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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 5 (July 29, 2021)

80 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 5 (July 29, 2021)

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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 5 (July 29, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 80 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 5 (July 29, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 5 (July 29, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 5 (July 29, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 5 (July 29, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Arijit and Brajesh, working together, can complete a task in 10 days, whereas Brajesh and Chandan can finish the same job in 15 days working together. If Arijit works for 5 days and Brajesh works for 8 days, it takes Chandan 9 days to complete the rest of the task. How many days will Chandan take to finish the same job alone?

Solution:

Let us assume that working alone Arijit completes the task in ‘a’ days, Brajesh completes in ‘b’ days and Chandan completes in ‘c’ days.
1/a + 1/b = 1/10      ...........(1)
1/b + 1/c = 1/15 ............ (2)
It is also given that:
5/a + 8/b + 9/c = 1
Or 5(1/a + 1/b) + 3(1/b + 1/c) + 6/c = 1
Using (1) and (2),
5/10 + 3/15 + 6/c = 1
Or 6/c = 1 - ½ - 1/5 = 3/10
Or  c = 20.
Chandan can finish the task alone in 20 days.

QUESTION: 2

Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:  One pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of students (Boys and Girls) enrolled for different activities in School A, and the other pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of girls enrolled for different activities in School A. Q. ​The total number of boy students enrolled in dancing and singing together is approximate what percentage of the total number of girl students enrolled for the same activities?

Solution:

The correct option is C.
Total no. of students enrolled for dancing = 2500*18/100 = 450
Total no. of students enrolled for singing = 2500*14/100 = 350
Total no. of girls enrolled for dancing = 1200*21/100 = 252
Total no. of girls enrolled for singing = 1200*12/100 = 144
Total no. of boys enrolled for dancing = 450 - 252 = 198
Total no. of boys enrolled for singing = 350 - 144 = 206
Required percentage =[(198+206)/(252+144)]*100 = 102.2%

QUESTION: 3

Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:  One pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of students (Boys and Girls) enrolled for different activities in School A, and the other pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of girls enrolled for different activities in School A. Q. Find the ratio of the total number of boy students enrolled for dancing and swimming together to that of girl students enrolled for drawing and karate together.

Solution:

The correct option is C.
Total no. of children enrolled for dancing = 2500*18/100 = 450
Total no. of girls enrolled for dancing = 1200*21/100 =252
Total no. of boys enrolled for dancing = 450 - 252 = 198

Total no. of children enrolled for swimming = 2500*16/100 = 400
Total no.of girls enrolled for swimming = 1200*23/100 = 276
Total no of boys enrolled for swimming = 400 - 276 = 124

Total no. of boys enrolled for swimming and dancing together = 198+124 = 322
The total no.of girls enrolled for drawing  and karate together = 1200*44/100 = 528
Required ratio = 322:528 = 161:264

QUESTION: 4

Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:

One pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of students (Boys and Girls) enrolled for different activities in School A, and the other pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of girls enrolled for different activities in School A.

Q. The total number of students enrolled in singing and swimming together is approximate what percentage more/less than the total number of girl students enrolled for dancing, drawing and karate together?

Solution:

4 % less

QUESTION: 5

Q. Which of the following is important for making copies of humans?

Solution:

According to the passage it’s important to isolate cognitive modules and connect them to modules from other uploaded minds for making copies of humans.

QUESTION: 6

1. It helps humans to be more economically productive.
2. Same type of persons lives in a community that will decrease the conflict of Interests.
3. Every human will have same capability.

Solution:

According to author if anyone isn’t productive then they upload the specific module. So, it helps to be more economically productive.

QUESTION: 7

P is Q’s sister. Q is married to R. S is the daughter of Q and R. How is S related to P?

Solution:

As shown in the picture above, S is the niece of P.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 8

In a certain coding language, HENCE is coded as FGLEC. What shall THERE be in that code?

Solution:

The code can be explained as:
H -2 → F
E + 2 → G
N - 2 → L
C + 2 → E
E – 2 → C
So, THERE can be coded as: T – 2 → R
H + 2 → J
E -2 → C
R + 2 → T
E – 2 → C
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 9

If a man cycles at 10 kmph, he arrives at his office at 1 PM. If he cycles at 15 kmph he will arrive at his office at 11 AM. At what speed must he cycle to get to the office at noon?

Solution:

He started the journey at 7 AM.
To get there at noon, he must cycle at 60/5 = 12 km/hr.

QUESTION: 10

Anjali is as much younger to Vijaya as Tanya is younger to Anjali. If the sum of the ages of Vijaya and Tanya is 48, how old is Anjali?

Solution:

Let the age of Anjali = x years.
And, let the difference in the ages of Anjali and Vijaya = a years.
Age of Vijaya = x + a years
Age of Tanya = x – a years
As given in the question, sum of ages of Vijaya and Tanya = 48
(x – a)  + (x + a) = 48
or  2x = 48
or x = 24 years.
Age of Anjali = x = 24 years
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 11

Biodiversity is the living fabric of our planet. It underpins human well-being in the present and in the future, and its rapid decline threatens nature and people alike. According to reports released in 2018 by the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), the main global drivers of biodiversity loss are climate change, invasive species, over-exploitation of natural resources, pollution and urbanization .Biodiversity loss implies the reduction and disappearance of species and genetic diversity and the degradation of ecosystems. It jeopardizes nature‘s vital contributions to humanity, endangering economies, livelihoods, food security, cultural diversity and quality of life, and constitutes a major threat to global peace and security. Biodiversity loss also disproportionally affects the most vulnerable exacerbating inequality .To halt or reverse this decline it is vital to transform people‘s roles, actions and relationships with biodiversity. This transformation has already begun with the commitment of the international community to the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of Agenda 2030. This global and holistic framework highlights the complex interconnections and interdependencies between society, biodiversity and sustainable development. It recognizes that human behaviour, values and choices shape people‘s interactions with biodiversity, all of which have a direct impact on our collective future on the planet. Awareness and appreciation of the diverse values of biodiversity need to be further amplified and mainstreamed within this global framework in order to transform human behaviour in favour of biodiversity conservation and its sustainable use. Many solutions exist for stopping and reversing the decline in biodiversity. UNESCO‘s diverse networks, programmes and partners have observed positive and inspiring seeds of change around the world. UNESCO also accompanies Member States and their people in their efforts to halt biodiversity loss by understanding, appreciating, safeguarding and using biodiversity sustainably. This publication highlights some of UNESCO‘s biodiversity-related actions and solutions, based on the Organization‘s unique mandate and its diverse normative instruments, networks, programmes and partners. These actions have reduced biodiversity loss and improved the lives of many people around the planet. For each thematic challenge, the publication highlights current actions and solutions that have been successfully implemented, as well as suggestions for improvement and innovation.

Q. Regarding biodiversity which of the following is correct?

1. Biodiversity loss has minimal effect on the well-being of humans.

2. Climate change results in the reduction and disappearance of species. Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect : Biodiversity loss has a significant effect on the wellbeing of humans. It jeopardizes nature’s vital contributions to humanity, endangering economies, livelihoods, food security, cultural diversity and quality of life, and constitutes a major threat to global peace and security.

Statement 2 is correct : As explained in the following lines, “According to reports released in 2018 by the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), the main global drivers of biodiversity loss are climate change, invasive species, over-exploitation of natural resources, pollution and urbanization “ climate change is one of the key driving reason for biodiversity loss.

QUESTION: 12

Biodiversity is the living fabric of our planet. It underpins human well-being in the present and in the future, and its rapid decline threatens nature and people alike. According to reports released in 2018 by the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), the main global drivers of biodiversity loss are climate change, invasive species, over-exploitation of natural resources, pollution and urbanization .Biodiversity loss implies the reduction and disappearance of species and genetic diversity and the degradation of ecosystems. It jeopardizes nature‘s vital contributions to humanity, endangering economies, livelihoods, food security, cultural diversity and quality of life, and constitutes a major threat to global peace and security. Biodiversity loss also disproportionally affects the most vulnerable exacerbating inequality .To halt or reverse this decline it is vital to transform people‘s roles, actions and relationships with biodiversity. This transformation has already begun with the commitment of the international community to the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of Agenda 2030. This global and holistic framework highlights the complex interconnections and interdependencies between society, biodiversity and sustainable development. It recognizes that human behaviour, values and choices shape people‘s interactions with biodiversity, all of which have a direct impact on our collective future on the planet. Awareness and appreciation of the diverse values of biodiversity need to be further amplified and mainstreamed within this global framework in order to transform human behaviour in favour of biodiversity conservation and its sustainable use. Many solutions exist for stopping and reversing the decline in biodiversity. UNESCO‘s diverse networks, programmes and partners have observed positive and inspiring seeds of change around the world. UNESCO also accompanies Member States and their people in their efforts to halt biodiversity loss by understanding, appreciating, safeguarding and using biodiversity sustainably. This publication highlights some of UNESCO‘s biodiversity-related actions and solutions, based on the Organization‘s unique mandate and its diverse normative instruments, networks, programmes and partners. These actions have reduced biodiversity loss and improved the lives of many people around the planet. For each thematic challenge, the publication highlights current actions and solutions that have been successfully implemented, as well as suggestions for improvement and innovation.

Q. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Option (a) is correct : Refer these lines from the passage, “UNESCO’s diverse networks, programmes and partners have observed positive and inspiring seeds of change around the world. UNESCO also accompanies Member States and their people in their efforts to halt biodiversity loss by understanding, appreciating, safeguarding and using biodiversity sustainably” These lines mention the achievements attained by UNESCO in tackling the problems.

Option (b) is correct : Refer these lines, “It recognizes that human behaviour, values and choices shape people’s interactions with biodiversity, all of which have a direct impact on our collective future on the planet .Awareness and appreciation of the diverse values of biodiversity need to be further amplified and mainstreamed within this global framework in order to transform human behaviour in favour of biodiversity conservation and its sustainable use.” The statement is directly mentioned in these lines.

Option (c) is incorrect : Refer the following lines, “According to reports released in 2018 by the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), the main global drivers of biodiversity loss are climate change, invasive species, over-exploitation of natural resources, pollution and urbanization” Climate change is a cause of biodiversity loss, not its effect. Hence it is wrong.

QUESTION: 13

Cybercrime is an evolving form of transnational crime. The complex nature of the crime as one that takes place in the border-less realm of cyberspace is compounded by the increasing involvement of organized crime groups. Perpetrators of cybercrime and their victims can be located in different regions, and its effects can ripple through societies around the world, highlighting the need to mount an urgent, dynamic and international response.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Solution:

(a) is correct as the passage highlights the complex nature of cybercrime and then shows the need of an international response which is urgent and dynamic. Hence, (a) is the most logical and rational inference from the passage.
(b) is incorrect as the passage does not say that controlling cybercrime has become impossible in the current situation.
(c) is incorrect as the passage does not talk about international policing systems to track cyber criminals.
(d) is incorrect as the passage does not discuss the presence of sensitive information in the cyberspace.

QUESTION: 14

There are three classes A, B and C with a certain number of students in each of them.In a given test, the performance of the students of various classes is measured. It is found that the average mark of Class A students is 80. The average mark of Class B students is 71. The average mark of Class C students is 82. If the average mark of Class A and B students combined is 75, and the average mark of Class B and C students is 77, then the average mark of the three classes is?

Solution:

So, the ratio of students of A to B is 4 : 5
And the ratio of students of B to C is 5 : 6
Now, A : B : C = 4 : 5 : 6
So, average of all the classes

QUESTION: 15

Collective bargaining is a key means through which employers and their organizations and trade unions can establish fair wages and working conditions. It also provides the basis for sound labour relations. Typical issues on the bargaining agenda include wages, working time, training, occupational health and safety and equal treatment. The objective of these negotiations is to arrive at a collective agreement that regulates terms and conditions of employment. Collective agreements may also address the rights and responsibilities of the parties thus ensuring harmonious and productive industries and workplaces.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Solution:

(a) is incorrect as the passage does not guarantee solving all problems of industrial productivity and harmony through collective bargaining.
(b) is correct as the passage discusses the benefits of collective bargaining and how they ultimately ensure harmonious (coordination) and productive (sufficient output) industries. Hence, it is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the passage.
(c) is incorrect as the passage does not put the complete responsibility of sufficient wages for labour on collective bargaining.
(d) is incorrect as the passage does not say that collective bargaining is irrelevant at all, it says that it is very helpful in many ways.

QUESTION: 16

​Much has been said and written about what foreign direct investment (FDI) in retail can do.  Depending on which side of the ideological divide is speaking, the assertions are either that it is a magic wand to fix many big problems or that it is a destroyer of honest livelihoods, with little benefits of its own.  What is common to both sides is that they are mostly low on fact, high on opinion and generate enormous amounts of confusion.  Which is why, I think it is necessary to sift through all of the nose and look truth in the eye.  The facts, as I see it, tell us that it has become a symbolic issue, far beyond what reality demands it ought to be; and that there is no need for either great celebration or for deep despair over the idea that FDI in retail is now a reality.  My analysis tells a fairly straightforward story.
The government has hugely exaggerated the quantum and immediacy of benefits it put on the table to sell the policy-that common man will benefit enormously, employment generation will be huge, the country’s supply chain will be transformed and large numbers of small producers and farmers will gain.  As things stand, even if modern retail were to take off on all cylinders, these arguments would still not hold water for the next 10 years.
For one, there is the fact that aside from very old markets like America and Europe, in most newly developed markets, modern trade accounts for only 20-25 percent of all retail.  India is already at 8 percent-which is significant – but the impact hasn’t been as dramatic as one would have assumed.
Then there is the fact that the economics of the Indian market is such that it makes little sense for global retailers to focus on all consumers.  I am convinced they will focus their energies on the top 33 percent of urban Indian households (a mere 10 percent of all Indian households); investing in the others isn’t quite what they know how to do profitably yet.
As for small manufactures, I don’t see that huge numbers of them will benefit.  Retailers across the world like to work with a small group of select vendors because it makes for better profitability.  So yes, a small number will benefit significantly. And yes, employment will be generated.  But it won’t be anywhere close to the numbers now being touted.
Then there is the argument that encouraging modern retail to invest will provide the much-needed booster shot for the country’s dismal supply chain infrastructure.  Here again, let’s face it.  Retailers aren’t in the business of building national infrastructure.  About the only infrastructure they’d be interested in is their last mile.
The only argument that holds true is that kiranas or the small, traditional shopkeepers who are now an Indian staple, will not die. But that is a tribute to the small shopkeeper rather than prescience on the part of the government.

Q. According to the author, which of the following is not a common attribute of the arguments put forth by the pro-and anti FDI ideologues?
1. Likely to be false.
2. Judgmental.
3. Positive about FDI in retail.
4. Strongly opposed to FDI in retail.

Solution:

From the first paragraph of the passage it is clear that neither their arguments is positive about FDI in retail nor strongly opposed FDI in retail.

QUESTION: 17

​Much has been said and written about what foreign direct investment (FDI) in retail can do. Depending on which side of the ideological divide is speaking, the assertions are either that it is a magic wand to fix many big problems or that it is a destroyer of honest livelihoods, with little benefits of its own.  What is common to both sides is that they are mostly low on fact, high on opinion and generate enormous amounts of confusion.  Which is why, I think it is necessary to sift through all of the nose and look truth in the eye. The facts, as I see it, tell us that it has become a symbolic issue, far beyond what reality demands it ought to be; and that there is no need for either great celebration or for deep despair over the idea that FDI in retail is now a reality. My analysis tells a fairly straightforward story.
The government has hugely exaggerated the quantum and immediacy of benefits it put on the table to sell the policy-that common man will benefit enormously, employment generation will be huge, the country’s supply chain will be transformed and large numbers of small producers and farmers will gain. As things stand, even if modern retail were to take off on all cylinders, these arguments would still not hold water for the next 10 years.
For one, there is the fact that aside from very old markets like America and Europe, in most newly developed markets, modern trade accounts for only 20-25 percent of all retail. India is already at 8 percent-which is significant – but the impact hasn’t been as dramatic as one would have assumed.
Then there is the fact that the economics of the Indian market is such that it makes little sense for global retailers to focus on all consumers. I am convinced they will focus their energies on the top 33 percent of urban Indian households (a mere 10 percent of all Indian households); investing in the others isn’t quite what they know how to do profitably yet.
As for small manufactures, I don’t see that huge numbers of them will benefit.  Retailers across the world like to work with a small group of select vendors because it makes for better profitability.  So yes, a small number will benefit significantly. And yes, employment will be generated. But it won’t be anywhere close to the numbers now being touted.
Then there is the argument that encouraging modern retail to invest will provide the much-needed booster shot for the country’s dismal supply chain infrastructure.  Here again, let’s face it.  Retailers aren’t in the business of building national infrastructure. About the only infrastructure they’d be interested in is their last mile.
The only argument that holds true is that kiranas or the small, traditional shopkeepers who are now an Indian staple, will not die. But that is a tribute to the small shopkeeper rather than prescience on the part of the government.

Q. With which of the following about the benefits of FDI in retail would the author agree?
1. The common man may not benefit greatly.
2. Employment generation may not be that huge.
3. Farmers and small producers shall be benefited greatly.

Solution:

From the fifth paragraph of the passage it is concluded that author agreed that the common man may not benefit greatly and Employment generation may not be that huge.

QUESTION: 18

The average mark of 15 students in a CSAT test is 50. If the average mark of the first eight students is 47 and that of the last eight students is 55, then what will be the marks of the 8th student?

Solution:

Marks of 8th student = (8x47 + 8x55) - (15x50)
= (376 + 440) - 750
= 816 – 750
= 66

QUESTION: 19

A tank has two pipes – A and B, attached to it. A can fill the tank in 20 minutes, whereas pipe B can empty the tank in 30 minutes. If both A and B are opened alternately for one minute each, how long will it take to fill the tank?

Solution:

Pipe A can fill the tank in 20 minutes.
So, part of the tank filled in 1 minute = 1/20
Pipe B can empty the tank in 30 minutes.
So, part of tank emptied in 1 minute = 1/30
Part of tank filled in 2 minutes (Pipe A is opened for 1 minute and Pipe B is opened for the next 1 minute)= 1/20 – 1/30 = 1/60
Part of the tank filled in 59 × 2 = 118 minutes = 59/60.
The last 1/60th part is filled in 119th minute.
Hence, the tank is filled in around 119 minutes.
Option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 20

At a specific rate of simple interest, a sum doubles itself in 5 years. In how many years will it becomes four times itself?

Solution:

Let the principal be Rs. 100, Time = 5 years
∴ Amount = Rs. 200
Interest = (200-100) = Rs. 100

Now amount = Rs. 400
∴ Interest = (400 – 100) = Rs. 300

QUESTION: 21

Q. According to the passage, civil rights activists maintain that one disadvantage under which minority-owned businesses have traditionally had to labour is that they have

Solution:

From the first paragraph of the passage, it can be drawn that minority-owned businesses had not sufficient opportunity to secure business created by large corporations.

QUESTION: 22

Q. The passage suggests that the failure of a large business to have its bids for subcontracts result quickly in orders might cause it to

Solution:

In second paragraph of the passage , it is stated that unlike large business minority firms face potentially crippling fixed expenses on failure which implies failure of large business experience frustration but not serious financial harm.

QUESTION: 23

Q. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements about corporate response to working with minority subcontractors?

Solution:

In passage Author stated that “corporate contracts with minority businesses rose from \$77 million in 1972 to \$1.1 billion in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts with minority businesses for the early 1980‘s is estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no letup anticipated in the next decade” implies that the significant response of corporations in the 1970’s is likely to be sustained and conceivably be increased throughout the 1980’s.

QUESTION: 24

Eight professors of a college – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. Each of them belongs to a different department – Mathematics, English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Hindi, History and Geography, not necessarily in the same order.
The following information is known about the professors.
1. F, who is not from Physics department, sits third to the left of the one who is from Mathematics department.
2. Two professors sit between F and A, who is from Mathematics department.
3. The professor of English department sits to the right of A.
4. The professor of Physics department sits second to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of A or F.
5. Only professor C of History department sits between H and the one who is from the Biology department.
6. G belongs to Geography department and B belongs to Chemistry department.

Q. To which department does H belong?

Solution:

From statement 1 and 2, A belongs to Maths department and only two people sit between A and F.
From statement 3, professor of English department sits to the right of A. Seating these three professors on the table, we get:

From statement 4, the professor of Physics department sits second to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of A or F. Also, F is not from Physics department. The only way we can place the Physics department professor and B is given in the figure below:

From statement 5, only professor C of History department sits between H and the one who is from the Biology department. And from statement 6, G belongs to Geography department and B belongs to Chemistry department. Adding this information to the above figure, we get:

Clearly, H belongs to Hindi department.

QUESTION: 25

Eight professors of a college – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. Each of them belongs to a different department – Mathematics, English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Hindi, History and Geography, not necessarily in the same order.
The following information is known about the professors.
1. F, who is not from Physics department, sits third to the left of the one who is from Mathematics department.
2. Two professors sit between F and A, who is from Mathematics department.
3. The professor of English department sits to the right of A.
4. The professor of Physics department sits second to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of A or F.
5. Only professor C of History department sits between H and the one who is from the Biology department.
6. G belongs to Geography department and B belongs to Chemistry department.

Q. Who is from the English department?

Solution:

From statement 1 and 2, A belongs to Maths department and only two people sit between A and F.
From statement 3, professor of English department sits to the right of A. Seating these three professors on the table, we get:

From statement 4, the professor of Physics department sits second to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of A or F. Also, F is not from Physics department. The only way we can place the Physics department professor and B is given in the figure below:

From statement 5, only professor C of History department sits between H and the one who is from the Biology department. And from statement 6, G belongs to Geography department and B belongs to Chemistry department. Adding this information to the above figure, we get:

Apart from D and E, the departments of all the professors are known. So, The English department professor has to be either D or E.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 26

Eight professors of a college – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. Each of them belongs to a different department – Mathematics, English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Hindi, History and Geography, not necessarily in the same order.
The following information is known about the professors.
1. F, who is not from Physics department, sits third to the left of the one who is from Mathematics department.
2. Two professors sit between F and A, who is from Mathematics department.
3. The professor of English department sits to the right of A.
4. The professor of Physics department sits second to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of A or F.
5. Only professor C of History department sits between H and the one who is from the Biology department.
6. G belongs to Geography department and B belongs to Chemistry department.

Q. If professor G absents himself of the next meeting and the seating position of the remaining professors remains the same, the professor of which department shall be sitting to the immediate right of B in that meeting?

Solution:

From statement 1 and 2, A belongs to Maths department and only two people sit between A and F.
From statement 3, professor of English department sits to the right of A. Seating these three professors on the table, we get:

From statement 4, the professor of Physics department sits second to the right of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of A or F. Also, F is not from Physics department. The only way we can place the Physics department professor and B is given in the figure below:

From statement 5, only professor C of History department sits between H and the one who is from the Biology department. And from statement 6, G belongs to Geography department and B belongs to Chemistry department. Adding this information to the above figure, we get:

In the next meeting, G is absent and the position of all others is the same. In that meeting, the professor of Physics department will be to the immediate right of B.

QUESTION: 27

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U gather at P’s home to watch a one-day cricket match on TV. Each friend belongs to a different state, viz. Bihar, Goa, Haryana, Manipur, Nagaland, and Sikkim but not necessarily in the same order. Each friend has a different occupation, viz. Officer, Doctor, Teacher, Clerk, Salesman and Accountant. The one who is a Teacher belongs to Goa. The one who is a Doctor is not from Nagaland. S is a clerk, Neither R nor P is a Doctor. The one who is from Manipur is an Officer. P does not belong to Manipur. The person who belongs to Sikkim is T but is not a Doctor. Q is neither a Teacher nor a Doctor, and he is from Bihar.

Which of the following combinations is correct?

Solution:

The correct option is A.
P-teacher-Goa
q-accountant-nagaland
r-officer-manipur
s-clerk-haryana
t-salesman-sikkim
u-doctor-bihar

QUESTION: 28

A person had to multiply two numbers. Instead of multiplying by 33, the person multiplied by 51, and the product went up by 360. What is the raised product?

Solution:

51 – 33 = 18
So the number which was to be multiplied was 360/(51-33) = 360/18 = 20
So, the result would be 20 x 51 = 1020.

QUESTION: 29

What should come in place of question mark in the following number series? 2 9 21 91 447?

Solution:

2 x 2 + 5 = 91
9 x 3 – 6 = 21
21 x 4 + 7 = 91
91 x 5 – 8 = 447
447 x 6 + 9 = 2691

QUESTION: 30

Financial inclusion plays a crucial role in inclusive development and sustainable prosperity as is being increasingly recognised and acknowledged globally. Large segment of population need to be part of formal payment system and financial markets. Financial inclusion would also broaden and deepen financial savings and lead to higher economic development.
Previous initiatives: While financial sector policies in India have long been driven by the objective of increasing penetration and outreach, the goal of inclusion has eluded us. About 41 per cent of adult population remain unbanked and the number of loan account covers only 14 percent of adult population. The previous initiatives included (i) the expansion of network of cooperative banks to provide credit to agriculture and saving facilities in rural areas, (ii) nationalism of bank in 1969 and expansion of branches and (iii) creation of an elaborate framework of priority sector lending with mandated targets as part of a strategy to meet the savings and credit needs of large section of the Indian population who had no access to institutional finance. Given the sheer enormity of the challenge, however the outcomes of these efforts have so far been mixed.
Recent initiatives/out of the box approaches: Recent initiative include (i) “no frill” account for retail purpose; (ii) simplified KYC (Know Your Customer) (iii) Credit counselling centre facilities; (iv) use of NGOs and formation of SHGs; (v) Kisan credit cards service and (vi) extension of smart cards. The finance Minister in his Budget Speech of 2007-08 also laid down provision for funding of financial inclusion goals. The Rangarajan Committee also spelt out priorities for meeting financial inclusion objectives. Two of the more important approaches in the recent times included the use of technology such as smart cards and mobile telephone banking.  The potential for their spread can be vast especially in combination with banking correspondence approach launched recently.
New entry and competition: In addition, new competition and entry also play crucial roles, as is evident from the global experience. Two particular initiatives have included the role of Micro Financial Institutions (MFIs) and Non-Bank Finance Companies (NBFCs). MFI activities have surged in recent years, but has come under scrutiny and regulation. Services expanded at a fast rate, providing access on better terms than the alternatives of traditional money lenders. However, better regulation is also needed. On NBFCs, gold pawn establishment have also provided alternate access and are fast expanding in urban and semi-urban settings. As far as caps on interest rates are concerned, as in case of other products, ‘subsidies’ in the form of low interest are often an inhibitor of access to services because of rationing and misuse.
Financial Literacy: Any policy initiative seeking to afford greater access to financial services to financial services to a large segment of the population must necessarily address bridging the existing knowledge gap in financial education and literacy. Over the last decade or so, researcher all over the world, especially in the developed countries, have, therefore, started to study and explore whether individuals are wellequipped to make financial decisions. Financial education and literacy assumes urgency in any given scenario.

Q. Which of the following would be closest to the meaning of term financial inclusion?

Solution:

From the passage it is concluded that “financial inclusion” implies the provision of various financial services through formal channels to include the impoverished and deprived section of society.

QUESTION: 31

Financial inclusion plays a crucial role in inclusive development and sustainable prosperity as is being increasingly recognised and acknowledged globally. Large segment of population need to be part of formal payment system and financial markets. Financial inclusion would also broaden and deepen financial savings and lead to higher economic development.
Previous initiatives: While financial sector policies in India have long been driven by the objective of increasing penetration and outreach, the goal of inclusion has eluded us. About 41 per cent of adult population remain unbanked and the number of loan account covers only 14 percent of adult population. The previous initiatives included (i) the expansion of network of cooperative banks to provide credit to agriculture and saving facilities in rural areas, (ii) nationalism of bank in 1969 and expansion of branches and (iii) creation of an elaborate framework of priority sector lending with mandated targets as part of a strategy to meet the savings and credit needs of large section of the Indian population who had no access to institutional finance. Given the sheer enormity of the challenge, however the outcomes of these efforts have so far been mixed.
Recent initiatives/out of the box approaches: Recent initiative include (i) “no frill” account for retail purpose; (ii) simplified KYC (Know Your Customer) (iii) Credit counselling centre facilities; (iv) use of NGOs and formation of SHGs; (v) Kisan credit cards service and (vi) extension of smart cards. The finance Minister in his Budget Speech of 2007-08 also laid down provision for funding of financial inclusion goals. The Rangarajan Committee also spelt out priorities for meeting financial inclusion objectives. Two of the more important approaches in the recent times included the use of technology such as smart cards and mobile telephone banking.  The potential for their spread can be vast especially in combination with banking correspondence approach launched recently.
New entry and competition: In addition, new competition and entry also play crucial roles, as is evident from the global experience. Two particular initiatives have included the role of Micro Financial Institutions (MFIs) and Non-Bank Finance Companies (NBFCs). MFI activities have surged in recent years, but has come under scrutiny and regulation. Services expanded at a fast rate, providing access on better terms than the alternatives of traditional money lenders. However, better regulation is also needed. On NBFCs, gold pawn establishment have also provided alternate access and are fast expanding in urban and semi-urban settings. As far as caps on interest rates are concerned, as in case of other products, ‘subsidies’ in the form of low interest are often an inhibitor of access to services because of rationing and misuse.
Financial Literacy: Any policy initiative seeking to afford greater access to financial services to financial services to a large segment of the population must necessarily address bridging the existing knowledge gap in financial education and literacy. Over the last decade or so, researcher all over the world, especially in the developed countries, have, therefore, started to study and explore whether individuals are wellequipped to make financial decisions. Financial education and literacy assumes urgency in any given scenario.

Q. Which of the following is not one of the previous initiatives for financial inclusion?

Solution:

In the passage it is mentioned that  previous initiatives for financial inclusion are “no frill” account for retail purposes, KCC, KYC and creation of credit counselling centres.

QUESTION: 32

Financial inclusion plays a crucial role in inclusive development and sustainable prosperity as is being increasingly recognised and acknowledged globally. Large segment of population need to be part of formal payment system and financial markets. Financial inclusion would also broaden and deepen financial savings and lead to higher economic development.
Previous initiatives: While financial sector policies in India have long been driven by the objective of increasing penetration and outreach, the goal of inclusion has eluded us. About 41 per cent of adult population remain unbanked and the number of loan account covers only 14 percent of adult population. The previous initiatives included (i) the expansion of network of cooperative banks to provide credit to agriculture and saving facilities in rural areas, (ii) nationalism of bank in 1969 and expansion of branches and (iii) creation of an elaborate framework of priority sector lending with mandated targets as part of a strategy to meet the savings and credit needs of large section of the Indian population who had no access to institutional finance. Given the sheer enormity of the challenge, however the outcomes of these efforts have so far been mixed.
Recent initiatives/out of the box approaches: Recent initiative include (i) “no frill” account for retail purpose; (ii) simplified KYC (Know Your Customer) (iii) Credit counselling centre facilities; (iv) use of NGOs and formation of SHGs; (v) Kisan credit cards service and (vi) extension of smart cards. The finance Minister in his Budget Speech of 2007-08 also laid down provision for funding of financial inclusion goals. The Rangarajan Committee also spelt out priorities for meeting financial inclusion objectives. Two of the more important approaches in the recent times included the use of technology such as smart cards and mobile telephone banking.  The potential for their spread can be vast especially in combination with banking correspondence approach launched recently.
New entry and competition: In addition, new competition and entry also play crucial roles, as is evident from the global experience. Two particular initiatives have included the role of Micro Financial Institutions (MFIs) and Non-Bank Finance Companies (NBFCs). MFI activities have surged in recent years, but has come under scrutiny and regulation. Services expanded at a fast rate, providing access on better terms than the alternatives of traditional money lenders. However, better regulation is also needed. On NBFCs, gold pawn establishment have also provided alternate access and are fast expanding in urban and semi-urban settings. As far as caps on interest rates are concerned, as in case of other products, ‘subsidies’ in the form of low interest are often an inhibitor of access to services because of rationing and misuse.
Financial Literacy: Any policy initiative seeking to afford greater access to financial services to financial services to a large segment of the population must necessarily address bridging the existing knowledge gap in financial education and literacy. Over the last decade or so, researcher all over the world, especially in the developed countries, have, therefore, started to study and explore whether individuals are wellequipped to make financial decisions. Financial education and literacy assumes urgency in any given scenario.

Q. What is meant by the term financial literacy?

Solution:

From the last paragraph of the passage “financial literacy” implies that individuals are well-equipped to make financial decisions.

QUESTION: 33

The following pie chart represents the percentage of graduate and under graduate males and females in an organization:

Q. If the total number of employees in the organization is 3500, what is the difference between the number of graduate males and the number of graduate females?

Solution:

Percentage of graduate males = 45%
Percentage of graduate females = 35%
Difference in the number of graduate males and graduate females = 45 % of 3500 – 35% of 3500 = 10% of 3500 = 350
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 34

The following pie chart represents the percentage of graduate and under graduate males and females in an organization:

Q. The difference in the central angles corresponding to the undergraduate males and undergraduate females is:

Solution:

Central angle for under graduate males = (8/100) × 360˚ = 28.8˚
Central angle for undergraduate females = (12/100) × 360˚ = 43.2˚
Difference between angles = 14.4˚
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 35

The following pie chart represents the percentage of graduate and under graduate males and females in an organization:

Q. It’s given that the difference between two categories of people represented in the above pie diagram is 36°. Which of the following can be those two categories?

Solution:

The difference between the central angles of the categories = 36˚
The corresponding difference in percentage = (36/360) × 100 = 10%
Graduate males and graduate females have a 10% difference between their central angles.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 36

Study the following information and answer the question given after that.
There are eight family members, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. There are three married couples in the family. P is married to V. V is the father of R. R is the sister of U. T is the niece of U. Q is the father of T. S is the brother-in-law of P. U is the husband of W.

Q. How is V related to W?

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Study the following information and answer the question given after that.
There are eight family members, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. There are three married couples in the family. P is married to V. V is the father of R. R is the sister of U. T is the niece of U. Q is the father of T. S is the brother-in-law of P. U is the husband of W.

Q. How many male members are there in the family?

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Study the following information and answer the question given after that.
There are eight family members, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. There are three married couples in the family. P is married to V. V is the father of R. R is the sister of U. T is the niece of U. Q is the father of T. S is the brother-in-law of P. U is the husband of W.

Q. How is Q related to P?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the pterosaurs, have intrigued palaeontologists for more than two centuries. How such large creatures, which weighed in some cases as much as a piloted hang-glider and had wingspans from 8 to 12 meters, solved the problems of powered flight, and exactly what these creatures were reptiles or birds are among the question’s scientists have puzzled over.
Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls, pelvises, and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of their wings suggests that they did not evolve into the class of birds. In pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth finger of each forelimb supported a wing-like membrane. The other fingers were short and reptilian, with sharp claws. In birds the second finger is the principal strut of the wing, which consists primarily of feathers. If the pterosaurs walked on all fours, the three short fingers may have been employed for grasping. When a pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth finger, and with it the wing, could only turn upward in an extended inverted V-shape along each side of the animal’s body.
The pterosaurs resembled both birds and bats in their overall structure and proportions. This is not surprising because the design of any flying vertebrate is subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both the pterosaurs and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that represents a savings in weight. In the birds, however, these bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.
Although scales typically cover reptiles, the pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. T. H. Huxley reasoned that flying vertebrates must have been warm-blooded because flying implies a high rate of metabolism, which in turn implies a high internal temperature. Huxley speculated that a coat of hair would insulate against loss of body heat and might streamline the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent discovery of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense, and relatively thick hair like fossil material was the first clear evidence that his reasoning was correct.
Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became airborne have led to suggestions that they launched themselves by jumping from cliffs, by dropping from trees, or even by rising into light winds from the crests of waves. Each hypothesis has its difficulties. The first wrongly assumes that the pterosaurs’ hind feet resembled a bat ‘s and could serve as hooks by which the animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs could not have landed in trees without damaging their wings. The third calls for high waves to channel updrafts. The wind that made such waves however, might have been too strong for the pterosaurs to control their flight once airborne.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists now generally agree that the

Solution:

In the passage Author mentioned “Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls,pelvises, and hind feet are reptilians” implies that scientists now generally agree that Pterosaurs are reptiles.

QUESTION: 40

The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the pterosaurs, have intrigued palaeontologists for more than two centuries. How such large creatures, which weighed in some cases as much as a piloted hang-glider and had wingspans from 8 to 12 meters, solved the problems of powered flight, and exactly what these creatures were reptiles or birds are among the question’s scientists have puzzled over.
Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls, pelvises, and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of their wings suggests that they did not evolve into the class of birds. In pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth finger of each forelimb supported a wing-like membrane. The other fingers were short and reptilian, with sharp claws. In birds the second finger is the principal strut of the wing, which consists primarily of feathers. If the pterosaurs walked on all fours, the three short fingers may have been employed for grasping. When a pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth finger, and with it the wing, could only turn upward in an extended inverted V-shape along each side of the animal’s body.
The pterosaurs resembled both birds and bats in their overall structure and proportions. This is not surprising because the design of any flying vertebrate is subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both the pterosaurs and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that represents a savings in weight. In the birds, however, these bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.
​Although scales typically cover reptiles, the pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. T. H. Huxley reasoned that flying vertebrates must have been warm-blooded because flying implies a high rate of metabolism, which in turn implies a high internal temperature. Huxley speculated that a coat of hair would insulate against loss of body heat and might streamline the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent discovery of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense, and relatively thick hair like fossil material was the first clear evidence that his reasoning was correct.
Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became airborne have led to suggestions that they launched themselves by jumping from cliffs, by dropping from trees, or even by rising into light winds from the crests of waves. Each hypothesis has its difficulties. The first wrongly assumes that the pterosaurs’ hind feet resembled a bat ‘s and could serve as hooks by which the animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs could not have landed in trees without damaging their wings. The third calls for high waves to channel updrafts. The wind that made such waves however, might have been too strong for the pterosaurs to control their flight once airborne.

Q. He author views the idea that the pterosaurs became airborne by rising into light winds created by waves as

Solution:

In last paragraph of the passage the author mentioned that the pterosaurs became airborne by rising into light winds created by waves as unlikely.

QUESTION: 41

The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the pterosaurs, have intrigued palaeontologists for more than two centuries. How such large creatures, which weighed in some cases as much as a piloted hang-glider and had wingspans from 8 to 12 meters, solved the problems of powered flight, and exactly what these creatures were reptiles or birds are among the question’s scientists have puzzled over.
Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls, pelvises, and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of their wings suggests that they did not evolve into the class of birds. In pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth finger of each forelimb supported a wing-like membrane. The other fingers were short and reptilian, with sharp claws. In birds the second finger is the principal strut of the wing, which consists primarily of feathers. If the pterosaurs walked on all fours, the three short fingers may have been employed for grasping. When a pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth finger, and with it the wing, could only turn upward in an extended inverted V-shape along each side of the animal’s body.
The pterosaurs resembled both birds and bats in their overall structure and proportions. This is not surprising because the design of any flying vertebrate is subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both the pterosaurs and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that represents a savings in weight. In the birds, however, these bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.
​Although scales typically cover reptiles, the pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. T. H. Huxley reasoned that flying vertebrates must have been warm-blooded because flying implies a high rate of metabolism, which in turn implies a high internal temperature. Huxley speculated that a coat of hair would insulate against loss of body heat and might streamline the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent discovery of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense, and relatively thick hair like fossil material was the first clear evidence that his reasoning was correct.
Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became airborne have led to suggestions that they launched themselves by jumping from cliffs, by dropping from trees, or even by rising into light winds from the crests of waves. Each hypothesis has its difficulties. The first wrongly assumes that the pterosaurs’ hind feet resembled a bat ‘s and could serve as hooks by which the animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs could not have landed in trees without damaging their wings. The third calls for high waves to channel updrafts. The wind that made such waves however, might have been too strong for the pterosaurs to control their flight once airborne.

Q. According to the passage, the skeleton of a pterosaur can be distinguished from that of a bird by the

Solution:

According to the passage in birds’ hollow bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts while that is not so in reptiles. So, the skeleton of a pterosaur can be distinguished from that of a bird by the anatomic origin of its wing strut.

QUESTION: 42

Given the multifaceted contribution of services to national economy and trade, it is critically important for countries to design and implement a servicesdriven development strategy within a coherent and comprehensive policy framework, ensuring linkages with other policy areas and overall national development objectives. However, due to the complexity of the services sector and the broad range of actors involved across ministries, departments and agencies at different levels of government as well as in the private sector, developing and implementing such a strategy remains a challenge for many countries. Hence the slow progress in positively integrating developing countries into the global services economy and increasing their participation in services trade. It is therefore imperative to increase public and private sector advocacy to mobilize policy attention and resources to boost the sector's contribution to growth and development.

Q. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

Solution:

(a) is incorrect as the passage does not completely give up on the development of services sector in developing countries.
(b) is incorrect as the passage does not urge policymakers directly to increase their country’s participation.
(c) is incorrect as sustainable growth has not been discussed in the passage.
(d) is correct as the passage in essence highlights the importance of services sector and discusses the complex nature of forming a policy to enhance its contribution to the economy. So, despite its benefits, the complexities of the services sector have not let some countries make a policy to use it as a driver to economic growth.

QUESTION: 43

In an ODI match between India and Australia, the Indian Batting has an average of 5.8 runs per over for the first 35 Overs while in the remaining 15 Overs because of Cameo Knock played by the finisher they were able to increase the average run per over to 8.2. Team Australia fell short by 16 runs but played all 50 overs. Find the average run per over scored by Team Australia?

Solution:

The correct option is B.
35*5.8+15*8.2-16/50 = 6.20

QUESTION: 44

Studies of the factors governing reading development in young children have achieved remarkable degree of consensus over the past two decades. This consensus concerns the casual roles of phonological skills in young children’s progress. Children, who have good phonological skills, or good “phonological awareness” become good reader and good spellers. Children with poor phonological skills progress more poorly. In particular, those who have specific phonological deficit are likely to be classified as dyslexic by the time that they are 9 or 10 years old. Phonological skill in young children can be measured at a number of different levels. The term phonological awareness is a global one, and refer to a deficit in recognising smaller units of sound within spoken words. Development work has shown that this deficit can be at level of syllables, of onsets and rimes, or of phonemes. For example, a 4-year old child might have difficulty in recognising that a word like valentine has three syllables, suggesting a lack of syllabic awareness. A 5-year old might have difficulty in recognising that the odd word out in the set of words fan, cat, hat, mat is fan. This task requires an awareness of the sub-syllabic units of the onset and the rime. The onset corresponds to any initial consonant in the syllable, and the rime corresponds to the vowel and to any following consonants. Rimes correspond to rhyme in single-syllable words, and so the rime in fan differs from the rime in cat, hat and mat. In the longer words, rime and rhyme may differ. The onsets in val:en:tine are/v/and/t, and the rimes correspond to the spelling patterns ‘al’, ‘en’, and ‘ine’.
A 6-years-old might have difficulty in recognising that plea and pray begin with the same initial sound. This is phonemic judgement. Although the initial phoneme/P/is shared between two words, in plea its part of the onset ‘pl’, and in pray it is part of the onset ‘pr’. Until children can segment the onset (or the rime), such phonemic judgements are difficult for them to make. In fact, a recent survey of different development studies has shown that the different development studies have shown that the different levels of phonological awareness appear to emerge sequentially. The awareness of syllables, onsets, and rimes appear to emerge at around the age of 3 and 4, long before most children go to school. The awareness of phonemes, on the other hand, usually emerges at around the age of 5 and 6, when children have been taught to read for about a year. An awareness of onsets and rimes thus appears to be precursor of reading, whereas an awareness of phonemes at every serial position in a word, only appears to develop as reading is taught. The onset-rime and phonemic levels of phonological structure, however, are not distinct. Many onsets in English are single phonemes, and so are some rimes (e.g. sea, go, zoo).

Q. From the following statement, pick out the true statement according to the passage:

Solution:

In the passage it is mentioned that “valentine has three syllables” and the onsets in val:en:tine are/v/and/t. So, it may be concluded that in mono-syllabic word can have only one onset.

QUESTION: 45

Studies of the factors governing reading development in young children have achieved remarkable degree of consensus over the past two decades. This consensus concerns the casual roles of phonological skills in young children’s progress. Children, who have good phonological skills, or good “phonological awareness” become good reader and good spellers. Children with poor phonological skills progress more poorly. In particular, those who have specific phonological deficit are likely to be classified as dyslexic by the time that they are 9 or 10 years old. Phonological skill in young children can be measured at a number of different levels. The term phonological awareness is a global one, and refer to a deficit in recognising smaller units of sound within spoken words. Development work has shown that this deficit can be at level of syllables, of onsets and rimes, or of phonemes. For example, a 4-year old child might have difficulty in recognising that a word like valentine has three syllables, suggesting a lack of syllabic awareness. A 5-year old might have difficulty in recognising that the odd word out in the set of words fan, cat, hat, mat is fan. This task requires an awareness of the sub-syllabic units of the onset and the rime. The onset corresponds to any initial consonant in the syllable, and the rime corresponds to the vowel and to any following consonants. Rimes correspond to rhyme in single-syllable words, and so the rime in fan differs from the rime in cat, hat and mat. In the longer words, rime and rhyme may differ. The onsets in val:en:tine are/v/and/t, and the rimes correspond to the spelling patterns ‘al’, ‘en’, and ‘ine’.
A 6-years-old might have difficulty in recognising that plea and pray begin with the same initial sound. This is phonemic judgement. Although the initial phoneme/P/is shared between two words, in plea its part of the onset ‘pl’, and in pray it is part of the onset ‘pr’. Until children can segment the onset (or the rime), such phonemic judgements are difficult for them to make. In fact, a recent survey of different development studies has shown that the different development studies have shown that the different levels of phonological awareness appear to emerge sequentially. The awareness of syllables, onsets, and rimes appear to emerge at around the age of 3 and 4, long before most children go to school. The awareness of phonemes, on the other hand, usually emerges at around the age of 5 and 6, when children have been taught to read for about a year. An awareness of onsets and rimes thus appears to be precursor of reading, whereas an awareness of phonemes at every serial position in a word, only appears to develop as reading is taught. The onset-rime and phonemic levels of phonological structure, however, are not distinct. Many onsets in English are single phonemes, and so are some rimes (e.g. sea, go, zoo).

Q. A phonological deficit in which of the following is likely to be classified as dyslexia?

Solution:

In the first paragraph the author mention about dyslexia then in second author mentioned about Phonemic judgement, Onset judgement and Rime judgement but he does not clarify more about that. So, dyslexia may be any one or more of the written.

QUESTION: 46

There are 52 beggars outside a temple. Three hundred twelve apples are distributed among them so that each man gets nine apples and each woman gets five apples. Find the number of men and women outside the temple.

Solution:

Let the number of men beggars be x and women beggars are y. x + y = 52 ........ (i)
9x + 5y = 312 .......... (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get
9y – 5y = 468 – 312
4y = 156
∴ x = 52 – 39 = 13
y = 39
Thus, Men = 13 and Women = 39

QUESTION: 47

There are five translators – A, B, C, D and E in a multi language translation lab. A and B know English and Hindi. C and B know English and German. D and A know Marathi and Hindi. E and B know Hebrew and French. A person can translate between any two languages that he or she knows.

Q. Who can translate from English to Marathi?

Solution:

As given in the above table, A knows the languages English and Marathi. Hence, A can translate from English to Marathi.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 48

There are five translators – A, B, C, D and E in a multi language translation lab. A and B know English and Hindi. C and B know English and German. D and A know Marathi and Hindi. E and B know Hebrew and French. A person can translate between any two languages that he or she knows.

Q. A German text has to be translated to French. What are the options available to accomplish the job?

Solution:

B can do the translation on his own, as he knows both German and French.

QUESTION: 49

There is a stack of 150 cards which contains cards numbered from 1 to 150. A card is drawn randomly from this stack. What is the probability that the card drawn is either a square or a cube of a natural number, but not both?

Solution:

Total favourable possible nos. = 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, 25, 125, 36, 49, 81, 100, 121, 144

QUESTION: 50

Change is over-rated, anyway. Consider the automobiles. It’s an especially valuable example, because the auto industry has spent tens of billions of dollars on research and product development in the last 100 years. Henry ford’s first car had a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine. Four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, and four seats, and it could safely do 18 miles per hour. A hundred years and tens of thousands of research hours later, we drive cars with a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline powered engine, four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, four seats-and the average speed in London in 2001 was 17.5 miles per hour! That’s not a hell of a lot of return for the money. Ford evidently doesn’t have much to teach us about change. The fact that they are still manufacturing cars is not proof that it takes very large companies to make cars in great quantities- making for an almost impregnable entry barrier. Fifty years after the development of the jet engine, planes are also little changed. They’ve grown bigger, wider and carry more people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes. Taken together, this lack of real change has to come to mean that in travel – whether driving or flying – time and technology have not combined to make things much better. The safety and design have of course accompanied the times and the new volume of cars and flights, but nothing of any significance has changed in the basic assumptions of the final product.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statement is true?

Solution:

From third paragraph of the passage it may be inferred that there is not much changes from Henry ford’s first car to the cars used since now. They have almost the same speed.

QUESTION: 51

Change is over-rated, anyway. Consider the automobiles. It’s an especially valuable example, because the auto industry has spent tens of billions of dollars on research and product development in the last 100 years. Henry ford’s first car had a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine. Four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, and four seats, and it could safely do 18 miles per hour. A hundred years and tens of thousands of research hours later, we drive cars with a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline powered engine, four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, four seats-and the average speed in London in 2001 was 17.5 miles per hour! That’s not a hell of a lot of return for the money. Ford evidently doesn’t have much to teach us about change. The fact that they are still manufacturing cars is not proof that it takes very large companies to make cars in great quantities- making for an almost impregnable entry barrier. Fifty years after the development of the jet engine, planes are also little changed. They’ve grown bigger, wider and carry more people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes. Taken together, this lack of real change has to come to mean that in travel – whether driving or flying – time and technology have not combined to make things much better. The safety and design have of course accompanied the times and the new volume of cars and flights, but nothing of any significance has changed in the basic assumptions of the final product.

Q. Which of the following views does the author fully support in the passage?

Solution:

In the fifth paragraph of the passage the author mentioned about aeroplane that planes are also little changed. They’ve grown bigger, wider and carry more people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes. So, from this statement it may be inferred that the author supports that over decades there is some structural changes.

QUESTION: 52

Change is over-rated, anyway. Consider the automobiles. It’s an especially valuable example, because the auto industry has spent tens of billions of dollars on research and product development in the last 100 years. Henry ford’s first car had a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine. Four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, and four seats, and it could safely do 18 miles per hour. A hundred years and tens of thousands of research hours later, we drive cars with a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline powered engine, four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, four seats-and the average speed in London in 2001 was 17.5 miles per hour! That’s not a hell of a lot of return for the money. Ford evidently doesn’t have much to teach us about change. The fact that they are still manufacturing cars is not proof that it takes very large companies to make cars in great quantities- making for an almost impregnable entry barrier. Fifty years after the development of the jet engine, planes are also little changed. They’ve grown bigger, wider and carry more people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes. Taken together, this lack of real change has to come to mean that in travel – whether driving or flying – time and technology have not combined to make things much better. The safety and design have of course accompanied the times and the new volume of cars and flights, but nothing of any significance has changed in the basic assumptions of the final product.

Q. Which of the following best describes one of the main ideas discussed in the passage?

Solution:

Author mainly want to highlight the fact that over the decades and after spending so much money on research still Industry is not as innovative as it is made out to be.

QUESTION: 53

A sum of money kept in a bank amounts to Rs. 1240 in 4 years and Rs. 1600 in 10 years at simple interest. Find the sum.

Solution:

Let P be the principal and I as Simple Interest A = P + I
∴  P + 4I = 1240 ...... (i)
P + 10I = 1600 ...... (ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get P = 1000 and I = 60

QUESTION: 54

Seven boys P, X, Z, N, G, L and R live in three different buildings – Ashiana, Top-view, and Ridge. Each of them is flying kites of different colours, i.e., red, green, blue, white, black, yellow and pink not necessarily in that order. Not more than three or less than two stay in any of the buildings. L is flying a pink kite and lives in the same building as only R, i.e., Ashiana. Z is flying a black kite and does not live in Ridge building. N does not live in the same building as P or G and is flying a yellow-coloured kite. X lives in Ridge building with only one more person and is flying a green kite. None in the Top view building flies a white kite. G does not fly a blue kite.

Q. Who live in Ridge building?

Solution:

Only L and R live in Ashiana. Since Z does not live in Ridge building, so Z lives in Top-view building. X lives in Ridge building with one more person. Since N lives in a building different from both P and G, so N lives in Ridge building, while each one of P and G lives in Top-view building. L flies a pink kite, Z a black kite, N a yellow kite, and X a green kite. P and G both live in Top-view building and so none of them flies a white kite. So, R flies a white kite. Since G does not fly a blue kite, so P flies a blue kite. Thus, G flies a red kite.
Boy: P X Z N G L R
Building: Top-view Ridge Top-view Ridge Top-view Ashiana Ashiana
Kite: Blue Green Black Yellow Red Pink White X and N live in Ridge building.

QUESTION: 55

Seven boys P, X, Z, N, G, L and R live in three different buildings – Ashiana, Top-view, and Ridge. Each of them is flying kites of different colours, i.e., red, green, blue, white, black, yellow and pink not necessarily in that order. Not more than three or less than two stay in any of the buildings. L is flying a pink kite and lives in the same building as only R, i.e., Ashiana. Z is flying a black kite and does not live in Ridge building. N does not live in the same building as P or G and is flying a yellow-coloured kite. X lives in Ridge building with only one more person and is flying a green kite. None in the Top view building flies a white kite. G does not fly a blue kite.

Q. Who is flying the blue kite?

Solution:

P flies the blue kite. Hence, the answer is (a)

QUESTION: 56

In a survey of a class of 60 students, it was found that 25 had passed in Mathematics, 30 had passed in Physics and 41 had passed in Chemistry. 5 students had passed in Mathematics and Chemistry only, 12 had passed in Mathematics and Physics only and 15 had passed in Physics and Chemistry only. 2 students passed in all the three subjects.

Q. What is the number of students who passed in Physics and failed in the other two subjects?

Solution:

Filling in the information given in the question in a Venn Diagram we get:

As given in the question, 30 students passed in Physics. So, 30 – (12 + 15 + 2) = 1 student passed in Physics only.
Similarly, 25 students passed in Mathematics.
So, only 6 students passed in Mathematics only. 41 students passed in Chemistry.
Therefore, 19 students passed in Chemistry only. The final picture that emerges from all this is shown below:

The class contains only 60 students. It can be seen from the diagram that all the 60 student have been accounted for. So, it can be concluded that none of the students failed in all the three subjects.
t can be observed from the above Venn diagram that only one student passed in Physics only.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 57

In a survey of a class of 60 students, it was found that 25 had passed in Mathematics, 30 had passed in Physics and 41 had passed in Chemistry. 5 students had passed in Mathematics and Chemistry only, 12 had passed in Mathematics and Physics only and 15 had passed in Physics and Chemistry only. 2 students passed in all the three subjects.

Q. What is the number of students who passed in exactly two subjects?

Solution:

Filling in the information given in the question in a Venn Diagram we get:

As given in the question, 30 students passed in Physics. So, 30 – (12 + 15 + 2) = 1 student passed in Physics only
Similarly, 25 students passed in Mathematics. So, only 6 students passed in Mathematics only. 41 students passed in Chemistry.
Therefore, 19 students passed in Chemistry only. The final picture that emerges from all this is shown below:

The class contains only 60 students. It can be seen from the diagram that all the 60 student have been accounted for. So, it can be concluded that none of the students failed in all the three subjects.

The number of students who passed in exactly two subjects = Number of students
who passed in Physics and Chemistry + Number of students who passed in Chemistry and Mathematics + Number of students who passed in Physics and Mathematics = 15 + 5 + 12 = 32
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 58

In a survey of a class of 60 students, it was found that 25 had passed in Mathematics, 30 had passed in Physics and 41 had passed in Chemistry. 5 students had passed in Mathematics and Chemistry only, 12 had passed in Mathematics and Physics only and 15 had passed in Physics and Chemistry only. 2 students passed in all the three subjects.

Consider the following statements:
1. The number of students who had passed in only one subject is equal to the number of students who had passed in exactly two subjects.
2. The number of students who had passed in at least two subjects is four times the number of students who had passed in all the three subjects.

Q. Which of the above statements are true?

Solution:

Filling in the information given in the question in a Venn Diagram we get:

As given in the question, 30 students passed in Physics. So, 30 – (12 + 15 + 2) = 1 student passed in Physics only.
Similarly, 25 students passed in Mathematics. So, only 6 students passed in Mathematics only. 41 students passed in Chemistry.
Therefore, 19 students passed in Chemistry only. The final picture that emerges from all this is shown below:

The class contains only 60 students. It can be seen from the diagram that all the 60 student have been accounted for. So, it can be concluded that none of the students failed in all the three subjects.
Number of students who passed in only one subject = 1 + 6 + 19 = 26
Number of students who passed in exactly two subjects = 15 + 12 + 5 = 32
So, statement 1 is incorrect.
Number of students who passed in at least two subjects = Number of students who passed in only two subjects + Number of students who passed in all the three subjects = 32 + 2 = 34
Number of students who passed in all the three subjects = 2
So, statement 2 is wrong too.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 59

Here is a newspaper headline: “If you treat a group of depressed children for some time with an energy drink, they would show a clinically significant improvement. It is also the case that depressed children who spend some time standing on their head and/or hug a cat for twenty minutes a day will also show improvement.” Most readers of such headlines will automatically infer that the energy drink or the cat hugging caused the improvement, but this conclusion is completely unjustified.

Q. Which of the following assumptions "justifies/supports" the argument made by the author of the statement?

Solution:

The argument made by the author is stated in the last line of the statement. In the present statement, the author is intending to falsify the statement placed under quotation that suggests how newspaper headlines can lead to invalid inferences. Option B is the only option among the given that assumes the missing causal link between reducing depression and energy drinks, cat hugs etc. So option B supports the argument of the author, hence is correct.

QUESTION: 60

In spite of warnings from many responsible quarters against the introduction of all the regional languages as alternative media for the examinations of Union Public Service Commission, the government of India is going ahead with the proposal. That the option to answer in the regional language is confined for the present to two papers has not allayed the misgivings of anyone.

Q. Which of the following assumptions validates/supports the principal argument against the motion of the government?

Solution:

Options A, B and C are all in support of the main argument made in the statement, so option D, which includes all A, B and C, is correct.

QUESTION: 61

Prior to 1975, union efforts to organize public-sector clerical workers, most of whom are women, were somewhat limited. The factors favouring unionization drives seem to have been either the presence of large numbers of workers, as in New York City, to make it worth the effort, or the concentration of small numbers in one or two locations, such as a hospital, to make it relatively easy. Receptivity to unionization on the worker’s part was also a consideration, but when there were large numbers involved or the clerical workers were the only unorganized group in a jurisdiction, the multi-occupational unions would often try to organize them regardless of the worker’s initial receptivity. The strategic reasoning was based, first, on the concern that politicians and administrators might play off unionized against nonunionized workers, and, second, on the conviction that a fully unionized public work force meant power, both at the bargaining table and in the legislature. In localities where, clerical workers were few in number, were scattered in several workplaces, and expressed no interest in being organized, unions more often than not ignored them in the pre-1975 period.
But since the mid1970‘s, a different strategy has emerged. In 1977, 34 percent of government clerical workers were represented by a labour organization, compared with 46 percent of government professionals, 44 percent of government blue-collar workers, and 41 percent of government service workers. Since then, however, the biggest increases in public-sector unionization have been among clerical workers. Between 1977 and 1980, the number of unionized government workers in blue-collar and service occupations increased only about 1.5 percent, while in the white-collar occupations the increase was 20 percent and among clerical workers in particular, the increase was 22 percent.
What accounts for this upsurge in unionization among clerical workers? First, more women have entered the work force in the past few years, and more of them plan to remain working until retirement age. Consequently, they are probably more concerned than their predecessors were about job security and economic benefits. Also, the women’s movement has succeeded in legitimizing the economic and political activism of women on their own behalf, there by producing a more positive attitude toward unions.

Q. According to the passage, the publicsector workers who were most likely to belong to unions in 1977 were

Solution:

From second paragraph of the passage it may be inferred that the public-sector workers who were most likely to belong to unions in 1977 were professionals.

QUESTION: 62

Prior to 1975, union efforts to organize public-sector clerical workers, most of whom are women, were somewhat limited. The factors favouring unionization drives seem to have been either the presence of large numbers of workers, as in New York City, to make it worth the effort, or the concentration of small numbers in one or two locations, such as a hospital, to make it relatively easy. Receptivity to unionization on the worker’s part was also a consideration, but when there were large numbers involved or the clerical workers were the only unorganized group in a jurisdiction, the multi-occupational unions would often try to organize them regardless of the worker’s initial receptivity. The strategic reasoning was based, first, on the concern that politicians and administrators might play off unionized against nonunionized workers, and, second, on the conviction that a fully unionized public work force meant power, both at the bargaining table and in the legislature. In localities where, clerical workers were few in number, were scattered in several workplaces, and expressed no interest in being organized, unions more often than not ignored them in the pre-1975 period.
But since the mid1970‘s, a different strategy has emerged. In 1977, 34 percent of government clerical workers were represented by a labour organization, compared with 46 percent of government professionals, 44 percent of government blue-collar workers, and 41 percent of government service workers. Since then, however, the biggest increases in public-sector unionization have been among clerical workers. Between 1977 and 1980, the number of unionized government workers in blue-collar and service occupations increased only about 1.5 percent, while in the white-collar occupations the increase was 20 percent and among clerical workers in particular, the increase was 22 percent.
What accounts for this upsurge in unionization among clerical workers? First, more women have entered the work force in the past few years, and more of them plan to remain working until retirement age. Consequently, they are probably more concerned than their predecessors were about job security and economic benefits. Also, the women’s movement has succeeded in legitimizing the economic and political activism of women on their own behalf, there by producing a more positive attitude toward unions.

Q. The author’s claim that, since the mid-1970’s, a new strategy has emerged in the unionization of public-sector clerical workers would be strengthened if the author

Solution:

From the passage it can be concluded that author’s claim strengthened if the author showed that the factors that favoured unionization drives among these workers prior to 1975 have decreased in importance.

QUESTION: 63

In many emerging market and developing countries, remittances from migrants abroad help households maintain spending when times are tough and incomes decline. In principle, integration into the global financial system could help smooth the effect of income shocks on household consumption through borrowing and lending in capital markets. Countries could borrow more when their income drops temporarily.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?

Solution:

(a) is incorrect as the passage specifically talks about income related issues in the countries around the world and not on all economic issues.
(b) is correct as the passage tells the benefits of global integration and essentially tells that it can help when countries are going through income shocks and drops i.e. protects them at the time of financial distress.
(c) is incorrect as the passage does not claim the failure of survival of low income without borrowing or lending, it only says that such activity would help smoothen the effect of income shocks.
(d) is incorrect as the passage does not point the countries to be self-dependent but towards the benefits of being integrated into the global financial system.

QUESTION: 64

Directions: In each question, a statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: When we think of an equation in physical science, we are stubbornly objected by the fundamental deficiency of mathematics to represent the language of the universe clearly.
Assumptions:
I. Mathematics is the language of the universe.
II. Mathematics can at best be only a helping agent to science.

Solution:

In the questions, the valid implicit assumptions to the given statements need to be identified and marked. In this question, the statement argues about the deficiency of mathematics, as a method, in understanding the universe. Assumption I describes mathematics as being the language of the universe and hence it directly contradicts the main statement, thus cannot be implicit within the statement, therefore is incorrect. Statement II describes mathematics as a helping agent to the sciences, the key word here is helping agent, it can be assumed in implication that a deficient method can at-least be termed as a helping agent, the correct answer is B, which indicates only assumption II as correct.

QUESTION: 65

Directions: In each question, a statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: The facts represented in case studies are not sufficient to come to a conclusion.
Assumptions:
I. Facts are generally relevant for coming to conclusions
II. Case studies generally represent facts

Solution:

The statement reads - facts represented in the case study are not sufficient to come to a conclusion, this can also be read to state - due to the absence of facts, in the case study, the conclusion cannot be reached, hence it is safe to assume that facts are generally relevant for coming to a conclusion, therefore I is implicit.
The above-mention of facts, in the case study, also emboldens the assumption that case studies generally represent facts, therefore II is implicit.

QUESTION: 66

Directions: In each question, a statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: The queen had a stepdaughter who ruined her legacy
Assumptions:
I. The queen was/is married
II. The queen ruled wisely

Solution:

The queen can only have a stepdaughter by her virtue of being a wife to someone, at a point of time, which is the same thing as being married, therefore I is implicit. The fact that queen ruled wisely cannot be inferred by the word legacy, for certain, because legacy may be attributed to some other virtue than wisdom like courage, intelligence etc. II is not implicit.

QUESTION: 67

India needs to address the rural-urban divide in concentration of healthcare services, access to basic primary healthcare services, shortage of beds and quality concerns in healthcare, on priority. India is also witnessing the emergence of conscious, informed and tech-savvy healthcare consumers and consequently, the healthcare ecosystem needs to adapt to a patientcentric model to demonstrate greater sensitivity, understand patient expectations, engage with them and provide customised services.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Solution:

(a) is incorrect as the passage also focuses on having a patient centric model to adapt to the changing requirements of the consumers, which the given statement does not cover. Hence, it cannot be called the most logical and rational inference from the passage.
(b) is incorrect as the passage does not relate the patient centric model with access, infrastructure and quality. It relates to greater sensitivity, understanding expectations, proper engagement and customized services.
(c) is correct as the passage first highlights the needs of healthcare sector in India which are supposed to be addressed on a priority basis and with that it also mentions the emergence of a new class of aware and informed patients for whom a patient centric model is required. Both these issues are contemporary and would need to be addressed simultaneously.
(d) is incorrect as low budgetary allocation and low healthcare coverage has not been mentioned as an issue in the passage with regard to healthcare in India.

QUESTION: 68

At the end of the nineteenth century, a rising interest in Native American customs and an increasing desire to understand Native American culture prompted ethnologists to begin recording the life stories of Native American. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for wanting to hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropological data that would supplement their own field observations, and they believed that the personal stories, even of a single individual, could increase their understanding of the cultures that they had been observing from without. In addition, many ethnologists at the turn of the century believed that Native American manners and customs were rapidly disappearing, and that it was important to preserve for posterity as much information as could be adequately recorded before the cultures disappeared forever.
There were, however, arguments against this method as a way of acquiring accurate and complete information. Franz Boas, for example, described autobiographies as being “of limited value, and useful chiefly for the study of the perversion of truth by memory,” while Paul Radin contended that investigators rarely spent enough time with the tribes they were observing, and inevitably derived results too tinged by the investigator’s own emotional tone to be reliable. Even more importantly, as these life stories moved from the traditional oral mode to recorded written form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided what elements were significant to the field research on a given tribe. Native Americans recognized that the essence of their lives could not be communicated in English and that events that they thought significant were often deemed unimportant by their interviewers. Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force Native American narrators to distort their cultures, as taboos had to be broken to speak the names of dead relatives crucial to their family stories.
Despite all of this, autobiography remains a useful tool for ethnological research: such personal reminiscences and impressions, incomplete as they may be, are likely to throw more light on the working of the mind and emotions than any amount of speculation from an ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another culture.

Q. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

Solution:

From the passage it may be inferred that the Author describes the use of research method and also discussed limitation of result obtained.

QUESTION: 69

At the end of the nineteenth century, a rising interest in Native American customs and an increasing desire to understand Native American culture prompted ethnologists to begin recording the life stories of Native American. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for wanting to hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropological data that would supplement their own field observations, and they believed that the personal stories, even of a single individual, could increase their understanding of the cultures that they had been observing from without. In addition, many ethnologists at the turn of the century believed that Native American manners and customs were rapidly disappearing, and that it was important to preserve for posterity as much information as could be adequately recorded before the cultures disappeared forever.
There were, however, arguments against this method as a way of acquiring accurate and complete information. Franz Boas, for example, described autobiographies as being “of limited value, and useful chiefly for the study of the perversion of truth by memory,” while Paul Radin contended that investigators rarely spent enough time with the tribes they were observing, and inevitably derived results too tinged by the investigator’s own emotional tone to be reliable. Even more importantly, as these life stories moved from the traditional oral mode to recorded written form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided what elements were significant to the field research on a given tribe. Native Americans recognized that the essence of their lives could not be communicated in English and that events that they thought significant were often deemed unimportant by their interviewers. Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force Native American narrators to distort their cultures, as taboos had to be broken to speak the names of dead relatives crucial to their family stories.
Despite all of this, autobiography remains a useful tool for ethnological research: such personal reminiscences and impressions, incomplete as they may be, are likely to throw more light on the working of the mind and emotions than any amount of speculation from an ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another culture.

Q. According to the passage, collecting life stories can be a useful methodology because

Solution:

According to the second paragraph of the passage collecting life stories can be a useful methodology because they believed that the personal stories, even of a single individual, could increase their understanding of the cultures that they had been observing from without.

QUESTION: 70

At the end of the nineteenth century, a rising interest in Native American customs and an increasing desire to understand Native American culture prompted ethnologists to begin recording the life stories of Native American. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for wanting to hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropological data that would supplement their own field observations, and they believed that the personal stories, even of a single individual, could increase their understanding of the cultures that they had been observing from without. In addition, many ethnologists at the turn of the century believed that Native American manners and customs were rapidly disappearing, and that it was important to preserve for posterity as much information as could be adequately recorded before the cultures disappeared forever.
There were, however, arguments against this method as a way of acquiring accurate and complete information. Franz Boas, for example, described autobiographies as being “of limited value, and useful chiefly for the study of the perversion of truth by memory,” while Paul Radin contended that investigators rarely spent enough time with the tribes they were observing, and inevitably derived results too tinged by the investigator’s own emotional tone to be reliable. Even more importantly, as these life stories moved from the traditional oral mode to recorded written form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided what elements were significant to the field research on a given tribe. Native Americans recognized that the essence of their lives could not be communicated in English and that events that they thought significant were often deemed unimportant by their interviewers. Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force Native American narrators to distort their cultures, as taboos had to be broken to speak the names of dead relatives crucial to their family stories.
Despite all of this, autobiography remains a useful tool for ethnological research: such personal reminiscences and impressions, incomplete as they may be, are likely to throw more light on the working of the mind and emotions than any amount of speculation from an ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another culture.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the usefulness of life stories as a source of ethnographic information?

Solution:

From the last paragraph of the passage it may be inferred that life stories can be source of information about how people in a culture view the world.

QUESTION: 71

One of the main features of Agroecology is that it looks for local solutions and linkages with the local economy and local markets, and keeps farmers in the field with improved livelihoods and a better quality of life. So, Agroecology could play a very important role in ending poverty and hunger in the field. As a local solution, based on local needs, another advantage of Agroecology is that it also aims at the production of more nutritious and culturally appropriate food which means production is diversified, so farmers produce a variety of foods with different nutrients and this ensures a balanced diet.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?

Solution:

(a) is incorrect as the problems mentioned in the passage have not been claimed as all the problems of farmers and crop cultivation. Hence, the given statement is far-fetched.
(b) is correct as the passage in a gist tells the benefits of Agroecology, which are improved livelihoods of farmers i.e. fighting poverty (improved farm output) and hunger, production of nutritious crops which would mean cultivating variety of crops (crop diversification). Hence, the given statement is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the passage.
(c) is incorrect. The passage does tell that Agroecology aims at production of nutritious and culturally apt food based on local needs, but nowhere does it say that Agroecology is the only way to do so.
(d) is incorrect as the passage does not claim the indispensability of Agroecology in the elimination of poverty and hunger, it only mentions the important role Agroecology can play in doing so.

QUESTION: 72

It could well be said that the principle that is most foundational to correct ecological thinking is homeostasis. Homeostasis can best be defined as a model for all ecological activity, in terms of how a species interacts with its environment. Not discussing here, the complex origins and scientific validity of the term, it can simply be described as the principle of non-interference by a species, into its environment. Almost all species as observed by humans are in adherence to this principle, and it is humans who are most prominently responsible for its violation.
This understanding of homeostasis, academically, gives us an axiom to place anthropogenic activities and their consequences. The logical question that follows from this is, how far human activity, even if disastrous for human life, can be accounted as a natural activity, and what standards do we adopt to demarcate artificial or unnatural actions of humans from the natural actions of humans? The best test for this demarcation is the harm that humans inflict not on its own kind, but on other species co-habiting the ecosystem. Only thus can we truly arrive at ecology as a scientific category, which is not confounded with sociology, politics, economics and other human sciences.

Q. According to the passage, why is homeostasis the best model for the scientific study of ecology?

Solution:

Option A is incorrect because the tone of the argument made in the passage above is disapproving of categorizing ecology as a human science, which implies a science which serves humans as its primary subjects, making the statement in option A contradictory. Option B is incorrect for the same reason. Option D is in contradiction to the line in the passage which states that the argument here is not concerned with the scientific validity of the term homeostasis, hence is incorrect. Option C lays out the point about parity of species without giving anyone species’ assumed priority over others, hence is reinforcing the tone and theme of the argument, in the passage, therefore is correct.

QUESTION: 73

It could well be said that the principle that is most foundational to correct ecological thinking is homeostasis. Homeostasis can best be defined as a model for all ecological activity, in terms of how a species interacts with its environment. Not discussing here, the complex origins and scientific validity of the term, it can simply be described as the principle of non-interference by a species, into its environment. Almost all species as observed by humans are in adherence to this principle, and it is humans who are most prominently responsible for its violation.
This understanding of homeostasis, academically, gives us an axiom to place anthropogenic activities and their consequences. The logical question that follows from this is, how far human activity, even if disastrous for human life, can be accounted as a natural activity, and what standards do we adopt to demarcate artificial or unnatural actions of humans from the natural actions of humans? The best test for this demarcation is the harm that humans inflict not on its own kind, but on other species co-habiting the ecosystem. Only thus can we truly arrive at ecology as a scientific category, which is not confounded with sociology, politics, economics and other human sciences.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following is a valid assumption about the human activity?

Solution:

the second paragraph of the passage is concerned with the question of which human activities can be accounted as natural activity and what must be the standard of demarcating such activities of humans from unnatural activities, this reading rules out Option A and B, which describe All or None human activities as natural activities, but Option C is correct because at least some human activities are part of the natural activities. Option D is incorrect because Option C is correc

QUESTION: 74

Climate change has triggered the development of renewables and electric vehicles. Whether these vehicles spread as rapidly as predicted, over the next few years they will crowd out the demand for oil substantially. And if climate change concerns intensify, the transformation of the world oil market could be even faster. Even more so if other new technologies, like fuel cells, hydrogen-based power generation, ride sharing and autonomous driving also take off. So even though it is hard to say which way oil prices will go next week or next month, by 2040 oil will be much cheaper than it is today.

Q. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

Solution:

(a) is incorrect as the passage says that the concerns regarding climate change will contribute to reduction of oil prices and not the other way round. Hence, it is a distortion of the true meaning of the passage.
(b) is incorrect as oil being the only contributor to climate change cannot be sufficiently deduced from the passage.
(c) is incorrect as the passage only predicts the reduction in oil prices and not the complete uselessness of oil in the future.
(d) is correct as the passage discusses how the demand of oil will reduce substantially due to use of new technologies developed due to climate change and may reduce quicker with the rise in the climate change concerns and further innovation and predicts that by 2040, the price of oil will be a lot less than what it is now. Hence, the rise in climate change concerns and consequential changes would result in reduction of oil prices in the future.

QUESTION: 75

​The group of Twenty (G20) was established in 1999 to bring together Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of systemically important industrialised and developing economies to discuss key issues relating to the global economy and finance stability. By contributing to the strengthening of the international financial architecture and providing opportunities for dialogue on national policies, international cooperation, and international financial institutions, the G-20 helps to support growth, financial stability and development across the globe.
Since its inception, the G20 has held annual Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governor’s meetings and discussed measures to promote financial stability in the world and achieve sustainable economic growth and development.
In the wake of the global financial and economic crisis in 2008, the G20 was elevated to a Leader Summit. It was designated as a premier forum for international economic cooperation in 2009, effectively replacing the G8 as a forum for steering the global issues. The move was considered as a milestone in reforming global governance, making it more inclusive since this forum comprises both emerging as well as industrialised economies.
Several landmark reforms of international financial institutions were initiated at the behest of the G20 which heightened the expectation for bringing about fundamental changes in the functioning of the global institutions and in the global governance structure. India as a member of the G20 has been actively engaged in global economic governance and in shaping the world order. The most concerted response to the global economic crisis came from the platform of the G20 countries. G20 Leaders Summits have set the agenda rolling for both short and medium-term actions to meet the crisis.

Q. In the year 2008 G-20 was elevated to a leader’s Summit. Which of the following best describes the reason for such a move?

Solution:

From the third paragraph of the passage it is inferred that it was essential in the wake of the global financial and economic crisis in 2008 to make it more it a more inclusive at a premium forum for economic co-operation.

QUESTION: 76

​The group of Twenty (G20) was established in 1999 to bring together Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of systemically important industrialised and developing economies to discuss key issues relating to the global economy and finance stability. By contributing to the strengthening of the international financial architecture and providing opportunities for dialogue on national policies, international cooperation, and international financial institutions, the G-20 helps to support growth, financial stability and development across the globe.
Since its inception, the G20 has held annual Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governor’s meetings and discussed measures to promote financial stability in the world and achieve sustainable economic growth and development.
In the wake of the global financial and economic crisis in 2008, the G20 was elevated to a Leader Summit. It was designated as a premier forum for international economic cooperation in 2009, effectively replacing the G8 as a forum for steering the global issues. The move was considered as a milestone in reforming global governance, making it more inclusive since this forum comprises both emerging as well as industrialised economies.
Several landmark reforms of international financial institutions were initiated at the behest of the G20 which heightened the expectation for bringing about fundamental changes in the functioning of the global institutions and in the global governance structure. India as a member of the G20 has been actively engaged in global economic governance and in shaping the world order. The most concerted response to the global economic crisis came from the platform of the G20 countries. G20 Leaders Summits have set the agenda rolling for both short and medium-term actions to meet the crisis.

Q. Which of the following fact mentioned in the passage best highlights the great significance being attached to the G-20 by the world leaders in current politicoeconomic situation of the world?

Solution:

In fourth paragraph of the passage author mentioned “Several landmark reforms of international financial institutions were initiated at the behest of the G20 which heightened the expectation for bringing about fundamental changes in the functioning of the global institutions and in the global governance structure” it implies that the best highlights the great significance being attached to the G-20 by the world leaders in current politicoeconomic situation of the world is the most concerted response to global economic crisis came from the platform of the G-20 countries.

QUESTION: 77

Domestic workers often face very low wages, excessively long hours, have no guaranteed weekly day of rest and at times are vulnerable to physical, mental and sexual abuse or restrictions on freedom of movement. Exploitation of domestic workers can partly be attributed to gaps in national labour and employment legislation, and often reflects discrimination along the lines of sex, race and caste.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

Solution:

(a) is incorrect as it is a general statement referring to every worker however, the passage specifically talks about domestic workers. Further, the statement is also very definitive and hence, we should look for better suited option.
(b) is incorrect as the passage is not clear about whether there is a legislative framework towards the domestic workers’ condition. There might be some weak/ineffective provisions as can be inferred from “Exploitation of domestic workers can partly be attributed to gaps in national labour and employment legislation”.
(c) is correct as the passage highlights the exploitation and poor working conditions of domestic help which is due to gaps in employment legislation and hence, a logical follow up would be a consistent labour legislation that covers domestic workers to safeguard them from such exploitation and poor working conditions.
(d) is incorrect as taking help from NGOs is not discussed in the passage making the given statement go out of the scope of the passage.

QUESTION: 78

The contemplation of beauty as a concept has taken many dimensions; the universal theme that runs through all such thinking is the centrality of the beholder, which implies that beauty does not come alive unless there is a gifted and well-trained mind capable of perceiving, criticising and appreciating the object of beauty. This argument is an old favourite of the artists who obsess over muses to create masterpieces, which are their interpretation of the muse.
It is a challenge to frame this concept of beauty into an idea of education that can be attuned in a practical setup of everyday life, for common people. This lack of pedagogical mainstreaming of art has regrettably kept thoughtful beauty in reserves of museums and galleries, while in the background our TV screens and public places are flooded with gross objects that incite an immediate sensual upsurge, with not even the training given to the common man, to interpret it kindly. What ensues is a hyper-consumption of fundamentally tasteless art.

Q. According to the context laid out in the passage, which of the following is the most appropriate assumption of the term ‘muse’?

Solution:

Options A, B and D are incorrect because neither are they particularly mentioned in the passage nor do they directly relate to the theme of the passage, for certain. Option C is correct because it makes a broad yet relevant assumption of the term muse, which rings true within the passage.

QUESTION: 79

The contemplation of beauty as a concept has taken many dimensions; the universal theme that runs through all such thinking is the centrality of the beholder, which implies that beauty does not come alive unless there is a gifted and well-trained mind capable of perceiving, criticising and appreciating the object of beauty. This argument is an old favourite of the artists who obsess over muses to create masterpieces, which are their interpretation of the muse.
It is a challenge to frame this concept of beauty into an idea of education that can be attuned in a practical setup of everyday life, for common people. This lack of pedagogical mainstreaming of art has regrettably kept thoughtful beauty in reserves of museums and galleries, while in the background our TV screens and public places are flooded with gross objects that incite an immediate sensual upsurge, with not even the training given to the common man, to interpret it kindly. What ensues is a hyper-consumption of fundamentally tasteless art.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following is regretted by the author?

Solution:

Option A is incorrect because it is not stated in the passage that there is no concept of beauty left in the society, the fact that there is a concept of beauty within the society but it cannot be made available to the people is what is regretted, and hence option B is correct. Option C is very close to being the correct answer, but is secondary to option B in validity, because the term regret appears in the passage in reference to the statement made in option B, whereas option C states something which is not directly and sufficiently referred to regret. Option D is incorrect because the passage has to be stretched in interpretation to accommodate the statement therein, and there are better options available in the question, in terms of direct validity.

QUESTION: 80