UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 (March 11, 2021)


80 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 (March 11, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 (March 11, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 80 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 (March 11, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 (March 11, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 (March 11, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 (March 11, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Directions (Q. 1-8)  Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on these passages only.

Passage 1

"Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued. Antitrust rules broke monopolies such as John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil. The flow of bribes to senators shrank.

In the emerging world, the past quarter-century has been great for rent-seekers. Soaring property prices have enriched developers who rely on approvals for projects. The commodities boom has inflated the value of oilfields and mines, which are invariably intertwined with the state. Some privatisations have let tycoon's milk monopolies or get assets cheaply. The links between politics and wealth are plainly visible in China, where a third of billionaires are party members.

Capitalism based on rent-seeking is not just unfair, but also bad for long-term growth. As our briefing on India explains, resources are misallocated: crummy roads are often the work of crony firms. Competition is repressed: Mexicans pay too much for their phones. Dynamic new firms are stifled by better-connected incumbents. And if linked to the financing of politics, rent-heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish. When ministers are on the take, why shouldn't underpaid junior officials be?

 

Q. Which of the following statements are valid with reference to the above passage?

1. Rent seeking was a fortune maker for the ruler's cronies

2. Only politicians can make money by seeking rent.   

Solution:

The correct answer is 'Rent seeking was a fortune maker for the ruler's cronies'. "Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies.

QUESTION: 2

Passage 1

"Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued. Antitrust rules broke monopolies such as John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil. The flow of bribes to senators shrank.

In the emerging world, the past quarter-century has been great for rent-seekers. Soaring property prices have enriched developers who rely on approvals for projects. The commodities boom has inflated the value of oilfields and mines, which are invariably intertwined with the state. Some privatisations have let tycoon's milk monopolies or get assets cheaply. The links between politics and wealth are plainly visible in China, where a third of billionaires are party members.

Capitalism based on rent-seeking is not just unfair, but also bad for long-term growth. As our briefing on India explains, resources are misallocated: crummy roads are often the work of crony firms. Competition is repressed: Mexicans pay too much for their phones. Dynamic new firms are stifled by better-connected incumbents. And if linked to the financing of politics, rent-heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish. When ministers are on the take, why shouldn't underpaid junior officials be?

 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statement(s) are NOT correct?

1. The rent seeking system ended the struggle against robber barons in America

2. China exemplifies the close relationship between politics and wealth

Solution:

The rent seeking system ended the struggle against robber barons in America. "Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued.

QUESTION: 3

Passage 1

"Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued. Antitrust rules broke monopolies such as John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil. The flow of bribes to senators shrank.

In the emerging world, the past quarter-century has been great for rent-seekers. Soaring property prices have enriched developers who rely on approvals for projects. The commodities boom has inflated the value of oilfields and mines, which are invariably intertwined with the state. Some privatisations have let tycoon's milk monopolies or get assets cheaply. The links between politics and wealth are plainly visible in China, where a third of billionaires are party members.

Capitalism based on rent-seeking is not just unfair, but also bad for long-term growth. As our briefing on India explains, resources are misallocated: crummy roads are often the work of crony firms. Competition is repressed: Mexicans pay too much for their phones. Dynamic new firms are stifled by better-connected incumbents. And if linked to the financing of politics, rent-heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish. When ministers are on the take, why shouldn't underpaid junior officials be?

 

Q. The reason petty corruption in politics flourished is :

Solution:

The reason petty corruption in politics flourished is because rent heavy capitalism involving bribing ministers sets such a tone that the junior officials do not hesitate to take bribes.

QUESTION: 4

Passage 1

"Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued. Antitrust rules broke monopolies such as John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil. The flow of bribes to senators shrank.

In the emerging world, the past quarter-century has been great for rent-seekers. Soaring property prices have enriched developers who rely on approvals for projects. The commodities boom has inflated the value of oilfields and mines, which are invariably intertwined with the state. Some privatisations have let tycoon's milk monopolies or get assets cheaply. The links between politics and wealth are plainly visible in China, where a third of billionaires are party members.

Capitalism based on rent-seeking is not just unfair, but also bad for long-term growth. As our briefing on India explains, resources are misallocated: crummy roads are often the work of crony firms. Competition is repressed: Mexicans pay too much for their phones. Dynamic new firms are stifled by better-connected incumbents. And if linked to the financing of politics, rent-heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish. When ministers are on the take, why shouldn't underpaid junior officials be?

 

Q. Which of the following is caused by rent heavy Capitalism?

1. Competition is repressed

2. Inflation occurs

3. Bribery flourishes

4. Long term growth suffer

Solution:

B is the correct option.Heavy Capitalism causes Competition is repressed, Inflation occurs and  Long term growth suffer.
“Competition is repressed:....................heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish.” 

QUESTION: 5

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state of the universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half of the information needed to satisfy Laplace's view of determinism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future.

 

Q. The passage suggests that if scientific determinism were TRUE:

Solution:

The end of the first paragraph states that "if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state of the universe." Thus, if scientific determinism were true, scientists in theory could predict the future.

The passage says choice B is not true because of the uncertainty principle, but it does not imply that this fact would be true if determinism were also true.

Choice C is not necessarily true; if scientific determinism were true, it would mean scientists could predict the future in theory, even if practically there were no way to do it.

Choice D is not correct because the equations have nothing to do with determinism.

QUESTION: 6

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state of the universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half of the information needed to satisfy Laplace's view of determinism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future

 

Q. According to the passage, wave functions:

Solution:

The relevant part of the passage is here: "Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions." Since wave functions are probabilities, they present a range of possibilities, as choice C states.

Choice A is contradicted by the passage.

Choice B is incorrect based on the information in the passage.

Choice D is wrong because wave functions only allow scientists to figure out a probability, not the future state.

QUESTION: 7

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state ofthe universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half ofthe information needed to satisfy Laplace's view ofdeterminism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future.

 

Q. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

Solution:

To answer this question, use your analytical reading skills to find the progression of the ideas. The first part of the paragraph introduces the idea of scientific determinism.

Next, the passage states that the principle was thrown into doubt. Finally, the passage indicates that physicists can reach half of the requirements for determinism but no more. That matches choice C best.

QUESTION: 8

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state of the universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half of the information needed to satisfy Laplace's view of determinism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future

 

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's conclusion in the passage's final sentence?

Solution:

This is an apply the information question. It is similar to a Critical Reasoning strengthen question. The author's conclusion and premise are: Premise: Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time.

Conclusion: Under modern physics theories, exactly half of the information needed to satisfy determinism is available and that is as far as any researcher can go in predicting the future.

This argument relies on the assumption that quantum mechanics is correct and that scientists will never be able to accurately measure both the position and velocity of a particle.

Choice D strengthens the argument by indicating quantum mechanics is in fact correct in its assertions of  uncertainty.

Choice A would weaken the argument by indicating that perhaps quantum mechanics is wrong.

Choice B is irrelevant because the argument hinges on quantum mechanics.

Choice C does not address the author's argument. It introduces another barrier to predicting the future, but is not relevant to the conclusion and premise in the passage.

QUESTION: 9

Directions for the following 4 (four) questions:

Following table shows tea production data of India for various years. Study the following graph and answer the questions.   

Q. Which year has maximum increment in percentage value compared to previous year?  

Solution:

Go option wise. Option a is incorrect as value decreases.

Among rest three, increment in b is least so answer is between c and d.

For option c, (60 - 40) / 40 = 0.5 which is 50%

For option d, (40 - 25) / 25 = 0.6 which is 60%

QUESTION: 10

Following table shows tea production data of India for various years. Study the following graph and answer the questions.

Q. What is percentage increase in production for 2013 when compared with 2008?​

Solution:

Actual increment in value is = 80-60 = 20 units

So 20 = x% of 60 which gives value of x as 33.33% which is the required answer

QUESTION: 11

Following table shows tea production data of India for various years. Study the following graph and answer the questions. 

 

Q. Out of eight years, in how many years production was lesser than simple average of all eight years?

Solution:

As calculated in last question = sum of all eight years = 170+270 = 440 So average = 440/8 = 55

Answer is 4 as one has to check it with each year.

QUESTION: 12

Following table shows tea production data of India for various years. Study the following graph and answer the questions. 

 

Q. What is difference between simple average of first four years and last four years?

Solution:

Sum of first four years = 170 Sum of last four years = 270

Difference between them = 100 so difference between averages = 100/4 = 25

QUESTION: 13

logx(4) = 1/3, then x = ?

Solution:

In simplified form it becomes x =43 = 64

QUESTION: 14

The number of solutions of (x2 + l)2 + 2(x2 + l) - 3 = 0 is equal to

Solution:

Though highest power of x is 4.Number of solutions will not be 4.

Substitute x2 + l = t and get quadratic in t. there will be two solutions and only one of them will give x real value.

QUESTION: 15

If f(x) = x - 4, then what is value of f(f(3)) = ?

Solution:

f(f(3)) means first find value of f(3) and put that again in f() to find final value.

f(3) = 3 - 4 = - 1

f(-1) = - 5 = final answer

QUESTION: 16

Which of the following has maximum value?

P and Q are two real numbers.  ​

Solution:

|number| gives absolute value of number. For example |-4.6| of is 4.6 and |2.4| of is 2.4. so out of all given options |p| + |q| has maximum value.

QUESTION: 17

How many solutions do the equation 1/x + l/(x + 1) = 1/3 have?

Solution:

By simplifying it a quadratic in x is obtained with two real roots.

QUESTION: 18

Let f(x) = 2x + 4. Which of the following statements is true?   

Solution:

y = 2x + 4 is straight line not passing through origin. It cuts x axis at (-2,0) and y axis at (0,4).

QUESTION: 19

The lines y = 2x and 2y = -x are 

Solution:

If multiplication of slopes of two lines = -1 then they are perpendicular.

QUESTION: 20

Write following sentence in mathematical form "The price is no less than 100 rupees and is at most 145"   

Solution:

First part of sentence is x> 100 Second part of sentence is x< 145 So combined 100 <x< 145

QUESTION: 21

Directions for following 4(four) questions: 

Following chart indicates internal division of electricity usage for two years. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below.

 

Q. If consumption in one sector is increased it will be marked 2 and decreased then by -1. If it remained unchanged then it will marked as 0. What is total of all 6 sectors?

Solution:

Increment in agriculture + domestic = 2+2 = 4 Decrement in industrial + loss = -1-1 = -2 Unchanged in rest = 0 Total = 4-2 =2

QUESTION: 22

Following chart indicates internal division of electricity usage for two years. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below.

 

Q. Total electricity consumption in 2012 is 1.5 times of the total electricity consumption in 2011, then what is percentage increase in the electricity consumption of the agricultural sector?

Solution:

There are two increases— one is the increase in the share of agriculture (66.66%). the other is an increase of 50% in total. Net increase = 150%.

QUESTION: 23

Following chart indicates internal division of electricity usage for two years. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below.

 

Q. What is maximum number of sectors one should add to cross 50% consumption for 2012 year?

Solution:

Start adding sector from lowest and count till you cross 50.

QUESTION: 24

Following chart indicates internal division of electricity usage for two years. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below.

 

Q. The agricultural consumption of electricity doubled for given years. By how much percentage has the total electricity consumption grown up?

Solution:

There is an increase in the share of agriculture (66.66%), to make the agricultural consumption double, total consumption is to be increased by 20%.

QUESTION: 25

Directions for the following 9 (nine) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on these passages only. 

Passage 1

The Slavic languages are a group of closely related languages that have speakers in most of Eastern Europe, the Balkans, in parts of Central Europe, and certain parts of Asia. The Slavic languages are broadly divided into three main branches, including East Slavic, West Slavic, and South Slavic, each of which is further divided into subgroups. The standard, or literary, components of each of the Slavic languages are distinct. However, the spoken dialects of each language are often closely related, and there exist what scholars call transitional dialects that bridge the gaps between the three Slavic languages. The common ancestor of the three Slavic languages is believed to be the Proto-Baltic-Slavic language, a dialect spoken approximately 3,000 B.C. in what today is Lithuania. The fact that the three branches of Slavic languages share approximately 280 words is usually given as proof for such a parent, ancestor language.

 

Q. What would be an appropriate title for this short passage?​

Solution:

Remember that a title should summarize the entire passage, and not just parts of it. The first and third choices are not appropriate titles because the passage is not about the rise and fall of the Slavic languages, and the literary history of the Slavic languages is not discussed anywhere in the passage.

The fourth choice is not the right answer because although Lithuania at 3,000 B.C. is discussed, there is no mention of geography in the passage. The second choice, therefore, is the best, and in fact the passage first describes, then discusses the origins of, and concludes with the similarities of the Slavic languages.

QUESTION: 26

Passage 1

The Slavic languages are a group of closely related languages that have speakers in most of Eastern Europe, the Balkans, in parts of Central Europe, and certain parts of Asia. The Slavic languages are broadly divided into three main branches, including East Slavic, West Slavic, and South Slavic, each of which is further divided into subgroups. The standard, or literary, components of each of the Slavic languages are distinct. However, the spoken dialects of each language are often closely related, and there exist what scholars call transitional dialects that bridge the gaps between the three Slavic languages. The common ancestor of the three Slavic languages is believed to be the Proto-Baltic-Slavic language, a dialect spoken approximately 3,000 B.C. in what today is Lithuania. The fact that the three branches of Slavic languages share approximately 280 words is usually given as proof for such a parent, ancestor language.

 

Q. According to the author, which of the following is TRUE?​

Solution:

Choice 1 is definitely not the answer because the passage says nothing about Africa.

Choice 2 is not the right answer because the passage says specifically that the standard components of each of the Slavic languages is distinct.

After hints 1 and 2, the remaining choices are 3 and 4. Choice 3 is true because, according to the first sentence, the Slavic languages are spoken in eastern and central Europe, as well as in Asia. The fourth choice is not correct because the last sentence of the passage states that the Slavic languages share approximately 280 words.

QUESTION: 27

Passage 2

The St. Bartholomew's Day Massacre was a series of Catholic mob violence episodes against members of the French Protestant Reformed Church. On August 24, 1572, Admiral Gaspard de Coligny, the leader of the Protestant Reformed Church, was murdered, and this set of a crime wave that continued for well over one month and spread throughout the French countryside. In all, it is estimated that 50,000 people were killed. The events which transpired in France in August and September of 1572 were the result of many factors, including the Glorious Reformation which had its roots in Germany and because of growing strife within the Catholic Church. However, historians disagree whether the massacre was premeditated, and in fact many now agree that Rome had only a secondary role in the planning and execution of the massacre. However, proponents of the idea that Rome was directly responsible for the massacre refer to the fact that Pope Gregory XIII commissioned the production of a special commemorative medal to honor the massacre of the Protestants.

 

Q. Which of the following statements would the author most likely disagree with?

Solution:

First eliminate those choices that you know that author would agree with. Eliminate choices 1 and 2 because they are explicitly stated in the passage. Likewise, choice 4 is stated in the passage, so the author would agree with those statements. Choice 3 is the only feasible answer, and in fact the author writes that ...many [historians] now agree that Rome had only a secondary role in the ... , and so that author contends that Rome had at least a minor role.

QUESTION: 28

Passage 2

The St. Bartholomew's Day Massacre was a series of Catholic mob violence episodes against members of the French Protestant Reformed Church. On August 24, 1572, Admiral Gaspard de Coligny, the leader of the Protestant Reformed Church, was murdered, and this set of a crime wave that continued for well over one month and spread throughout the French countryside. In all, it is estimated that 50,000 people were killed. The events which transpired in France in August and September of 1572 were the result of many factors, including the Glorious Reformation which had its roots in Germany and because of growing strife within the Catholic Church. However, historians disagree whether the massacre was premeditated, and in fact many now agree that Rome had only a secondary role in the planning and execution of the massacre. However, proponents of the idea that Rome was directly responsible for the massacre refer to the fact that Pope Gregory XIII commissioned the production of a special commemorative medal to honor the massacre of the Protestants.

 

Q. Which of the following best describes the development of the passage?

Solution:

There is no mention of any psychological analysis, and so choice 2 can be eliminated. The author does not begin with a question, so eliminate choice 3.

Of all the answer choices, only choice 1 describes the development of the passage; all of the other choices are irrelevant, are not based on the reading passage, or are not in the correct order.

QUESTION: 29

Passage-3

The Andromeda Galaxy, also known as Messier 31, NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 2.5 million light- years away from Earth. The Andromeda Galaxy is in the constellation Andromeda, and it is the nearest spiral galaxy to our own, the Milky Way. Both the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy are members of the Local Group, which also includes the Griangulum Galaxy, among others. Until recently, it was believed that the Andromeda Galaxy had the greatest mass of the three Galaxies in the Local Group, but recent findings suggest that the Milky Way has the most dark matter out of the three, and this fact may suggest that in fact the Milky Way is the most massive. Scientists are still uncertain, and more research is needed to settle the matter. In terms of the actual number of stars, however, the Andromeda Galaxy contains approximately 1 trillion stars, which is much more than are contained in the Milky Way.

The Andromeda Galaxy is visible to the naked eye in a moderately dark sky, and it appears quite small without a telescope because only the central part is bright enough to be visible. However, the angular diameter of the Andromeda Galaxy is seven times that of the full moon, and so if all of the stars of the Andromeda Galaxy were easily visibly to the naked eye, the galaxy would be the dominant object in the sky.

 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?  

Solution:

A question that asks you a question about specific details in the passage means that the answer is explicitly stated in the passage. Which ofthe four statements are stated explicitly in the passage? The first choice, for example, is not explicitly stated in the passage. The only mention in regards to the numbers of stars is that the Andromeda Galaxy has 1 trillion stars, which is more stars than are in the Milky Way. However, there is no mention of the actual numbers of stars in the Milky Way. Of all the choices, only the third choice is stated in the passage. Although the passage does not state how many galaxies there are in the Local Group, three names are given. All of the other answer choices are not stated in the passage.

QUESTION: 30

Passage-3

The Andromeda Galaxy, also known as Messier 31, NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 2.5 million light- years away from Earth. The Andromeda Galaxy is in the constellation Andromeda, and it is the nearest spiral galaxy to our own, the Milky Way. Both the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy are members of the Local Group, which also includes the Griangulum Galaxy, among others. Until recently, it was believed that the Andromeda Galaxy had the greatest mass of the three Galaxies in the Local Group, but recent findings suggest that the Milky Way has the most dark matter out of the three, and this fact may suggest that in fact the Milky Way is the most massive. Scientists are still uncertain, and more research is needed to settle the matter. In terms of the actual number of stars, however, the Andromeda Galaxy contains approximately 1 trillion stars, which is much more than are contained in the Milky Way.

The Andromeda Galaxy is visible to the naked eye in a moderately dark sky, and it appears quite small without a telescope because only the central part is bright enough to be visible. However, the angular diameter of the Andromeda Galaxy is seven times that of the full moon, and so if all of the stars of the Andromeda Galaxy were easily visibly to the naked eye, the galaxy would be the dominant object in the sky.

 

Q. In the passage, the author writes, "Scientists are still uncertain, and more research is needed to settle the matter," referring to the fact that scientists are uncertain about the relative masses of the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy. If the author wanted to include more details about this, which of the following should also be included in the passage?​

Solution:

Of all the answer choices, you'll have to choose the one that provides the required information but also which fits best with the structure and style ofthe overall reading passage. The second choice is not correct because the current passage is an overview and summary of a single topic, and nowhere else in the passage are there any intricate details or physics formula. The first choice is not correct because this passage is not a philosophical essay, but instead a scientific review article, and so including a philosophical discussion would not fit with the overall style of the rest of the passage.

The third choice is not the answer, because it is not related to a discussion about the masses of the two galaxies. The fourth choice is a good fit, and in fact is the right answer.

QUESTION: 31

Passage 4

The period between 1880 and 1900 was a boom time for American politics. The country was for once free of the threat of war, and many of its citizens were living comfortably. However, as these two decades went by, the American farmer found it harder and harder to live comfortably. Crops such as cotton and wheat, once the bulwark of agriculture, were selling at prices so low that it was nearly impossible for farmers to make a profit. Furthermore, improvements in transportation allowed foreign competition to materialize, making it harder for American farmers to dispose of surplus crop. Finally, years of drought in the Midwest and the downward spiral of businesses in the 1890s devastated many of the nation's farmers. As a result of the agricultural depression, many farm groups, most notably the Populist Party, arose to fight what farmers saw as the reasons for the decline in agriculture. During the last twenty years of the nineteenth century, many farmers in the United States saw monopolies and trusts, railroads, and money shortages and the demonetization of silver as threats to their way of life, though in many cases their complaints were not valid.

The growth of the railroad was one of the most significant elements in American economic growth. However, in many ways, the railroads hurt small shippers and farmers. Extreme competition between rail companies necessitated some way to win business. To do this, many railroads offered rebates and drawbacks to larger shippers who utilized the railroad's services. However, this practice hurt smaller shippers, including farmers, for often times railroad companies would charge more to ship products short distances than they would for long trips. The rail companies justified this practice by asserting that if they did not provide such rebates, they would not make enough profit to stay in business. In his testimony to the Senate Cullom Committee, George W. Parker stated, "... the operating expense of this road...requires a certain volume of business to meet these fixed expenses....in some seasons of the year, the local business of the road...is not sufficient to make the  earnings...when we make up a train of ten of fifteen cars of local freight...we can attach fifteen or twenty cars...of strictly through business. We can take the latter at a very low rate than go without it..." Later, when asked of the consequences of charging local traffic the same rate as through freight, Mr. Parker responded, "Bankruptcy, inevitably and speedy ..." While the railroads felt that they must use this practice to make a profit, the farmers were justified in complaining, for they were seriously injured by it. The railroads regularly used rebates and drawbacks to help win the business of large shippers, and made up this loss in profit by increasing the cost to smaller shippers such as farmers. As a result, many farmers, already hurt by the downslide in agriculture, were ruined. Thus, the farmers of the late nineteenth century had a valid complaint against railroad shippers, for these farmers were hurt by the unfair practices of the railroads.

Near the end of the nineteenth century, business began to centralize, leading to the rise of monopolies and trusts. Falling prices, along with the need for better efficiency in industry, led to the rise of such companies as Carnegie Steel and Standard Oil, which controlled a majority of the nation's supply of raw steel and oil, respectively. The rise of these monopolies and trusts concerned many farmers, for they felt that the disappearance of competition would lead to erratic and unreasonable price rises that would hurt consumers. James B. Weaver, the Populist party's presidential candidate in the 1892 election, summed up the feelings of many Americans of the period in his work, "A Call to Action: An Interpretation of the Great Uprising". He wrote, "It is clear that trusts are...in conflict with the Common law. They are monopolies organized to destroy competition and restrain trade.... Once they secure control of a given line, they are master of the situation... They can limit the price of the raw material so as to impoverish the producer, drive him to a single market, reduce the price of every class of labor connected with the trade, throw out of employment large numbers persons...and finally...they increase the price to the consumer...."

Accordingly, it appears that the main weapons of the trust are threats, intimidation, bribery, fraud, wreck, and pillaging. However, the facts refute many of Weaver's charges against the monopolies. While it is true that many companies used questionable means to achieve their monopoly, many were not out to crush competitors. To the contrary, John D. Rockefeller, head of Standard Oil, competed ruthlessly not to crush other refiners but to persuade them to join Standard Oil and share the business so all could profit. Furthermore, the fear that the monopolies would raise prices unreasonably was never realized. Prices tended to fall during the latter part of the 1800's creating what some have called a "consumer's millennium".

 

Q. According to the passage, what is the most accurate definition of bulwark as it is used in the first paragraph?

Solution:

First, be sure to find the sentence that uses the word bulwark , as you are being asked to infer from the passage what the meaning of the word is. In this case, bulwark can have one of several meanings, so you need to know exactly how it is being used. In the first paragraph, it is stated: Crops such as cotton and wheat, once the bulwark of agriculture ... . Now replace the word bulwark in this phrase with each of the provided answer choices. Which one makes sense? Only the bulk of makes sense here. All of the other phrases, although they may be fitting for a definition of the word bulwark when used in another context, are here no appropriate.

QUESTION: 32

Passage 4

The period between 1880 and 1900 was a boom time for American politics. The country was for once free of the threat of war, and many of its citizens were living comfortably. However, as these two decades went by, the American farmer found it harder and harder to live comfortably. Crops such as cotton and wheat, once the bulwark of agriculture, were selling at prices so low that it was nearly impossible for farmers to make a profit. Furthermore, improvements in transportation allowed foreign competition to materialize, making it harder for American farmers to dispose of surplus crop. Finally, years of drought in the Midwest and the downward spiral of businesses in the 1890s devastated many of the nation's farmers. As a result of the agricultural depression, many farm groups, most notably the Populist Party, arose to fight what farmers saw as the reasons for the decline in agriculture. During the last twenty years of the nineteenth century, many farmers in the United States saw monopolies and trusts, railroads, and money shortages and the demonetization of silver as threats to their way of life, though in many cases their complaints were not valid.

The growth of the railroad was one of the most significant elements in American economic growth. However, in many ways, the railroads hurt small shippers and farmers. Extreme competition between rail companies necessitated some way to win business. To do this, many railroads offered rebates and drawbacks to larger shippers who utilized the railroad's services. However, this practice hurt smaller shippers, including farmers, for often times railroad companies would charge more to ship products short distances than they would for long trips. The rail companies justified this practice by asserting that if they did not provide such rebates, they would not make enough profit to stay in business. In his testimony to the Senate Cullom Committee, George W. Parker stated, "... the operating expense of this road...requires a certain volume of business to meet these fixed expenses....in some seasons of the year, the local business of the road...is not sufficient to make the 

earnings...when we make up a train of ten of fifteen cars of local freight...we can attach fifteen or twenty cars...of strictly through business. We can take the latter at a very low rate than go without it..." Later, when asked of the consequences of charging local traffic the same rate as through freight, Mr. Parker responded, "Bankruptcy, inevitably and speedy ..." While the railroads felt that they must use this practice to make a profit, the farmers were justified in complaining, for they were seriously injured by it. The railroads regularly used rebates and drawbacks to help win the business of large shippers, and made up this loss in profit by increasing the cost to smaller shippers such as farmers. As a result, many farmers, already hurt by the downslide in agriculture, were ruined. Thus, the farmers of the late nineteenth century had a valid complaint against railroad shippers, for these farmers were hurt by the unfair practices of the railroads.

Near the end of the nineteenth century, business began to centralize, leading to the rise of monopolies and trusts. Falling prices, along with the need for better efficiency in industry, led to the rise of such companies as Carnegie Steel and Standard Oil, which controlled a majority of the nation's supply of raw steel and oil, respectively. The rise of these monopolies and trusts concerned many farmers, for they felt that the disappearance of competition would lead to erratic and unreasonable price rises that would hurt consumers. James B. Weaver, the Populist party's presidential candidate in the 1892 election, summed up the feelings of many Americans of the period in his work, "A Call to Action: An Interpretation of the Great Uprising". He wrote, "It is clear that trusts are...in conflict with the Common law. They are monopolies organized to destroy competition and restrain trade.... Once they secure control of a given line, they are master of the situation... They can limit the price of the raw material so as to impoverish the producer, drive him to a single market, reduce the price of every class of labor connected with the trade, throw out of employment large numbers persons...and finally...they increase the price to the consumer...."

Accordingly, it appears that the main weapons of the trust are threats, intimidation, bribery, fraud, wreck, and pillaging. However, the facts refute many of Weaver's charges against the monopolies. While it is true that many companies used questionable means to achieve their monopoly, many were not out to crush competitors. To the contrary, John D. Rockefeller, head of Standard Oil, competed ruthlessly not to crush other refiners but to persuade them to join Standard Oil and share the business so all could profit. Furthermore, the fear that the monopolies would raise prices unreasonably was never realized. Prices tended to fall during the latter part of the 1800's creating what some have called a "consumer's millennium".

Q. According to the passage, the advent of what component of business made it difficult for farmers to dispose of surplus materials?  

Solution:

Remember that whenever a question begins with "according to the passage", be rest assured that the answer is either directly or indirectly provided in the passage. Quickly skim over the passage to look for that part that discusses surpluses. In the first paragraph, it is written: Furthermore, improvements in transportation allowed foreign competition to materialize, making it harder for American farmers to dispose of surplus crop. According to the passage, improvements in transportation and the subsequent rise of foreign competition is what made it difficult to dispose of surplus.

QUESTION: 33

Passage 4

The period between 1880 and 1900 was a boom time for American politics. The country was for once free of the threat of war, and many of its citizens were living comfortably. However, as these two decades went by, the American farmer found it harder and harder to live comfortably. Crops such as cotton and wheat, once the bulwark of agriculture, were selling at prices so low that it was nearly impossible for farmers to make a profit. Furthermore, improvements in transportation allowed foreign competition to materialize, making it harder for American farmers to dispose of surplus crop. Finally, years of drought in the Midwest and the downward spiral of businesses in the 1890s devastated many of the nation's farmers. As a result of the agricultural depression, many farm groups, most notably the Populist Party, arose to fight what farmers saw as the reasons for the decline in agriculture. During the last twenty years of the nineteenth century, many farmers in the United States saw monopolies and trusts, railroads, and money shortages and the demonetization of silver as threats to their way of life, though in many cases their complaints were not valid.

The growth of the railroad was one of the most significant elements in American economic growth. However, in many ways, the railroads hurt small shippers and farmers. Extreme competition between rail companies necessitated some way to win business. To do this, many railroads offered rebates and drawbacks to larger shippers who utilized the railroad's services. However, this practice hurt smaller shippers, including farmers, for often times railroad companies would charge more to ship products short distances than they would for long trips. The rail companies justified this practice by asserting that if they did not provide such rebates, they would not make enough profit to stay in business. In his testimony to the Senate Cullom Committee, George W. Parker stated, "... the operating expense of this road...requires a certain volume of business to meet these fixed expenses....in some seasons of the year, the local business of the road...is not sufficient to make the earnings...when we make up a train of ten of fifteen cars of local freight...we can attach fifteen or twenty cars...of strictly through business. We can take the latter at a very low rate than go without it..." Later, when asked of the consequences of charging local traffic the same rate as through freight, Mr. Parker responded, "Bankruptcy, inevitably and speedy ..." While the railroads felt that they must use this practice to make a profit, the farmers were justified in complaining, for they were seriously injured by it. The railroads regularly used rebates and drawbacks to help win the business of large shippers, and made up this loss in profit by increasing the cost to smaller shippers such as farmers. As a result, many farmers, already hurt by the downslide in agriculture, were ruined. Thus, the farmers of the late nineteenth century had a valid complaint against railroad shippers, for these farmers were hurt by the unfair practices of the railroads.

Near the end of the nineteenth century, business began to centralize, leading to the rise of monopolies and trusts. Falling prices, along with the need for better efficiency in industry, led to the rise of such companies as Carnegie Steel and Standard Oil, which controlled a majority of the nation's supply of raw steel and oil, respectively. The rise of these monopolies and trusts concerned many farmers, for they felt that the disappearance of competition would lead to erratic and unreasonable price rises that would hurt consumers. James B. Weaver, the Populist party's presidential candidate in the 1892 election, summed up the feelings of many Americans of the period in his work, "A Call to Action: An Interpretation of the Great Uprising". He wrote, "It is clear that trusts are...in conflict with the Common law. They are monopolies organized to destroy competition and restrain trade.... Once they secure control of a given line, they are master of the situation... They can limit the price of the raw material so as to impoverish the producer, drive him to a single market, reduce the price of every class of labor connected with the trade, throw out of employment large numbers persons...and finally...they increase the price to the consumer...."

Accordingly, it appears that the main weapons of the trust are threats, intimidation, bribery, fraud, wreck, and pillaging. However, the facts refute many of Weaver's charges against the monopolies. While it is true that many companies used questionable means to achieve their monopoly, many were not out to crush competitors. To the contrary, John D. Rockefeller, head of Standard Oil, competed ruthlessly not to crush other refiners but to persuade them to join Standard Oil and share the business so all could profit. Furthermore, the fear that the monopolies would raise prices unreasonably was never realized. Prices tended to fall during the latter part of the 1800's creating what some have called a "consumer's millennium".

 

Q. Which of the following is a possible final sentence to the final paragraph?

Solution:

When asked to select a possible "final" or "next" sentence, you have to analyze the organization and style of the essay. Here, the last paragraph is about complaints that were made against monopolies. Remember that you have to select the best answer, not merely a good answer. First eliminate those choices which may be true in this case but which would not follow logically at the last paragraph. Eliminate choices 2 and 3. Choice lisa valid next sentence, and actually sums up or concludes the arguments that are made in the final paragraph. Choice 4, although it may have been true, is not the focus of the last paragraph or essay, so eliminate that.

QUESTION: 34

For what value of C, the equations 3x + 4y = 27 and 6x + Cy = 54 will have infinite solutions in common?

Solution:

Two linear equations will have infinite common equations only when both of them represent same graph. For C = 8 equation 2 will be same as equation 1 and will give full overlap of both graphs.

QUESTION: 35

If (x - 2) is factor of x+ ax + b = 0 and a + b= 1 then values of a and b are  

Solution:

put b = 1 - a in earlier equation and solve it by putting x = 24+2a+1-a = 0 gives a = -5 and b = 6

QUESTION: 36

Number of solutions for equations |x| = x+ x - 3 is 

Solution:

As quadratic term is present so there are two solutions but with mod of x on left hand side, there are two quadratic equations thus total 4 solutions.

QUESTION: 37

Five bananas and six apples and seven guavas cost Rs 178 and six bananas, four apples and two guavas cost Rs 124. What is cost of one banana, one apple and one guava?

Solution:

5b + 6a + 7g = 178 and 6b + 4a + 2g = 124
Multiply first equation by 2 and add in second to get 16b + 16a + 16g = 480

QUESTION: 38

Directions for the following 5 (five) questions:

The following pie charts gives regional distribution of candidates registered and passed in a competitive exam.

 

Q. A, B, C and D are four regions. Total 7200 students registered in exam and only 2400 passed in that. What is ratio of candidates passed from region C? 

Solution:

Total number of candidates appeared = (90° x 7200)/3600 = 1800
Total number of candidates passed = (70° x 24 00)/2400 = 700 Ratio = 700/1800 = 7:18

QUESTION: 39

The following pie charts gives regional distribution of candidates registered and passed in a competitive exam.

 

Q. What is approximate percentage of candidates failed from region A? 

Solution:

Total number of candidates appeared = (70° x 7200)/3600 = 1400
Total number of candidates passed = (40° x 2400)/2400 = 400 Failed = 1400-400 = 1000 Percentage = (1000 x 100)/1400 = 71.42%

QUESTION: 40

The following pie charts gives regional distribution of candidates registered and passed in a competitive exam.

 

Q. Which region has highest success ratio?

Solution:

As highest ratio is asked and not the actual value so it is better to find ratio of both sectors as other parameters are same for all four cases so will give same result

For A = 40 / 70 = 0.5

For B = 30 / 80 = 0.3

For C = 70 / 90 = 0.7

For D = 100 / 120 = 0.8

QUESTION: 41

The following pie charts gives regional distribution of candidates registered and passed in a competitive exam.

 

Q. What is ratio of the highest number of candidates successful from a region to lowest number of candidates appeared from a region?​

Solution:

The highest number of candidates successful from a region = D = (120° x 2400)/2400 = 1200 lowest number of candidates appeared =A= (70° x 7200)/3600 = 1400 ratio = 1200:1400 = 6:7

QUESTION: 42

The following pie charts gives regional distribution of candidates registered and passed in a competitive exam.

Q. What is overall percentage of candidates failed in exam?

Solution:

Total candidates appeared in exam = 7200 Total candidates passed in exam = 2400 Total candidates failed in exam = 4800 Percentage failed = (4800/7200) x 100% = 66.67

QUESTION: 43

Directions for the following 3 (three) questions:

Following table shows list of features available in mobile phones. Study the table and answer the questions given below.

Q. Which features are present in maximum and minimum types of phones respectively?

Solution:

The maximum no of features are in dual sim and minimum features are in 3G.

QUESTION: 44

Following table shows list of features available in mobile phones. Study the table and answer the questions given below.

Q. Price of phone is exactly equal to sum of prices of each feature. A phone with all features like Q can be assembled by how many ways?

Solution:

Phone Q is already present. Second way is assembling P and R.

QUESTION: 45

Following table shows list of features available in mobile phones. Study the table and answer the questions given below.

Q. If Ram is looking for phone with camera and dual sim but no 3G. How many options he has?

Solution:

Eliminate types. Only P and T satisfy conditions.

QUESTION: 46

Point which satisfies the inequalities: x - y > 1 and y < 2x - 1

Solution:

Put co-ordinates of all options in both inequalities and check.

QUESTION: 47

What is the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation 7x2 + 3x -1 = 0? 

Solution:

sum of roots is -b/a which is -3/7

QUESTION: 48

Which of the following sets is universal set of {2, 4, 8, 5}?

Solution:

A universal set has all elements present than given set. Out of all options, options D set has all elements.

QUESTION: 49

What is type of graph shown in figure?

Solution:

Exponential graph will start from negative x axis from infinity.

QUESTION: 50

Directions for the following 8 (eight) questions:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on these passages only.

Passage 1

The classical realist theory of international relations has long dominated both academic institutions and the American government. Even at the birth of the nation, early political thinkers, such as Alexander Hamilton, promoted a realist view of international relations and sought to influence the actions of the government based on this perspective. While the classical realist school of international relations is not entirely homogeneous in nature, there are certain premises that all classical realists share.

The primary principle underlying classical realism is a concern with issues of war and peace. Specifically, classical realists ask, what are the causes of war and what are the conditions of peace? The members of the classical realist school mainly attribute war and conflict to what is termed the security dilemma. In the absence ofany prevailing global authority, each nation is required to address its own security needs. However, each nation's quest for security-through military buildups, alliances, or territorial defenses—necessarily unsettles other nations. These nations react to feelings of insecurity by engaging in their own aggressive actions, which leads other nations to react similarly, perpetuating the cycle.

It is important to note that for realists, unlike idealists or liberal internationalists, international conflict is a necessary consequence of the structural anarchy that nations find themselves in. Whereas other schools may see international conflict as the result of evil dictators, historical chance, flawed socio political systems, or ignorance of world affairs, classical realists see war as the logical result of a system that by its nature lacks a true central authority.

Hand in hand with this view of conflict as an inevitable condition of the global power structure is the realists' view ofthe nation as a unitary actor. Because classical realists see international relations as a continuing struggle for dominance, the nation can not be viewed as a collection of individuals with disparate wants, goals, and ideologies. The realist view requires the formulation of a national interest, which in its simplest terms refers to the nation's ability to survive, maintain its security, and achieve some level of power relative to its competitors.

Realism is not without its critics, many of whom challenge the premise that war is the natural condition of international relations or that there can be a truly national interest. However, the realist school of international relations continues to shape foreign policy because ofthe successes it has had in describing real world interactions between nations.

 

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that members ofthe classical realist school would be LEAST likely to support.​

Solution:

This is an inference question. Because the entire passage details the classical realist school of thought, your best bet is to start with the answers. Look at each answer choice and see if you can find support for it in the passage. Because this question asks you to find the choice realists would LEAST likely support, the answers with supporting evidence are the wrong answers.

Choices A and D are supported by the passage because the second paragraph states that classical realists believe that every nation must take care of its own security needs and that war is a constant threat. Choice C is supported because the fourth power discusses the formulation of a national interest. That leaves choice B as the correct answer. The third paragraph states that realists do not believe wars can be attributed to "flawed socio political systems," so trying to increase security by sending humanitarian aid would probably not be supported by classical realists.

QUESTION: 51

Passage 1

The classical realist theory of international relations has long dominated both academic institutions and the American government. Even at the birth of the nation, early political thinkers, such as Alexander Hamilton, promoted a realist view of international relations and sought to influence the actions of the government based on this perspective. While the classical realist school of international relations is not entirely homogeneous in nature, there are certain premises that all classical realists share.

The primary principle underlying classical realism is a concern with issues of war and peace. Specifically, classical realists ask, what are the causes of war and what are the conditions of peace? The members of the classical realist school mainly attribute war and conflict to what is termed the security dilemma. In the absence ofany prevailing global authority, each nation is required to address its own security needs. However, each nation's quest for security-through military buildups, alliances, or territorial defenses—necessarily unsettles other nations. These nations react to feelings of insecurity by engaging in their own aggressive actions, which leads other nations to react similarly, perpetuating the cycle.

It is important to note that for realists, unlike idealists or liberal internationalists, international conflict is a necessary consequence of the structural anarchy that nations find themselves in. Whereas other schools may see international conflict as the result of evil dictators, historical chance, flawed socio political systems, or ignorance of world affairs, classical realists see war as the logical result of a system that by its nature lacks a true central authority.

Hand in hand with this view of conflict as an inevitable condition of the global power structure is the realists' view ofthe nation as a unitary actor. Because classical realists see international relations as a continuing struggle for dominance, the nation can not be viewed as a collection of individuals with disparate wants, goals, and ideologies. The realist view requires the formulation of a national interest, which in its simplest terms refers to the nation's ability to survive, maintain its security, and achieve some level of power relative to its competitors.

Realism is not without its critics, many of whom challenge the premise that war is the natural condition of international relations or that there can be a truly national interest. However, the realist school of international relations continues to shape foreign policy because ofthe successes it has had in describing real world interactions between nations.

 

Q. Which of the following, if true, would best support the classical realist theory of international conflict as it is described in the passage?​

Solution:

This is an apply information question. In order to answer it, you must first go to the passage to understand the theory of conflict. This information is found in the second paragraph: "In the absence of any prevailing global authority, each nation is required to address its own security needs." Next, you have to figure out which choice best supports this view. Choice A doesn't do much. The classical realist school isn't concerned with the actions of dictators. Choice B seems to hurt the theory. It states that there is a prevailing global authority and yet conflict continues.

Choice C just states that war is a persistent problem, but it doesn't address the causes of it, so this choice doesn't necessarily support the theory. Choice D does support the theory because it shows that the presence of a global authority reduces war. Remember, the realist view argued that the lack of a global authority led to war, so the presence of a global authority should reduce war. That is what choice D states.

QUESTION: 52

Passage 1

The classical realist theory of international relations has long dominated both academic institutions and the American government. Even at the birth of the nation, early political thinkers, such as Alexander Hamilton, promoted a realist view of international relations and sought to influence the actions of the government based on this perspective. While the classical realist school of international relations is not entirely homogeneous in nature, there are certain premises that all classical realists share.

The primary principle underlying classical realism is a concern with issues of war and peace. Specifically, classical realists ask, what are the causes of war and what are the conditions of peace? The members of the classical realist school mainly attribute war and conflict to what is termed the security dilemma. In the absence ofany prevailing global authority, each nation is required to address its own security needs. However, each nation's quest for security-through military buildups, alliances, or territorial defenses—necessarily unsettles other nations. These nations react to feelings of insecurity by engaging in their own aggressive actions, which leads other nations to react similarly, perpetuating the cycle.

It is important to note that for realists, unlike idealists or liberal internationalists, international conflict is a necessary consequence of the structural anarchy that nations find themselves in. Whereas other schools may see international conflict as the result of evil dictators, historical chance, flawed socio political systems, or ignorance of world affairs, classical realists see war as the logical result of a system that by its nature lacks a true central authority.

Hand in hand with this view of conflict as an inevitable condition of the global power structure is the realists' view ofthe nation as a unitary actor. Because classical realists see international relations as a continuing struggle for dominance, the nation can not be viewed as a collection of individuals with disparate wants, goals, and ideologies. The realist view requires the formulation of a national interest, which in its simplest terms refers to the nation's ability to survive, maintain its security, and achieve some level of power relative to its competitors.

Realism is not without its critics, many of whom challenge the premise that war is the natural condition of international relations or that there can be a truly national interest. However, the realist school of international relations continues to shape foreign policy because ofthe successes it has had in describing real world interactions between nations.

 

Q. According to the passage, the formation of a national interest serves what function in the classical realist theory of war and peace?

Solution:

This is a supporting idea question. Go back to the part of the passage that discusses "national interest." The answer to this question is in the fourth paragraph, where the author states "Because classical realists see international relations as a continuing struggle for dominance, the nation can not be viewed as a collection of individuals with disparate wants, goals, and ideologies.

The realist view requires the formulation of a national interest..." Thus, in order for the theory to work, there must be the idea of a national interest. This is what choice B states. Choices A and D are not supported. Choice C is not close enough, since there is no mention of relative importance.

QUESTION: 53

Passage 1

The classical realist theory of international relations has long dominated both academic institutions and the American government. Even at the birth of the nation, early political thinkers, such as Alexander Hamilton, promoted a realist view of international relations and sought to influence the actions of the government based on this perspective. While the classical realist school of international relations is not entirely homogeneous in nature, there are certain premises that all classical realists share.

The primary principle underlying classical realism is a concern with issues of war and peace. Specifically, classical realists ask, what are the causes of war and what are the conditions of peace? The members of the classical realist school mainly attribute war and conflict to what is termed the security dilemma. In the absence ofany prevailing global authority, each nation is required to address its own security needs. However, each nation's quest for security-through military buildups, alliances, or territorial defenses—necessarily unsettles other nations. These nations react to feelings of insecurity by engaging in their own aggressive actions, which leads other nations to react similarly, perpetuating the cycle.

It is important to note that for realists, unlike idealists or liberal internationalists, international conflict is a necessary consequence of the structural anarchy that nations find themselves in. Whereas other schools may see international conflict as the result of evil dictators, historical chance, flawed socio political systems, or ignorance of world affairs, classical realists see war as the logical result of a system that by its nature lacks a true central authority.

Hand in hand with this view of conflict as an inevitable condition of the global power structure is the realists' view ofthe nation as a unitary actor. Because classical realists see international relations as a continuing struggle for dominance, the nation can not be viewed as a collection of individuals with disparate wants, goals, and ideologies. The realist view requires the formulation of a national interest, which in its simplest terms refers to the nation's ability to survive, maintain its security, and achieve some level of power relative to its competitors.

Realism is not without its critics, many of whom challenge the premise that war is the natural condition of international relations or that there can be a truly national interest. However, the realist school of international relations continues to shape foreign policy because ofthe successes it has had in describing real world interactions between nations.

 

Q. The author most likely regards the classical realist theory of international relations with 

Solution:

This is a tone question. Some tone questions require you to consider the passage as a whole, while some ask about a specific part.

This is a more general tone question. The passage describes the classical realist view and the author ends by stating that the theory has had "successes" in describing relations in the world. Thus, the tone must be somewhat positive.

QUESTION: 54

Passage 2

After the end of World War II, a pervasive, but unfortunately fallacious, economic perspective took hold. Based on the United States' successful emergence from the Depression, the idea that war was good for an economy became fashionable. However, linking the United States economic recovery with its entry into World War II is a prime example offlawed economic thinking.

Supporters of the war benefits economy theory hold that a country at war is a country with a booming economy. Industry must produce weapons, supplies, food, and clothing for the troops. The increased production necessitates the hiring of more people, reducing unemployment. More employment means more money in the pockets of citizens, who are then likely to go out and spend that money, helping the retail sector of the economy. Retail shops experience an increase in business and may need to hire more workers, further reducing unemployment and adding to the economic momentum. While this scenario sounds good in theory, it does not accurately represent what truly happens in a war time economy.

In reality, the government can fund a war in a combination of three ways. It can raise taxes, cut spending on other areas, or increase the national debt. Each of these strategies has a negative impact on the economy. An increase in taxes takes money out of an individual's hands, leading to a reduction in consumer spending.

Clearly, there is no net benefit to the economy in that case. Cutting spending in other areas has its costs as well, even if they are not as obvious.

Any reduction in government spending means the imposition of a greater burden on the benefactors of that government spending. Cutbacks in a particular program mean that the people who normally depend on that program now must spend more of their money to make up for the government cuts. This also takes money out of consumers' hands and leaves the economy depressed. Of course, a government could go into debt during the war, but such a strategy simply means that at some point in the future, taxes must be increased or spending decreased. Plus, the interest on the debt must be paid as well.

 

Q. The "pervasive...economic perspective" mentioned in line 1 took hold because

Solution:

This is a supporting idea question. The question tells you exactly where to look to find the answer: the first few lines ofthe passage. The passage states "Based on the United States' successful emergence from the Depression, the idea that war was good for an economy became fashionable. However, linking the United States economic recovery with its entry into World War II is a prime example of flawed economic thinking." This means that people incorrectly believed that entrance into war and economic recovery were linked. Choice A states this.

Choices B AND D are not stated at all in the passage. Choice C quotes the wrong part of the passage and doesn't answer the question.

QUESTION: 55

Passage 2

After the end of World War II, a pervasive, but unfortunately fallacious, economic perspective took hold. Based on the United States' successful emergence from the Depression, the idea that war was good for an economy became fashionable. However, linking the United States economic recovery with its entry into World War II is a prime example offlawed economic thinking.

Supporters of the war benefits economy theory hold that a country at war is a country with a booming economy. Industry must produce weapons, supplies, food, and clothing for the troops. The increased production necessitates the hiring of more people, reducing unemployment. More employment means more money in the pockets of citizens, who are then likely to go out and spend that money, helping the retail sector of the economy. Retail shops experience an increase in business and may need to hire more workers, further reducing unemployment and adding to the economic momentum. While this scenario sounds good in theory, it does not accurately represent what truly happens in a war time economy.

In reality, the government can fund a war in a combination of three ways. It can raise taxes, cut spending on other areas, or increase the national debt. Each of these strategies has a negative impact on the economy. An increase in taxes takes money out of an individual's hands, leading to a reduction in consumer spending.

Clearly, there is no net benefit to the economy in that case. Cutting spending in other areas has its costs as well, even if they are not as obvious.

Any reduction in government spending means the imposition of a greater burden on the benefactors of that government spending. Cutbacks in a particular program mean that the people who normally depend on that program now must spend more of their money to make up for the government cuts. This also takes money out of consumers' hands and leaves the economy depressed. Of course, a government could go into debt during the war, but such a strategy simply means that at some point in the future, taxes must be increased or spending decreased. Plus, the interest on the debt must be paid as well.

 

Q. Which of the following situations best mirrors the effect that cutting spending in government programs has, as detailed in the passage?

Solution:

This is an apply information question. You have to see what the passage says about cutting spending, then match that information with one of the answers. According to the passage, "Cutbacks in a particular program mean that the people who normally depend on that program now must spend more of their money to make up for the government cuts." Answer choice E matches this.

Cutbacks in food safety inspection lead to illnesses and people have to spend money they would otherwise not have to in order to compensate.

Choice A seems to indicate private construction companies would benefit from the cutbacks, which is not what the passage says.

Choice B is close, but it doesn't say that sending the children to a different school costs people more money. Choice C also seems to detail a potential benefit.

QUESTION: 56

Passage 2

After the end of World War II, a pervasive, but unfortunately fallacious, economic perspective took hold. Based on the United States' successful emergence from the Depression, the idea that war was good for an economy became fashionable. However, linking the United States economic recovery with its entry into World War II is a prime example offlawed economic thinking.

Supporters of the war benefits economy theory hold that a country at war is a country with a booming economy. Industry must produce weapons, supplies, food, and clothing for the troops. The increased production necessitates the hiring of more people, reducing unemployment. More employment means more money in the pockets of citizens, who are then likely to go out and spend that money, helping the retail sector of the economy. Retail shops experience an increase in business and may need to hire more workers, further reducing unemployment and adding to the economic momentum. While this scenario sounds good in theory, it does not accurately represent what truly happens in a war time economy.

In reality, the government can fund a war in a combination of three ways. It can raise taxes, cut spending on other areas, or increase the national debt. Each of these strategies has a negative impact on the economy. An increase in taxes takes money out of an individual's hands, leading to a reduction in consumer spending.

Clearly, there is no net benefit to the economy in that case. Cutting spending in other areas has its costs as well, even if they are not as obvious.

Any reduction in government spending means the imposition of a greater burden on the benefactors of that government spending. Cutbacks in a particular program mean that the people who normally depend on that program now must spend more of their money to make up for the government cuts. This also takes money out of consumers' hands and leaves the economy depressed. Of course, a government could go into debt during the war, but such a strategy simply means that at some point in the future, taxes must be increased or spending decreased. Plus, the interest on the debt must be paid as well.

 

Q. The passage implies which of the following about a government that funds a war by increasing the national debt?

Solution:

This is an inference question. You can find the answer in the final paragraph, where the author says "Of course 

a government could go into debt during the war, but such a strategy simply means that at some point in the future, taxes must be increased or spending decreased. Plus, the interest on the debt must be paid as well."

Choice A is the opposite of what the passage states—going into debt means not only will the government have to deal with the problems associated with increasing taxes or cutting spending, but it must also pay the interest on the debt.

Choice Bisa better answer. In the short term, the government doesn't have the problems associated with the other two solutions, but must face those problems, plus interest payments, in the future.

Choice C goes too far because it is not clear that a government "must" increase taxes. The passage says spending could be decreased.

Choice D makes an extreme and unsupported claim because the author doesn't say the economy "will not recover" unless certain actions are taken.

QUESTION: 57

Passage 2

After the end of World War II, a pervasive, but unfortunately fallacious, economic perspective took hold. Based on the United States' successful emergence from the Depression, the idea that war was good for an economy became fashionable. However, linking the United States economic recovery with its entry into World War II is a prime example offlawed economic thinking.

Supporters of the war benefits economy theory hold that a country at war is a country with a booming economy. Industry must produce weapons, supplies, food, and clothing for the troops. The increased production necessitates the hiring of more people, reducing unemployment. More employment means more money in the pockets of citizens, who are then likely to go out and spend that money, helping the retail sector of the economy. Retail shops experience an increase in business and may need to hire more workers, further reducing unemployment and adding to the economic momentum. While this scenario sounds good in theory, it does not accurately represent what truly happens in a war time economy.

In reality, the government can fund a war in a combination of three ways. It can raise taxes, cut spending on other areas, or increase the national debt. Each of these strategies has a negative impact on the economy. An increase in taxes takes money out of an individual's hands, leading to a reduction in consumer spending.

Clearly, there is no net benefit to the economy in that case. Cutting spending in other areas has its costs as well, even if they are not as obvious.

Any reduction in government spending means the imposition of a greater burden on the benefactors of that government spending. Cutbacks in a particular program mean that the people who normally depend on that program now must spend more of their money to make up for the government cuts. This also takes money out of consumers' hands and leaves the economy depressed. Of course, a government could go into debt during the war, but such a strategy simply means that at some point in the future, taxes must be increased or spending decreased. Plus, the interest on the debt must be paid as well.

 

Q. The second paragraph of the passage performs which of the following functions?   

Solution:

This is a logical structure question. The second paragraph describes why people might believe war is good for an economy. Choice A doesn't work because the paragraph doesn't describes what happens during a war, it describe what happens in "theory." Choice B is incorrect because the information is not "necessary" to understand the third paragraph. Choice C is no good because the paragraph isn't even about the US economy.

QUESTION: 58

What are the values of x for which (x + 2)(x + 3) >, 0 holds true?

Solution:

Take random number in each option and solve for x. Eliminate those which fail in holding given inequality true.

QUESTION: 59

If the sum of three consecutive even integers is 90, what is the largest of these integers?

Solution:

Three consecutive even integers are, 2x, 2x + 2, 2x + 4
Sum = 90
2x + 2x + 2 + 2x + 4 = 90
6x + 6 = 90
6x = 84
x = 84 / 6
x = 14
2x = 28, 2x + 2 = 30, 2x + 4 = 32

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Higher altitudes = colder atmosphere = less biodiversity.

QUESTION: 61

If the square root of a number is greater than that number, then that number could be

Solution:

For any number between 0 and 1, its square root is greater than that number.

QUESTION: 62

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Following graph shown milk production, in thousand liters from 2005 to 2010.

 

Q. The increase in production in 2006-07 is what percentage of increase in 2005-06?

Solution:

Both values are equal = 20 units so it is 100%

QUESTION: 63

Following graph shown milk production, in thousand liters from 2005 to 2010.

 

Q. Which year production is 50% of the sum of production of 2007 and 2009?

Solution:

sum of production = 130 + 120 = 250 50% of sum = 125

QUESTION: 64

Following graph shown milk production, in thousand liters from 2005 to 2010.

 

Q. Ratio of Sum of production during 'odd' years to that of the 'even' years?

Solution:

Production during odd years = 90+130 +120 = 340 Production during even years = 110+85 + 125 = 320 Ratio is 340/320 = 17:16

QUESTION: 65

Following graph shown milk production, in thousand liters from 2005 to 2010.

 

Q. How many years production is more than the average production?

Solution:

Total production of all years = 660 Average = 660/6 = 110

Question is to find out more than so case with 110 value will not be included.

QUESTION: 66

-1 - [-1(-1) + 1] / -1(-1 -1) =

Solution:

The correct option is D.
-1(-1-1)
According to BODMAS rule we need to solve bracket first so,
-1(-2)
-1*-2= +2 and there is only single option with denominator PLUS 2

QUESTION: 67

Length of side of a cube is given by 2x - 1. What will be volume of that cube?

Solution:

Volume of cube = side3 = (2x - 1)3

QUESTION: 68

Which property is illustrated by the equation (a + b) + c = c + (a + b) ?

Solution:

Associative Property of Addition
For any real numbers a, b, and c, (a + b) + c = a + (b + c). The example below shows how the associative property can be used to simplify expressions with real numbers.
 

QUESTION: 69

Given sets 4 = {1,2,3,4,5,6}, B = {2,4,6,8} and C= {2,3,4,5}, what is the intersection of the three sets?

Solution:

Intersection of all three sets will have all elements present in all of them.

QUESTION: 70

If one multiplies an inequality by any negative number, then what happens?  

Solution:

If one multiplies an inequality by any negative number, then inequality always reverses
Eg : -x ≤ 12 
Multiply both sides by '-1'
-1 (-x) ≥ -1(-12)
x≥ -12

QUESTION: 71

Directions for the following 3 (three) questions:

Study the following graph and answer the question given below-

 

Q. if imports get double each year. What is ratio between exports of 2012 with exports of 2010?

Solution:

Assume imports of 2010 as 100.
That means imports of 2012 will be 400.
From given graph, exports of 2010 will be 2.5 x 100 = 250 Exports of 2012 = 1.5 x 400 = 600 So ratio = 600/250 = 12:5

QUESTION: 72

Study the following graph and answer the question given below-

 

Q. If imports remain constant throughout all years. Exports of 2013 are how much percent of exports of 2011?

Solution:

Say constant imports as 100.

Exports of 2013 = 500 Exports of 2011 = 400

500 = x% of 400 will give x as 125

QUESTION: 73

Study the following graph and answer the question given below-

 

Q. If government charges 20% on single unit of exports and also 20% of single unit of imports. Which year will see maximum and minimum collection of revenues?

Solution:

As only ratio between exports and imports is given in graph and not actual values, maximum and minimum revenues can not be determined.

QUESTION: 74

Directions for the following 7 (seven) questions:

The following five items are based on two passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.

Passage 1

If I had been asked in my early youth whether I preferred to have dealings only with men or only with books, my answer would certainly have been in favour of books. In later years this has become less and less the case. Not that I have had so much better experiences with men than with books; on the contrary, purely delightful books even now come my way more often than purely delightful men. But the many bad experiences with men have nourished the meadow of my life as the noblest book could not do.

 

Q.The author says that in later years his love of books diminished because​

Solution:

The correct answer is D as The author says that in later years his love of books diminished because​Even the bad experiences he had with men were more valuable than what the noblest book could give.moreover he has more experience with the man as compare to books .

QUESTION: 75

Passage 1

If I had been asked in my early youth whether I preferred to have dealings only with men or only with books, my answer would certainly have been in favour of books. In later years this has become less and less the case. Not that I have had so much better experiences with men than with books; on the contrary, purely delightful books even now come my way more often than purely delightful men. But the many bad experiences with men have nourished the meadow of my life as the noblest book could not do.

 

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the main argument of the passage?   

Solution:

The correct answer is 'It is the experience with other human beings that nourishes one's life and not necessarily books'. Purely delightful books come in the way more often than purely delightful men. But the many bad experiences with men nourishes the meadow of life as the noblest book could not do.

QUESTION: 76

Passage 1

If I had been asked in my early youth whether I preferred to have dealings only with men or only with books, my answer would certainly have been in favour of books. In later years this has become less and less the case. Not that I have had so much better experiences with men than with books; on the contrary, purely delightful books even now come my way more often than purely delightful men. But the many bad experiences with men have nourished the meadow of my life as the noblest book could not do.

 

Q. Which one of the pairs of phrases best helps to bring out the metaphorical meaning of ‘the meadow of my life'?

Solution:

The metaphorical meaning of 'the meadow of my life' is vast and rich life.

QUESTION: 77

Passage 2

Do not study too long at once. So long as the mind works with ease, it may be allowed to continue working but if we find it moves slowly and extra trouble is needed to keep the attention fixed, it is far better to break off and take a walk or have some other recreation, that to go on plodding until one feels wholly exhausted. To continue to force the mind to work is likely to lead to injurious result and may end in a nervous breakdown from which recovery is slow and troublesome.

 

Q. The writer suggests that the main cause of nervous breakdown is

Solution:

The correct option is Option C.
Continuing to force the mind to work is likely to lead to injurious results and may also end in a nervous breakdown from which recovery is slow and troublesome.

QUESTION: 78

Passage 2

Do not study too long at once. So long as the mind works with ease, it may be allowed to continue working but if we find it moves slowly and extra trouble is needed to keep the attention fixed, it is far better to break off and take a walk or have some other recreation, that to go on plodding until one feels wholly exhausted. To continue to force the mind to work is likely to lead to injurious result and may end in a nervous breakdown from which recovery is slow and troublesome.

 

Q. A man feels that he is exhausted when

Solution:

A man feels that he is exhausted when one finds it difficult to concentrate. As long as the mind works with ease, it may be allowed to continue working but if we find it moves slowly and extra trouble is needed to keep the attention fixed, it is far better to break off and take a walk or have some other recreation, that to go on plodding until one feels wholly exhausted.

QUESTION: 79

Passage 2

Do not study too long at once. So long as the mind works with ease, it may be allowed to continue working but if we find it moves slowly and extra trouble is needed to keep the attention fixed, it is far better to break off and take a walk or have some other recreation, that to go on plodding until one feels wholly exhausted. To continue to force the mind to work is likely to lead to injurious result and may end in a nervous breakdown from which recovery is slow and troublesome.

 

Q. The underlying tone of the passage is that​

Solution:

An injury to the mind is more difficult to cure than an injury to any other part of the body. It is far better to break off and take a walk or have some other recreation, than to go on plodding until one feels wholly exhausted. To continue to force the mind to work is likely to lead to injurious results and may end in a nervous breakdown from which recovery is slow and troublesome.

QUESTION: 80

Passage 2

Do not study too long at once. So long as the mind works with ease, it may be allowed to continue working but if we find it moves slowly and extra trouble is needed to keep the attention fixed, it is far better to break off and take a walk or have some other recreation, that to go on plodding until one feels wholly exhausted. To continue to force the mind to work is likely to lead to injurious result and may end in a nervous breakdown from which recovery is slow and troublesome.

 

Q. While making the observation "Do not study too long", the author suggests that

Solution:

C is the correct option. By saying that "Do not study too long",the author is definitely suggesting that doing mental work beyond a certain limit may cause serious injury to the man.