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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 1

Consider the following statements with respect to the provisions of Reservation in the Constitution of India:

  1. The Right to reservation is a Fundamental Right.

  2. The State can categorize backward classes as ‘backward’ and ‘more backward’ for the purpose of providing reservation.

  3. The backwardness of a community can be determined solely based on their economic wellbeing.

Which of the following statement given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 1
Option c is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Supreme court has held that both right to reservation and the right to reservation in promotion is not a Fundamental Right.

  • Statement 2 is correct: In the famous Mandal Commission aka Indra Sawhney v. Union of India case, The nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court recognized the inequality among different castes and the held that it would be legal for the state to categorise backward classes as ‘backward’ and ‘more backward’for the purpose of providing reservation.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: In the Indra Sawhney vs UOI (1992) case, the Supreme court held that the backwardness of a community cannot be determined exclusively with reference to economic criteria. Backwardness is determined on the basis of ‘social condition’. Educational and economic backwardness can be used as a tool to determine social backwardness.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

  1. Poverty gap shows the extent to which individuals on average fall below the poverty line.

  2. Intensity of poverty explains how far the living standard of the poor population is from the poverty line.

  3. Poverty trap measures the intensity of poverty.

Which of the following statement given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 2
Option a is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Poverty gap measures how far the people on an average are short from the poverty line.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The intensity of poverty makes it possible to see how far the living standard of the poor population is from the poverty line.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Poverty gap (and not poverty trap) measures the intensity of poverty. Poverty trap is a spiralling mechanism which forces people to remain poor. It is so binding in itself that it doesn't allow the poor people to escape it. It generally happens in developing and under-developing countries and is caused by a lack of capital and credit to people.

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding International Nitrogen Initiative:

  1. This initiative is aimed to reduce the nitrogen oxide emissions globally by 2030.

  2. India is a member of this initiative.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 3
Option b is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: INI are to- a) optimize nitrogen’s beneficial role in sustainable food production, and b) minimize nitrogen’s negative effects on human health and the environment resulting from food and energy production.

  • Statement 2 is correct: In 2018 Indian scientist-academician, N Raghuram, has been elected Chair of the International Nitrogen Initiative (INI). So, India is a part of this initiative.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 4

The endeavour of ‘Operation Twist’ of the Reserve Bank of India is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 4
Option a is correct.
  • Operation Twist involves the simultaneous purchase and sale of government securities under Open Market Operations (OMOs). Through ‘Operation twist’, RBI aims to bring down long-term bond yields. The idea is that by purchasing longer-term bonds (securities), the RBI can help drive the bond prices up and yields down (since prices and yields move in opposite directions). The yield determines the interest rate in the economy, leading to lower long-term interest rates.

  • At the same time, selling shorter-term bonds should cause their yields to go up (since their prices would fall). Operation Twist is the name given to a US Federal Reserve monetary policy operation, which involves the purchase and sale of government securities by the Central Bank of a country to boost the economy by bringing down long-term interest rates. Lower longer-term yields help boost the economy by making loans less expensive for those looking to buy homes, purchase cars, and finance projects, while saving becomes less desirable because it doesn't pay as much interest.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. Cess collected for a specific purpose must be collected in the Public Accounts of India.

  2. The Union government is constitutionally mandated to share the proceeds collected through Cess with the State governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 5
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: A cess is an earmarked tax that is collected for a specific purpose and ought to be spent only for that. Cess may initially go to the Consolidated Fund of India but has to be used for the purpose for which it was collected. Cess collections are supposed to be transferred to specified Reserve Funds that Parliament has approved for each of these levies.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 270 of the Constitution allows cess to be excluded from the purview of the divisible pool of taxes that the Union government must share with the States.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 6

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The UDISE Plus Report is a thorough research that gives information on the ' urbanization and industrialization status of the nation.

  2. This report is released by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs along with Performance Grading Index (PGI) for 2020-21.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 6
  • UDISE Plus Report is a comprehensive study that provides information on enrollment and dropout rates of school students, number of teachers in schools, and information on other infrastructural facilities like toilets, buildings and electricity. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • It was launched in 2018-2019 to speed up data entry, reduce errors, improve data quality and ease its verification. The Ministry of Education has released this report, as well as the Performance Grading Index (PGI) for 2020-21. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 7

Consider the following statements with reference to 'Ecotones':

  1. Ecotones are the areas that act as a transition or boundary between two ecosystems.

  2. They protect ecosystems by acting as buffer zones.

  3. They serve as bridges of 'gene flow' between different ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 7
  • An Ecotone describes an area that acts as a transition or boundary between two ecosystems. This could be, for example, an area of marshland between a river and the riverbank, a clearing within a forest or a much larger area such as the transition between Arctic Tundra and Forest biomes in Northern Siberia.

  • As this area is inevitably Influenced by the two bordering ecosystems, it is, therefore, a consequence of this that a higher density of organisms and variety of species can be found within an Ecotone. This increase in biodiversity is referred to as the “edge effect”.

  • An Ecotone can be formed naturally – through abiotic factors such as changes in soil composition – but can also be created through the result of human interaction. Clearing of forest areas or irrigation are examples of this.

  • Ecotones are considered areas of great environmental importance. As well as providing an area for a large number of species, they often experience an influx from animals looking to nest or searching for food. They may also be considered a habitat of greater genetic diversity and serve as bridges of “gene flow” from one population to another.

  • Additionally, an Ecotone can act as a “buffer zone” protecting the neighbouring ecosystem from possible environmental damage – i.e. a wetland area could absorb pollutants preventing them from seeping into a river or estuary. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 8

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 8
  • A satellite navigation system is a system that uses satellites to provide autonomous geo-spatial positioning. It allows small electronic receivers to determine their location (longitude, latitude, and altitude/elevation) to high precision (within a few centimeters to metres) using time signals transmitted along a line of sight by radio from satellites.

  • A satellite navigation system with global coverage may be termed a global navigation satellite system (GNSS). At present, the United States' Global Positioning System (GPS), Russia's Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS), China's BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (BDS) and the European Union's Galileo are fully operational GNSSs.

  • BeiDou is a Satellite Navigation System of China. It has total 22 Operational satellites in orbit and the full constellation is scheduled to comprise 35 satellites. BeiDou has two separate constellations, BeiDou-1 and BeiDou-2. BeiDou-1 also known as first generation was a constellation of three satellites. It became operational in year 2000 and offered limited coverage and navigation services, mainly for users in China and neighboring regions. Beidou-1 was decommissioned at the end of 2012. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.

  • GLObal NAvigation Satellite System or GLONASS is global navigation system of Russia. GLONASS became operational in year 1993 with 12 satellites in 2 orbits at the height of 19,130 km. At present, there are total 27 satellites in orbit and all are operational. GLONASS is operated by Russian Aerospace Defence Forces and is the Second alternative navigational system in operation. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

  • Galileo is European Union’s GNSS constellation, which is being put together by the European Space Agency, and the European GNSS Agency will operate it. Galileo is global navigation system available for civilian and commercial use. The fully deployed Galileo system will consist of 30 operational satellites and 6 in-orbit spares. As of now 22 out of 30 satellites are in orbit. Galileo started offering Early Operational Capability from 2016 and is expected to reach full operational capability by 2020. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

  • The Quasi-Zenith Satellite System is the regional satellite navigation system from Japan which is still under construction by the Satellite Positioning Research and Application Center, Japan. As per plans, the QZSS constellation will have 7 satellites, out of which 4 are already in orbit. QZSS is expected to be operational by the end of 2018, where it will provide highly precise and stable positioning services in the Asia-Oceania region. QZSS will be compatible with GPS. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

  • The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), which was later given the operational name of NavIC or NAVigation with Indian Constellation, is the regional satellite navigation system of India. Launched and operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), IRNSS covers India and nearby regions extending up to 1,500 km.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 9

With reference to Public Interest Litigation (PIL), consider the following statements:

  1. Any Indian as well as foreign citizen can file a Public Interest Litigation in the apex court in India.

  2. Only an aggrieved person can file complaint against violation of his rights under a PIL.

  3. Public Interest Litigation is not defined in the Constitution or any statute in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 9
  • The concept of Public interest litigation originated and developed in USA in 1960s. However in India, In India, the PIL was introduced in the early 1980s and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati are considered as the pioneers of the PIL.

  • The Supreme Court has defined the PIL as “a legal action initiated in a court of law for the enforcement of public interest or general interest in which the public or a class of the community have pecuniary interest or some interest by which their legal rights or liabilities are affected. It is the power given to the public by courts through judicial activism.

  • However, Public interest litigation is not defined in any statute or in any act. It has been interpreted by judges to consider the intent of public at large. Although, the main and only focus of such litigation is only Public Interest there are various areas where a Public interest litigation can be filed. For e.g.

    • Bonded labour matters

    • Neglected children

    • Non-payment of minimum wages to workers and exploitation of casual workers and complaints of violation of Labour Laws (except in individual cases)

    • Petitions against police for refusing to register a case, harassment by police and death in police custody

    • Petitions against atrocities on women, in particular harassment of bride, bride-burning, rape, murder, kidnapping, etc. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • In order to extending the reach of PIL, the principle of locus standi (Only an aggrieved person can file complaint against violation of his rights) is relaxed so that court can look into the grievances complained on behalf of the poor, deprived, illiterate and the disabled who cannot vindicate the legal wrong or legal injury caused to them for violation of any constitutional or legal right. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • Who can file the PIL?

    • The aggrieved person can himself file the PIL.

    • The court can itself take cognisance of the matter and proceed suo motu or cases can commence on the petition of any public-spirited individual.

    • Any person can apply to the court on behalf of those who are economically or physically unable to raise their concern. However, it should be based on public interest not for the individual benefit.

    • Any public spirited person even a foreigner (Foreigners who reside in India or visiting India on visas also have certain constitutional and statutory rights) can file a PIL on behalf of others but this is necessary that only the person who is filing a PIL should not get benefit. Hence statement 1 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 10

Which state of India is referred to as the 'molasses basin'?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 10
  • The topography of Mizoram mostly consists of low, elongated hills of poorly consolidated sedimentary rock that is easily and rapidly eroded, called molasses.

  • Molasses basins are formed when a major ramp overthrust is active and the intact continent is flexed down in front of the overriding mountain range, a foreland basin is formed by the flexure.

  • Foreland basins usually exist as subsurface features that have been filled with debris eroded from the advancing overthrust slice of crust. These deposits, called molasse, can, in turn, be folded and thrust over one another shortly after they are deposited.

  • Fold and thrust belts in such material, as found at the northern edge of the Alps or at the foot of most of the Himalayas, are often narrow, composed of only one or two parallel folds and faults.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 11

Which of the following were the consequences of the Vajrayana form of Buddhism?

  1. The use of Pali language was propagated by the monks.

  2. The practise of idol worship took place on a large scale.

  3. The monks started accepting grants and offerings.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 11
  • In the beginning every religion is inspired by the spirit of reform, but eventually it succumb s to rituals and ceremonies it originally denounced.

  • Gradually the Buddhist monks were cut off from the mainstream of people's life; they gave up Pali, the language of the people, and took to sanskrit, the language of the intellectuals. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • From the first century A.D. onwards, they practiced idol worship on a large scale and received numerous offerings from devotees. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The rich offerings supplemented by generous royal grants to the Buddhist monasteries made the life of monks easy. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Some of the monasteries such as Nalanda collected revenue from as many as 200 villages.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 12

Consider the following statements with reference to Cash Management Bills (CMBs):

  1. It is a long-term instrument issued by the RBI to meet mismatches in the cash flow of the Government.

  2. It is also reckoned as an eligible investment in G-Secs by banks for statutory liquidity ratio purposes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 12
  • Cash Management Bills (CMBs) are short term bills issued by central government to meet its immediate cash needs. The bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of the government. Hence the CMBs are short- term money market instruments that help the government to meet its temporary cash flow mismatches. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Following are the features of CMBs:

    • CMBs have a maturity of less than 91 days.

    • The CMBs have the generic character of Treasury Bills as the CMBs are issued at a discount and redeemed at face value at maturity.

    • CMBs are eligible as SLR securities. Investment in CMBs is also recognized as an eligible investment in Government securities by banks for SLR purpose under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    • CMBs were issued for the first time in 2010. The purpose of the mechanism is to enable the government to get short term money. Another similar method for the government to get short term money is Ways and Means Advances (WMA). Under WMA, the RBI gives temporary loan facilities to the centre and state governments as a banker to the government for up to 90 days.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 13

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘RISAT-2’:

  1. Risat-2 is an X-band synthetic-aperture radar satellite that was deemed a "spy" satellite.

  2. This satellite monitors the satellites of other nations trespassing the space boundaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 13
  • The principal sensor of Risat-2, considered a ‘spy’ satellite, was an X-band syntheticaperture radar from Israel Aerospace Industries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Risat-2 was built more quickly following the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks due to delay with the indigenously developed C-band for Risat-1 satellite. The satellite, which was India's first dedicated reconnaissance satellite, possessed day-night as well as all-weather monitoring capability. RISAT-2 is India’s first "eye in the sky" which keep surveillance on the country’s borders as part of anti-infiltration and anti-terrorist operations. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 14

“It was a movement said to be revivalist in form though not in content. It was first set up at Bombay in 1875 and later the headquarter was shifted to Lahore. Its vision of India included a classless and casteless society and an India free from foreign rule. It encouraged inter-caste marriages, widow remarriages and equal status for women.”

Which of the following options best suits the above description?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 14
Option a is correct
  • Option a is correct: Established by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875, the Arya Samaj was revivalist in form and reformist in nature. The organisation was formally set up at Bombay in 1875 and later the headquarter was shifted to Lahore. Its vision of India included a classless and casteless society and an India free from foreign rule. It believed in the supremacy of the Vedas, but also advocated individual interpretation and condemned orthodox elements like idolatry, untouchability, etc. It also promoted women equality and welfare. Swami Dayanand Saraswati published his ideas regarding Arya Samaj’s reform work in the publication called Satyarth Prakash.

  • Option b is incorrect: Keshab and his followers founded the Brahmo Samaj of India in 1866. In 1867, Keshab Chandra Sen helped Atmaram Pandurang found the Prarthana Samaj in Bombay. RG Bhandarkar, MG Ranade, and NG Chandavarkar were also associated with it. The emphasis was on monotheism, but on the whole, the samaj was more concerned with social reforms than with religion.

  • Option c is incorrect: Radhakant Deb founded Dharma sabha in 1830 at Kolkata. An orthodox society, it stood for the preservation of the status quo in socio-religious matters, opposing even the abolition of sati. However, it favoured the promotion of Western education, even for girls. Brahmo Samaj’s progressive ideas met with strong opposition from the Dharma Sabha.

  • Option d is incorrect: Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha in August 1828 at Kolkata; it was later renamed Brahmo Samaj. The long-term agenda of the Brahmo Samaj—to purify Hinduism and to preach monotheism—was based on the twin pillars of reason and the Vedas and Upanishads. It kept its emphasis on human dignity, opposition to idolatry and criticism of social evils such as sati.

  • Knowledge Base: Arya Samaj - Along with his emphasis on Vedic authority, he stressed the significance of individual interpretation of the scriptures and said that every person has the right of access to God. He criticised later Hindu scriptures such as the Puranas and the ignorant priests for perverting Hinduism. Dayananda subscribed to the Vedic notion of chaturvarna system in which a person was not born in any caste but was identified as a brahmin, kshatriya, vaishya or shudra according to the occupation the person followed.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 15

With reference to the functioning of the different kinds of economic systems, consider the following statements:

  1. Great Depression reinforced the belief in the self-correcting quality of the market.

  2. Market socialism had been suggested in the context of the capitalist economy.

  3. World Bank has given a fixed template of the mixed economic model for nations to follow.

  4. Mixed Economy has become the most accepted way to organize an economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 15
Option c is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Great Depression was a setback to the belief in the self-correcting quality of the market. In the aftermath of the GD, Keynes questioned the very principles of ‘laissez faire’ and the nature of the ‘invisible hand’. He even opined that the invisible hand brings equilibrium to the economy but by ‘strangulating the poor’. He suggested that prices and wages were not flexible enough to provide employment to all. This inflexibility is a basic reason why markets are not always self-correcting.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Market socialism had been suggested in the context of the socialist economy. It was Keynes who had suggested state intervention in the context of the capitalist economy.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: World Bank has not given any such fixed template. World Development Report 1999 mentions that “Governments play a vital role in development, but there is no simple set of rules that tells them what to do”. World Bank went on to suggest that every country should determine the areas and the extent of the market and state intervention, depending on its own stage of economic development, socio-political and other historical factors.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The emergence of the mixed economy model was able to settle the long-standing debate as to what was the best way to organize an economy for all times to come. World Bank had rejected both the historically existing economic orders, namely the free-market economy, and the state economy. Rather, it advocates for a ‘mixture’ of both the economic orders, even if the exact nature of the mixture varies from nation to nation.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 16

Which of the following is/are steps that the government can take to reduce inflation?

  1. Releasing food grains from the buffer stock.

  2. Imposing a minimum export price on commodities.

  3. Reducing corporate tax or personal income tax.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 16
Option c is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Whenever the prices of food grains rise in the open market, the government can release the supply of food grains stored in the buffer stock. This will enhance the supply of the food grains in open market and help bring down the prices.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Imposing a minimum export price will increase the availability of commodities for domestic markets, thereby reducing inflationary pressures.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Direct taxes should be increased and not reduced to tackle inflation in the short- term. Reducing taxes will only place more money in the hands of consumers thereby adding to the inflationary pressure.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the difference between Phenotype and Genotype of an organism:

  1. Phenotype is the physical appearance while Genotype is genetic composition of an organism.

  2. Phenotype are partly inherited while Genotype is not inherited during the reproduction process.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 17
Option a is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The phenotype is the physical appearance of an organism, while the Genotype is the genetic composition of an organism. Phenotype is observable and are the expression of the genes of an individual. We can notice one’s hair colour, eye colour, height, weight, skin colour, etc. but cannot look at genes responsible for these characters, so the observable physical look is the phenotype while the unnoticed genes responsible for such characters present in the DNA of cell of the individual is genotype.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Genotype are partly inherited from an individual to the offspring as one of the two alleles, during the reproduction process. The hereditary characters of the organisms, which may or may not get expressed in the next generation. The same genotype produces the same phenotype in a particular environment. Phenotype is not inherited. It appears outside the body, as physical appearance.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 18

Which of the following statements regarding the Charter Act of 1833 is/ are correct?

  1. The monopoly of East India Company in trade including in tea and with China ended.

  2. All restrictions on Christian missionaries were lifted.

  3. It added a Law member to the Governor Generals Council.

Select the correct option using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 18
Option c is correct.
  • Relevance: Constitutional Developments important topic. Asked frequently in previous years questions.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Company lost all its trading rights, including those of tea and in trade with China that had been spared by the Charter Act of 1813. Now it remained purely as an administrative body, The sole function of the company was to take care of British territorial possessions in India for the Crown.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The restrictions on Missionaries to preach Christianity and encourage conversions had already been lifted by the Charter Act of 1813. The Charter Act of 1833 removed all restrictions on immigration and acquisition of property by Europeans in India. This finally cleared the way for widespread and complete colonisation of India.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Governor General’s Council until then had only 3 members. But a new member - a law member was added for professional advice on law making, as British possessions in India had increased substantially.

  • Knowledge Base: Following are all the salient features of the Charter Act of 1833: The lease of 20 years to the Company was further extended. Territories of India were to be governed in the name of the Crown.

1) The Company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea also ended.

2) All restrictions on European immigration.

3) the way was paved for the wholesale European colonisation of India.

4) In India, a financial, legislative and administrative centralisation of the government was envisaged:

a. The governor-general was given the power to superintend, control and direct all civil and military affairs of the Company.

b. Bengal, Madras, Bombay and all other territories were placed under complete control of the governor-general.

c. All revenues were to be raised under the authority of the governor-general who would have complete control over the expenditure too.

d. The Governments of Madras and Bombay were drastically deprived of their legislative powers and left with a right of proposing to the governor-general the projects of law which they thought to be expedient.

5) A law member was added to the governor-general’s council for professional advice on law-making.

6) Indian laws were to be codified and consolidated.

7) No Indian citizen was to be denied employment under the Company on the basis of religion, colour, birth, descent, etc. (Although the reality was different, this declaration formed the sheet-anchor of political agitation in India.)

8) The administration was urged to take steps to ameliorate the conditions of slaves and to ultimately abolish slavery. (Slavery was abolished in 1843.)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 19

Consider the following statements with reference to Biotech-KISAN Scheme:

  1. It aims to provide genetically modified seeds to farmers at concessional rates.

  2. It is an initiative of the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 19
  • Biotech-KISAN scheme is a farmer-centric scheme for farmers, developed by and with farmers under the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • It is a Pan-India program, following a hub-and-spoke model and stimulates entrepreneurship and innovation in farmers and empowers women. The programme links available science and technology to the farm by first understanding the problem of the local farmer and then providing scientific solutions to those problems.

  • Biotech-KISAN aims to link farmers, scientists and science institutions across the country in a network that identifies and helps solve their problems in a cooperative manner. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • The Biotech- KISAN Hubs are expected to fulfil the technology requirement to generate agriculture and bio-resource related jobs and better livelihood ensuring biotechnological benefits to small and marginal farmers.

  • Biotech-KISAN also has a unique feature to identify and promote local farm leadership in both genders. Such leadership helps to develop science-based farming besides facilitating the transfer of knowledge.

  • Currently, there are a total of eight Biotech-KISAN Hubs in different Agro-climatic Zones.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 20

Which of the following can be considered as the advantages of soil mulching?

  1. It reduces soil salinity by reducing evaporation.

  2. It modifies the microclimate of the soil and the air in which the plant grows.

  3. It totally restricts reptile movement and rodent activities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 20
  • Mulching is referred to as a mixture of wet straw, leaves, and loose earth evenly spread on the ground to protect the newly planted trees, shrubs, and their roots.

  • Advantages of Mulching:

    • Reduce soil and water erosion. Soil water conservation and erosion control are the most important agriculture in dry regions. Mulching helps to Improve crop production in dryland areas.

    • Improves soil water through runoff control, increases infiltration decreases evaporation, controls weeds, and intercepts the impact of rain on the soil.

    • Reduce soil salinity by reducing evaporation. Hence statement 1 is correct.

    • Mulching improves the soil structure.

    • Mulching modifies the microclimate of the soil and the air in which the plant grows. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • Improves the state of soil nutrients by adding organic matter, cationic nitration, and minerals solubility.

    • Temperature moderation through radiation shielding, heat conduction, and trapping.

    • Mulch can facilitate fertilizer placement and reduce plant nutrient loss through leaching.

    • Reduce the incidence of disease by protecting plant parts on the ground from splashes that carry the soil.

    • Reduce winter injuries by minimizing temperature variation.

    • Mulches maintain a warm temperature even at night, allowing seeds to germinate quickly and for young plants to quickly establish a strong root growth system. Improves seed germination.

    • Synthetic mulches play an important role in the soil solarization process.

    • Opaque mulches prevent the germination of annual weeds from light.

    • Reflective mulches will repel certain insects.

  • Disadvantages of Mulching:

    • The removal and disposal of polyethene mulches remain important agronomic, economic, and environmental constraints.

    • Plastic fragments have been shown to release potentially carcinogenic phthalate acid esters in the soil, where they can be absorbed by crops and pose a risk to human health when consumed.

    • The plastic fragments left in the fields can also accumulate pesticides and other toxins applied to crops. This is a risk to grazing sheep, goats, and other animals on crop stem due to its potential to ingest plastic material or the chemicals that leak from it.

    • When cotton crops are grown in soils contaminated with plastic, there is a risk of lint being contaminated.

    • Plastic mulching is not easy to retrieve and reuse.

    • They are expensive to use in commercial production compared to organic mulches.

    • Probability of “burning” or “scorching” young plants due to a high temperature of black film

    • Difficulty in the application of top-dressed fertilizers.

    • Reptile movement and rodent activities are experienced in some places as mulching inadvertently facilitates an environment for increased activities of burrowing reptiles and rodents. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    • Difficulty in movement of machinery.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 21

With reference to the Indian concept of Secularism, consider the following statements:

  1. There is strict separation between Religion and the State.

  2. It deals not only with religious freedom of individuals but also with religious freedom of minority communities.

  3. Government can intervene in religious practices to bring religious reforms.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 21
  • Though the term ‘secular’ was not initially mentioned in Indian constitution but later added through 42nd amendment 1976 .However, Indian Constitution has always been secular.

  • The Western conception, of secularism means mutual exclusion of state and religion in order to protect values such as individual freedom and citizenship rights of individual. The term ‘mutual exclusion’ means this: both religion and state must stay away from the internal affairs of one another. The state must not intervene in the domain of religion; religion likewise should not dictate state policy or influence the conduct of the state. In other words, mutual exclusion means that religion and state must be strictly separated.

  • On the other hand, the Indian concept of secularism departs from the western model in two ways and for two different reasons

    • Rights of Religious Groups: Indian Constitution grants rights to all religious communities such as the right to establish and maintain their educational institutions. Freedom of religion in India means the freedom of religion of both individuals and communities.

    • State’s Power of Intervention: The state has power to interfere in the affairs of religion. Such intervention was not always negative. The state could also help religious communities by giving aid to educational institutions run by them.

  • Thus, the state may help or hinder religious communities depending on which mode of action promotes values such as freedom and equality. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.

  • Indian secularism deals not only with religious freedom of individuals but also with religious freedom of minority communities. For e.g. an individual has the right to profess the religion of his or her choice. Likewise, religious minorities also have a right to exist and to maintain their own culture and educational institutions. It also restricts any form of intra-religious and inter-religious religious domination. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • In Indian secularism, there is also room for compatibility with the idea of state-supported religious reform. Thus, the Indian constitution bans untouchability. The Indian state has enacted several laws abolishing child marriage and lifting the taboo on inter-caste marriages. Hence statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 22

Consider the following statements about Khongjom Parva:

  1. It is a folk music of the state of Manipur.

  2. The theme is based on eternal love story of Radha and Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 22
  • It is an important folk music from the state of Manipur. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • It is a musical narration of the Battle of Khongjom fought between the Manipuris and the British in April 1891. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Khongjom Parva narrators glorify the Manipuris soldiers who sacrificed their lives for the sake of their motherland.

  • Today the theme of singing Khongjom Parva includes the stories of Khamba and Thoibi, the Ramayana, the Mahabharata and the exploits of the kings of Manipur.

  • The singer uses only a Dholok while singing.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 23

Consider the following statements about Local Self-Governance in the Chola Empire:

  1. Chola empire was the first empire in India to have a village as a basic unit of administration.

  2. Ur was gathering of adult men in the village while Sabha was a general assembly of the village.

  3. Sabha had the power to settle new lands and exercise ownership rights over them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 23
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Local self-government was always a part of administration from Ancient to Medieval India. The village as a unit of administration was seen in areas under the Rashtrakuta empire also. But Chola empire provided a new impetus to local governance and decentralization of power.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: Ur was a general assembly of the village while Sabha was gathering of adult men in the village. Ur was the general assembly of the village where local residents discussed their matters without any formal rule or procedure. The Sabha or Mahasabha was the most popular assembly where only the selected few and elders of the village took part and carried on the business by following a regular procedure. It wielded a great authority in the administration of the rural areas.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Sabha enjoyed huge autonomy and managed affairs of the village and also took important decisions. It also coordinated with the committees in the village which looked into basic administration of the village. The Sabha could settle new lands, exercise ownership rights over them. It could also raise loans for the village and levy taxes.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 24

With reference to Amur Falcons, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the world’s longest-travelling raptor.

  2. It gets its name from the Amur River which forms the border between Russia and China.

  3. It is International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) red list status is least concern.

  4. It is protected under Schedule IV of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 24
  • Amur falcons, the world’s longest travelling raptors start travelling with the onset of winters. These raptors breed in southeastern Siberia and northern China, and migrate in millions across India and then over the Indian Ocean to southern Africa before returning to Mongolia and Siberia. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • They get their name from the Amur River which forms the border between Russia and China. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • The birds are the least concern under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • It is protected under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972 and included under its Schedule IV. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 25

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 25
  • The Strait of Hormuz, located between Oman and Iran, connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. The Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most important oil chokepoint because of the large volumes of oil that flow through the strait. In 2018, its daily oil flow averaged 21 million barrels per day (b/d), or the equivalent of about 21% of global petroleum liquids consumption.

  • The Strait of Malacca or Straits of Malacca is a narrow stretch of water, 580 miles in length, between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra. As the main shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, it is one of the most important shipping lanes in the world.

  • Bering Strait, Russian Proliv Beringia, strait linking the Arctic Ocean with the Bering Sea and separating the continents of Asia and North America at their closest point. Located between Alaska (USA) and Russia, the Bering Strait is the only marine gateway between the icy Arctic and the Pacific Ocean. The strait averages 98 to 164 feet (30 to 50 metres) in-depth and at its narrowest is about 53 miles (85 km) wide.

    • The Bering Strait may be narrow, but it’s teeming with wildlife—beluga whales, bowhead whales, grey whales, walruses, polar bears, ringed, and ribbon seals.

    • Each spring, one of the largest wildlife migrations on Earth passes through this narrow gateway to reach the Arctic’s incredibly nutrient-rich and productive waters.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 26

Consider the following statements, with respect to the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC):

  1. It is an ad-hoc body which is set up to examine a particular bill presented before the Parliament.

  2. A JPC is authorised to collect evidence in oral or written form during the investigating process.

  3. It has twice number of members from Lok Sabha as compared to those from Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 26
  • The Joint Parliamentary committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc body which is set up for a given period of time and is aimed at addressing a specific issue and dissolved after submission of its report to Parliament.

  • It also examines a particular bill presented before the Parliament or for the purpose of investigating cases of financial irregularities in any government activity. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • A JPC is authorised to collect evidence in oral or written form or demand documents in connection with the matter. The proceedings and findings of the committee are confidential, except in matters of public interest. The Speaker has the final word in case of a dispute over calling for evidence. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The committee’s members are decided by Parliament. The number of members can vary. There are twice as many Lok Sabha members as the Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 27

Consider the following languages:

  1. Pali

  2. English

  3. Dogri

  4. Sanskrit

Which of the languages given above are recognised under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 27
  • There are 22 official languages in India and they are covered under the 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution.

  • At present, The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages: - (1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri. Hence only option 3 and 4 are correct.

  • At the time of commencement of constitution there were 14 language were listed in the schedule VIII.

  • Later, Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added by 92 Amendment act, 2003.

  • In 2003, A Committee was set up in under the Chairmanship of Shri Sitakant Mohapatra to evolve a set of objective criteria for inclusion of more languages in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India, on the basis of that there is more demand for inclusion of 38 more languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. Some of them are Angika, Bhojpuri, Bhotia, Pali, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, English, Khasi, Mizo, and Rajasthani. Hence option 1 and 2 are not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding “Wangala Dance”:

  1. It is also known as the Festival of Hundred Drums.

  2. Members of the Garo tribal community performs the Wangala Dance.

  3. It is performed in the honour of the Sun God.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 28
  • The opening ceremony of the Rising Sun Water Fest-2022 was conducted amidst the pristine surroundings of Umiam Lake (man-made reservoir) at Meghalaya. Members of the Garo tribal community perform Wangala dance on the occasion of ‘The Rising Sun Water Fest-2022’. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • The Wangala is also known as the Festival of Hundred Drums and is celebrated with different forms of dances on the tunes of folk songs played on drums and primitive flute made of buffalo horns. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The festival is celebrated in honour of the Sun God and marks the end of the long harvest season. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The celebration also signifies the end of a long toil period in the field for the Garo tribe before the start of the winters.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 29

With reference to Mauna Loa volcano, consider the following statements:

  1. It is one of five volcanoes that together make up the Big Island of Hawaii.

  2. It is the World’s largest volcano.

  3. It was last active in 1984.

Which of the statements given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 29
  • Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that together make up the Big Island of Hawaii, it is the southernmost island in the Hawaiian archipelago. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • It’s not the tallest (that title goes to Mauna Kea) but it’s the world’s largest volcano and makes up about half of the island’s land mass. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Mauna Loa last erupted 38 years ago. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 30

Consider the statements regarding pardoning power of the President and Governor as provided by the Constitution of India.

  1. Governor can pardon a death sentence when a state law prescribes for death sentence.

  2. Both President and Governor can grant remission in respect to punishment by a court- martial.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 30
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Governor cannot pardon a death sentence. Even if a state law prescribes for death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President. However, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Only President can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 31

Consider the statements regarding the power of the Election Commission of India:

  1. The recommendation of the Chief Election commissioner to remove an Election commissioner is binding on the President.

  2. The representation of peoples Act, 1951 providesthe statutory basis for the Model code of conduct.

  3. The Election commission of India can disqualify a candidate who engages in electoral malpractice.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 31
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. In 2009, the President clarified that the recommendation is not binding on the president and rejected the recommendation of the CEC to remove a EC.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The model code of conduct does not have any statutory legal basis.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The Election commission of India cannot disqualify a candidate who engages in electoral malpractice. At best, the ECI may direct the authorities to register a case against the candidate.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 32

Consider the following statements:

  1. Gross value added (GVA) is a measure of the contribution to GDP made by an individual producer, industry or sector.

  2. Economic growth in India is measured using GDP at factor cost.

  3. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of any nation represents the sum of gross value added (GVA) in all the sectors of that economy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 32
Option b is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Gross value added (GVA) is defined as the value of output less the value of intermediate consumption. It is used to measure the output or contribution of a particular sector. When such GVAs from all sectors (∑ GVA) are added together and adding taxes (product) and reducing subsidies (product), we can get the GDP (at market price). At its simplest it gives the rupee value of goods and services produced in the economy after deducting the cost of inputs and raw materials used.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Economic growth was measured as the percent rate of increase in GDP at Factor cost at Constant prices till January 2015 in India. In a major overhaul of the way India’s gross domestic product (GDP) is calculated, the Central Statistics Office (now called as NSO) adopted the international practice of GDP at market price and the Gross value addition measure to better estimate the economic activity.

  • Statement 3 is correct: When the value of taxes on products (less subsidies on products) is added to the gross value added, the sum of gross value added for all resident units gives the value of gross domestic product (GDP). Thus, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of any nation represents the sum total of gross value added (GVA) in all the sectors of that economy during the said year after adjusting for taxes and subsidies.

  • Knowledge Base: Technically, GDP at Market Prices = ∑ GVA at basic prices + product taxes – product subsidies. In this context, when GVA from all sectors are added together and necessary adjustment for taxes and subsidies are made, we will get the GDP for the economy.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 33

In the context of population pyramid, consider the following statements:

  1. It can be used to compare differences between male and female population of an area.

  2. A stationary trend in the graph is represented by square or pillar shape rather than a pyramid.

  3. India’s population pyramid is bottom heavy.

Which of the statements given below are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 33
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: A population pyramid is a way to visualize two variables: age and sex. They are used by demographers, who study populations. A population pyramid is a graph that shows the distribution of ages across a population divided down the center between male and female members of the population. A population pyramid can be used to compare differences between male and female populations of an area.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The “stationary” trend which is a population with low mortality and low fertility rates. These graphs have a square or “pillar” shape rather than a pyramid one. These population pyramids represent a stable population that will not change significantly barring any sudden changes to fertility or mortality rates.

  • Statement 3 is correct: As shown in the below figure, India’s population pyramid is bottom heavy.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 34

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 34
Option c is correct.
  • Pair 1 is correct: Bhasan Char is a specifically developed island in Bangladesh to accommodate 1,00,000 of the 1 million Rohingya who have fled from neighbouring Myanmar.

  • Pair 2 is correct: Tigray Region is a northern region of Ethiopia in news due to ongoing conflict between Ethipoian Military and Rebels.

  • Pair 3 is correct: Sana is the largest city in Yemen. Under the Yemeni constitution, Sanaʽa is the capital of the country, although the seat of the Yemeni government moved to Aden, the former capital of South Yemen in the aftermath of the Houthi occupation. A Saudi-led military coalition mounted air strikes on Yemen’s Houthi-controlled capital Sana’a after it intercepted 10 drones launched by the Iran-backed rebels.

  • Pair 4 is incorrect: Hagia Sophia is an important mosque in Istanbul, Turkey. Recently, Turkey allowed for the conversion of the nearly 1,500 year-old Hagia Sophia from a museum into a mosque.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 35

Under the Constitution of India, the Right to property is considered as,

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 35
Option c is correct.

After the Indian Independence, when the Constitution of India came into force on 26th January, 1950, the right to property was included as a ‘fundamental right’ under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 in Part III, making it an enforceable right. Parliament passed the Constitution 44th Amendment which made right to property an ordinary legal right and constitutional right under Article 300-A.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 36

Which country among the following is not part of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 36
Option b is correct.

The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation was established in 2000. It comprises 6 member countries. India, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam. The grouping is named after two rivers, the Ganga and the Mekong.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 37

With reference to Tiger conservation initiatives, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  1. The Global Tiger Forum (GTF) is the only inter-governmental international body whose headquarter is located in India.

  2. Save our species is an initiative of Global tiger initiative (GTI) to save wild tigers and snow leopard from extinction.

  3. TX2 is an award given for doubling the tiger population without any financial grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 37
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Global Tiger Forum (GTF) is not the only inter-governmental and international body whose headquarter is located in India (Delhi). The headquarter of ISA is also located in India (Gurugram).

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Save our species is an initiative of IUCN and not of GTI which contributes to the long-term survival of threatened species, their habitats and the people who depend on them, by supporting civil society organisations.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: TX2 is an award given for doubling the tiger population presented by CATS, Global Tiger Forum, IUCN, UNDP, The Lion’s Share and WWF. Sites will receive a small financial grant to be used to further tiger conservation.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 38

The Reunion Islands in the Indian Ocean belongs to which of the following country?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 38
Reunion Islands is an overseas territory of France in the Indian Ocean Region. It is situated at eastern coast of Madagascar, and is near the Assumption Island of Seychelles. It was in news due to recent logistics agreement between France and India that will allow India access to the French base in the Reunion Islands.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding Five-Star village scheme:

  1. The Scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Rural Development.

  2. The scheme seeks to bridge the gaps in awareness among villages and reach of postal products and services.

Which among the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 39
Option b is correct.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme has been launched by the Department of Post, Ministry of Communications.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The scheme seeks to bridge the gaps in public awareness and reach of postal products and services, especially in interior villages. All postal products and services will be made available and marketed and publicized at village level, under the Five Star Villages scheme. Branch offices will function as one-stop shop to cater all post office - related needs of villagers. Relevant Information: The Department of Posts has launched a scheme called Five Star Villages, to ensure universal coverage of flagship postal schemes in rural areas of the country.

The schemes covered under the Five Star scheme include:

1) Savings Bank accounts, Recurrent Deposit Accounts, NSC / KVP certificates,

2) Sukanya Samridhi Accounts/ PPF Accounts,

3) Funded Post Office Savings Account linked India Post Payments Bank Accounts,

4) Postal Life Insurance Policy/Rural Postal Life Insurance Policy and

5) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana Account / Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana Account.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 40

‘The people of India hold the power to freely conduct the affairs of the nation-state. India is an independent state and there is no authority above it’.

Which of the following term best defines this attribute of India as a nation-state?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 40
Option a is correct

The term ‘Sovereign’ implies India is is neither a dependency nor a dominion. It is an independent state who is free to conduct its own affairs and there is no authority above it’. The term Republic implies the political sovereignty is vested on the people of India and there is absence of any privileged class. The term ‘Secularism’ implies the state shall not favor or promote any particular religion. The term ‘Democracy’ implies that the power of the government is based on the consent of the people. A democracy may not be a sovereign nation. For example, Hong Kong is considered as democracy however it is not a sovereign naton.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 41

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Collegium System governs the appointment and transfer of judges as mentioned in the provision of the constitution under article 124(2) and 217.

  2. The Collegium System is headed by the Union minister of Law and Justice.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 41
  • The Collegium System is the appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the SC, and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Articles 124(2) and 217 of the Indian Constitution deal with the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts. The SC collegium is headed by the CJI (Chief Justice of India) and comprises four other senior most judges of the Supreme court. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 42

Consider the following statements about the Kangra school of paintings:

  1. It is inspired from the Vaishnavite traditions.

  2. Soft colours including cool blues and greens were used in these paintings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 42
  • Kangra painting is the pictorial art of Kangra, named after Kangra, Himachal Pradesh, a former princely state, which patronized the art.

  • It became prevalent with the fading of Basohli school of painting in mid-18th century, and soon produced such a magnitude in paintings both in content as well as volume, that the Pahari painting school, came to be known as Kangra paintings.

  • By the mideighteenth century the Kangra artists developed a style which breathed a new spirit into miniature painting.

  • The source of inspiration was the Vaishnavite traditions. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Soft colours including cool blues and greens, and a lyrical treatment of themes distinguished Kangra painting. Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 43

Consider the following statements with reference to 'sedimentary nutrient cycle' in an ecosystem:

  1. Sedimentary nutrient cycles are imperfect in nature as some nutrients are lost and become unavailable for recycling.

  2. Carbon and nitrogen cycles are examples of sedimentary nutrient cycles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 43
  • The mineral nutrients move from the non-living to the living and then back to the non-living components of the ecosystem in a more or less circular manner. This is known as biogeochemical cycling (bio for the living, geo for atmosphere. water, rocks and soil and chemical for the elements and processes involved). We generally call them nutrient or mineral cycles.

  • Types of Biogeochemical Cycles: There are two basic types of biogeochemical cycles, gaseous and sedimentary. In the gaseous type of biogeochemical cycle there is a prominent gaseous phase.

  • Cycling of carbon and nitrogen represents gaseous biogeochemical cycles. In sedimentary cycles the main reservoir is the lithosphere from which the nutrients are released largely by weathering of rocks. The sedimentary cycle is exemplified by phosphorus and sulphur. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • When we describe biogeochemical cycle; we often say that a cycle is perfect or imperfect.

  • A perfect nutrient cycle is one in which the nutrients are replaced as fast as they, are used up. Most gaseous cycles arc generally considered perfect.

  • In contrast, sedimentary cycles are considered relatively imperfect, as some nutrients are lost from the cycle into the soil and sediments and become unavailable for immediate cycling i.e., there are more stages in which short-term or long-term stagnation occurs. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Most significant of the stagnation stages is sedimentation in oceans and deep continental lakes. So if portions of nutrients. such as phosphorus or sulphur are lost. they are unavailable to organisms for comparatively, longer periods. Human beings have so speeded up the movement of many nutrients that the cycles tend to become imperfect or rather acyclic resulting in too much of nutrients at once stay or too little at another.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 44

Consider the following statements with reference to chemosynthesis:

  1. It is a process in which energy is derived from reactions involving inorganic chemicals in the absence of sunlight.

  2. This process is used by living organisms in both oceans and inland waters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 44
  • It is the process through which bacteria or other living organisms derive energy — from reactions involving inorganic chemicals — typically in the absence of sunlight. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • It is the use of the energy released by chemical reactions (instead of the sun’s energy) to produce food.

  • The process is also called carbon fixation, through which inorganic carbon is converted to organic compounds by living organisms and stored as a form of energy.

  • Chemosynthesis has a profound impact on the production and cycling of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide.

  • Chemosynthetic organisms are widespread and highly diverse in terms of phylogeny, substrates used, morphology, habitats, and metabolism. These organisms have the potential to account for more than 50% of ecosystem carbon fixation under certain conditions.

  • In oceanic and inland waters, chemosynthesis is commonly measured as dark carbon fixation (i.e., the formation of organic carbon from carbon dioxide in the dark). Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with respect to Rampa Rebellion led by Alluri Sitaramaraju:

  1. The Rebellion took place in the region of Rajmahal hills.

  2. It preceded the launch of Non- Cooperation movement thus helped in mobilising tribal youth to participate in the movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 45
  • After the Chauri Chaura incident, the Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli in February 1922 and resolved to stop all activity that led to breaking of the law and to get down to constructive work. The elemental lower-class upsurge called forth in many areas by the Non-Cooperation movement did not subside immediately with the Bardoli retreat. But the most striking evidence of continued popular militancy came from the ever-restive semitribal ‘Rampa’ region north of the Godavari. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Rampa rebellion represents a guerilla uprising in semitribal ‘Rampa’ region north of the Godavari between August 1922 and May 1924 led by Alluri Sitarama Raju. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • The grievances of the tribals were the exploitation by moneylenders, and forest laws restricting shifting cultivation and age-old grazing rights. Sitaramaraju had been inspired by Non-Cooperation Movement to start village panchayats and a campaign against drink. The movement combined elements of ‘primitive rebellion’ with modern nationalism.

  • Sitarama Raju ‘spoke highly of Mr Gandhi’, but considered ‘that violence is necessary'. Raju also won the grudging admiration of the British as a formidable guerilla tactician, who had armed his followers by successful raids on police stations. Raju was captured in May 1924, was shot dead.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 46

Consider the following statements with reference to characteristics of minerals:

  1. They can be both organic and inorganic in nature.

  2. They have an orderly atomic structure and a definite chemical composition.

  3. A mineral is always composed of two or more elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 46
  • About 98 per cent of the total crust of the earth is composed of eight elements like oxygen, silicon, aluminium, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium and magnesium, and the rest is constituted by titanium, hydrogen, phosphorous, manganese, sulphur, carbon, nickel and other elements.

  • The elements in the earth’s crust are rarely found exclusively but are usually combined with other elements to make various substances. These substances are recognised as minerals.

  • Though the number of elements making up the lithosphere is limited they are combined in many different ways to make up many varieties of minerals. There are at least 2,000 minerals that have been named and identified in the earth crust, but almost all the commonly occurring ones are related to six major mineral groups that are known as major rock-forming minerals.

  • The basic source of all minerals is the hot magma in the interior of the earth. When magma cools, crystals of minerals appear and a systematic series of minerals are formed in sequence to solidify so as to form rocks. Minerals such as coal, petroleum and natural gas are organic substances found in solid, liquid and gaseous forms respectively.

  • Thus, a mineral is a naturally occurring organic and inorganic substance, having an orderly atomic structure and a definite chemical composition and physical properties. A mineral is composed of two or more elements. But, sometimes single element minerals like sulphur, copper, silver, gold, graphite etc. are found.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 47

The term 'Gomat' of the Rigvedic phase refers to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 47
  • Rigvedic people were semi-nomadic, and their chief possessions consisted of cattle and horses.

  • The terms for cow, bull and horse appear frequently in the Rig Veda.

  • Cattle were considered to be synonymous with wealth, and a wealthy person was gomat.

Hence option (c) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 48

The Sarda Act of 1929 provided for

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 48
  • Early marriage was common in British India. As early as the 18th and nineteenth century, efforts have been made to curb infant or child marriage. Reformers like Raja Rammohun Roy, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Jyotiba Phule and others in the nineteenth and early twentieth century opposed child marriage.

  • In 1929, the Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed (popularly known as the Sarda Act) and the minimum age for marriage for girls and boys was fixed at 14 years and 17 years respectively. The Act was made applicable to all Indians. The act was introduced by the then legislator Har Bilas Sarda. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

  • The latest amendment (in 1978) has raised the minimum age for marriage for boys and girls to 18 years and 21 years, respectively.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 49

Which of the following best describes Autoimmune Disease?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 49
  • An autoimmune disease is a condition in which the immune system mistakenly attacks one's body. The immune system normally guards against germs like bacteria and viruses. When it senses these foreign invaders, it sends out an army of fighter cells to attack them. Hence, option (b) is correct.

  • Normally, the immune system can tell the difference between foreign cells and its own cells. In an autoimmune disease, the immune system mistakes part of your body, like joints or skin, as foreign. It releases proteins called autoantibodies that attack healthy cells.

  • Some autoimmune diseases target only one organ. Type 1 diabetes damages the pancreas. Other diseases, like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), affect the whole body.

  • Leukopenia is a condition where a person has a reduced number of white blood cells. This increases the risk of infections.

  • Leukemia is a blood cancer caused by a rise in the number of white blood cells in your body. Those white blood cells crowd out the red blood cells and platelets that your body needs to be healthy.

  • Immunosuppression is a reduction of the activation of the immune system.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 50

With reference to Limited Liability Partnership (LLP), consider the following statements:

  1. Under LLP structure, every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.

  2. LLP will have lesser flexibility as compared to a company regulated under Companies Act 2013.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 50
  • A limited liability partnership (LLP) is a partnership in which some or all partners (depending on the jurisdiction) have limited liabilities. It therefore can exhibit elements of partnerships and corporations.

  • LLP is an alternative corporate business form that gives the benefits of limited liability of a company and the flexibility of a partnership. The LLP can continue its existence irrespective of changes in partners. It is capable of entering into contracts and holding property in its own name.

  • The LLP is a separate legal entity, is liable to the full extent of its assets but the liability of the partners is limited to their agreed contribution in the LLP.

  • Further, no partner is liable on account of the independent or un-authorized actions of other partners, thus individual partners are shielded from joint liability created by another partner’s wrongful business decisions or misconduct.

  • Advantages of LLP: LLP form is a form of business model which:

    • is organized and operates on the basis of an agreement.

    • provides flexibility without imposing detailed legal and procedural requirements.

    • enables professional/technical expertise and initiative to combine with financial risk-taking capacity in an innovative and efficient manner

  • Difference between LLP & "traditional partnership firm":

    • Under “traditional partnership firm”, every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and also severally for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.

    • Under LLP structure, the liability of the partner is limited to his agreed contribution. Further, no partner is liable on account of the independent or un-authorized acts of other partners, thus allowing individual partners to be shielded from joint liability created by another partner’s wrongful acts or misconduct. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Difference between LLP & a Company:

    • A basic difference between an LLP and a joint-stock company lies in that the internal governance structure of a company is regulated by statute (i.e. Companies Act, 1956) whereas for an LLP it would be by a contractual agreement between partners.

    • The management-ownership divide inherent in a company is not there in a limited liability partnership.

    • The greatest advantage which LLP offers is the flexibility to do business. Instead of being bound by legal provisions, LLP's are free to create their own rules of management, which was not possible in case of companies. Thus LLP will have more flexibility as compared to a company. LLP will have lesser compliance requirements as compared to a company. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 51

Which of the following is/are the advantages of the use of hydrogen as a fuel?

  1. It has a higher energy density as compared to gasoline.

  2. It can be produced locally from coal, biomass or water.

  3. It can be used as a direct fuel in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 51
  • Hydrogen (H2) is an alternative fuel that can be produced from diverse domestic resources.

    • It is abundant in our environment and it is stored in water (H2O), hydrocarbons (such as methane, CH4), and other organic matter.

    • Hydrogen is an energy carrier that can be used to store, move, and deliver energy produced from other sources.

    • Hydrogen with its abundance, high energy density, better combustion characteristics, non-polluting nature etc. has vast advantages over conventional fuels.

  • Advantages of hydrogen-based energy:

    • Reduced imports: Hydrogen as an efficient fuel helps to reduce crude oil import and its use as feedstock for ammonia production reduces India’s fertilizer imports.

      • India is the world’s third-largest consumer of oil, for which country has to depend heavily on oil imports.

    • Non-polluting & decarbonising: The use of hydrogen can reduce the CO2 related emissions significantly at the point of use and if green hydrogen is used then there is the capability to decarbonize the entire value chain, enabling reduced emissions and climate change threats.

      • Hydrogen fuel cell leaves only water vapour and heat as emissions and releases no greenhouse gasses.

    • Abundance: Hydrogen can be produced locally from numerous sources like methane, gasoline, biomass, coal or water.

    • High efficiency: Hydrogen is an efficient energy source, which means that an automobile that utilizes hydrogen energy travels more miles than one with an equal amount of gasoline.

    • High energy density: Hydrogen has the highest energy per mass of any fuel, it is 120 MJ/kg, almost three times more than diesel or gasoline.

    • Address energy requirement: Hydrogen can provide linkages between energy supply and demand, in both a centralized or decentralized manner, thereby enhancing the overall energy system flexibility.

  • Application of hydrogen:

    • Fuel cell: Hydrogen fuel cell systems are used for generating electricity, in vehicular applications (Fuel cell cars, buses, etc.) and portable devices (Laptops, phones, etc.)

      • A fuel cell is a device that generates electricity by a chemical reaction. An electrolyte (membrane) carries electrically charged particles from one electrode to the other (anode and cathode), as well as uses catalysts to speed up the reactions and produce electricity at the electrodes.

      • Only water vapour and heat are emissions from the fuel cell.

  • Direct fuel in internal combustion (IC) engine vehicles:

    • Hydrogen is used as an energy carrier directly in IC engines and turbines in place of fossil fuels or as a blended mixture with fossil fuels.

    • E.g. H-CNG, is hydrogen-enriched compressed natural gas up to 30%, with better power output, 4% more fuel economy and 70% more reduction in carbon monoxide emissions than CNG.

  • Chemical industries, Fertilizer industries, refineries:

    • Hydrogen is used as a raw material in the fertilizer, chemical and petroleum refining industries as it is a fundamental building block for the manufacture of ammonia.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 52

Consider the following statements regarding ‘State of Food and Agriculture Report, 2022’:

  1. According to the statistics of this report, the growth of agricultural automation is balanced across the different regions.

  2. This report is published biannually by the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 52
  • There are wide disparities in the spread of automation between and within nations, There is an unequal progress toward mechanization among regions, according to available statistics on the number of tractors per 1,000 hectares of arable land. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • This flagship report is published by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) every year. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 53

Consider the following statements regarding “Governor in India”:

  1. A Governor can be appointed by the central government but cannot be removed by it.

  2. A Governor hold office during the pleasure of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 53
Recently, a political party called for a proposal to remove the Tamil Nadu Governor. Under Article 155 and 156 of the Constitution, a Governor is appointed by the President and holds office “during the pleasure of the President”.
  • If this pleasure is withdrawn before completion of the five-year term, the Governor has to step down. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • As the President works on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the council of ministers, in effect, the Governor can be appointed and removed by the central government. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 54

Which of the following features of Tejas defense Aircraft is not true?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 54
Option c is correct.
  • The Tejas is an Indian single-engine, delta wing, multirole light fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force and Indian Navy. Option a is correct.

  • Tejas is being manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and designed by Aeronautical Development Agency. Option b is correct.

  • Tejas is a fully weaponised single engine light fighter with a single engine. Option c is incorrect.

  • The Tejas is an indigenous light weight, multi role supersonic aircraft (not ultrasonic). Option d is correct. The Tejas is designed to carry a veritable plethora of air-to-air, air-to- surface, precision guided and standoff weaponry.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 55

Which of the following provisions under the Part IV (Directive principles of State policy) have been present in the original Constitution?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 55
Option b is correct.
  • Option A is incorrect: Article 39 was changed through 42nd amendment act, 1976

  • Option B is Correct: Article 42 was present in the original Constitution of India

  • Option C is incorrect: Article 43B was added 97th Constitutional amendment act, 2011

  • Option D is incorrect: Article 45 was changed through the 86th amendment act of 2002

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 56

Consider the following statements:

  1. Regressive taxes have a greater financial impact on lower-income individuals than the wealthy.

  2. Progressive tax has more of a financial impact on higher-income individuals than on low- income earners.

  3. Proportional tax affects low-, middle-, and high-income earners relatively equally.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 56
Option d is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Low-income individuals pay a higher amount of taxes compared to high-income earners under a regressive tax system. That's because the government assesses tax as a percentage of the value of the asset that a taxpayer purchases or owns. This type oftax has no correlation with an individual's earnings or income level. Higher-income employees effectively pay a lower proportion of their overall pay into the Social Security system than lower-income employees.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Taxes assessed under a progressive system are based on the taxable amount of an individual's income. They follow an accelerating schedule, so high-income earners pay more than low- income earners. Tax rate, along with tax liability, increases as an individual's wealth increases. The overall outcome is that higher earners pay a higher percentage of taxes and more money in taxes than do lower- income earners.

  • Statement 3 is correct: A proportional system assesses the same tax rate on everyone regardless of income or wealth. This system is meant to create equality between marginal tax rates and average tax rates paid.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 57

Which of the following are the indicators used for measuring the Human Development Index?

  1. Life expectancy at birth

  2. Expected years of schooling

  3. Per capita Gross Domestic Product

  4. Child Mortality Rate

  5. Per capita Gross National Income

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 57
Option c is correct.

The Human Development Index (HDI) was created to emphasize that people and their capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone.

There are three dimensions to HDI:

  • The health dimension is assessed by life expectancy at birth,

  • The education dimension is measured by mean of years of schooling for adults aged 25 years and more and expected years of schooling for children of school entering age.

  • The standard of living dimension is measured by Gross National Income per capita. The HDI simplifies and captures only part of what human development entails. It does not reflect on inequalities, poverty, human security, empowerment, etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 58

“An agreement that enables two counterparties in a financial contract to offset claims against each other to determine a single net payment obligation due from one counterparty to the other.”

Which of the following terms best describes the phenomenon explained in the paragraph given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 58
Option b is correct.
  • Option a is incorrect: Hedging is a strategy that tries to limit risks in financial assets.

  • Option b is correct: A bilateral netting agreement enables two counterparties in a financial contract to offset claims against each other to determine a single net payment obligation due from one counterparty to the other.

    Establishing a legal framework for bilateral close-out netting in India would help to:

    (a) reduce credit risk and regulatory capital burden for banks, freeing up capital for other productive uses;

    (b) reduce hedging costs and liquidity needs for banks, primary dealers and other market-makers.

  • Option c is incorrect: A forward contract is a customizable derivative contract between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a specified price on a future date. Forward contracts can be tailored to a specific commodity, amount, and delivery date.

  • Option d is incorrect: A futures contract is a legal agreement to buy or sell a particular commodity asset, or security at a predetermined price at a specified time in the future. Futures contracts are standardized for quality and quantity to facilitate trading on a futures exchange.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 59

Consider the following statements with reference to the ideological differences between M.K. Gandhi and S.C. Bose:

  1. Bose believed that a political system which was a mix of fascism and socialism would be best for India.

  2. Gandhi believed in the varna distinctions of the caste system.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 59
Option c is correct.
  • Statement 1 is correct: As early as 1930, Bose expressed the opinion that in India there should be “a synthesis of what modern Europe calls Socialism and Fascism. Bose believed in revolutionary methods to win independence. He also believed that the people of India were at that point too illiterate and ignorant of modern values to be able to choose the right representatives, so the country should be run by few individuals. Bose admired discipline and orderly approach to anything. He admired these qualities in the Fascists of Italy and in the Nazis of Germany. Bose, however, was not a Nazi or a Fascist, for he supported empowerment of women, secularism and other liberal ideas. Neither was Bose a communist, he considered himself a socialist.

  • Statement 2 is correct: He supported the varna system; he believed that the laws of caste were eternal, and were the base for social harmony. Gandhi’s goals for society were mainly three: eradicating untouchability, maintaining the varna distinctions of the caste system and strengthening tolerance, modesty and religiosity in India.

  • Knowledge Base: Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose 's political views were in support of complete freedom for India with a classless society and state socialism at the earliest, whereas most of the Congress Committee wanted it in phases, through a Dominion status. In a radio broadcast from Rangoon in 1944, he stated, "I am convinced that if we do desire freedom we must be prepared to wade through blood", a statement somewhat at odds with Gandhi's philosophy of non-violence. Thus, although they shared the goal of an independent India, by 1939 the two had become divided over the strategy to achieve Indian Independence, and to some degree the form which the post-Independence state should take: Gandhi was hostile to industrialisation, while Bose saw it as the only route to making India strong and self-sufficient.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 60

Which of the following option with reference to the Non-Cooperation Movement is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 60
Option b is correct.
  • Relevance: 100th anniversary of the movement.

  • Option a is incorrect: The programme of Non-cooperation did not include non-payment of taxes. It was in Civil Disobedience Movement that the programme of non payment of taxes was included. the programme was to include boycott of government schools and colleges; boycott of law courts; boycott of legislative councils; boycott of foreign cloth; renunciation of government honours and titles.

  • Option b is correct: During the movement, the participants were supposed to work for Hindu-Muslim unity and for removal of untouchability, all the time remaining non-violent.

  • Option c is incorrect: The economic boycott received support from the Indian business group because they had benefited from the nationalists’ emphasis on the use of swadeshi. But a section of the big business remained sceptical towards the movement. They seemed to be afraid of labour unrest in their factories. Option d is incorrect: The government initially decided to ignore the movement and let it die down by not giving it any response or importance. However, with increasing success of NCM against the government administration, it decided to repress the movement very harshly, which it did.

  • Knowledge Base: September 1920 - At a special session in Calcutta, the Congress approved a non-cooperation programme till the Punjab and Khilafat wrongs were removed and swaraj was established.

The programme was to include:

1) boycott of government schools and colleges;

2) boycott of law courts and dispensation of justice through panchayats instead;

3) boycott of legislative councils; (there were some differences over this as some leaders like C.R. Das were not willing to include a boycott of councils, but bowed to Congress discipline; these leaders boycotted elections held in November 1920 and the majority of the voters too stayed away);

4) boycott of foreign cloth and use of khadi instead; also practice of hand-spinning to be done;

5) renunciation of government honours and titles; the second phase could include mass civil disobedience including resignation from government service, and non-payment of taxes. During the movement, the participants were supposed to work for Hindu-Muslim unity and for removal of untouchability, all the time remaining non-violent.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 61

Which one of the following emerging technology comprises of a network of tubes through which a pod may travel free of air resistance or friction conveying people or objects from one point to another?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 9 - Question 61
Option c is correct.
  • Hyperloop is a proposed mode of transportation that moves freight and people quickly, safely, on-demand and direct from origin to destination. The concept was first proposed by Elon Musk, CEO of the aerospace firm SpaceX.

  • How does Hyperloop work?

Hyperloop technology comprises of a network of tubes through which a pod may travel free of air resistance or friction conveying people or objects from one point to another. The system is fully autonomous and sealed, so no driver-related error is anticipated. In a sealed environment with almost no air resistance, the pods are expected to reach very high speeds of around 700 mph or 1,125 km/h. In 2018, Maharashtra Government had approved the Mumbai-Pune Hyperloop project.

  • Option a is incorrect: A self-driving car, also known as an autonomous vehicle (AV or auto), driverless car, or robo-car is a vehicle that is capable of sensing its environment and moving safely with little or no human input.

  • Option b is incorrect: The TEV (Tracked Electric Vehicle) Project is an initiative developing technologically advanced highways capable of handling the transportation of people and light freight more efficiently. TEV's design is a compact, electrified infrastructure that would continually power conventional, rubber tire electric vehicles such as cars, taxis, vans and minibuses and allow them to operate under software control.

  • Option d is incorrect: Flying hotel pods: A fleet of drones that are portable hotels are being designed by a company in Canada. The hospitality concept, Driftscape, is a mobile, self-sustaining hotel that uses drone technology. Driftscape allows guests to travel while sleeping, roam or touch down in diverse locations. It is made up of several modular units that include food and beverage elements.