditions such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, renal injury, etc.

Why formalin is used?

  • Formalin is used either as a dip or through ice laced/or made with formalin as an ingredient.

  • The underlying motive of using formalin on fish is:

    • to extend the storage life of fresh or chilled fish

    • to artificially improve the sensory attributes i.e. appearance, so as to give a facade of fresh fish

  • Formaldehyde is used to prevent spoilage and keep fish marketable condition.

  • Unavailability of good quality ice at harvest centres.

  • Inadequate insulation during domestic transport and lack of warehousing facility for bulk storage of fish.

  • Easy availability of the chemical.

Effects on Human health:

  • The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) of WHO classifies formaldehyde as carcinogenic to humans.

  • Higher levels of formaldehyde can lead to severe abdominal pain, vomiting, coma, renal injury and possible death.

Uses and regulatory status of formalin:

  • As a bacteriostatic agent in cheese preparation.

  • As an anti-parasitic agent in case of cultured fish.

  • As an anti-fungal in cases of hatcheries to control aquatic fungi.

  • As a food additive in caviar preparation in Scandinavian countries.

  • Formaldehyde is not permitted for use in foods in India as per Food Safety and Standards Regulations, 2011.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 17

With reference to ‘Trophic level’ of a food chain, consider the following statements:

  1. A food chain starts with trophic level constituting the carnivores.

  2. It represents the position occupied by species in a food chain.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 17
  • A food chain starts with trophic level constituting the autotrophs.

Enrich Your Learning: ‘Trophic level’

  • The trophic level is the position in a food web that an organism occupies.

  • The trophic level of an organism is the number of steps it is from the start of the food chain.

  • A food web starts at trophic level 1 which is occupied by primary producers such as plants and trees.

  • The higher trophic levels are occupied by herbivores, carnivores and the last trophic level ends with apex predators which could go upto level 4 or 5.

  • Generally, the trophic level is represented by numbers such as level 1, level 2 and so on.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 18

Consider the following statements with reference to Humayun’s Tomb:

  1. It is the first garden-tomb built in India.

  2. It is a memorial erected by Akbar in the memory of his father.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 18
  • The first distinct example of proper Mughal architecture inspired by Persian architecture, is the tomb of Humayun, in Delhi, built by his widow, Bega Begum. This tomb is important for a proper study of the development of later Mughal architecture. Although Sikander Lodi's tomb is the first garden-tomb built in India, it is Humayun's tomb which strikes a new note. So, statement 1 is not correct.

  • The tomb of Humayun was built by the orders of his first wife and chief consort, Empress Bega Begum (also known as Haji Begum). Construction began in 1565 and was completed in 1572; it cost 1.5 million rupees, paid entirely by the Empress. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 19

Consider the following statements with reference to Non-Resident Indians (NRIs):

  1. NRIs need to file tax returns in India if their taxable income exceeds Rs. 2.5 lakh.

  2. Currently, a person staying out of the country for 183 days in a year is classified as an NRI.

  3. The income of an NRI generated in India, will be taxed in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 19
  • Under the Indian income-tax law, an individual, who qualifies as an NRI is required to file India tax returns if the taxable income exceeds the maximum amount not chargeable to income-tax; for FY20, it is Rs. 2.5 lakh. However, to determine the threshold limit for the obligation to file tax returns, the taxable income should be computed before giving effect to the deductions under Chapter VI-A (such as under Section 80C, 80D and so on). So, statement 1 is correct.

  • The Union Budget for 2020-21 had tightened the provisions on those seeking to escape tax by exploiting their non-resident status. While earlier it was possible to be classified as a non- resident by staying out of the country for 183 days or about six months in a year, this has now been, in effect, enhanced to 245 days. So, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Budget 2020-21 proposes that the income of an NRI generated in India will be taxed here. Indian earnings of NRIs such as rental income from property in the country are intended to be taxed by way of the new provision. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding the classification of planets:

1. Gas giants are planets composed of heavier elements like oxygen, carbon, nitrogen and sulphur.

2. All the planets of the solar system are classified as either Gas giants or Ice giants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 20
  • The “gas giants” Jupiter and Saturn are mostly hydrogen and helium. These planets must have swallowed a portion of the solar nebula intact. The “ice giants” Uranus and Neptune are made primarily of heavier stuff, probably the next most abundant elements in the Sun – oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, and sulphur. So, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Apart from these four planets rest of the planets are known as terrestrial planets. This includes Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. Further, Pluto is classified as a dwarf planet. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 21

Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations?

  1. Stabilization of Polity

  2. Peace consolidation

  3. Support the organization of elections

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 21
United Nations Peacekeeping helps countries torn by conflict create conditions for lasting peace. UN peacekeepers provide security and the political and peace-building support to help countries make the difficult, early transition from conflict to peace.

UN Peacekeeping is guided by three basic principles:

  • Consent of the parties; Impartiality; and Non-use of force except in self-defence and defence of the mandate. Peacekeeping is flexible, and over the past two decades has been deployed in many configurations.

  • There are currently 13 UN peacekeeping operations deployed on three continents. Today's multidimensional peacekeeping operations are called upon not only to maintain peace and security but also to facilitate the political process, protect civilians, assist in the disarmament, demobilization and reintegration of former combatants; support the organization of elections, protect and promote human rights and assist in restoring the rule of law. So, statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 22

Match the List I and List II

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 22
  • Three Buddhist dramas have been discovered from the fragments of manuscripts on palm-leaf, at Turfan. One of them named Sariputraprakarana is ascribed to Ashvaghosa, who was a contemporary of Kanishka. The drama has nine acts, and its theme is based on the events which led up to the conversion of the young Maudgalayana and Sariputra by the Buddha.

  • The drama has a close relationship with the classical type as laid down in the Natyashastra. Ashvaghosha, (80 CE, Ayodhya—150CE Peshawar) was a philosopher and poet who was considered as India’s greatest poet before Kalidasa (5th century) and the father of Sanskrit drama; he popularized the style of Sanskrit poetry known as kavya. Kalidasa is the most popular among the Sanskrit playwrights.

  • His three works Malavikagnimitra, Vikramorvashiya, Shakuntalam, are some of the finest examples of classical Sanskrit play. Abhijnana Sakuntalam is a beautiful tale of love and romance, the name literally meaning 'Of Sakuntala who is recognized by a token'. Abhijnanasakuntalam is the first Indian play ever to be translated into western languages.

  • It is for the very first time translated in the English language by Sir William Jones in the year 1789. Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit. His plays are considered the equal of the works of Kalidasa. He is believed to have been the court poet of king Yashovarman of Kannauj.

  • Kalhana, the 12th-century historian, places him in the entourage of the king, who was defeated by Lalitaditya Muktapida, king of Kashmir, in 736 AD. Mahaviracharita is a play by him based on the early life of Rama, the hero of the Ramayana. Ratnavali is a Sanskrit drama about a beautiful princess named Ratnavali, and a great king named Udayana. It is attributed to the Indian emperor Harsha (606–648).

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 23

With reference to the Indian Navy, Consider the following statements:

  1. INS Vikrant is second India’s indigenous aircraft carrier after INS Vikramaditya.

  2. The Indian Navy’s new ensign features the national emblem with the Tricolor on the upper canton replacing Saint George’s Cross.

  3. The golden border surrounding the national emblem draws inspiration from the seal of the Indian emperor Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 23
Recently, the Prime Minister of India commissioned India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier Indian Naval Ship (INS) Vikrant in Kochi.

Statement 1 is not correct: It is India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier. Currently, India has two aircraft carriers (INS Vikramaditya (from Russia) & INS Vikrant (present one).

Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Naval Ensigns are flagging that naval ships or formations bear to denote nationality. The current Indian Naval Ensign consists of a St. George's Cross -- a red cross with a white background.

  • St. George was a Christian Warrior Saint who is believed to have been a crusader during the third crusade.

  • In 2001 the George’s Cross was replaced with the naval crest in the middle of the white flag while the Tricolour retained its place on the top left corner.

  • The Indian Naval Ensign has changed multiple times since Independence.

  • The Indian Navy’s new ensign features the national emblem with the Tricolor on the upper canton replacing Saint George’s Cross.The golden border surrounding the national emblem draws inspiration from the seal of the Indian emperor Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 24

With reference to ‘Food Chain’, consider the following statements:

  1. The energy gets transferred from lower trophic level to higher trophic level.

  2. The primary level of food chain is made up by plant.

  3. A smaller organism feeds on larger host in parasitic food chain.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 24
All statements are correct.

Enrich your Learning: ‘Food Chain’

  • Food chain exists in ecology in which the energy and matter transfers from one organism to another.
  • In food chain, the chain is being constructed when one organism feed onto another one.
  • The primary level of food chain is made up by plant and trees which convert solar energy and prepares food for themselves. The plants are eaten by primary consumers consisting of herbivores which are again consumed by the carnivores.
  • The chain of energy keeps going on and it leads to balance in the ecology.
  • There could be many types of food chain such as: Predator food chain, parasitic food chain or saprophytic food chain.
  • In parasitic food chain, a smaller organism feeds on larger host and may itself be parasitized by even smaller organisms.
  • In saprophytic chain, microorganisms feed on dead organic matter.
  • As energy, in the form of heat, is lost at trophic level, chains do not encompass (normally) more than four or five trophic levels.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 25

Consider the following statements about Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Board:

  1. The Board comprises of maximum 16 members.

  2. The Board consists of officials from the RBI as well as officials of Government of India.

  3. It is mandated to held the Board meeting at least three times in a year.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 25
The meeting of the RBI Board to be held at least six times in a year.

Enrich Your Learning: What is the RBI Board?

  • The RBI Board is a body comprising officials from the central bank and the Government of India, including officials nominated by the government. The Board exercises all powers and does all acts and things that are exercised by the RBI.

  • General superintendence and direction of the affairs, and business of the RBI is entrusted to the Central Board. The Board is also recommending to the government the design, form and material of bank notes and also when and where they can serve as legal tender.

Composition:

  • Governor and up to four Deputy Governors.

  • Non-official directors, who include up to ten directors from various fields.

  • Two government officials, and one director from each of four local boards of the RBI.

  • The director of the RBI Board cannot be a salaried government official (except for the ones specifically nominated by the government).

  • The meeting of the Board to be held at least six times in a year, and at least once each quarter. The Governor presides the Board meetings. In the event of split votes, the Governor has a second, or deciding vote.

Why in News?

  • The RBI Board recently entered the news during the public spat between the central bank and the Finance Ministry.

  • One of the reasons for the disagreement was the government’s alleged threat of invoking Section 7 of the RBI Act. Section 7 basically empowers the government to supersede the RBI Board and issue directions to the central bank if they are considered to be “necessary in public interest”.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 26

Consider the following statements:

  1. The demand for autonomy in India has increased with the emergence of regional parties.

  2. The office of Governor strengthens under the coalition government.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 26
  • The office of Governor exposed to vulnerabilities of the political pressures under coalition government.

  • For example, the Tamil Nadu case in relation to the change of the governor, more particularly to satisfy the coalition partner from the state and that too against the will of the ruling party in the State of Tamil Nadu without substantial and reasonable grounds.

Enrich Your Learning: Coalition Governments in India:

  • The post 1990 period saw the rise of regional political parties in many States of the country. This was also the beginning of the era of coalition governments at the Centre.

  • Since no single party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the major national parties had to enter into an alliance with many parties including several regional parties to form a government at the Centre.

  • The formation of coalition governments at the centre started with Morarji Desai’s regime which lasted for 857 days.

  • At the centre, coalition ministries have been formed seven times between 1977 and April 1999 but after 1999 till 2014 all the coalitions were stable coalitions.

  • The adoption of multi-party system and regionalism changed the centre- state relations to a certain extent.

  • With regional parties’ emergence in national politics and state politics, the demand for state autonomy has increased drastically while it made the office of Governor exposed to vulnerabilities of the political pressures.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 27

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 27
  • Marudam – agricultural

  • Neydal – coastal

  • Mullai - pastoral

Enrich Your Learning:

  • The Sangam Age constitutes an important chapter in the history of South India. According to Tamil legends, there existed three Sangams (Academy of Tamil poets) in ancient Tamil Nadu popularly called Muchchangam.

  • These Sangams flourished under the royal patronage of the Pandya Sangam Society.

  • Tolkappiyam refers to the five-fold division of lands - Kurinji (hilly tracks), Mullai (pastoral), Marudam (agricultural), Neydal (coastal) and Palai (desert).

  • The people living in these five divisions had their respective chief occupations as well as gods for worship.

    • Kurinji – chief deity was Murugan – chief occupation, hunting and honey collection.

    • Mullai – chief deity Mayon (Vishnu) – chief occupation, cattle-rearing and dealing with dairy products.

    • Marudam – chief deity Indira – chief occupation, agriculture.

    • Neydal – chief deity Varunan – chief occupation fishing and salt manufacturing.

    • Palai – chief deity Korravai – chief occupation robbery.

  • Tolkappiyam also refers to four castes namely arasar, anthanar, vanigar and vellalar.

  • The ruling class was called arasar.

  • Anthanars played a significant role in the Sangam polity and religion.

  • Vanigars carried on trade and commerce.

  • The vellalas were agriculturists.

  • Other tribal groups like Parathavar, Panar, Eyinar, Kadambar, Maravar and Pulaiyar were also found in the Sangam society.

  • Ancient primitive tribes like Thodas, Irulas, Nagas and Vedars lived in this period.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 28

Which of the following Arctic countries are known to have oil reserves?

  1. Norway

  2. United States

  3. Greenland

  4. Russia

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 28
All mentioned countries have oil reserves.

Enrich Your Learning: Oil extraction in the Arctic:

  • There are 19 geological basins in the Arctic region where some of the region has experienced oil extraction.

  • Alaska North Slope was the first region where oil was first produced in 1968 from Prudhoe Bay.

  • More than 70% of the mean undiscovered oil resources is estimated to occur in five provinces: Arctic Alaska, Amerasia Basin, East Greenland Rift Basins, East Barent basins and West Greenland.

  • It is further estimated that approximately 84% of the undiscovered oil and gas occurs offshore.

Canada:

  • Extensive drilling was done in the Canadian Arctic during the 1970s and 1980s.

  • The geology of the Canadian Arctic turned out to be far more complex than oil-producing regions like Gulf of Mexico.

  • Most of the reservoirs had been fractured by tectonic activity.

Russia:

  • The oil is present in the Lomonosov ridge.

  • The ridge is an underwater shelf going between Arctic Ocean and Ellesmere Islands.

Greenland:

  • Greenland is having some of the world’s largest remaining oil resources.

  • The West Disko licensing round area, largely free from ice has a number of promising geological from the Paleocene era.

United States and Norway:

  • The oil fields in Northern Alska slope is the largest oil field in North America.

  • Compared to other Arctic oil states, Norway is probably best equipped for oil spill preparedness in the Arctic.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 29

With reference to United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), consider the following statements:

  1. India has hosted the COP of all three Rio conventions on climate change.

  2. It is the parent treaty of the 2015 Paris Agreement and the 1997 Kyoto Protocol.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 29
According to a report by the United States National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Greenhouse gas and sea levels touched new highs in 2021 .
  • Statement 1 is correct: India is among the select few countries to have hosted the COP of all three Rio conventions on climate change (UNFCCC), biodiversity (CBD) and land (United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification).

  • Statement 2 is correct: UNFCCC is the parent treaty of the 2015 Paris Agreement. It is also the parent treaty of the 1997 Kyoto Protocol.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 30

Justice Amitava Roy Committee, which was recently in news, was constituted for which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 30
Option a is correct: Justice Amitava Roy Committee Recommendations:
  • In 2018 The Supreme Court constituted a three-member committee, to be headed by former apex court judge Amitava Roy, to look into the aspect of jail reforms across the country and make recommendations on several aspects, including overcrowding in prisons.

It recommended:

  • Special fast-track courts should be set up to deal exclusively with petty offences which have been pending for more than five years.

  • Further, accused persons who are charged with petty offences and granted bail, but who are unable to arrange surety should be released on a Personal Recognizance (PR) Bond. Launching a National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 31

Consider the following statements regarding the indices measuring Economic Freedom:

  1. The Fraser Institute issues the Index of Economic Freedom.

  2. The Heritage Foundation issues Global Economic Freedom Index.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 31
  • Index of Economic Freedom 2019 is brought out by the Heritage Foundation. It ranked the Indian economy 129th among 186 countries and was categorized as ‘mostly unfree’. India scored 40 on a scale of 0-100 against the world average of 58.5. So, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Global Economic Freedom Index is brought out by the Fraser Institute. It ranked India 79th among 162 countries which shows a jump of 11 spots from the last years’ ranking. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding a river basin in India:

  1. It is almost perennial and provides year-round water for irrigation and power generation.

  2. It is one of the most exploited river basins with 90-95% of its irrigation and hydropower potential already harnessed.

  3. It forms some of the most fertile deltas in India and is known to be the granary of the region.

Which of the following river basins is best described in the statements given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 32
Kaveri river Basin’s upper catchment area receives rainfall during summer by the south-west monsoon and the lower catchment area during the winter season by the retreating north-east monsoon. It is, therefore, almost a perennial river with comparatively fewer fluctuations inflow and is very useful for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation. Thus, the Cauvery is one of the best-regulated rivers, and 90 to 95 % of its irrigation and power production potential already stands harnessed. The fertile soil and large-scale irrigation facilities have made the Cauvery delta the granary of South India. Options (a) and (d) are not perennial river basins, they flow mostly during South-West monsoon season while hydropower and irrigation potential of Ganga river basin is still high. So, option (b) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 33

Consider the following statements regarding the Motions tabled in the Parliament:

  1. Censure Motion need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.

  2. No-Confidence Motion can be moved against the entire Council of Ministers only.

  3. Adjournment Motion can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 33
  • Censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. It can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers. It is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers need not resign from the office. So, statement 1 is not correct.

  • No-Confidence Motion: Article 75 of the Constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by passing a No-Confidence Motion. It need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. It can be moved against the entire Council of Ministers only. It is moved for ascertaining the confidence of Lok Sabha in the Council of Ministers. The motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. If it is passed by the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers must resign from office. So, statement 2 is correct.

  • Adjournment motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. As it interrupts the normal business of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary device. It involves an element of censure against the government, and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. The discussion on this motion should last not less than two hours and thirty minutes. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 34

Match List-I with List-II:

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 34
The activities of living organisms which may cause a marked effect on the survival of others are called biotic interactions. The interactions may be food, shelter or substratum. Similarly, it may be intra-specific or inter-specific.

All the interactions are divided into three types. They are; Positive interactions, Negative interactions and Neutral interactions.

  • Mutualism: The interactions between two different species in which both the species are benefited from each other is called mutualism. Lichens are the joint form of algae and fungi. The algae prepare their own food and supply it to fungi while the fungi provide support to the algae.

  • Commensalism: It is a positive inter-specific interaction, in which a smaller member called 'commensal', is benefitted, while the larger member called 'host', is neither benefitted nor harmed. Epiphytes are small green plants found growing on other plants for space only. They absorb water and minerals from the atmosphere by their hygroscopic roots and prepare their own food. The plants are not harmed in any way. Examples: Orchids, lianas and Vanda hanging mosses are common epiphytes found on the tree of tropical rain forests.

  • Parasitism: It is a type of antagonistic inter-specific interaction in which smaller partner, called the parasite, derives food and shelter from in or on the body of larger partner, called host, which inhibits the survival of the host. The host can survive without the parasite, but the parasite cannot survive without the host. Parasitism can be rightly explained as weaker attacking the stronger. Example: lice on humans, ticks on dogs and copepods on fish.

  • Amensalism: It is an antagonistic inter-specific interaction in which one species is inhibited while other species is neither benefited nor harmed. In simple words, in amensalism, one organism does not allow other organisms to grow or live near it. It is also called antibiosis, and the affected species is called a mental and the affecting species is called an inhibitor. Such inhibition is achieved through the secretion of certain chemicals called allochemics or allelopathic substances.

Therefore, the correct match is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 35

Which of the following factors make ratooning technique popular among the Indian farmers?

  1. It reduces the cost of production.

  2. It reduces the maturity time of the crop.

  3. It increases the yield with each successive crop.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 35
Ratooning is the agricultural practice of harvesting crop by cutting most of the above-ground portion but leaving the roots and the growing shoot apices intact, to allow the plants to recover and produce a fresh crop in the next season. This practice is widely used in the cultivation of crops such as rice, sugarcane, banana and pineapple.

It has become more popular among the sugarcane growers because of the following advantages:

  • Saving in the cost of production through saving in cost of seeds, land preparation and labour cost etc.

  • The leftover in the field, especially in the form of fallen leaves, trash, etc., in due course of time, gets converted into organic matter.

  • Ratoon crops generally come to maturity at least one-month earlier because roots and shoots of the plant take lesser time to grow than the fresh seed crops. So, statements 1 and 2 are the correct.

Disadvantages of ratooning:

  • Crop yields are generally lower than plant crop yields, and the yield reduces with the successive stages of the crop. With the ageing of roots and shoots plant becomes more susceptible to pest attack.

  • Nitrogenous fertilizer requirement is more as land is not properly prepared/mulched in farmland using ratooning. So, statement 3 is not the correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 36

He was the first political leader in India to openly put forward, in his newspaper Bande Mataram, the idea of complete independence for the country. In 1910 he withdrew from politics and went to Pondicherry in order to devote himself entirely to his inner spiritual life and work. He evolved a new method of spiritual practice, which he called Integral Yoga.

He was?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 36
Aurobindo Ghose is popularly known as yogi Rishi Aurobindo.
  • It was a revolutionary, nationalist, poet, educationist and philosopher.

  • He was born on August 15, 1872, in Calcutta to Shri Krishnadhan Ghosh.

    • His father was a rich doctor from Calcutta.

  • At the age of seven, he was taken to England for education.

  • He became a state service officer on his return to India in 1893.

  • He worked for the next thirteen years in the Princely State of Baroda in the service of the Maharaja and as a professor at Baroda College.

  • He also joined a revolutionary society and took a leading role in secret preparations for an uprising against the British Government in India.

  • In 1906, soon after the Partition of Bengal, Sri Aurobindo quit his post in Baroda and went to Calcutta, where he soon became one of the leaders of the Nationalist movement.

    • He was the first political leader in India to openly put forward, in his newspaper Bande Mataram, the idea of complete independence for the country.

  • Prosecuted twice for sedition and once for conspiracy, he was released each time for lack of evidence.

  • In 1908 he had the first of several fundamental spiritual realisations.

    • In 1910 he withdrew from politics and went to Pondicherry in order to devote himself entirely to his inner spiritual life and work.

    • During his forty years in Pondicherry, he evolved a new method of spiritual practice, which he called the Integral Yoga.

  • In 1926, with the help of his spiritual collaborator, the Mother, he founded the Sri Aurobindo Ashram.

  • He was also a journalist and his first philosophical magazine called Arya was published in 1914.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 37

Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) was established in order to defeat hunger internationally. It was established by which of the following firms?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 37
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) was established by United Nations in order to defeat hunger internationally.

Enrich Your Learning: Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

  • The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nationsthat leads international efforts to defeat hunger. It was established by the United Nations in 1945. It has 194 member states, and it works in 130 countries worldwide. FAO supports countries who face an increasing myriad of demands and challenges in agricultural development.

  • FAO is headquartered in Rome, Italy. FAO helps developing countries in transition, modernize and improve agriculture, forestry and fisheries practices, ensuring good nutrition and food security for all.

  • FAO works to promote public- private partnerships, improve smallholder agriculture, and develop mechanisms to monitor, reduce, and warn about hazards to the food chain. Funding comes from industrialized countries, development banks and other sources.

  • FAO is composed of seven departments:

    • Agriculture and Consumer Protection

    • Climate, Biodiversity, Land, and Water department

    • Corporate Services, Human Resources, and Finance department

    • Economic and Social Development department

    • Fisheries and Aquaculture department

    • Forestry department

    • Technical Cooperation department

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 38

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Delhi legislative Assembly’:

  1. The Legislative Assembly of Delhi is unicameral in nature.

  2. The subject of public order, police and land has been kept outside the purview of Assembly.

  3. The law passed by the Assembly with respect to local bodies need to be sent to the Urban Development Ministry for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 38
All the statements are correct.

Enrich Your Learning: Legislature of Delhi

  • The Legislative Assembly of Delhi is a unicameral law making body of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

  • The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 created a legislative assembly and a Council of Ministers for Delhi.

  • The Legislative Assembly is selected for period of five years.

  • It is the elected council of ministers in Delhi which is the repository of executive power in all areas in the state and concurrent list of the seventh schedule of the Constitution.

  • The three entries of public order, police and land have been expressly excluded under Article 239AA on which the Central government has jurisdiction.

  • Any law passed by Delhi Vidhan Sabha with respect to local bodies has to be sent to the Urban Development Ministry for approval and it should be in concurrence with Municipal Corporation Act 1957.

  • Federalism and autonomy of the assembly comes into question as the state government has to get approvals for most of the laws passed by the legislature.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 39

Consider the following statements about Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs):

  1. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.

  2. Only schools run by the government can set up ATL in their premises.

  3. The ATLs are given grant-in-aid for up to 5 years after its establishment.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 39
ATLs would be set in schools managed by Government as well as local body or private trusts/society.

Enrich Your Learning: Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs)

  • Atal Tinkering Lab (ATL) is a program run by Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) under NITI Aayog to foster curiosity and innovative mind set in young students across India.

  • The program is to encourage research and innovation in schools across the country.

Key Features of ATL:

  • ATL is a work space where young minds can give shape to their ideas through hands on do-it-yourself mode; and learn innovation skills.

  • Young children will get a chance to work with tools and equipment to understand the concepts of STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Math).

  • ATL would contain educational and learning ‘do it yourself’ kits and equipment on – science, electronics, robotics, open source microcontroller boards, sensors and 3D printers and computers.

Financial Support:

  • AIM will provide grant-in-aid that includes a one-time establishment cost of Rs. 10 lakh and operational expenses of 10 lakhs for a maximum period of 5 years to each ATL.

Eligibility:

  • Schools (Grade VI – XII) managed by Government, local body or private trusts/society to set up ATL.

  • Government also provided norms for laboratory built up space to applicant school.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 40

As per the Constitution of India, which of the following can make laws on subjects given in concurrent list?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 40
Enrich Your Learning:
  • The Constitution provides a scheme for demarcation of powers through three ‘lists’ in the seventh schedule.

  • The union list details the subjects on which Parliament may make laws and the state list details those under the purview of state legislatures.

  • The concurrent list has subjects in which both Parliament and state legislatures have jurisdiction.

  • The Constitution also provides primacy to Parliament on concurrent list items: if there is a conflict, a central law will override a state law.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 41

Consider the following matters:

  1. At least one-fourth of all positions are reserved for women in the local government bodies.

  2. It is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.

  3. The State Election Commission conducts panchayat elections only.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 41
  • At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women in the local government bodies.

  • The State Election Commission conducts panchayat elections as well as municipal elections.

Enrich Your Learning:

  • A major step towards decentralisation In 1992, the Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy i.e. Panchayati Raj and Municipality more powerful and effective.

  • It is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.

  • Seats are reserved in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.

  • At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.

  • An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each State to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.

  • The State governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies. The nature of sharing varies from State to State.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 42

Which of the following was recommended by the recently constituted Justice Amitava Roy Committee on jail reforms?

  1. Special fast-track courts exclusively for petty offences

  2. Launching a National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms

  3. Model Prison Manual

  4. Open prisons or minimum-security prisons

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 42
Justice Amitava Roy Committee Recommendations:
  • In 2018 The Supreme Court constituted a three-member committee, to be headed by former apex court judge Amitava Roy, to look into the aspect of jail reforms across the country and make recommendations on several aspects, including overcrowding in prisons.

  • It recommended:

    • Special fast-track courts should be set up to deal exclusively with petty offences which have been pending for more than five years. Hence option 1 is correct.

    • Further, accused persons who are charged with petty offences and that granted bail, but who are unable to arrange surety should be released on a Personal Recognizance (PR) Bond.

    • Launching a National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms. Hence option 2 is correct.

Open prisons:

  • The All-India Committee on Jail Reform constituted in 1980 recommended the government to set up and develop open prisons in each state and UT similar to the Sanganer open camp in Rajasthan. Hence option 3 is incorrect.

  • It also recommended that life convicts who offer a good prognosis should be transferred to semi-open & open prisons.

  • Open prisons have relatively less stringent rules as compared to controlled jails.

  • They go by many names like minimum-security prison, open-air camps or prison without bars.

Model Prison Manual:

  • The government in 2016 introduced the ‘Model Prison Manual’ to replace the existing prison manual. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

    • In the manual, the government has considered aspects such as human rights, the rehabilitation of prisoners in society, the rights of female prisoners, laws for prison inspection and the right to education even for death row convicts.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 43

Consider the following statements with reference to Grants:

  1. Supplementary Grant is when the amount authorised by the Parliament is found to be insufficient for that year.

  2. Exceptional Grant is when a need has arisen during the current financial year not contemplated in the Budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 43
In addition to the budget that contains the ordinary estimates of income and expenditure for one financial year; various other grants are made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special circumstances:
  • Supplementary Grant: It is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • Additional Grant: It is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year.

  • Exceptional Grant: It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year. So, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Excess Grant: It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 44

Consider the following statements in reference to Bharat Bond Exchange Traded Fund (ETF):

  1. It is India’s first corporate bond ETF which will invest in a basket of bonds issued by CPSEs.

  2. It will have two investment options with different maturity periods of 5 years and 10 years, respectively.

  3. Units of this ETF will be relatively safer than other debt mutual funds.

  4. There will be Bharat Bond fund of fund for investors not having Demat accounts.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 44
  • The Bharat Bond Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) is India’s first corporate bond ETF which will strengthen the corporate debt market. It would consist of baskets of AAA-rated bonds issued by public sector units. It will track the new index built by NSE. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • It will have 2 investment options for two different maturity periods of 3 and 10 years. Therefore it will provide predictable returns and is expected to generate more interest among retail investors. So, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Since fund would be investing in AAA-rated bonds, these units will be relatively secured. So, statement 3 is correct.

  • There will be a separate fund of fund for investors not having Demat accounts. So, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 45

Consider the following statements regarding secondary succession:

  1. It occurs after the complete or partial destruction of the existing community.

  2. It is relatively slower as compared to primary succession.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 45
  • Secondary succession is a process started by an event such as forest fire, floods, storms, hurricanes or by human interventions such as overgrazing, agriculture, etc. that reduces an already established ecosystem to a smaller population of species, and as such secondary succession occurs on pre-existing soil. In contrast, primary succession usually occurs in a place lacking soil. The stages of secondary succession are similar to those of primary succession in that pioneer species that arrive in the cleared area slowly give way to a community of intermediate species over many years before a climax community can become established. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • Secondary succession is the ecological succession that occurs after the initial succession has been disrupted, and some plants and animals still exist. It occurs when plants recognize an area in which the climax community had been disturbed. It is usually faster than primary succession because the substrate is already present. Primary succession may often require hundreds of years but secondary succession can in a few years or decades. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 46

Which of the following is/are ensured under Right to equality stated in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Absence of special privileges in favour of any person.

  2. Equality of treatment under all circumstances.

  3. Forbids the classification of persons for legislative purposes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 46
Article 14 states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. This provision confers rights on all persons, whether citizens or foreigners.

Equality before law connotes:

  • The absence of any special privileges in favour of any person. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts.

  • No person (whether rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) is above the law.

Equal protection of laws connotes:

  • The equality of treatment under equal circumstances (not under all circumstances as it would also include unequal circumstances), both in the privileges conferred and liabilities imposed by the laws. So, statement 2 is not correct.

  • The similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated.

  • Like should be treated alike without any discrimination. Article 14 prohibits class legislation and not a classification for the legislation. The legislature can classify persons for legislative purposes so as to bring them under a well-defined class and classification would be justified unless it is patently arbitrary. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 47

Which of the following arrangements of the order of inflation is in ascending order?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 47
  • Creeping Inflation is a type of inflation which increases gradually and continually over time. The rate of creeping Inflation is below 3% annually. A gradual increase in prices increases the cost of living, but it is beneficial for the economic growth because people tend to buy with because of the fear of increased price which results in high demand and increase in demand is good for the health of the economy. Therefore, developed countries seek creeping Inflation and target for 2% inflation annually.

  • Walking inflation can also be referred to as Trotting inflation. The prices of goods and services increase moderately. The rate of walking inflation remains between 3% to 10%. The occurrence of this type of inflation gives a warning signal to the government to control inflation before it creates havoc. Galloping Inflation occurs when the price of the goods increases double-digit but are usually around 10% or more per annum. It can also be referred to as jumping inflation.

  • Galloping Inflation is dangerous for the economy of a country, and it affects the middle class and low- income population the most. Hyperinflation is a type of inflation where prices increase at very high rates. The prices of goods and services increase by more than 50 to 60% of a month. Hyperinflation reduces the value of the currency. This type of inflation is rare to occur, and it takes place in stress situations like war or collapse in aggregate supply. So, option c is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 48

Which of the following are the potential benefits offered by 5G technology?

  1. Low latency & greater download speeds

  2. Connecting multiple devices and exchanging data in real-time

  3. Improving road safety by allowing vehicles to communicate between themselves

  4. Creating efficient sensor networks to track patients

  5. Increased energy savings

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 48
The fifth-generation technology:

Technology shift:

  • Building on the multiplexing technology of its predecessor, 5G ushers in a new standard called 5G New Radio (NR), which uses the best capabilities of LTE.

  • Apart from this, the fifth-generation of mobile communication will use high-frequency millimeter wave (mmWave) bands that operate on wavelengths between 30 GHz and 300 GHz.

  • For comparison, 4G’s LTE operates on wavelengths under 6 GHz.

Offered benefits:

  • The latest iteration of mobile connectivity offers low latency, greater download speeds. Hence option 1 is correct.

  • It has the ability to connect multiple devices and exchange data in realtime. Hence option 2 is correct.

Energy savings:

  • 5G NR will enable increased energy savings for connected devices and enhance connectivity. Hence option 5 is correct.

Autonomous Vehicles:

  • 5G will allow vehicles to communicate between themselves and with infrastructure on the road, improving safety and alerting drivers to travel conditions and performance information. Hence option 3 is correct.

Social Benefits:

  • Healthcare: Healthcare providers can create sensor networks to track patients and share information faster than ever before. Hence option 4 is correct.

  • Public Safety: A vast network and rapid response times mean that public works can respond to incidents and emergencies in seconds rather than minutes, and municipalities can react fast and with reduced costs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 49

With reference to National Population Register (NPR), consider the following statements:

  1. It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.

  2. NPR will exclude non-citizens or foreign nationals.

  3. NPR will collect demographic data only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 49
Recent National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Data shows that the most number of sedition cases in the last 8 years came from Assam.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The NPR is a list of “usual residents of the country”. A “usual resident of the country” is one who has been residing in a local area for at least the last six months or intends to stay in a particular location for the next six months. It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR. NPR is not a citizenship enumeration drive, as it would record even a foreign national staying in a locality for more than six months.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: NPR is different from the National Register of Citizens (NRC), which includes only Indian citizens while seeking to identify and exclude noncitizens.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: The NPR will collect both demographic data and biometric data, although for the latter it will depend upon Aadhaar.

  • The NPR will include:

    • Aadhaar Number (voluntary)

    • Mobile Number

    • Date & Place of Birth of Parents

    • Place of Last Residence

    • Passport Number (if Indian passport holder)

    • Voter ID Card Number

    • Permanent Account Number

    • Driving Licence Number

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 50

Which of the following organisations published the World Social Protection Report?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 50
Recently, the International Labour Organization (ILO) released a report specific to Asia and the Pacific.

Option b is correct: World Social Protection Report 2020-22 is published by the International Labour Organization (ILO).

  • This World Social Protection Report provides a global overview of recent developments in social protection systems and examines the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic.

  • Based on new and robust data, it offers a broad range of global, regional and country statistics on social protection coverage, the benefits provided, and related public expenditure.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 51

Consider the following statements about Safe City Implementation Monitoring (SCIM) portal:

  1. The portal aims to instil sense of security among women in small cities.

  2. The portal has been developed by Ministry of Home Affairs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 51
  • Safe City Implementation Monitoring (SCIM) portal implemented to instil sense of security of women in metro cities.

Enrich Your Learning: Safe City Implementation Monitoring (SCIM) portal

  • Safe City Implementation Monitoring (SCIM) portal has been developed by Ministry of Home Affairs.

  • In order to instil sense of security of women in metro cities, Government has identified eight cities (Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Lucknow & Mumbai) for implementation of Safe City projects in first phase.

  • SCIM will facilitate online tracking of deployment of assets and infrastructure created under the Safe City projects. Safe City projects involves creation of on-ground assets, resources & behaviour change programs for safety of women. The project is funded under Nirbhaya Fund scheme.

Features of the project:

  • Identification of crime Hot-spots in each city.

  • Saturating such Hot-spots with increased CCTV surveillance.

  • Automated Number Plate Reading (ANPR) and drone-based surveillance also being deployed in few cities as per requirement.

  • Setting up women police out-posts for facilitating ease of access by any aggrieved woman to report incidence or seek assistance.

  • Patrols by Women police in vulnerable areas.

  • Setting up Women Help Desks in Police Stations with facility for trained Counsellors.

  • Augmentation of existing women support centres like Asha Jyoti Kendra or Bharosa centers etc.

  • Implementing Safety measures in buses, including Cameras.

  • Improving Street Lighting in identified Hot Spot areas.

  • Setting up Toilets for women.

  • Undertaking social awareness programmes on women safety and gender sensitivity.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 52

The division of powers between the Union and the states is mentioned in which of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 52
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).

Enrich Your Learning: Seventh Schedule to the Indian Constitution

  • It defines and specifies allocation of powers and functions between Union & states.

  • It contains three lists: Union list, State list and Concurrent List.

Union List (List I)

  • It has 100 subject (originally 97) on which the Central government has exclusive power to legislate on matters.

  • Defence, banking, foreign affairs, currency, atomic energy, insurance, communication, inter-state trade and commerce, census, audit.

State List (List II)

  • It contains 61 items/subjects (originally 66) on which the respective state governments have exclusive power to legislate.

  • The subjects mentioned in the list are of national importance and requires uniformity of legislation nationwide.

  • Public order, police, public health and sanitation, agriculture, prisons, local government, fisheries, markets, theatres, gambling.

Concurrent List (List III)

  • It has 52 items/subjects (originally 47) on which both the central government as well as state government can legislate but in case of a conflict, the Central law prevails.

  • For example, criminal law and procedure, civil procedure, marriage and divorce, population control and family planning, electricity, labour welfare, economic and social planning, drugs, newspapers, books and printing press, and others.

  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List, that is, (a) education, (b) forests, (c) weights and measures, (d) protection of wild animals and birds, and (e) administration of justice; constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 53

Which of the following stretch of National Waterway-1 passes through Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS) in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 53
  • The Sultanganj-Kahalgaon stretch of National Waterway-1 passes through Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS) in Bihar.

Enrich Your Learning:

  • Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS) Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS) is stretched over a span of 50 km of the river Ganges, starting from Sultangunj to Kahalgaon.

  • It is situated in Bihar’s Bhagalpur district. The Sanctuary was established in the year 1991 to protect the endangered species of Gangetic Dolphins.

  • It is India’s only sanctuary for its national aquatic animal. Gangetic Dolphins were once found in abundance here, but now only a few hundreds of them have survived.

  • The Sanctuary is also home for various other Aquatic and Wild animals that come under the threatened category such as the Indian otter, Gharial, freshwater Turtles etc.

  • The Gangetic Dolphins were declared as the National Aquatic Animal of India in the first meeting of the National Ganga River Basin Authority on 5 October 2009. These Dolphins were classified under the IUCN Red List of 2006 as threatened and endangered species. They were included in the Schedule-I of Indian Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 54

Considers the following statements with reference to Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (SSA):

  1. It aims to fulfil the commitment provided by the 86th amendment of the Indian Constitution.

  2. SSA provides life skills training for girls in upper primary classes.

  3. Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan is a subcomponent of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 54
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a subcomponent of Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.

Enrich Your Learning: Sarva Siksha Abhiyan

  • Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is Government of India's flagship programme for achievement of Universalization of Elementary Education (UEE) in a time bound manner, as mandated by 86th amendment to the Constitution of India making free and compulsory Education to the Children of 6-14 years’ age group, a Fundamental Right.
  • It also provides life skills training for girls in upper primary classes. Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) managesthe SSA Programme. The SSA has been operational since 2000-2001. Padhe Bharat Badhe Bharat is a nationwide sub- programme of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
  • With passage of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 20091 changes are incorporated into SSA approach and its norms. In 2018, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan along with Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan was launched to form Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.
  • Implementation: SSA is being implemented by the Central and State Governments funding and cover the entire country.
  • Objective:

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 7 - Question 55

The Suresh Tendulkar (2009) committee and the Rangarajan committee (2014) were constituted: