UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 below.
Solutions of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 questions in English are available as part of our course for UPSC & UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 solutions in Hindi for UPSC course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 1

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding Flue Gas Desulphurization (FGD)?

  1. It can remove more than 90% of the SO2 in the flue gases.

  2. Dry FGD is more prominent as compared to wet type due to lower capital and operating expenditure.

  3. It can be used to remove the mercury from flue gases.

  4. Power plants with the FGD are waived from GST Compensation Cess.

 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 1

Option c is correct.

  • Statement 1 is correct: For a typical coal-fired power station, flue-gas desulfurization may remove more than 90% of the SO2 in the flue gases.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Various types of FGD technologies such as wet-type FGD (which use limestone, ammonia and sea water as raw material), semidry type FGD and dry sorbent injection (DSI) FGD are available. Wet type FGD technology, using limestone as raw material, is prominent world-wide mainly on account of lower capital and operating expenditure.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Wet scrubbers can also remove mercury and are especially effective for oxidized mercury. Dry flue gas desulfurization scrubbers, when combined with a baghouse (a dust-collector system that uses fabric filter tubes or other tools), can remove as much of 90 percent of mercury.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no such provision for the GST compensation waiver. However, there have been other recommendations to promote FGD technology in TPPs (Thermal power plants) in India.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 2

Which of the following hills/range depict the radial form of drainage pattern?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 2
Option d is correct.
  • Option a and b are incorrect: Kumaon and Nilgiri hills show annular drainage pattern. In such a pattern, the radial streams develop subsequent tributaries which try to follow a circular drainage around the summit.
  • Option c is incorrect: Sahyadari hills show dendritic drainage pattern. River Krishna originates from these hills.
  • Option d is correct: When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’. Rivers like Narmada, Son and Mahanadi originating from Amarkantak range flow in different directions and are good examples of radial pattern. This pattern is also found in the Girnar Hills of Gujarat and Mikir Hills of Assam.

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 3

Consider the following statements about World Meteorological Organization (WMO)

  1. It is not a specialized agency of the United Nation.

  2. World Meteorological congress meets every four years to elect president and vice-president of the organization.

  3. It has linked recent locust swarms with increased frequency of extreme weather events.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 3
Option c is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: WMO is an intergovernmental organization with a membership of 193 Member States and Territories. It originated from the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), the roots of which were planted at the 1873 Vienna International Meteorological Congress. Established by the ratification of the WMO Convention on 23 March 1950, WMO became the specialized agency of the United Nations for meteorology. The Secretariat, headquartered in Geneva, is headed by the Secretary-General. Its supreme body is the World Meteorological Congress.

  • Statement 2 is correct: World Meteorological Congress assembles delegates of Members once every four years:

    • to determine general policies for the fulfilment of the purposes of the Organization

    • to consider membership of the Organization

    • to determine the General, Technical, Financial and Staff Regulations

    • to establish and coordinate the activities of constituent bodies of the Organization

    • to approve long-term plans and budget for the following financial period

    • to elect the President and Vice-Presidents of the Organization and members of the Executive Council

    • to appoint the Secretary-General

  • Statement 3 is correct: WMO said while desert locusts have been here since biblical times, recent intense outbreaks can be linked to anthropogenic climate change and the increased frequency of extreme weather events.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 4

With reference to Organic Photovoltaic (OPV) Cells, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a type of solar cell where the absorbing layer is typically made of polymers.

  2. Manufacturing cost is cheaper than the inorganic Photovoltaic cells.

  3. Compared to inorganic photovoltaic cells, OPV cell have low efficiency and low stability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 4
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: An Organic Photovoltaic (OPV) cell is a type of solar cell where the absorbing layer is based on organic semiconductors (OSC) – typically either polymers or small molecules.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Manufacturing cost is cheaper than the inorganic Photovoltaic Cells due to large availability of raw material. Soluble organic molecules enable roll-to-roll processing techniques and allow for low-cost manufacturing. The wide abundance of building-block materials reduces supply and price constraints.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The main disadvantages associated with organic photovoltaic cells are low efficiency, low stability and low strength. This is in comparison to inorganic photovoltaic cells such as silicon solar cells.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 5

Match the following pairs of Tiger reserves in India and their characteristics

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 5
Option b is correct.
  • Nagarahole TR in Karnataka is a home to 45 tribal settlements locally known as "Haadis" having 1703 families with a population of 6579 nos.

  • These are indigenous Dravidian adivasi (Tribals) belonging to Jenukuruba, Bettakuruba, Yerava, Paniya and soliga communities. They are part of the large group of descendants of pallavas who were inhabiting the then vast forest tract which is now known as "Nilgiri Biosphere".

  • Amrabad tiger reserve- endangered species of Mouse deer was re-introduced here for the first time in a country. Pakhui tiger reserve- Three large cats - the tiger, leopard and clouded leopard, share space with two canids – the wild dog and Asiatic jackal in this tiger reserve.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 6

Which of the following Cryptocurrencies utilise the Proof of Stake (PoS) system?

  1. Cardano

  2. Binance Coin

  3. Doge Coin

  4. Lite Coin

  5. Solana

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 6
Ethereum, the world’s second most valuable cryptocurrency, has completed a significant software overhaul recently.

Proof of Stake:

  • Cryptocurrencies that use proof of stake include Cardano, Binance Coin, and Solana.

  • Proof of stake is a consensus mechanism used in cryptocurrencies that do not use mining but rather rely on staking to secure the network.

  • Investors holding a certain amount of the cryptocurrency are allowed to stake their holdings to secure the network and get rewarded with new units of the cryptocurrency.

  • The principle behind proof of stake is that if stakeholders are holding a significant amount of a cryptocurrency, they won't do anything to harm the network.

  • They are therefore trusted to own a validator node, which validates transactions on behalf of the network.

  • Proof of stake was created as an alternative to proof of work, which due to its energy demands, is expensive.

  • Validator nodes, on the other hand, can be as simple as a personal computer, which does not require more power than any other computer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

  1. Capital punishment in India has been limited to the rarest of rare cases.

  2. The Indian Penal Code 1860 provides with the death penalty for taking up arms against the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 7
  • Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) referred a case to a 5-judge bench to give meaningful chances to those on Death Row.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Capital punishment, also called the death penalty, is the execution of an offender sentenced to death after conviction by a court of law of a criminal offence. In India it has been limited to the rarest of rare cases.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Section 121 (taking up arms against the state) and Section 302 (murder).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 8

Consider the following statements with reference to the criteria used by the Finance Commission of India for the devolution of funds to the States:

  1. Under the income distance criterion, States with lower per capita income would be given a higher share to maintain equity among States.

  2. Under the demographic performance criterion, lower devolution is made to the States having lower fertility rates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 8
Finance Commission is set up under Article 280 of the Constitution, its core responsibility is to evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments, recommend the sharing of taxes between them, and lay down the principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States. In November 2017, the President of India constituted the 15th Finance Commission and appointed former Planning Commission member NK Singh as its chairman.

Criteria used by Finance Commission for financial devolution:

  • The Finance Commission uses certain criteria when deciding the devolution to states. For example, the income distance criterion has been used by the 14th and 15th Finance Commissions. Under this criterion, states with lower per capita income would be given a higher share to maintain equity among states. So, statement (1) is correct.

  • The 15th Finance Commission has introduced the demographic Performance criterion. The Demographic Performance criterion is to reward efforts is made by states in controlling their population. This criterion has been computed by using the reciprocal of the total fertility ratio of each state, scaled by 1971 population data. This has been done to assuage the fears of southern States. States with a lower fertility ratio will be scored higher on this criterion and will get a higher share of devolution. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Supreme Court has original power as tl1e aggrieved citizens can directly approach it without any appeal.

  2. The right to move the Supreme Court cannot be suspended under any circumstances.

  3. The Parliament can empower any other court including the High Courts to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds.

  4. Article 32 is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution pronounced by the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect with reference to Writ Jurisdiction under Article 32?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 9
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rigflts protected is in itself a fundamental right. This makes fundamental rights real. That is why Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 the most important article of the Constitution-'an Article without which this Constitution would be null. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it'.

The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by an amendment to the Constitution. So: statement (4) is correct.

It contains the following four provisions:

  • The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings to enforce the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed.

  • The Supreme Court shall have the power to issue directions or orders or writs to enforce any of the fundamental rights. The writs issued may include habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto.

  • Parliament can empower any other court to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds. However, this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Any other court here does not include high courts because Article 226 has already conferred these powers on the high courts. So, statement (3) is not correct.

  • The right to move the Supreme Court shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by the Constitution. Thus the Constitution provides that the President can suspend the right to move any court to enforce the fundamental rights during a national emergency (Article 359). So, statement (2) is not correct.

Thus, it is clear that the Supreme Court has been constituted as the defender and guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens. It has been vested with the 'original' and 'wide' powers for that purpose. It is original because an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by appeal. Also, it is wide because its power is not restricted to issuing of orders or directions but also writs of all kinds. So, statement (1) is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 10

Rajya Sabha does not have equal status with Lok Sabha in the matters of

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 10
Equal and Unequal Status of Rajya Sabha with Lok Sabha

In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha:

  • 'r Introduction and passage of ordinary bills.

  • Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills. So, option (a) is not correct.

  • Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

  • Election and impeachment of the President. So, option (b) is not correct.

  • Election and removal of the Vice-President.

  • Making recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general.

  • Approval of ordinances issued by the President. So, option (c) is not correct.

  • Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President.

In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha:

  • A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.

  • The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses.

  • Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha).

  • A resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha. So, option (d) is correct.

  • The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the Council of Ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 11

Consider the following statements:

  1. Unlike Cabinet Ministers, the Council of Ministers is a constitutional body whose size and classification is mentioned in the Constitution.

  2. Unlike Council of Ministers' meeting, Cabinet Ministers' meetings include Ministers of State.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 11
The word 'Council of Ministers' and 'Cabinet' are often used interchangeably, though there is a definite distinction between them as follows

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 12

At present, different religious communities in India are governed by a system of personal laws. Consider the following statements in this context:

  1. The term 'Hindu' in the Hindu Personal Laws includes Hindus, Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists.

  2. Hindu Personal Laws include customary practices of the tribes from North-East India.

  3. Muslim Personal Law is codified based on Muslim religious texts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 12
At present different religious communities in India are currently governed by a system of personal laws.

These laws largely focus on the following personal areas of the people:

  • Marriage and divorce

  • Custody and Guardianship

  • Adoption and Maintenance

  • Succession and Inheritance

'Hindu Personal Law' is codified in tour Acts:

  • the Hindu Marriage Act,

  • the Hindu Succession Act,

  • the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, and

  • the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act.

The term 'Hindu' also includes Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists for the purpose of these laws. So, statement (1) is correct.

Muslim personal law is not codified per se and is based on their religious texts. So, statement (3) is not correct.

In the Northeast, there are more than 200 tribes with their own varied customary laws. The Constitution protects local customs in Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram. Even reformed Hindu law, despite codification, protects customary practices. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 13

Who among the following was a member of Simon Commission who subsequently became the British Prime Minister and later was to oversee the granting of independence to India & Pakistan in 1947?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 13
The seven members of Simon commission were Sir John Simon, Clement Attlee, Harry Levy-Lawson, Edward Cadogan, Vernon Hartshorn, George Lane-Fox, Donald Howard. Clement Attlee served the post of British Prime Minister from 1945 to 1951. On February 20, 1947 Atlee declared the British would quit India before June 1948.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 14

Dharamshala Declaration 2022 is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 14
The ‘Dharamshala Declaration 2022’ was released at a three-day national conference on tourism.
  • The Dharamshala Declaration:

    • It includes a long-term revenue goal of $1 trillion by 2047, when the country turns 100.

  • The Centre unveiled an ambitious plan for the tourism sector in the National Conference.

    • Recovery of tourism to the pre-pandemic level by 2024,

    • $250 billion contribution to the GDP by 2030, and

    • India will be a world leader in tourism by 2047.

  • Tourism Clubs:

    • The Union Tourism and Culture Minister called on states to start work on “a war footing” by establishing tourism clubs.

      • The proposal is to work on making Yuva Tourism clubs at district and mandal levels.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 15

Which of the following vaccines are type of live attenuated vaccines?

  1. Covaxin

  2. Oral Polio Vaccine

  3. Tuberculosis Vaccine

  4. Cholera Vaccine

  5. Rotavirus Vaccine

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 15
Option b is correct.
  • A live attenuated vaccine is a vaccine created by reducing the virulence (severity or harmfulness) of a pathogen, but still keeping it viable (or "live"). Live vaccines are used against: Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Rotavirus, Smallpox, Polio, Tuberculosis, Cholera among others. (Thus Option 2, 3,4 and 5 are correct).

  • Covaxin is an inactivated vaccine, which has been prepared on a tried and tested platform of dead viruses. This vaccine is developed with Whole-Virion Inactivated Vero Cell-derived technology. They contain inactivated viruses, which cannot infect a person but still can teach the immune system to prepare a defense mechanism against the active virus. (Option 1 is incorrect).

Knowledge Base: Different types of Vaccines

  • Inactivated Vaccine: Vaccines of this type are created by inactivating a pathogen, typically using heat or chemicals such as formaldehyde or formalin. This destroys the pathogen’s ability to replicate, but keeps it “intact” so that the immune system can still recognize it.

  • Attenuated Vaccine: Attenuated vaccines can be made in several different ways. Some of the most common methods involve passing the disease-causing virus through a series of cell cultures or animal embryos (typically chick embryos). When the resulting vaccine virus is given to a human, it will be unable to replicate enough to cause illness, but will still provoke an immune response that can protect against future infection.

  • Conjugate Vaccine: Conjugate vaccines are somewhat similar to recombinant vaccines that is they are made using a combination of two different components. Conjugate vaccines, however, are made using pieces from the coats of bacteria. These coats are chemically linked to a carrier protein, and the combination is used as a vaccine. The piece of bacteria can't cause illness, but when combined with carrier protein, it can generate immunity against future infection.

  • mRNA Vaccine: An mRNA vaccine (or RNA vaccine) is a novel type of vaccine which is composed of the nucleic acid RNA, packaged within a vector such as lipid nanoparticles.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding permafrost:

  1. It is defined solely based on temperature and duration.

  2. It contains large quantities of organic leftover from thousands of years.

  3. In northern hemisphere, it is found in higher latitudes only.

  4. Thawing of permafrost is a major contributor to climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 16
Option b is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Permafrost is a ground that remains completely frozen at 0 degrees Celsius or below for at least two years. It is defined solely based on temperature and duration.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Beneath its surface, permafrost contains large quantities of organic leftover from thousands of years prior — dead remains of plants, animals, and microorganisms that got frozen before they could rot. It also holds a massive trove of pathogens.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: These grounds are known to be below 22 per cent of the land surface on Earth, mostly in polar zones and regions with high mountains. They are spread across 55 per cent of the landmass in Russia and Canada, 85 per cent in the US state of Alaska, and possibly the entirety of Antarctica. At lower latitudes, permafrost is found at high altitude locations such as the Alps and the Tibetan plateau. Thus, in Northern Hemisphere, Permafrost is not confined to higher latitudes only.

  • Statement 4 is correct: When permafrost thaws, microbes start decomposing this carbon matter, releasing greenhouse gases like methane and carbon dioxide. Researchers have estimated that for every 1-degree Celsius rise in average temperature, permafrost regions could release greenhouse gases to the tune of 4-6 years of emissions from coal, oil, and natural gas — becoming a major factor of climate change in themselves.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 17

Which of the following options regarding Forward Bloc during the Indian Freedom movement is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 17
Option a is correct.
  • Option a is correct: Initially the aim of the Forward Bloc was to rally all the leftwing sections within the Congress. It aimed to develop an alternative leadership inside the Congress. It was one of the many leftwing party formed during the freedom movement with socialist aims. On 20–22 June 1940, the Forward Bloc held its first All India Conference in Nagpur. The conference declared the Forward Bloc to be a socialist political party. The conference passed a resolution titled 'All Power to the Indian People', urging militant action for struggle against British colonial rule.

  • Option b is incorrect: The Forward Bloc was formed on May 3, 1939 by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in Makur Unnao, Uttar Pradesh, after he had resigned from the presidency of the Indian National Congress on 29 April. It was formed after he was outmaneuvered by Gandhi at the Tripuri session of Congress (1939). The Haripura session of Congress had taken place in 1938 and was presided over by Bose.

  • Option c is incorrect: Initially, it was formed as a faction within the Congress as it wanted to change the Congress from within. All the members of Forward Bloc had membership of Congress as well.

  • Option d is incorrect: Unlike the Communist party of India, which supported war effort due to Communist Russia’s support to war, the Forward Bloc was more aligned with the nationalist and Congress agenda. It considered independence of India from British rule, the most important issue. So, its members participated fully in the Quit India movement.

  • Knowledge Base: Bose became the president of the Forward Bloc and S.S. Cavesheer its vice-president. Bose began publishing a newspaper titled Forward Bloc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 18

Which of the following are type of White Blood Cells (WBC)?

  1. Neutrophils

  2. Lymphocytes

  3. Erythrocytes

  4. Basophils

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 18
Option b is correct.
  • Option 1, 2 and 4 are correct: White Blood Cells, also called leukocytes, are an important part of the immune system. These cells help fight infections by attacking bacteria, viruses, and germs that invade the body. They are colourless due to lack of haemoglobin. White blood cells originate in the bone marrow but circulate throughout the bloodstream.

  • There are five major types of white blood cells:

    • neutrophils

    • lymphocytes

    • eosinophils

    • monocytes

    • basophils

  • Option 3 is incorrect: Erythrocytes or red blood cells (RBC) are the most abundant of all the cells in blood. RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in the adults.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 19

Which one of the following is not the power of a civil court in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 19
Option d is correct.
  • Option a is incorrect: A civil court has the power of summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath. It can also require the discovery and production of any document.

  • Option b is incorrect: A civil court can requisite any public record or copy thereof from any court or office. It also has the power of receiving evidence on affidavits.

  • Option c is incorrect: A civil court can issue summons for the examination of witnesses and documents for matters under its consideration.

  • Option d is correct: The Supreme Court has held that civil courts could not decide disputes between managements and employees, and, that they should be settled under the Industrial Disputes Act. Industrial Tribunal, Labour courts have been established under the Industrial Disputes act, 1947. These bodies exercise original jurisdiction in adjudication of industrial disputes. The act has been replaced by Industrial Relations Code 2020.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 20

With reference to Vegetable Oil, consider the following statements:

  1. India is the world’s second largest importer of vegetable oil.

  2. As per the OECD-FAO Agricultural Outlook 2021-2030, India is projected to maintain a high per capita vegetable oil consumption growth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 20
Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), the country’s apex food regulator, has released a draft notification for front-of-pack labelling.
  • Statement 1 is not correct: India is the world’s second-largest consumer and number one importer of vegetable oil. As urbanisation increases in developing countries, dietary habits and traditional meal patterns are expected to shift towards processed foods that have a high content of vegetable oil. Vegetable oil consumption in India is, therefore, expected to remain high due to high population growth and consequent urbanisation.

  • Statement 2 is correct: As per the OECD-FAO Agricultural Outlook 2021-2030, India is projected to maintain a high per capita vegetable oil consumption growth of 2.6 percent per annum reaching 14 kg/capita by 2030 necessitating a high import growth of 3.4 percent per annum.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 21

Consider the following areas with reference to the citizen-centric areas identified by the Department of Expenditure for reforms in Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to provide better public health and sanitation services to citizens:

  1. Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System

  2. Ease of Doing Business reform

  3. Urban Local body/utility reforms

  4. Power Sector reforms.

Which of the areas given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 21
Given the resource required to meet multiple challenges posed by the COVID- 19 pandemic, the Government of India had enhanced the borrowing limit of the States by 2 percent of their GSDP. Half of this special dispensation, i.e., 1 percent of GSDP, was linked to undertaking citizen-centric reforms by the States.

The four citizen-centric areas for reforms identified by the Department of Expenditure were:

  • Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System,

  • Ease of doing business reform,

  • Urban Local body/ utility reforms and

  • Power Sector reforms.

So, all options are correct. Reforms in ULBs and the urban utility reforms aim to strengthen ULBs in the States and enable them to provide better public health and sanitation services to citizens. Economically rejuvenated ULBs will also be able to create good civic infrastructure.

The set of reforms stipulated by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance to achieve these objectives are:

  • The State will notify:

  • Floor rates of property tax in ULBs which are in consonance with the prevailing circle rates (i.e., guideline rates for property transactions) and;

  • Floor rates of user charges regarding the provision of water supply, drainage, and sewerage reflect current costs/past inflation.

The State will put in place a periodic increase in floor rates of property tax/ user charges in line with price increases. Six states till now have undertaken these reforms successfully. These are Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Madhya Pradesh, Manipur, Rajasthan.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 22

Consider the following statements with reference to the Supreme Court:

  1. The constitutional cases are decided by a Bench consisting of at least seven Judges.

  2. The President of India can appoint places other than Delhi as its seat.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 22
  • The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28th January 1950. It succeeded the Federal Court of India, established under the Government of India Act of 1935. However, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is greater than that of its predecessor. This is because; the Supreme Court has replaced the British Privy Council as the highest court of appeal. Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction, powers, procedures and so on of the Supreme Court.

  • The Parliament is also authorized to regulate them. The Supreme Court can, with the approval of the President, make rules for generally regulating the practice and procedure of the court. The Constitutional cases or references made by the President under Article 143 are decided by a Bench consisting of at least five judges. All other cases are decided by single judges and division benches. The judgments are delivered by the open court. So, statement (1) is not correct.

  • The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. But, it also authorizes the chief justice of India to appoint other places or places as the seat of the Supreme Court. He can decide in this regard only with the approval of the President. This provision is only optional and not compulsory. This means that no court can give any direction either to the President or the Chief Justice to appoint any other place as a Supreme Court seat. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 23

The Chief Minister of Maharashtra will not be eligible to vote in the Presidential election if

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 23
The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of the Electoral College consisting of:
  • the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;

  • the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and

  • the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

Thus, the nominated members of both Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President. Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved Assembly are not held before the presidential election. So, only option (d) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 24

Consider the following statements with reference to the World Food Program:

  1. It was founded in 1961 by the Food and Agriculture Organization and United Nations General Assembly.

  2. It is a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group (UNSDG).

  3. It was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in the year 2019.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 24
  • World Food Program was founded in 1961 by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and United Nations General Assembly (UNGA), with its headquarters in Rome, Italy. So, statement (1) is correct.

  • World Food Program is a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group (UNSDG), a coalition of UN agencies and organizations to fulfil the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). So, statement (2) is correct.

  • The Nobel peace prize of 2020 is awarded to the World Food Program. So, statement (3) is not correct.

    • It is funded entirely by voluntary donations as it does not have its sources of funding.

    • Share the meal is an initiative of the World Food Program.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 25

Which of the statements given below is/are not correct with reference to the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative?

  1. It is an approach to help a country diversify its supply risk across the supplier nations instead of depending on few countries.

  2. It aims to create a virtuous cycle of supply chain resilience to attain sustainable and inclusive growth of the region.

  3. It has been launched by India, Japan and the United States of America.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 25
  • India, Japan and Australia have launched the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI). In international trade, supply chain resilience is an approach that helps a country diversify its supply risk across a group of supplying nations instead of being dependent on just one or a few. So, statement (1) is correct, while statement (3) is not correct.

  • SCRI, initially proposed by Japan, aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing supply chain resilience to eventually attain strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth in the region. So, statement (2) is correct.

  • It emphasizes upon:

    • Sharing best practices on supply chain resilience;

    • Holding events to provide opportunities for stakeholders to explore the possibility of diversification of their supply chains;

    • It also includes a commitment by three nations towards measures to support enhanced utilization of digital technology and supporting trade and investment diversification.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 26

With reference to State of the Education Report for India 2022, consider the following statements:

  1. This report is released by NITI Ayog and the Ministry of Education.

  2. The report focused on the theme of teachers, teaching and teacher education.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 26
Recently, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) inaugurated the 2022 State of the Education Report for India: Artificial Intelligence in Education - Here, There and Everywhere.
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Recently, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) inaugurated the 2022 State of the Education Report (SOER) for India: Artificial Intelligence in Education - Here, There and Everywhere. The SOER is an annual flagship report.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: This report is the fourth edition and is an annually flagship report. The fourth edition provides an introduction to Artificial Intelligence (AI) to clarify a subject that would have experienced various misconceptions. It is also added with challenges and opportunities in the Indian Education Sector that AI can address. The third edition of the State of Education Report 2021 focused on the theme of teachers, teaching and teacher education.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 27

Which of the following options regarding the legal system of Delhi Sultanate is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 27
Option d is correct.
  • Option a is incorrect: The Sultan headed the judiciary and was the final court of appeal in both civil and criminal matters. Next to Sultan was the qazi-ul mumalik (or qazi-ul quzzat), the chief judge of the Sultanate.

  • Option b is incorrect: Criminal law was based on regulations framed for the purpose by the rulers. Criminal law was not based on Sharia.

  • Option c is incorrect: The Hindus, in cases of civil matters, were governed by their own personal laws. It was dispensed by the panchayats in the villages and by the leaders of the various castes in the cities. Muslims were governed by Islamic laws in civil matters.

  • Option d is correct: The chief qazi headed the legal system and heard appeals from the lower courts.

  • Knowledge Base: Often, the offices of the sadr-us sudur and qazi-ul mumalik were held by the same person. Qazis were appointed in various parts of the empire, particularly in those places where there was a sizeable Muslim population. The qazis dispensed civil law based on the Muslim law (sharia).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 28

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 28
Option b is correct.
  • Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Panamik is situated close to Siachen glacier, which is famous for its curative hot springs. The spring water contains high amount of sulphur and it is believed best for curing rheumatism and other ailments. It is located in close proximity to Nubra valley in Ladakh.

  • Pair 2 is correctly matched: Kheer ganga is located at Akhara Bazar, Kullu, Himachal Pradesh which is an important site for hot spring.

  • Pair 3 is correctly matched: Gaurikund is considered the most sacred hot spring and is a major attraction for several pilgrimages located in Uttarakhand. Like any other hot spring, the hot water which comes deep from the earth core carries away lot of minerals mainly sulfur.

  • Knowledge Base:

    • Manikaran Sahib, Himachal

    • Tattapani, Chhattisgarh

    • Yumthang, Sikkim

    • Reshi, Sikkim

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 29

Which of the following statements is/ are the correct reasons for the decline of the Mauryan dynasty?

  1. A quick succession of weak rulers who couldn’t maintain a strong central empire.

  2. Increase in inefficiency and corruption among the Mauryan bureaucracy.

  3. Enormous expenditure on army and bureaucracy caused financial crisis.

Select the correct option using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 29
Option d is correct:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Mauryan rule lasted only about 50 years after the death of Asoka. His empire was likely fragmented among multiple successors (many sons and grandsons) like Kunala, Samprati, Dasaratha, Salishuka, Brihadaratha, etc. all within the span of about half a century. This shows they were probably incapable and weak and could not maintain a strong central control over a vast consolidated empire like Asoka and his predecessors. Fragmentation of the empire and weak rulers made it easy for local chieftains to reassert their independence causing decline of the empire.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Mauryan bureaucracy was top heavy and very vast. It was structured such that it needed a strong ruler making good appointments and keeping the officials in check so that there was no corruption or inefficiency causing popular resentment. However, after Asoka, corruption inevitably set in once weak rulers were in power at the centre. The complex system of spies collapsed under the later Mauryan rulers, so there was no check on corruption and inefficiency.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Huge expenditure on army and payment of bureaucracy created financial crisis for the Mauryan empire. In the last years of the empire, they had to melt the images made of gold to meet the expenses of the empire. Thus, financial crisis was also amongst the reason for collapse of Mauryan empire.

  • Knowledge Base: Other causes:

    • Dissatisfaction with oppressive rule - rebellions in Taxila, Ujjain etc.

    • New knowledge in the outlying area - learn the science of iron metallurgy for weapons and agriculture strengthened local kingdoms.

    • Neglect of north west frontier and invasion of Scythians, etc. due to Great Wall of China blocking their eastward expansion, leaving India as their only option.

    • Internal revolts - empire divided among successors, e.g., between Dasaratha and Kunal.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 30

Consider the following statements about the committees for Poverty Estimation in India:

  1. Lakdawala Committee recommended a uniform ‘national’ poverty line throughout India.

  2. Tendulkar Committee recommended uniform poverty line basket for rural and urban areas.

  3. Rangarajan Committee estimated poverty based on expenditure on nutrition only.

  4. Multidimensional Poverty Index is estimated based on Health, Education and Standard of living.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 30
Option b is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Lakdawala committee suggested that state specific poverty lines. It also suggested that poverty lines should be constructed and updated using the Consumer Price Index of Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) in urban areas and Consumer Price Index of Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL) in rural areas.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Tendulkar committee recommended four major changes:

    • a shift away from calorie consumption-based poverty estimation;

    • a uniform poverty line basket (PLB) across rural and urban India;

    • a change in the price adjustment procedure to correct spatial and temporal issues with price adjustment; and

    • incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Rangarajan committee estimates poverty:

    • Food expenses

    • Non-food expenses

    • Behaviourally determined levels of other non-food expenses. Thus, poverty is not just based on expenditure on nutrition only.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).

    It tracks deprivation across three dimensions and 10 indicators:

    • health (child mortality, nutrition),

    • education (years of schooling, enrolment), and

    • living standards (water, sanitation, electricity, cooking fuel, floor, assets).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 31

With reference to the Indian Gas Exchange (IGX), which of the following is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 31
Option b is correct.
  • Option a is incorrect: The IGX is a digital trading platform that will allow buyers and sellers of natural gas to trade both in the spot market and in the forward market.

  • Option b is correct: The price of domestically produced natural gas is decided by the government. It will not be sold on the gas exchange. The IGX will allow buyers and sellers of natural gas to trade both in the spot market and in the forward market for imported natural gas across three hubs —Dahej and Hazira in Gujarat, and Kakinada in Andhra Pradesh.

  • Option c is incorrect: The contracts traded at Exchange are for specific physical delivery and settlement of the trade. They are subject to the condition that such contracts are non-transferable in nature and without any netting-off thereby.

  • Option d is incorrect: The exchange also allows much shorter contracts – for delivery on the next day, and up to a month – while ordinarily contracts for natural gas supply are as long as six months to a year.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding the river Indus:

  1. The Indus drainage is an example of antecedent drainage.

  2. River Galwan is the right bank tributary of river Indus.

  3. In India, the river flows only through Union Territory of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 32
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Himalayan Rivers existed even before the formation of Himalayas and cut their courses southward by making gorges in the mountains. Therefore, the river Indus is an antecedent river.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Galwan river is not right-bank tributary of the Indus. The Galwan is the tributary of river Shyok which is Indus’s right bank tributary.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Indus flows in India through the Leh and Kargil districts in Ladakh. Then for around 200 KM the river flows through the Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. Thus, officially along with Union Territory of Ladakh, river Indus also flows through Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

  • Knowledge Base: The Himalayan tributaries of river Indus are the Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting and the Dras.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 33

Topography and temperatures of this agro- climatic region show great variation. Average temperature in July ranges between 5°C and 30 °C, while in January it ranges between 5 °C and -5 °C. Mean annual rainfall varies between 75 cm to 150 cm, with some of the areas experiences a very low rainfall of 30 cm too. This agro-climatic region is made up of fragile eco system prone to soil erosion and has low land productivity. This region is famous for horticultural products like Saffron and contributes the largest share in India’s Apple production.

Which of the following best describes the above mentioned agro-climatic region of India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 33
Option d is correct.

Western Himalayan agro-climatic region:

  • Topography and temperatures show great variation.

  • Average temperature in July ranges between 5°C and 30 °C, while in January it ranges between 5 °C and -5 °C.

  • Mean annual rainfall varies between 75 cm to 150 cm, with some of the areas experiences a very low rainfall of 30 cm too.

  • The region is prone to soil erosion and has low land productivity.

  • This region is famous aromatic crops like Saffron, medicinal plants (Kuth, Kuroo & Himalayan Yew), Aromatic plants (Dioscorea, Banafsha, Lavender, Brahmi, Harad, seabuck thorn, cedar wood) and Fruit crops such as Apple, cherry, strawberry, peach, plum, kiwi, apricot, almond & walnut.

  • North West Himalayan states of Kashmir and Himachal contributes the largest share in India’s Apple production.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 34

With reference to cyclone consider the following statements:

  1. It helps in balancing global heat distribution.

  2. It facilitates Ecological Succession in ecosystem.

  3. It is responsible for seed dispersal of plant species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 34
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Cyclone helps in balancing global heat distribution. Cyclone maintains the temperature balance between the poles and the equator.

  • Statement 2 is correct:

    • Cyclone facilitates Ecological Succession in ecosystem.

    • For example, A cyclone flattens a deciduous forest which may seem as an act of destruction but such disturbances are a natural and necessary part of ecosystem function.

    • The defoliation of mature canopy trees allows sunlight to reach the previously dark understory, permitting shade-intolerant species to proliferate.

    • Thus, it helps the shade-tolerant trees to create a canopy again.

    • Such cycling of vegetation communities or succession promotes biodiversity by giving more species the chance to occupy a given ecosystem and maintaining landscape mosaics of greater complexity.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Cyclones help in the dispersal of seeds of plant species.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 35

With reference to the classification based on stems cell's ability to form into different specialized cells, consider the following statements:

  1. Totipotent Stem Cells can transform themselves into any cell in the human body except those kinds that are required to support and develop a fetus in the womb.

  2. Pluripotent Stem Cells can transform into all kinds of cells in the human body.

  3. Multipotent can give rise to only a few distinct types of cells.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 35
Stem cells are special human cells that have the capability to develop into wide-ranging types of cells in the human body, from muscle cells to brain cells. The Union Health Ministry had notified the 'New Drugs and Clinical Trial Rules, 2019' which state that stem-cell-derived products are to be used as "new drugs." 'This means that any doctor who uses stem-cell therapy needs to take permission from the government.

Classification based on Stems cells ability to form into different specialized cells:

  • Totipotent: These stem cells can differentiate into all possible cell types. The first few cells that appear as the zygote starts to divide are totipotent.

  • Pluripotent: These cells can turn into almost any cell. Cells from the early embryo are pluripotent.

  • Multipotent: These cells can differentiate into a closely related family of cells. Adult hematopoietic stem cells, for example, can become red and white blood cells or platelets.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 36

Consider the following statements with reference to the Gravitational Waves:

  1. They can penetrate regions of space that electromagnetic waves cannot.

  2. They allow the observation of the merger of black hoies and other exotic objects in the distant Universe.

  3. Its precise measurements will allow scientists to test more thoroughly the general theory of relativity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 36
  • Gravitational waves can penetrate regions of space that electromagnetic waves cannot. So, statement (1) is correct.

  • Gravitational waves allow the observation of the merger of black holes and other exotic objects in the distant Universe. So, statement (2) is correct.

  • Such systems cannot be observed with more traditional means such as optical telescopes or radio telescopes, and so gravitational wave astronomy gives new insights into the working of the Universe.

  • In particular, gravitational waves could be of interest to cosmologists as they offer a possible way of observing the very early Universe. This is not possible with conventional astronomy, since before recombination, the Universe was opaque to electromagnetic radiation. Precise measurements of gravitational waves will also allow scientists to test more thoroughly the general theory of relativity. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 37

Which of the following statements best describes the term Homeostasis?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 37
Homeostasis any self-regulating process. It is the act of maintaining a relatively constant internal environment within an organism's cells. Cells function most efficiently in a certain range of conditions and as the environment changes around them, they constantly work to keep their internal environment in an optimal condition. Cells are working to maintain factors such as water concentrations, salt and sugar, the temperature within the cell, and oxygen concentrations. So, statement (a) is correct.

If homeostasis is successful, life continues; if unsuccessful, disaster or death ensues. The stability attained is actually a dynamic equilibrium, in which continuous change occurs yet relatively uniform conditions prevail. The control of body temperature in humans is a good example of homeostasis in a biological system. In humans, normal body temperature fluctuates around the value of 37 °C (98.6 °F), but various factors can affect this value, including exposure, hormones, metabolic rate, and disease, leading to excessively high or low temperatures.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 38

Consider the following statements:

  1. Mutations can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell division.

  2. Germline mutations occur in the eggs and sperm and are not passed on to offsprings.

  3. Somatic mutations occur in body cells and can be passed on to offsprings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 38
A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. Mutations can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell division, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals cailed mutagens, or infection by viruses. Germline mutations occur in the eggs and sperm and can be passed on to offspring, while somatic mutations occur in body cells and are not passed on. So, statement (1) is correct while statements (2) and (3) are not correct.

In other words, mutations may arise from faulty deletions, insertions, or exchanges of nucleotides in the genetic material. These, in turn, may be caused by exposure to mutagens, such as ultraviolet or ionizing radiation, certain chemicals, and viruses. When a point mutation occurs in the DNA sequence, for instance, the error is corrected or repaired by direct reversal or by the replacement of damaged nitrogenous bases. When these mechanisms fail to restore the integrity of the sequence, the result is a permanent and heritable mutation. The error is propagated by DNA replication, i.e., a biological process of copying a strand of DNA.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 39

Which of the following food additives have nutritional values?

  1. Flavours and sweeteners

  2. Fat emulsifiers and stabilizing agents

  3. Antioxidants

  4. Preservatives

  5. Amino acids

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 39
Chemicals are added to food for their preservation, enhancing their appeal, and adding nutritional value in them.

The main categories of food additives are as follows:

  • Flavours and sweeteners

  • Fat emulsifiers and stabilizing agents

  • Flour improvers - antistaling agents and bleaches

  • Antioxidants

  • Preservatives

  • Nutritional supplements such as minerals, vitamins and amino acids. Except for chemicals of a category

  • none of the above additives have nutritive value. These are added either to increase the shelf life of stored food or for cosmetic purposes. So, option (d) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 40

Consider the following statements:

  1. The majority of coal found in India is of Anthracite type having the highest calorific value.

  2. Syngas produced from coal is cheaper, less polluting and more efficient than conventional coal-burning.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 40
Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India. In India, gondwana coal makes up to 98 per cent of the total reserves and 99 per cent of the production of coal in India.
  • Majority of the coal found in India are of bituminous type. It has a low level of moisture content with 60 to 80% of carbon content and has a high calorific value. Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh have deposits of Bituminous. So, statement (1) is not correct.

  • Coal gasification is the process of producing syngas-a mixture consisting primarily of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (C02), natural gas (CH4), and water vapour (H20)- from coal and water, air and/or oxygen. It is cheaper, less polluting and more efficient than conventional coal-burning. However, it is more water- intensive and there are also concerns about water contamination, land subsidence and disposing of waste water safely. So, statement (2) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 41

With reference to the Vedanta school of philosophy, which of the following options is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 41

Option a is incorrect:

  • The Vedanta theory believed in the theory of Punarjanama or rebirth.

  • They also argued that a person would have to bear the brunt of their actions from the previous birth in the next one.

  • The Vedanta theory also gave credence to the Theory of Karma.

Option b is correct:

  • As per Shankaracharya’s view of Vedanta, brahman is without any attributes.

  • Ramanujan considers brahman to possess certain attributes.

Option c is incorrect:

  • Shankaracharya’s Vedanta considers knowledge or gyan as the path to attain salvation.

  • Ramanujan considers path to salvation was through intense devotion to Lord because the grace of the Lord helps devotees attain permanent bliss (freedom and happiness).

Option d is incorrect:

  • It is one of the major orthodox schools of Indian religious philosophies.

  • Orthodox school believes in God, unlike the heterodox school.

Knowledge Base: Vedanta is made of two words- ‘Veda’ and ‘ant’, i.e., the end of the Vedas. This school upholds the philosophies of life as elaborated in the Upanishads. The oldest text that formed the basis of this philosophy was Brahmasutra of Badrayana. The philosophy propounds that Brahm is the reality of life and everything else is unreal or Maya.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 42

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 42
  • The Jharkhand government convened a special Assembly session to pass a resolution to recognise Sarna religion and include it as a separate code in the Census of 2021.The followers of Sarna faith believe pray to nature. The holy grail of the faith is "Jal, Jungle, Zameen" and its followers pray to the trees and hills while believing in protecting the forest areas. So, the pair (1) is correct.

  • The Rabaris, are a semi-nomadic tribe known for their survival and adaptation in arid regions of Gujarat and Rajasthan pursuing a pre-agrarian, pastoral lifestyle found mainly in the Kutch and Saurashtra regions of Gujarat. So, the pair (2) is correct.

  • 'Hakkipikki' is one of the major tribal communities in Karnataka. In Kannada the word 'Hakki' stands for 'bird and 'Pikki' stands for verb 'to catch', therefore, the community is known as the 'bird catcher' which is their traditional occupation. So, the pair (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 43

Which of the following factors are responsible for the formation of deserts on the western parts of the continents?

  1. Presence of warm ocean currents

  2. Offshore winds blowing in westerly direction

  3. Rain-shadow areas of the mountains

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 43
Deserts are dry or arid areas that receive less than 250 mm of rain each year. Deserts can be hot or cold. They contain plants and animals that are specially adapted to these extremely dry conditions. Most hot deserts are found between 15-30° north and south of the equator. Air around the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer is dry. This is a zone of high air pressure where the air sinks.
  • Some deserts are found on the western edges of continents. They are caused by cold ocean currents, which run along the coast. They cool the air and make it harder for the air to hold moisture. Most moisture falls as rain before it reaches the land, e.g., the Namib Desert in Africa. So, statement (1) is not correct.

  • Some deserts form in areas that lie at great distances from the sea. The air here is much drier than on the coast. So, statement (2) is correct.

  • Some deserts form in the rain shadow of mountains, e.g., the Atacama Desert is located in the rain shadow of the Andes. Air is forced to rise over mountains, air cools and condensation occurs, rain falls over the mountains, dry air sinks down the other side of the mountain. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 44

Which of the following techniques can be equipped to reduce GHG emissions in thermal power plants?

  1. Flue-gas desulfurization

  2. Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction

  3. Electro-Static Precipitators

  4. Installation of cooling towers

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 44
Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) notified specific standards for the thermal power plants to control the emissions under "Environment (Protection) Amendment Rules, 2015'.
  • Flue-gas desulfurization (FGD) is a set of technologies used to remove sulfur dioxide (S02) from exhaust flue gases of fossil-fuel power plants and from the emissions of other sulfur oxide emitting processes such as waste incineration. So, option (1) is correct.

  • Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction (SNCR) and Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) system for controlling NOx emissions. Selective non-catalytic reduction (SNCR) is a post-combustion emissions control Technology for reducing NOx by injecting an ammonia type reactant into the furnace at a properly Determined location. So, option (2) is correct.

  • Electro-Static Precipitators (ESPs) are to be deployed for control of particulate matter (PM) in thermal Power stations. So, option (3) is correct.

  • Installation of cooling towers in order to change over to a closed cooling water system for controlling water consumption. Convert existing once-through-based condenser cooling (OTBCC) systems to recirculation type. So, option (4) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 45

With reference to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), consider the following statements:

  1. It sets no mandatory limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries.

  2. It contains no enforcement mechanism as it is legally binding to all member countries.

  3. Parties to it are classified as Annex-I and Annex-II countries only.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 45
UNFCCC was opened for signature on 9 May 1992. It entered into force on 21 March 1994. The objective of the treaty is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system. The treaty itself set no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries. So, statement (1) is correct. It contains no enforcement mechanisms. The treaty is considered legally non-binding. Instead, the treaty provides a framework for negotiating specific international treaties (called "protocols") that may set binding limits on greenhouse gases. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Parties to it are classified as Annex-I, Annex-II and non-Annex countries:

  • Annex-I countries: The Convention obliges them to reduce GHG emissions, to protect and to develop sinks and to report the measures they take to prevent climate change and data about GHG emissions. This category comprises 42 countries and the EU.

  • Annex-II countries: These countries are obliged to transfer environment-friendly technologies to especially developing countries and take all necessary steps to encourage, facilitate, and finance access to these technologies on top of other responsibilities they have as Annex I countries. This category comprises 23 countries and the EU.

  • Non-annex countries: These countries are encouraged to reduce GHG emissions, cooperate on research and technology, and protect sinks, but are not bound by other obligations like the Annex I and II countries.

This category currently includes 154 countries. So, statement (3) is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 46

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the greenhouse gases emissions by Thermal Power Plants in India?

  1. It accounts for one of the largest sources for the emission of Sulphur dioxide into the atmosphere.

  2. More than 80 percentage of Thermal Power Plants in India have achieved the notified emission norms as per the 2015 emission standards.

  3. All TPPs have to achieve the notified emission norms by 2022.

  4. They are responsible for about 70% of total freshwater withdrawal by all industries in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 46
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: India is world’s largest emitter of SO2. The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, 58% of the thermal power plants are still not complying or haven’t put out tenders to comply with 2015 emission standard notification.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Environment Protection (Amendment) Rules: TPPs will be classified as Category A (within a 10-km radius of NCR or cities with a 1-million-plus population), Category B (within 10-km radius of critically polluted areas and ‘non-attainment’ cities as defined by the Central Pollution Control Board) and Category C (comprising remaining TPPs).

    • Category A TPPs, both retiring and non-retiring, have an end-2022 deadline,

    • non-retiring Category B TPPs have been allowed time till end-2023 and

    • non-retiring Category C ones, till 2024;

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 47

Consider the following statement with regard to ‘Anti-defection’ law

  1. The decision of the presiding officer of the house regarding ‘disqualification’ under the 10th schedule is final and binding.

  2. In case of defection, a member cannot hold the ministerial post.

  3. A member of the Parliament would lose the seat in the house in case of expulsion by the Political Party.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 47
Option a is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: In Kihoto Hollohan case, the Supreme court has observed that the decision of the Presiding officer under the 10th schedule of the Constitution is subject to judicial review.

  • Statement 2 is correct: As per, Anti-defection law under the 10th schedule of the constitution of India, a member who has been disqualified on the ground of defection, cannot hold any post or attend the assembly without being re-elected. However, in case of resignation, the member can attend session of the parliament or hold post of the minister. But the person must be elected within 6 months from the date of assuming the post or membership of the house. Resignation has become a Loophole for Bypassing Anti-Defection Law.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the 10th schedule, a member of the parliament loses the seat if he/she "voluntarily gives up the membership of such political party”. A member who has been expelled by the political party remains in the house as ‘unattached member’. The MP is still subject to whip of the political party in the House failing to which he/she may become disqualified under the 10th schedule.

  • Recent example: Rajya Sabha MP of CPI(M): Ritabrata Bannerjee. Member of RS: (2014-2020), Expelled by CPI (M) in 2017.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 48

With regard to Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India, which of the following right is self-executory in nature?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 48
Option b is correct.

In case of self-executory fundamental rights, the rights have been enshrined in the constitution and the Parliament does not require to pass any law to give effect to such rights. Most of the Fundamental rights are self-executory in nature. In case of non-self-executory fundamental rights, the makers have entrusted the parliament to give effect to these rights in future. Article 17, 21A, 23, 24 are example of non-Self-executory rights.

  • Option a is incorrect: Article 17: Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practices, this is a non- self-executory right. The parliament has enacted the protection of civil rights act, 1955 to give effect to this right.

  • Option b is correct: Freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under article 19 (1)(a) is a self-executory right.

  • Option c is incorrect: Article 21A (The right to elementary education) is non-self-executory in nature. The parliament has enacted the right of children to free and compulsory education (RTE) act, 2009 to give effect to this provision.

  • Option d is incorrect: Article 23 (Prohibition of traffic in human beings) is non-self-executory in nature. The parliament has enacted several acts such as Immoral traffic prevention act, 1956, The bonded labour system (abolition) act, 1976 to give effect to this right.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 49

Consider the following statements with reference to the textile crafts in India:

  1. Baluchari sari originated in Bengal, known for its depictions of mythological scenes on the sari pallu.

  2. The Venkatagiri Sarees are handwoven zari cotton sarees popular for their Jamdani style of weaving pattern.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 49
The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) is training local tribals in textile crafts to ensure sustainable livelihood for them. 11 TRIFED was established in August 1987 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 1984 by the Government of India as a National level Cooperative body under the administrative control of the then Ministry of Welfare of India,
  • It mandate was to bring about socio-economic development of tribals of the country by institutionalizing the trade of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) & Surplus Agricultural Produce (SAP) collected/ cultivated by them.

  • The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) is training local tribals in textile crafts to ensure sustainable livelihood for them.

  • TRIFED has also been marketing tribal products through its shops called "TRIBES India.''

Baluchari sari:

  • Sari is a type of sari and a garment worn by women across India and Bangladesh. This particular type of sari originated in Bengal and is known for depictions of mythological scenes on the pallu of the sari. So, statement (1) is correct.

  • It is mainly produced in Murshidabad. The Baluchari sari has been granted the status of the geographical indication in India. In the history of textile in Bengal, Baluchari came much after Maslin. Two hundred years ago, Baluchari was used to be practiced in a small village called Baluchar in Murshidabad district, where it got the name Baluchari.

Venkatagiri Sarees:

  • The Venkatagiri Sarees, known for their fine weaving, date back to the early 1700 when these sarees were produced at an artisan cluster close to Nellore called Venkatagiri. The place was then known as 'Kali Mili', and its famous product was patronized by the Velugoti Dynasty of Nellore.

  • Venkatagiri Sarees are handwoven zari cotton sarees popular for their Jamdani style weaving pattern. Coming from the historic town of Venkatagiri in the State of Andhra Pradesh, Venkatagiri Sarees are one of the softest and most durable south sarees in India. They are usually six yards and are suitable for all climates. So, statement (2) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 50

Consider the following statements with reference to the Konkani language:

  1. It is a member of the Dravida language group.

  2. The first reference of the name Konkani is in the works of the 13th century Marathi saint- poet, Namadeva.

  3. It is not included in the sth Schedule to the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 50
In 2019, the Delhi government had constituted 14 new language academies under the Department of art, culture and languages. Recently Tamil academy was also notified and set up by the Delhi government to promote the Tamil language. In the same way, setting up of the academy to promote the Konkani language was approved.
  • Konkani is a member of the Southern Inda-Aryan language group. It retains elements of Vedic structures and shows similarities with both Western and Eastern Inda-Aryan languages. So, statement (1) is not correct.

  • The first reference of the name Konkani is in Abhanga (poems) of the 131 h century Hindu Marathi saint-poet, Namadeva (1270-1350). Konkani has been known by a variety of names: Canarim, Concanim, Gomantaki, Bramana, and Goani. Learned Marathi speakers tend to call it Gomantaki. So, statement (2) is correct.

  • There are many fractured Konkani dialects spoken along and beyond the Konkan, from Damaon in the north to Cochin in the South, most of which are only partially mutually intelligible with one another due to a lack of linguistic contact and exchanges with the standard and principle forms of Konkani. Dialects such as Malvani, Chitpavani, East Indian Kali and Aagri in coastal Maharashtra are also threatened by language assimilation into the linguistic majority of non-Konkani States of India.

  • It is written in five scripts, Roman, Nagari, Kannada, Persian- Arabic and Malayalam.

  • It was included in the 81 h schedule of the Constitution of India in 1992 by the 71 st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. So, statement (3) is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 51

Consider the following statements with reference to the Theravada school of Buddhism:

  1. It descends from the Vibhajjavada, a division within the Sthavira Nikaya.

  2. According to this school, it is possible to attain enlightenment while living the life of a layman.

  3. Theravadins revere the Buddha and Bodhisattvas of the Mahayana school of Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 51
  • The Theravada school descends from the Vibhajjavada, a division within the Sthavira Nikaya, one of the two major orders that arose after the first schism in the Indian Buddhist community. Theravada sources trace their tradition to the Third Buddhist council when elder Moggaliputta-Tissa is said to have compiled the Kathavatthu. This important work lays out the Vibhajjavada doctrinal position. So, statement (1) is correct.

  • Theravadins accept as authoritative the Pali canon of ancient Indian Buddhism and trace their sectarian lineage back to the Elders who followed the tradition of the senior monks of the first Buddhist sangha, or community.

  • During the reign of the emperor i\shoka (3rd century BCE), the Theravada school traveled to Sri Lanka, divided into three subgroups, known after their monastic centers as the Mahaviharika, the Abhayagirika, and the Jetavaniya. The Theravada form of Buddhism gradually spread eastward. becoming dominant in Myanmar in the late 11th century and in Cambodia and Laos by the 13th and 14th centuries.

  • The ideal of Theravada Buddhism is the arhat or perfected saint, who attains enlightenment due to his efforts. The Theravadins clearly differentiate the role of the layman and monk. They do not consider it possible to attain enlightenment while one is living the life of a layman. So, statement (2) is not correct.

  • Theravadins profoundly revere the historical Buddha as a perfected master but do not pay homage to the numerous Buddhist and Bodhisattvas worshipped in the Mahayana. So, statement (3) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 52

Consider the following statements with reference to the description of Bodhisattvas:

  1. Avalokitesvara is the Bodhisattva of compassion and the listener of the world's sorrow.

  2. Maitreya is the Bodhisattva to be reborn and to become enlightened who is supposed to succeed Gautama Buddha in the future.

  3. Vasudhara is a female Bodhisattva in Tibetan Buddhism who represents the virtues of success in work and achievements.

  4. Vajrapani is one of the three protective deities around Buddha that manifests Buddha's power.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 52
Bodhisattvas are enlightened beings who postpone their own sajvation to help all sentient beings.

Following are some of the Bodhisattvas:

  • Avalokitesvara: The bodhisattva of compassion, the listener of the world's cries who uses skillful means to come to their aid; the most universally acknowledged Bodhisattva in Mahayana Buddhism. Known as Guan Yin in East Asia, Chenrezig in Tibet, and Migjid Janraisig in Mongolia. He is described as holding a lotus flower. So, statement (1) is correct.

  • Ksitigarbha: It means Earth Womb. The bodhisattva of the beings suffering in hellish realms, or the bodhisattva of great vows. He is revered as the guardian of children and patron deity of deceased children.

  • Maitreya: Also known as Ajita Boddhisattva. The bodhisattva to be reborn and to become enlightened, thus succeeding Gautama Buddha in the future. Known for his benevolence, he keeps a Kumbha or phililal in his hand and is destined to rule Varanasi (Pure Land). So, statement (2) is correct.

  • Tara: A female bodhisattva, or set of bodhisattvas, in Tibetan Buddhism. She represents the virtues of success in work and achievements-also a manifestation of Avalokitesvara.

  • Vasudhara: Bodhisattva of abundance and fertility. Popular in Nepal. So, statement (3) is not correct.

  • Vajrapani: He is described as one of the three protective deities around Buddha; the other is Manjusri and Avlokiteshwara. Vajrapani manifests Buddha's power while Avlokiteshwara manifests Buddha's compassion. So, statement (4) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 53

Consider the following statements with reference to the tomb architecture of the Tughiaq dynasty:

  1. It is simple, monotonous, with heavy structures in Inda-Islamic architecture.

  2. It completely lacks the influence of Hindu temple architecture and craftsmanship.

  3. It made extensive use of red sandstone.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 53
  • Tughluq dynasty emerged during the period of medieval India and was of Turk-Indian Origin. It was established by the Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq. The dynasty majorly ruled over the Sultanate of Delhi. The Tugluq dynasty emerged in 1312 and ended in 1413. The architecture in the Tughlaq period was heavy, massive, rugged and simple. The Monuments look more like fortresses with walls surrounding them and have restrained decoration and embellishment compared to both earlier and later Indian Islamic tombs. So, statement (1) is correct.

  • Their architecture lacks the extensive influence of Hindu temple architecture and craftsmanship, which was later found in Lodi and Mughal architecture. But Hindu influence on Tughlaq buildings was not totally absent. Features of Hindu influences on Tughlaq architecture include the hybridisation of the flat lintel along with a arches, kalash on top, pillars, windows with balconies and eaves and railings. It combined Arcuate and Trabeate style. So, statement (2) is not correct.

  • It almost abandoned red sandstone and marble in favor of walls built of rubble coated with thick plaster. So, statement (3) is not correct.

  • Tughlaqs built three main types of tombs: square, octagonal and pavilion. The last type was the simplest, consisting of a pavilion or a chhatri. The simple tombs are most likely to be those of nobles and family members of the sultans. It was constructed by Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq.

  • Other examples of architecture during the Tughlaq dynasty:

    • Ghiasuddin Tughlaq built Tughluqabad city.

    • Muhammad bin Tughlaq built a small fortress at Adilabad adjoining the city of Tughlaqabad. He also built Jahan-Panah (the fourth city of Delhi) by linking the first and second cities by walls. This city has, however disappeared because it was built of poor material. The only two buildings that have survived are a tomb near the Bijai Mandal, a lofty tower-like building of terraced elevation and Sathpalah-bund, a fine bridge with seven spans with supplementary arches and a tower at each end.

    • Firoz Shah Tughlaq built Firozabad city, the fifth city of Delhi.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 54

Consider the following statements with reference to the cave architecture:

  1. Kanheri caves located in Maharashtra belong to Mahayana Buddhism.

  2. Jogeshwari caves, within the island of Salcette, belongs to Hinayana Buddhism.

  3. Mandapeshwar caves have functioned both as a Hindu cave and a Christian place of worship.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 54
Kanheri Caves:
  • Second largest Chaityagriha in India, after Karle caves.

  • Podhis is the structure of water cisterns for rainwater harvesting.

  • Images of both Standing Buddha and sitting Buddha flanked by Bodhisattvas.

  • Famous Satvahan king, Gautamiputra Satakarni's name is mentioned in the inscriptions here.

  • Vihara for resting monks with rock-cut seats and benches.

  • The caves belong to the tradition of Hinayana Buddhism. So, statement (1) is not correct.

The Jogeshwari Caves:

  • Formerly known as the Amboli caves, and is surrounded by rocks on both its sides. The entrance to the Jogeshwari Cave has a flight of stairs, and above the caves, you can see a playground.

  • The caves belong to the phase of Mahayana Buddhism. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Mandapeshwar Caves:

  • It is located on the banks of the Dahisar River in Borivali.

  • 81th Century rock-cut shrine dedicated to Shiva.

  • Originally a Hindu temple, Portuguese built a monastery and a church dedicated to Our Lady of Immaculate Conception on top of the cave temple. In the 18th century the church was desecrated after the Battle of Bassein in which the Marathas defeated the Portuguese.

  • They uncovered and worshipped the rock-cut sculptures again, but towards the end of the 18th century the British defeated the Marathas and the caves once again functioned as a place of Christian worship. After the end of colonial rule the church fell into disrepair and the caves gradually reverted to the worship of Siva. So, statement (3) is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 55

With reference to the Culture of India, the term 'Kulhadar group' refers to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 55
'Kulhadar group' is a group of miniature paintings. It was originated in the 161 h Century A.O. and is completely indigenous, i.e., it has no tinge of either Persian or Mughal style of painting. So, option (c) is correct. The style of these miniatures is marked by brilliant contrasting colors, vigorous and angular drawing, transparent drapery and the appearance of conical caps 'Kulha' on which the male figures wear turbans. This group of paintings includes illustrations of the 'Chaurapanchasika' - 'Fifty Verses of the Thief by Bilhan, the Gita Govinda, the Bhagavata Purana and Ragamala. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 56

With reference to ISRO International cooperation, consider the following pairs:

Which of the following pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 56
Option b is correct.
  • Pair 1 is correctly matched. SARAL: The Indo-French joint mission, named SARAL (Satellite for ALTIKA and ARGOS) for studying the ocean from space using altimetry was successfully launched in 2013.

  • Pair 3 is correctly matched. Chandrayaan-1: ISRO’s maiden mission to Moon, the Chandrayaan-1, has been an exemplary example of international cooperation with its international payloads. It has also earned several national and international laurels and was instrumental in the ISRO-NASA joint discovery of water molecules on the moon surface, unattained by any of the previous missions of such nature.

  • Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. NISAR: ISRO and NASA are realizing a joint satellite mission called NISAR (NASA ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) for earth science studies. The mission will observe Earth and measure its changing ecosystem and masses globally. It is the world’s most expensive imaging-satellite and the two space agencies intend to launch the satellite by 2022.

  • Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. TRISHNA: ISRO and the French space agency CNES have partnered in developing advanced upgradation satellites like TRISHNA to monitor the water cycle to help in finding out proper ways to utilize it.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 57

With reference to Arsenic consider the following statements:

  1. Inorganic arsenic is harmful which is mainly sourced from groundwater.

  2. Organic arsenic found in seafood is less harmful to health.

  3. Arsenic is colourless but has pungent odour and salty taste.

  4. Muktoshri new rice variety was recently developed that is resistant to arsenic.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 57
Option b is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Human exposure to elevated levels of inorganic arsenic occurs mainly through the consumption of groundwater containing naturally high levels of inorganic arsenic. Food prepared with this water and food crops irrigated with high-arsenic water sources also causes exposure of Humans to arsenic. Arsenic is highly toxic in its inorganic form.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Organic arsenic compounds, which are abundant in seafood, are less harmful to health and are rapidly eliminated by the body.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Arsenic is tasteless, colorless, and odorless and thus testing is needed for detection.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The new rice variety, Muktoshri — also called IET 21845 is resistant to arsenic and is developed West Bengal’s Agriculture Department and the National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow.

  • Knowledge Base: Heating or boiling water will not remove arsenic. Because some of the water evaporates during the boiling process, the arsenic concentrations can actually increase slightly as the water is boiled. Additionally, chlorine (bleach) disinfection will not remove arsenic. Infact water treatment methods such as reverse osmosis, ultra-filtration, distillation, or ion exchange are used for arsenic removal from water.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 58

Consider the following statements regarding the National Investigation Agency (NIA):

  1. The National Investigation Agency has no power to investigate offences committed outside India.

  2. The state government may designate Sessions Courts as special courts for the trial of scheduled offences under the NIA Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 58
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Investigation Agency (Amendment) Act, 2019, empowered the agency to investigate offences committed outside India, subject to international treaties and domestic laws of other countries.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2019 Amendment Act also allowed the central governmentto designate Sessions Courts as Special Courts for the trial of scheduled offences under the Act. The central government is required to consult the Chief Justice of the High Court under which the Sessions Court is functioning, before designating it as a Special Court. The NIA is a Central agency. Chhattisgarh has challenged the NIA act in the Supreme Court for violating the Federal setup established under the constitution of India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 59

With reference to Lab Grown/ cultured meat, consider the following statements:

  1. The cellular structure of meat is same as natural meat.

  2. It can be made by using animal’s stem cells.

  3. Texture and nutrient profile of cultured meat is low compared to natural meat.

  4. Unlike natural meat, cultured meat doesn’t require antibiotic treatment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 59
Option b is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: In terms of cellular structure, cultured or cultivated meat is the same as conventional meat except that cultured meat does not come directly from animals.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Scientists will use the animal’s stem cells to create meat. Stem cells are the building blocks of cells and tissues. By feeding the stem cells with amino acids and carbohydrates, the muscle cells will be multiplied and grown in the lab.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Once artificially meat is created, it resembles actual meat in terms of appearance, texture, and nutrient profile.

  • Statement 4 is correct: It does not require antibiotics, unlike animals raised for meat. Thus, it reduces the threat of antibiotic resistance posed to public health.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 60

“Operation Octopus” & “Operation Double Bull” that was recently in news is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 60

Left wing Extremism (LWE) in India:

  • Left-wing extremists, popularly known as Maoists worldwide and as Naxalites/Naxalism in India, has been a major threat to India since the 1960s.

  • The Naxalites have frequently targeted tribal, police and government workers in what they say is a fight for improved land rights and more jobs for neglected agricultural labourers and the poor.

Government Initiatives to Fight LWE:

  • Operation Octopus:

    • Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) has been conducting a major Naxal operation named ‘Octopus’ at the heavily mined ‘Burha Pahar’ hilly range in Garhwa district bordering Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.

    • This operation is claimed to be a big success as the force first time managed to root out Naxal dominance from the area.

  • Operation Double Bull:

    • It was launched in the jungles of Bulbul area in Lohardaga and neighbouring districts of Jharkhand.

  • Greyhounds:

    • It was raised in 1989 as an elite anti-Naxal force.

  • Operation Green Hunt:

    • It was started in 2009-10 and massive deployment of security forces was done in the Naxal-affected areas.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 61

Which of the following countries is /are part of the Golden Crescent?

  1. China

  2. Afghanistan

  3. Iran

  4. Pakistan

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 61
Golden Crescent comprises Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan.
  • It was a traditional drug transportation route in the Chinese Colonial Era during the Opium Wars.

  • It is the principal global site for opium production and distribution.

  • It affects Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujarat due to Proximity with the Pakistan Border making these states as Potential Markets & Supply chain catalysts of Hashish and heroin.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 62

Consider the following statement:

  1. Heart is the largest gland in the human body.

  2. Gall bladder is responsible for secretion of bile in the human body.

  3. The pancreas is a both exocrine and endocrine organ of the human body.

  4. The liver is the only organ in the human body that can regenerate itself.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 62
Option c is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Liver is the largest gland of the body weighing about 1.2 to 1.5 kg in an adult human. It is situated in the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm and has two lobes. On the other hand, average weight of heart is 250- 300 gm.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Liver is responsible for production of a digestive fluid known as bile. Liver releases Bile into Gall Bladder which is a small, pear-shaped organ located just below your liver in the upper right side of your abdomen.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The pancreas is a both exocrine and endocrine organ of the body. The pancreas has the dual function of secreting hormones into blood (endocrine) and secreting enzymes through ducts (exocrine).

  • Statement 4 is correct: The liver is the only organ in the human body that can regenerate. After the diseased portion of the liver is removed, fibrinogen and blood platelets accumulate in the remaining liver, which triggers the earliest stages of regeneration.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 63

Consider the following statements with reference to the application of an Aadhaar scheme:

  1. Aadhaar number is mandatory for filing income tax returns and allotment of Permanent Account Number.

  2. Most commercial banks, payments banks and e-wallet companies cannot seek Aadhaar data from customers.

  3. An Aadhaar card is not required for availing facilities of welfare schemes and government subsidies as it empowers the poor and marginalized.

  4. Students of CBSE, NEET, and UGC do not require Aadhaar number to appear in exams.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - Question 63
In January 2021, Supreme Court dismissed a series of petitions seeking a review of its 2018 judgment upholding the Lok Sabha Speaker's certification of the Aadhaar law as a Money Bill and its subsequent passage in Parliament.

The 2018 judgment of Supreme Court:

  • The Constitution Bench affirmed by 4-1 the verdict in September 2018 the country's biometric identity system and cleared mandatory Aadhaar enrolment of recipients of government welfare benefits.

  • The court, in its verdict, had also approved the passage of the Aadhaar law by Parliament as a money bill, which did not require the approval of the Rajya Sabha.

  • Aadhaar is mandatory for filing income tax returns (ITR) and allotment of Permanent Account Number (PAN). So, statement (1) is correct.

  • Most commercial banks, payments banks and e-wallet companies like Paytm cannot seek Aadhaar data. So, statement (2) is correct.

  • However, an Aadhaar card is a must for availing facilities of welfare schemes and government subsidies as it empowers the poor and marginalized. So, statement (3) is not correct.

  • To buy a new SIM card, your telecom service provider cannot seek Aadhaar details from you.

  • Students of CBSE, NEET, and UGC also do not require Aadhaar number to appear in exams. Even schools cannot seek an Aadhaar card for admissions. So, statement (4) is correct.

  • The apex court has struck down Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act as "unconstitutional." This means that no company or private entity can seek Aadhaar identification from you.