UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 6 (August 12, 2021)


80 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 6 (August 12, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 6 (August 12, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 80 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 6 (August 12, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 6 (August 12, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 6 (August 12, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 6 (August 12, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
 

Passage 1
 

The truth about ageing in India is that we have not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to its multifarious challenges. So says the UN Population Fund in its recently released report on the Status of Elderly in Select States of India. The focus of the study is on the seven states where the aged population is larger than the national average. These are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. Three fourths of the elderly live in rural areas and bear the brunt of poverty, illiteracy, income insecurity and inadequate health care. Sixty per cent of them are currently married and over 75 percent live with at least one of their children. But widowhood is over 50 percent among women, reflecting greater longevity among females and gender specific concerns that arise on account of ageing. The survey also reports high levels of substance abuse, with no significant variations between rural and urban areas. On an average, there is equal reliance on public and private health care facilities, while in Odisha and Punjab respectively, there is noticeably greater dependence on public and private care. The economic burden incurred by the elderly to make provision for health care is compounded by the fact that most of them have to work to make ends meet and enjoy no social protection to speak of.
There are major lessons from the survey for the rest of India. After all, the proportion of the segment aged 60 years and above is projected to grow by 360 % by 2050, compared with a mere 60 % rate of increase in the overall population- a product of the decline in fertility rates and the increase in longevity. A rapid rise in the numbers ofthe elderly would impose additional responsibilities on an ever-shrinking population in the working age and raise fresh social challenges in the context of the ongoing nuclearization of India's traditional joint family. In Western countries, economic development and accompanying socio-political advancement preceded population ageing, enabling better planning. India, as with other developing countries, finds itself having to balance the concerns of the elderly into its current growth imperatives. Conversely, investments in sound social projection and public health and welfare policies for the country's predominant population under 35 years would prove a most effective strategy to prepare communities to meet the unfolding transition in the coming decades. Short of such a proactive approach, there is a real risk of allowing today's demographic advantage to turn into tomorrow's adversity.

Consider the following statements
1. The issue of ageing should be approached in a manner that also considers gender specific concerns of the phenomenon ofageing.

2. The information on response strategies to ageing in India is not adequate.

Q.

Which of the given statements are valid?

Solution:

The passage talks about the findings of a study by the UNPF regarding the "truth about ageing in India." According to the study, India has "not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to the multifarious challenges" posed by ageing. There is no mention of information on response strategies to ageing in India being adequate or not. Thus statement 2 is negated. The passage mentions the significant findings of the study and implies that any approach to the issue of ageing in India should take steps to address the various concerns raised. Statement 1 is thus valid.

QUESTION: 2

Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
 

Passage 1
 

The truth about ageing in India is that we have not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to its multifarious challenges. So says the UN Population Fund in its recently released report on the Status of Elderly in Select States of India. The focus of the study is on the seven states where the aged population is larger than the national average. These are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. Three fourths of the elderly live in rural areas and bear the brunt of poverty, illiteracy, income insecurity and inadequate health care. Sixty per cent of them are currently married and over 75 percent live with at least one of their children. But widowhood is over 50 percent among women, reflecting greater longevity among females and gender specific concerns that arise on account of ageing. The survey also reports high levels of substance abuse, with no significant variations between rural and urban areas. On an average, there is equal reliance on public and private health care facilities, while in Odisha and Punjab respectively, there is noticeably greater dependence on public and private care. The economic burden incurred by the elderly to make provision for health care is compounded by the fact that most of them have to work to make ends meet and enjoy no social protection to speak of.
There are major lessons from the survey for the rest of India. After all, the proportion of the segment aged 60 years and above is projected to grow by 360 % by 2050, compared with a mere 60 % rate of increase in the overall population- a product of the decline in fertility rates and the increase in longevity. A rapid rise in the numbers ofthe elderly would impose additional responsibilities on an ever-shrinking population in the working age and raise fresh social challenges in the context of the ongoing nuclearization of India's traditional joint family. In Western countries, economic development and accompanying socio-political advancement preceded population ageing, enabling better planning. India, as with other developing countries, finds itself having to balance the concerns of the elderly into its current growth imperatives. Conversely, investments in sound social projection and public health and welfare policies for the country's predominant population under 35 years would prove a most effective strategy to prepare communities to meet the unfolding transition in the coming decades. Short of such a proactive approach, there is a real risk of allowing today's demographic advantage to turn into tomorrow's adversity.

Consider the following statements
1. The issue of ageing should be approached in a manner that also considers gender specific concerns of the phenomenon ofageing.

2. The information on response strategies to ageing in India is not adequate.

Q.

Which of the following options is not related to the findings of the survey?

Solution:

The passage mentions findings of the survey such as the fact that most of the elderly have to work make ends meet and that "a rapid rise in the numbers of the elderly would impose additional responsibilities on an ever shrinking population in the working age" and "investments in sound social....transition in the coming decades." Options a, b and d respectively, can be inferred from the above mentioned findings. The survey, however, does not speak of the need to curb the overall growth of the population in India. Thus option c

QUESTION: 3

Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
 

Passage 1
 

The truth about ageing in India is that we have not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to its multifarious challenges. So says the UN Population Fund in its recently released report on the Status of Elderly in Select States of India. The focus of the study is on the seven states where the aged population is larger than the national average. These are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. Three fourths of the elderly live in rural areas and bear the brunt of poverty, illiteracy, income insecurity and inadequate health care. Sixty per cent of them are currently married and over 75 percent live with at least one of their children. But widowhood is over 50 percent among women, reflecting greater longevity among females and gender specific concerns that arise on account of ageing. The survey also reports high levels of substance abuse, with no significant variations between rural and urban areas. On an average, there is equal reliance on public and private health care facilities, while in Odisha and Punjab respectively, there is noticeably greater dependence on public and private care. The economic burden incurred by the elderly to make provision for health care is compounded by the fact that most of them have to work to make ends meet and enjoy no social protection to speak of.
There are major lessons from the survey for the rest of India. After all, the proportion of the segment aged 60 years and above is projected to grow by 360 % by 2050, compared with a mere 60 % rate of increase in the overall population- a product of the decline in fertility rates and the increase in longevity. A rapid rise in the numbers ofthe elderly would impose additional responsibilities on an ever-shrinking population in the working age and raise fresh social challenges in the context of the ongoing nuclearization of India's traditional joint family. In Western countries, economic development and accompanying socio-political advancement preceded population ageing, enabling better planning. India, as with other developing countries, finds itself having to balance the concerns of the elderly into its current growth imperatives. Conversely, investments in sound social projection and public health and welfare policies for the country's predominant population under 35 years would prove a most effective strategy to prepare communities to meet the unfolding transition in the coming decades. Short of such a proactive approach, there is a real risk of allowing today's demographic advantage to turn into tomorrow's adversity.

Consider the following statements
1. The issue of ageing should be approached in a manner that also considers gender specific concerns of the phenomenon ofageing.

2. The information on response strategies to ageing in India is not adequate.

Q.

Which of the following options best explains why the Western world has been able to deal with an ageing population betterthan India has?

Solution:

Refer to the sentence "In western countries enabling better planning." in the 2nd paragraph. These lines
indicate that since the western countries first went through economic development and socio political advancement before they faced an ageing population, they were better equipped to plan for the latter. However, India has had to focus on both economic growth and the issue of the elderly. So, India has not been able to plan as well for the latter like the Western countries have. Option a is incorrect as the passage does not suggest that the western world decided to focus on achieving one socio economic goal at a time. It does not correctly present the point the author makes. Option b is incorrect as it indicated that the western world has had more time to plan for its ageing population which is not known based on the information available in the passage. Option c is incorrect based on the information available in the passage there is no way to know whether the western world has always placed a greater emphasis on social goals unlike developing countries.

QUESTION: 4

The biggest gain from the Union Government's welcome decision to notify the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal is that it may be the first and most significant step towards a permanent solution to the persistent conflict over sharing the inter-State river's waters. A positive feature is that implementation ofthe final award will involve the formation of a Cauvery Management Board to regulate the supply of water and a Water Regulation Committee, which will post representatives in each of the eight reservoirs in the basin states, to ensure that the decisions are carried out. Giving finality to the award through the notification may help take the issue away from politics and place it in the hands of a technical, expert body. The February 2007 award has been questioned by way of clarification petitions before the Tribunal itself as well as suits in the Supreme Court by both parties and sceptics may wonder how useful the gazette notification may be now. The parties are still free to pursue their clarification petitions and appeals, but in the larger interest of a long term solution and to end seasonal acrimony, they would do well to give the award a chance.
The fact that notifying the award has been a long pending demand ofTamil Nadu should not make one believe that the action redounds to one party's benefit to the detriment of the other. It was the Supreme Court that made the suggestion that the final decision be notified and counsel for all the basin states have agreed that it should be done. It may be argued that gazetting the award will not resolve the present standoff over judicial and administrative directives to Karnataka to release water to save standing crops in Tamil Nadu. The Cauvery Monitoring Committee, while asking Karnataka to ensure 12 thousand million cubic feet of water to Tamil Nadu in December, has itself admitted that its decision is unlikely to satisfy either party, given that both states have less water in their reservoirs than in previous years. Yet, is has opted for a pragmatic solution under which both states will be in deficit of approximately 47 tmcft. It is the same spirit of pragmatism that both states must now approach the larger problem of sharing water as per a judicially determined solution in both normal and distress years. The two should not let posterity say of them that long after equitable distribution has entrenched itself as the most acceptable doctrine in riverine jurisprudence, they did not allow a judicially determines system for sharing to work.


Q.

It can be inferred that notifying the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal could lead to

Solution:

Option a cannot be inferred from the passage as the effect that the tribunal will have on the speed of decision making is not known. Option b can be inferred from the sentences "Giving finality to the ....technical, expert body." Option c is incorrect as there is nothing in the passage to suggest that handing over the finality of the award to an expert body would detract attention from the main issue. Option d is incorrect as the sentence "The
parties are stillthe award a chance." States that, due to the tribunal, the two parties will still be free to pursue
their petitions and appeals. There is no talk of any greater freedom to them as regards the dispute.

QUESTION: 5

The biggest gain from the Union Government's welcome decision to notify the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal is that it may be the first and most significant step towards a permanent solution to the persistent conflict over sharing the inter-State river's waters. A positive feature is that implementation ofthe final award will involve the formation of a Cauvery Management Board to regulate the supply of water and a Water Regulation Committee, which will post representatives in each of the eight reservoirs in the basin states, to ensure that the decisions are carried out. Giving finality to the award through the notification may help take the issue away from politics and place it in the hands of a technical, expert body. The February 2007 award has been questioned by way of clarification petitions before the Tribunal itself as well as suits in the Supreme Court by both parties and sceptics may wonder how useful the gazette notification may be now. The parties are still free to pursue their clarification petitions and appeals, but in the larger interest of a long term solution and to end seasonal acrimony, they would do well to give the award a chance.
The fact that notifying the award has been a long pending demand ofTamil Nadu should not make one believe that the action redounds to one party's benefit to the detriment of the other. It was the Supreme Court that made the suggestion that the final decision be notified and counsel for all the basin states have agreed that it should be done. It may be argued that gazetting the award will not resolve the present standoff over judicial and administrative directives to Karnataka to release water to save standing crops in Tamil Nadu. The Cauvery Monitoring Committee, while asking Karnataka to ensure 12 thousand million cubic feet of water to Tamil Nadu in December, has itself admitted that its decision is unlikely to satisfy either party, given that both states have less water in their reservoirs than in previous years. Yet, is has opted for a pragmatic solution under which both states will be in deficit of approximately 47 tmcft. It is the same spirit of pragmatism that both states must now approach the larger problem of sharing water as per a judicially determined solution in both normal and distress years. The two should not let posterity say of them that long after equitable distribution has entrenched itself as the most acceptable doctrine in riverine jurisprudence, they did not allow a judicially determines system for sharing to work.

Q.
 

Which of the following options cannot be inferred as a negation with respect to the award of the tribunal?

Solution:

The question asks for a reference to negations that have been made with reference to the award of the tribunal.
Refer to the 2nd paragraph for this. Option a can be inferred from the sentence "It may be argued ............................................................................................... crops in
Tamil Nadu" given in the 2nd paragraph. Option b can be inferred from the sentence "has itself admitted....satisfy either party" option c can be inferred from the sentence "The fact that notifying...detriment of the other" and cannot be said to be a negation that been made with reference to the award of the tribunal. Option d cannot be inferred as there is no mention in the passage on whether the tribunal will dwell on how the reserves can be replenished from other sources, and is the answer.

QUESTION: 6

The biggest gain from the Union Government's welcome decision to notify the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal is that it may be the first and most significant step towards a permanent solution to the persistent conflict over sharing the inter-State river's waters. A positive feature is that implementation ofthe final award will involve the formation of a Cauvery Management Board to regulate the supply of water and a Water Regulation Committee, which will post representatives in each of the eight reservoirs in the basin states, to ensure that the decisions are carried out. Giving finality to the award through the notification may help take the issue away from politics and place it in the hands of a technical, expert body. The February 2007 award has been questioned by way of clarification petitions before the Tribunal itself as well as suits in the Supreme Court by both parties and sceptics may wonder how useful the gazette notification may be now. The parties are still free to pursue their clarification petitions and appeals, but in the larger interest of a long term solution and to end seasonal acrimony, they would do well to give the award a chance.
The fact that notifying the award has been a long pending demand ofTamil Nadu should not make one believe that the action redounds to one party's benefit to the detriment of the other. It was the Supreme Court that made the suggestion that the final decision be notified and counsel for all the basin states have agreed that it should be done. It may be argued that gazetting the award will not resolve the present standoff over judicial and administrative directives to Karnataka to release water to save standing crops in Tamil Nadu. The Cauvery Monitoring Committee, while asking Karnataka to ensure 12 thousand million cubic feet of water to Tamil Nadu in December, has itself admitted that its decision is unlikely to satisfy either party, given that both states have less water in their reservoirs than in previous years. Yet, is has opted for a pragmatic solution under which both states will be in deficit of approximately 47 tmcft. It is the same spirit of pragmatism that both states must now approach the larger problem of sharing water as per a judicially determined solution in both normal and distress years. The two should not let posterity say of them that long after equitable distribution has entrenched itself as the most acceptable doctrine in riverine jurisprudence, they did not allow a judicially determines system for sharing to work.

Q.
 

Consider the following assumptions:
1. The 2 parties in the dispute should favour the setting up of the tribunal as it will bring some resolution to the issue
2. The dispute between the 2 parties is best solved through the judicial route.

Which of the following assumptions are valid?

Solution:

Statement 1 can be inferred from the sentences "The biggest gain....inter-state river water" and "It is in the same for sharing to work." Statement 2 can be inferred from the sentence, "It is in the spirit ..................................................................................................... and distress years " in the 2nd paragraph of the passage wherein it is indicated that both states should approach the larger problem as per a judicially determined solution. Thus option c

QUESTION: 7

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Which of the following cannot be taken as a logical explanation for the emigrant problem in the UAE?

Solution:

Refer to the 2nd paragraph in which the author seeks to explain some of the reasons behind the emigrant problem in the UAE. Option a can be inferred from the sentence "On a broader plane ....search of livelihood." in the 2nd paragraph. Option b can be inferred from the sentence "Sponsors and employers ............................................................................. as opportunities shrink." Option c is incorrect since, although the 3rd sentence does imply that there are employees in the UAE who take advantage of shrinking job opportunities in order to deny fair wages to their migrant employees, there is no indication that the pay scales in the UAE are low in general. Option d can be inferred from the sentence "Sponsors and employers as opportunities shrink." Thus option c.

QUESTION: 8

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Which of the following options aptly perceives the role that the Indian government can play for emigrants to the UAE?

Solution:

Refer to the sentences "The Emigration act should ....welfare of the diaspora." given in the 2nd paragraph of the passage. It can be inferred that the government should work for the welfare of its emigrants in the UAE. The sentence "Also taking into....the welfare of the diaspora." also indicates that the government gets the money from the remittances that emigrants send home to India. Option b adequately places these aspects together and is the answer. Option a is incorrect as it is a general statement and does not particularly refer to the emigrant situation. Option c is incorrect as the author does not indicate that the protection of bilateral interests is vital in the emigrant problem. In fact it is indicated that the bilateral agreements on this problem have not yielded results. Also the welfare of the diaspora has been given importance in the passage as opposed to the welfare of those who return to India. Option d is incorrect as it merely states that the Emigration Act should be reviewed which does not necessarily imply a ‘tightening ' of the provisions of the Act, as mentioned in the passage

QUESTION: 9

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Consider the following assumptions:
1. Illegal immigrants wait for the offers of amnesty of the UAE government to either legalize their stay or leave without paying fines.
2. A lot of the people seeking amnesty are workers who may have been detained in the UAE against their better judgement.

Which of the given assumptions are valid?

Solution:

Statement 1 is an invalid assumption as there is no mention of people waiting to avail of the offer of amnesty by the UAE government to either legalize their stay or to leave without having to pay a fine. Statement 2 can be inferred from the sentence "It is well known that....the quantum of pay." Which particularly implies that the emigrant workers who are being offered amnesty and regularisation are being given this option because the UAE government may not be able to place the blame of illegal stay on the individuals, as it is the recruiting agents who make false promises to the emigrants and dupe them. This is also why the Indian government has been advised to be sensitive and to allow for a free air passage for returnees.

QUESTION: 10

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

How many gift boxes were sold on Monday?
Statements:
I. It was 10% more than the boxes sold on the earlier day i.e. Sunday.

II. Every third visitor to the shop purchased the box and 1500 visitors were there on Sunday

Solution:

From II, we can conclude that (1500 *3) = 500 boxes were sold on Sunday.

Thus, from I, we find that number of boxes sold on Monday = 500 + 10% of 500 = 550.

QUESTION: 11

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is Rakesh's position from the right end in a row of children?
Statements:
I. There are 10 children between Rakesh and Rohan.
II. Rohan is twentieth from the left end of the row of children.

Solution:

Clearly, neither the number of children in the row is given nor the position of Rakesh relative to Rohan is mentioned in any one of I or II.

QUESTION: 12

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
 

A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

Which train did Anuj catch to go to office?
Statements:
I. Anuj missed his usual train of 10.25 a.m. A train comes in every 5 minutes.
II. Anuj did not catch the 10.40 a.m. train or any train after that time.

Solution:

From I and II, we conclude that Anuj went to office by either 10.30 a.m. or 10.35 a.m. train.

QUESTION: 13

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

On which day of the week did Jeetu visit the zoo?
Statements:
I. Jeetu did not visit zoo either on Tuesday or on Thursday.
II. Jeetu visited zoo two days before his mother reached his house which was day after Monday.

Solution:

According to I, Jeetu visited the zoo on any of the week days exceptTuesday and Thursday.

According to II, Jeetu's mother reached his house day after Monday i.e. on Tuesday.
Thus, Jeetu visited zoo two days before Tuesday i.e. on Sunday.

QUESTION: 14

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

The Chairman of a big company visits one department on Monday of every week except for the Monday of third week of every month. When did he visit the Sales department?
Statements:
I. He visited Accounts department in the second week of September after having visited Sales department on the earlier occasion.
II. He had visited Sales department immediately after visiting Stores department but before visiting Accounts department.

Solution:

From I, we can conclude that the Chairman visited Sales department on Monday of the first week of September. The time of visit of no department is mentioned in II, which is, therefore, insufficient.

QUESTION: 15

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is the monthly salary of Sachin?
Statements:
I. Sachin gets 15% more than Rakesh while Rakesh gets 10% less than Lokesh.
II. Lokesh's monthly salary is Rs 2500.

Solution:

From both I and II, we find that:
Sachin's salary = 115% of (90% of Rs 2500) = Rs 2587.50.

QUESTION: 16

Krishna Narayan has been transferred recently to handle a new task. There were initial problems with the productivity of the new team. But, with his skill of interpersonal engagements, Krishna Narayan has brought about observable increase in the performance of the team. He is successfully making all members aware of their roles and standards. What should Krishna Narayan do to keep increasing the productivity?

Solution:

It is clear that Krishna Narayan is a good leader, but leadership is a continuous requirement of any team, hence (a) is ruled out. As he has been successful in increasing the performance, he should now try to make his team members identify with their roles. Once it is done then the individual is intrinsically motivated to perform their role in better ways. Their involvement will follow then. And deadlines can be easily emphasized. Hence (d) is the best option

QUESTION: 17

Mrs. Pathak is a successful and able worker. She carries hope and positive energy. But she has an opponent in Mr. Naynar who cannot see eye-to-eye with her in the office. Mr. Ramgoswamy (Mrs. Pathak's Boss) is very fond of Mrs. Pathak because of her past record of successes and sense of optimism. Mrs. Pathak came up with a proposal having complete confidence in its success. But, as usual Mr. Naynar opposed it. What should Mr. Ramgoswamy do?

Solution:

Option (a) shows a prejudiced approach to relate every criticism by Mr Naynarha having a personal reason, therefore it is ruled out as most inappropriate. As this is Mrs Pathak's proposal, she should be given chance to answer before you take the final decision. When you are already taking the criticisms positively, there is no need for (c), even though it is not totally inappropriate.

QUESTION: 18

You are the administrative head of an area and your primary responsibility includes maintaining law and order and ensuring development of the area. A big car manufacturing company is setting up its car-manufacturing unit in the area and there is a group of people that opposes the setting up to the plant. This group feels that they didn't get a fair deal when their land was transferred to the car manufacturing company. They are demanding that either more compensation be paid or their land be returned to them. A regional political party has also supported their demand and they are protesting against the company. The situation is on the brink of explosion and can turn ugly any moment. In a situation like this you will

Solution:

When both the parties are involved in working out the compensation, there are more chances of achieving a win- win situation, hence (b) is the best option, (c) is against democratic principles, so ruled out. (d) is least preferred as there is no demand for the employment.

QUESTION: 19

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statement
There has been significant drop in the water level of all the lakes supplying water to the city.

 

Courses of action
I. The water supply authority should impose a partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.
II. The government should appeal to all the residents through mass media for minimal use of water.

Solution:

The second step is favourable. As water is among the most essential commodities, partial cut off of supply is not wise. But an appeal to minimise the use, though may not be so effective, can be done without any repercussion.

QUESTION: 20

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statement
The prices of food grains and vegetables have substantially increased due to prolonged strike called by the truck owners' association.

 

Courses of action
I. The government should immediately make alternative arrangement to ensure adequate supply of foodgrains and vegetables in the market.
II. The government should take steps to cancel the licenses of all vehicles belonging to the association.

Solution:

Foodgrains and vegetables are essential commodities for households. So, the government must arrange for alternative ways to continue the supply of these commodities. But, licenses should not be cancelled forthwith. Before that, the government should resort to negotiations.

QUESTION: 21

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
There is an unprecedented increase in migration of villagers to urban areas as repeated crop failure has put them into precarious financial situation.

Courses of action
I. The villagers should be provided with alternate source of income in their villages which will make them stay out.
II. The migrated villagers should be provided with jobs in the urban areas to help them survive.

Solution:

Action I can help to get rid of the problem of excessive migration from rural to urban areas. Action II also follows because the word ‘precarious financial situation' tells the whole story.

QUESTION: 22

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
Many private sector banks have reduced interest rate on housing loans in comparison to public sector banks.

 

Courses of action

I. Public sector banks should explore new avenues in financial sector and try to establish their monopoly in these avenues and they should provide maximum possible and unique benefit to the customers.
II. The public sector banks should advertise their special feature repeatedly so that they do not lose their future customers.

Solution:

Both the actions will tighten the grip of public sector banks on customers. Hence both follow.

QUESTION: 23

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
In the domestic market, the availability of imported fruits has been speeded up. So the demand for the domestic fruits has been decreased.
Courses of action
I. To help the fruit producers of the country—the government should implement strict import duties on these fruits, even in the case of their quality being better.
II. Fruits sellers should stop selling imported fruits, due to this there will be an increase in the selling of domestic fruits.

Solution:

None of the actions is practical. Both the actions are biased and impractical. Hence, neither I not II follows.

QUESTION: 24

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
There is a considerable increase in the number of persons affected by water-borne disease during monsoon period.

Courses of action
I. Government should disseminate adequate information regarding the pure drinking water to people.
II. All the hospitals in the city should be equipped properly for the treatment of patients during monsoon period.

Solution:

Action I will help in controlling the disease before it spreads. Action II will enable the government to control any eventuality.

QUESTION: 25

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
India has been continuously experiencing threats from its neighbouring countries.
Courses of action
I. India should engage into an all-out war to stop the nagging threats.
II. India should get the neighbours into a serious dialogue to reduce the tension at its borders.

Solution:

War is not a solution to any problem. Hence action I does not follow. Disputes or differences can be solved through dialogue or negotiation. Hence action II follows.

QUESTION: 26

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 1
Greenpeace International is sending out a ship to protest a tanker bringing the first oil produced at a new Russian offshore platform in the Arctic Circle to Rotterdam. The environmental group said Monday it has sent the "Rainbow Warrior III" to meet the Mikhail Ulyanov, a tanker chartered by Russia's state-controlled oil company, Gazprom OAO.
In September, 28 Greenpeace activists and two freelance journalists were arrested and charged with piracy after a protest near Gazprom's Prirazlomnaya offshore Arctic platform. They were released before the Winter Olympics in Sochi earlier this year. Their ship, "Arctic Sunrise," is still being held by Russian authorities.
Greenpeace has fiercely opposed the production of oil in the Arctic Circle, warning of the danger of oil spills in such unforgiving territory and ofthe worsening global warming caused by using fossil fuels. In a statement Sunday, Greenpeace added a geopolitical reason, saying buying the oil "increases our dependence on Russian energy firms and only serves to strengthen President Putin's hand in the geopolitical game he's playing."
Greenpeace criticized the French oil company Total SA for purchasing the oil, saying it was being hypocritical because its chief executive, Christophe de Margerie, had ruled out drilling in the Arctic in 2012 due to fears of spills.

Q.

​Arctic Sunrise is

Solution:

Refer to the last line of the 5th para, which says that the ship is held by the Russian authorities not the Gazprom OAO

QUESTION: 27

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 1
Greenpeace International is sending out a ship to protest a tanker bringing the first oil produced at a new Russian offshore platform in the Arctic Circle to Rotterdam. The environmental group said Monday it has sent the "Rainbow Warrior III" to meet the Mikhail Ulyanov, a tanker chartered by Russia's state-controlled oil company, Gazprom OAO.
In September, 28 Greenpeace activists and two freelance journalists were arrested and charged with piracy after a protest near Gazprom's Prirazlomnaya offshore Arctic platform. They were released before the Winter Olympics in Sochi earlier this year. Their ship, "Arctic Sunrise," is still being held by Russian authorities.
Greenpeace has fiercely opposed the production of oil in the Arctic Circle, warning of the danger of oil spills in such unforgiving territory and ofthe worsening global warming caused by using fossil fuels. In a statement Sunday, Greenpeace added a geopolitical reason, saying buying the oil "increases our dependence on Russian energy firms and only serves to strengthen President Putin's hand in the geopolitical game he's playing."
Greenpeace criticized the French oil company Total SA for purchasing the oil, saying it was being hypocritical because its chief executive, Christophe de Margerie, had ruled out drilling in the Arctic in 2012 due to fears of spills.

Q.

The reasons in the passage given for the opposition by Greenpeace, to the oil exploration are
1. Global warming
2. Chances of an oil spill
3. Depletion of resources
4. The danger to the flora and fauna there
5. Geopolitical

Choose the correct answer

Solution:

Refer to the 6th and 7th paragraph for the reasons of opposition by Greenpeace

QUESTION: 28

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answer the item that follow.
 

English Passage - 1
 

Greenpeace International is sending out a ship to protest a tanker bringing the first oil produced at a new Russian offshore platform in the Arctic Circle to Rotterdam. The environmental group said Monday it has sent the "Rainbow Warrior III" to meet the Mikhail Ulyanov, a tanker chartered by Russia's state-controlled oil company, Gazprom OAO.
In September, 28 Greenpeace activists and two freelance journalists were arrested and charged with piracy after a protest near Gazprom's Prirazlomnaya offshore Arctic platform. They were released before the Winter Olympics in Sochi earlier this year. Their ship, "Arctic Sunrise," is still being held by Russian authorities.
Greenpeace has fiercely opposed the production of oil in the Arctic Circle, warning of the danger of oil spills in such unforgiving territory and ofthe worsening global warming caused by using fossil fuels. In a statement Sunday, Greenpeace added a geopolitical reason, saying buying the oil "increases our dependence on Russian energy firms and only serves to strengthen President Putin's hand in the geopolitical game he's playing."
Greenpeace criticized the French oil company Total SA for purchasing the oil, saying it was being hypocritical because its chief executive, Christophe de Margerie, had ruled out drilling in the Arctic in 2012 due to fears of spills.

Q.

The word in underlined  "hypocritical" most nearly means in the passage as

Solution:

Hypocritical is derived from the word hypocrite

QUESTION: 29

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 2
The helix is a complex shape found in many natural settings. It is commonly illustrated by the shape of DNA molecules. The roots of some plants also burrow as helices, like corkscrews winding downward in search of richer soil. But during an experiment at Harvard University, mechanical engineers were surprised when a pair of rubber ribbons expected to form a helix did not, buckling into a shape rarely observed in nature.
Every helix winds in a left or right direction. The engineers observed what they called a hemi helix: a helix that changes its direction midway. The region along which it changes its direction is called a perversion. Charles Darwin observed plant tendrils forming hemi helices in 1888. Thanks to the Harvard team, we know why they form: "as a result of elastic instabilities", according to Katia Bertoldi, a professor of applied mechanics at the university and a participant in the study.
"The geometry and pre-stretch parameters assign different competition power to these two categories," explained Dr. Bertoldi in an email. Specifically, they found that which shape forms depends on the strips' aspect ratio: the ratio of its length to width. With fixed stretching force for a given polymer, hemi helices were preferred for lower aspect ratios, when the buckling load increased. For ratios around or under 1, the number of perversions increased quickly. For ratios over 3, helices were preferred.
Thus, by tweaking the make-up of certain elastic ribbons, Dr. Bertoldi's work shows we can deterministically manufacture complex 3D shapes from flat structures. This is already a ubiquitous enterprise — e.g. beating sheet metal into the chassis of a car. "The potential applications involve 3D electromagnetic wave-guides, and mechanical, thermal and chemical sensors," Prof. Bertoldi added.

Q.

The shape of hemi helices in nature was first observed by

Solution:

The passage has not mentioned that Mr. Darwin was the 1st one to observe hemi helices. The Harvard team came out with the explanation of formation of hemi helices.

QUESTION: 30

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 2
The helix is a complex shape found in many natural settings. It is commonly illustrated by the shape of DNA molecules. The roots of some plants also burrow as helices, like corkscrews winding downward in search of richer soil. But during an experiment at Harvard University, mechanical engineers were surprised when a pair of rubber ribbons expected to form a helix did not, buckling into a shape rarely observed in nature.
Every helix winds in a left or right direction. The engineers observed what they called a hemi helix: a helix that changes its direction midway. The region along which it changes its direction is called a perversion. Charles Darwin observed plant tendrils forming hemi helices in 1888. Thanks to the Harvard team, we know why they form: "as a result of elastic instabilities", according to Katia Bertoldi, a professor of applied mechanics at the university and a participant in the study.
"The geometry and pre-stretch parameters assign different competition power to these two categories," explained Dr. Bertoldi in an email. Specifically, they found that which shape forms depends on the strips' aspect ratio: the ratio of its length to width. With fixed stretching force for a given polymer, hemi helices were preferred for lower aspect ratios, when the buckling load increased. For ratios around or under 1, the number of perversions increased quickly. For ratios over 3, helices were preferred.
Thus, by tweaking the make-up of certain elastic ribbons, Dr. Bertoldi's work shows we can deterministically manufacture complex 3D shapes from flat structures. This is already a ubiquitous enterprise — e.g. beating sheet metal into the chassis of a car. "The potential applications involve 3D electromagnetic wave-guides, and mechanical, thermal and chemical sensors," Prof. Bertoldi added.

Q.

The chances of formation of hemi helices instead of helices depend on
1. The aspect ratio
2. The buckling load Choose the correct answer

Solution:

Both options are correct. Refer to the 4th line of the 4th para.

QUESTION: 31

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 2
The helix is a complex shape found in many natural settings. It is commonly illustrated by the shape of DNA molecules. The roots of some plants also burrow as helices, like corkscrews winding downward in search of richer soil. But during an experiment at Harvard University, mechanical engineers were surprised when a pair of rubber ribbons expected to form a helix did not, buckling into a shape rarely observed in nature.
Every helix winds in a left or right direction. The engineers observed what they called a hemi helix: a helix that changes its direction midway. The region along which it changes its direction is called a perversion. Charles Darwin observed plant tendrils forming hemi helices in 1888. Thanks to the Harvard team, we know why they form: "as a result of elastic instabilities", according to Katia Bertoldi, a professor of applied mechanics at the university and a participant in the study.
"The geometry and pre-stretch parameters assign different competition power to these two categories," explained Dr. Bertoldi in an email. Specifically, they found that which shape forms depends on the strips' aspect ratio: the ratio of its length to width. With fixed stretching force for a given polymer, hemi helices were preferred for lower aspect ratios, when the buckling load increased. For ratios around or under 1, the number of perversions increased quickly. For ratios over 3, helices were preferred.
Thus, by tweaking the make-up of certain elastic ribbons, Dr. Bertoldi's work shows we can deterministically manufacture complex 3D shapes from flat structures. This is already a ubiquitous enterprise — e.g. beating sheet metal into the chassis of a car. "The potential applications involve 3D electromagnetic wave-guides, and mechanical, thermal and chemical sensors," Prof. Bertoldi added.

Q.

 

The passage suggests that the potential applications of this experiment are huge as-

Solution:

Refer to the last paragraph.

QUESTION: 32

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 3

Organic food market in India is expanding at a staggering rate of 400 per cent every year according to a report published by Confederation of Indian Industry (Cll) but the farmers are unable to realise the full potential of the crops grown with natural fertilizer.
It is because they are marginalised by the government which extended maximum support to corporate entities, said G.V. Ramanjaneyulu, Director of Secunderabad-based Centre for Sustainable Agriculture (CSA).
Addressing a seminar on organic farming at Andhra Chamber of Commerce and Industry (ACCI) here on Saturday, Mr. Ramanjaneyulu said empirical data gathered from about nine lakh farmers across the country proved that the difference in yields of organic and conventional systems of agriculture was just about five per cent.
The cost of production came down by 10 to 15 per cent and returns were higher by at least 10 per cent.
Farmers were able to achieve better yields but they struggled in marketing the organic products due to the lack of government support. Post-harvest and supply chain issues bothered the farmers and the government rarely came to their rescue.
Mr. Ramanjaneyulu stressed the need for a major shift in fertilizer usage from NPK to organic manures and chemical-based pesticides which have high concentrations of heavy metals, to eco-friendly substances.
The rising costs and inability of farmers to sustain the present levels of production were issues of concern around the world and the only long-term solution was organic farming.
A global action plan and concerted action were essential to deal with the imminent crises in agriculture sector in which technology plays a limited role, the CSA Director observed. ACCI Chairman M. Murali Krishna and former ZP chairman Kadiyala Raghava Rao were present.

Q.

 

The farmers could not benefit as expected from organic farming due to

Solution:

Refer to the 2nd and the 5th para

QUESTION: 33

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 3

Organic food market in India is expanding at a staggering rate of 400 per cent every year according to a report published by Confederation of Indian Industry (Cll) but the farmers are unable to realise the full potential of the crops grown with natural fertilizer.
It is because they are marginalised by the government which extended maximum support to corporate entities, said G.V. Ramanjaneyulu, Director of Secunderabad-based Centre for Sustainable Agriculture (CSA).
Addressing a seminar on organic farming at Andhra Chamber of Commerce and Industry (ACCI) here on Saturday, Mr. Ramanjaneyulu said empirical data gathered from about nine lakh farmers across the country proved that the difference in yields of organic and conventional systems of agriculture was just about five per cent.
The cost of production came down by 10 to 15 per cent and returns were higher by at least 10 per cent.
Farmers were able to achieve better yields but they struggled in marketing the organic products due to the lack of government support. Post-harvest and supply chain issues bothered the farmers and the government rarely came to their rescue.
Mr. Ramanjaneyulu stressed the need for a major shift in fertilizer usage from NPK to organic manures and chemical-based pesticides which have high concentrations of heavy metals, to eco-friendly substances.
The rising costs and inability of farmers to sustain the present levels of production were issues of concern around the world and the only long-term solution was organic farming.
A global action plan and concerted action were essential to deal with the imminent crises in agriculture sector in which technology plays a limited role, the CSA Director observed. ACCI Chairman M. Murali Krishna and former ZP chairman Kadiyala Raghava Rao were present.

Q.

 

The reason given to shift to the use of organic manures from pesticides is-

Solution:

Refer to the 3rd last paragraph.

QUESTION: 34

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What time did the train leave today?

Statements:
I. The train normally leaves on time.
II. The scheduled departure is at 18: 30.

Solution:

Even both I and II together do not reveal the exact time of departure of the train today, as "normally" word is used. So it is not necessary that train left at time today.

QUESTION: 35

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

How many sons do D has?
Statements:
I. A's father has three children.
II. B is A's brother and son of D.

Solution:

From both I and II together, we can conclude that A and B are the children of D, but the sex of A and the third child of D is not known. So, both I and II together are also not sufficient to answer the question.

QUESTION: 36

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

How is M related to N?
 

Statements:
I. P, who has only two kids, M and N, is the mother-in-law of Q, who is sister-in-law of N.
II. R, the sister-in-law of M, is the daughter-in-law of S, who has only two kids, M and N.

Solution:

From I, we conclude that P is the mother of M and N, while Q is the daughter-in-law of P and sister-in-law of N. Thus, Q is M's wife and hence, M is N's brother.
From II, we conclude that M and N are the children of S. Also, R is the daughter-in-law of S and sister-in-law of M. So, R is N's wife and thus, N is M's brother. Hence, M is either brother or sister of N.

QUESTION: 37

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is the color of the green grass?
 

Statements:
I. Amber is called green, red is called orange and orange is called yellow
II. Yellow is called white, white is called black, green is called brown and brown is called purple.

Solution:

The color of grass is green and as given in II, 'green' is called 'brown'. So, the color of fresh grass is 'brown'.

QUESTION: 38

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

Siddhu ranks eighteenth from the top in a class. What is his rank from the last?
 

Statements:
I. There are 47 students in the class.
II. Shyam who ranks 10th in the same class, ranks 38th from the last.

Solution:

From I, we conclude that in a class of 47 students, Siddhu ranks 18th from the top and hence 30th from the last.

From II, we conclude that there are 9 students above and 37 students below Shyam in rank. Thus, there are (9 + 1 + 37) = 47 students in the class.
So, Siddhu, who ranks 18th from the top, is 30th from the last.

QUESTION: 39

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is the rank of P from the bottom in a class of 50 students?
 

Statements:
I. M is third from the top and there are five students between M and P.
II. The rank of K is fourth from the bottom and there are 37 students between K and P.

Solution:

From I, we conclude that P is 9th from the top. Thus, in a class of 50 students, P ranks 42nd from the bottom.

From II, we conclude that P is 42nd from the bottom.

QUESTION: 40

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

In a row offive buildings P, Q, R, S and T, which building is in the middle?
 

Statements:
I. Buildings S and Q are at the two extreme ends of the row.
II. Building T is to the right of building R.

Solution:

From I, we have the order: S, -, -, -, Q. From II, we have the order: R, T. Combining the above two, we get two possible orders: S, R, T, P, Q or S, P, R, T, Q. Thus, either TorRis in the middle.

QUESTION: 41

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

How many speeches were delivered in the 4 days' program?
Statements:
I. 18 speakers were invited to give at least one speech (maximum of two speeches), out of which one-sixth of the speakers could not come.
II. One-third of the speakers gave two speeches each.

Solution:

From I, we find that number of speakers who attended program =18-(l/6) of 18 = 15.
From II, we find that one-third of 15 i.e. 5 speakers gave 2 speeches each, while each of the remaining 10 speakers delivered only one speech.
So, total number of speeches delivered = (5x2 + 10xl) = 20.

QUESTION: 42

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

Among five friends, who is the tallest?
Statements:
I. DistallerthanAandC.
II. B is shorter than E but taller than D.

Solution:

From I, we have: D>A,D>C.
From II, we have: E>B>D.
Combining the above two, we get: E>B>D>A>CorE>B>D>C>A.
Thus, E is the tallest.

QUESTION: 43

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answers to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1
A draft bill released in September, by the Ministry of social justice and empowerment speaks up for the rights of PWDs as integral members of society. It has been largely hailed as a progressive legislation aligned to the spirit of the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, of which India is a signatory. This convention acknowledges PWDs as active members of society who have rights and the power to exercise them.
Javed Abidi, disability rights activist, welcomes the draft's provision to grant PWDs full legal capacity. PWDs can make their own financial decisions, take bank loans, inherit or own property. Earlier those deemed incapacitated were often at the mercy of a plenary guardianship wherein someone substituted for them before law. This has been reduced to limited guardianship with PWDs having a say. They also have a say regarding their reproductive choices for example they cannot be subject to any medical procedure which could result in infertility without their free and informed consent.
The draft bill also carves out a rightful share by way of reservations for PWDs when it comes to education, housing and jobs or allocation of agricultural land. It clearly spells out penal provisions for defaulters. For instance, penalties are prescribed not only for assault or sexual harassment but even mistreatment of PWDs by denying them food or water- in this case the offender should be sentenced toa3 month imprisonment. Accessibility is vital for PWDs and the bill requires that all public buildings should be disabled friendly within 5 years of the Act coming into force.
Mithu Alur, founder of the Spastics Society of India, is pleased with the draft but points out that it is rhetoric on paper unless operationalized at the earliest. "We need to come together and empower PWDs about their rights and how to exercise them" she adds.

Even as urban India continues to grow, the vast majority of the population (which would include the PWD populace) hails from the hinterlands. It is felt that the draft bill may not best serve the rural PWDs. For instance, a grievance often has to be filed by a PWD at far away district headquarter. The litmus test of this progressive bill, when enacted, will hinge on its effective implementation.
It can be inferred from the passage that the draft bill by the ministry of social justice and empowerment aims to-
(a) fight for the right of PWDs to be accepted in society
(b) integrate PWDs into the mainstream society
(c) bring in enhanced medical assistance for PWDs
(d) strengthen the existing legal cases of PWDs

 

Q.

Which of the following options have not been acknowledged as a rightful part of a PWD's life?
1. Full and free legal provisions
2. Financial independence
3. Right to the ability to procreate
4. Access to required luxuries Choose the correct option

Solution:

It is clearly mentioned that the draft bill released by the ministry speaks up for the rights of PWDs as integral members of the society. It is also in agreement with the objectives for the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, which "acknowledges PWD as active members of society who have rights and the power to exercise them." Thus option b is correct. Options c and d are incorrect as the passage nowhere mentions that the bill aims to bring in enhanced medical assistance for PWDs or strengthen the existing legal cases of PWDs. Option a is incorrect as there is no indication that the draft bill supports an activist ideology and fights for the rights of PWDs.

QUESTION: 44

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answers to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1
A draft bill released in September, by the Ministry of social justice and empowerment speaks up for the rights of PWDs as integral members of society. It has been largely hailed as a progressive legislation aligned to the spirit of the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, of which India is a signatory. This convention acknowledges PWDs as active members of society who have rights and the power to exercise them.
Javed Abidi, disability rights activist, welcomes the draft's provision to grant PWDs full legal capacity. PWDs can make their own financial decisions, take bank loans, inherit or own property. Earlier those deemed incapacitated were often at the mercy of a plenary guardianship wherein someone substituted for them before law. This has been reduced to limited guardianship with PWDs having a say. They also have a say regarding their reproductive choices for example they cannot be subject to any medical procedure which could result in infertility without their free and informed consent.
The draft bill also carves out a rightful share by way of reservations for PWDs when it comes to education, housing and jobs or allocation of agricultural land. It clearly spells out penal provisions for defaulters. For instance, penalties are prescribed not only for assault or sexual harassment but even mistreatment of PWDs by denying them food or water- in this case the offender should be sentenced toa3 month imprisonment. Accessibility is vital for PWDs and the bill requires that all public buildings should be disabled friendly within 5 years of the Act coming into force.
Mithu Alur, founder of the Spastics Society of India, is pleased with the draft but points out that it is rhetoric on paper unless operationalized at the earliest. "We need to come together and empower PWDs about their rights and how to exercise them" she adds.

Even as urban India continues to grow, the vast majority of the population (which would include the PWD populace) hails from the hinterlands. It is felt that the draft bill may not best serve the rural PWDs. For instance, a grievance often has to be filed by a PWD at far away district headquarter. The litmus test of this progressive bill, when enacted, will hinge on its effective implementation.

Which of the following options have not been acknowledged as a rightful part of a PWD's life?
1. Full and free legal provisions
2. Financial independence

3. Right to the ability to procreate
4. Access to required luxuries

Solution:

The passage mentions that "Earlier those deemed with PWDs having a say." Thus it can be inferred that
rather than full and free legal provisions what is considered appropriate for PWDs is a "limited guardianship." Thus statement 1 cannot be inferred from the passage. Statement 2 is correct and can be inferred from the
sentence "PWDs can make or own property." Statement 3 can be inferred from the sentence "They also have
a say . free and informed consent", mentioned in the passage. Statement 4 is incorrect as the 3rd paragraph
mentions the right to access basic amenities but their right to required luxuries is not mentioned in the passage.

QUESTION: 45

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answers to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1
A draft bill released in September, by the Ministry of social justice and empowerment speaks up for the rights of PWDs as integral members of society. It has been largely hailed as a progressive legislation aligned to the spirit of the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, of which India is a signatory. This convention acknowledges PWDs as active members of society who have rights and the power to exercise them.
Javed Abidi, disability rights activist, welcomes the draft's provision to grant PWDs full legal capacity. PWDs can make their own financial decisions, take bank loans, inherit or own property. Earlier those deemed incapacitated were often at the mercy of a plenary guardianship wherein someone substituted for them before law. This has been reduced to limited guardianship with PWDs having a say. They also have a say regarding their reproductive choices for example they cannot be subject to any medical procedure which could result in infertility without their free and informed consent.
The draft bill also carves out a rightful share by way of reservations for PWDs when it comes to education, housing and jobs or allocation of agricultural land. It clearly spells out penal provisions for defaulters. For instance, penalties are prescribed not only for assault or sexual harassment but even mistreatment of PWDs by denying them food or water- in this case the offender should be sentenced toa3 month imprisonment. Accessibility is vital for PWDs and the bill requires that all public buildings should be disabled friendly within 5 years of the Act coming into force.
Mithu Alur, founder of the Spastics Society of India, is pleased with the draft but points out that it is rhetoric on paper unless operationalized at the earliest. "We need to come together and empower PWDs about their rights and how to exercise them" she adds.

Even as urban India continues to grow, the vast majority of the population (which would include the PWD populace) hails from the hinterlands. It is felt that the draft bill may not best serve the rural PWDs. For instance, a grievance often has to be filed by a PWD at far away district headquarter. The litmus test of this progressive bill, when enacted, will hinge on its effective implementation.
It can be inferred from the passage that the draft bill by the ministry of social justice and empowerment aims to-
(a) fight for the right of PWDs to be accepted in society
(b) integrate PWDs into the mainstream society
(c) bring in enhanced medical assistance for PWDs
(d) strengthen the existing legal cases of PWDs

 

Q.

Which of the following options can be considered to truly represent the cautionary tone that the author sets in the last two paragraphs?

Solution:

The note of caution set by the author has to do with the extent of inclusiveness will be hampered unless the provisions of the bill are effectively implemented. Thus option d is the answer. Option a is incorrect as it does not present a note of caution. Option b is incorrect as it concerned with access to the rural population and not rural PWDs. Option c is incorrect as the passage does not mention the complexities of the bill, so it is beyond the scope of the passage

QUESTION: 46

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answers to the item should be based on the passage only.

The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into education would remove the conventionality, artificiality, and backward-lookingness which were characteristic; ofclassical studies, butthey were gravely disappointed. So, too, in their time had the humanists thought that the study of the classical authors in the original would banish at once the dull pedantry and superstition of mediaeval scholasticism? The professional schoolmaster was a match for both of them, and has almost managed to make the understanding of chemical reactions as dull and as dogmatic an affair as the reading of Virgil's Aeneid.The chief claim for the use of science in education is that it teaches a child something about the actual universe in which he is living, in making him acquainted with the results of scientific discovery, and at the same time teaches him how to think logically and inductively by studying scientific method. A certain limited success has been reached in the first of these aims, but practically none at all in the second. Those privileged members of the community who have been through a secondary or public school education may be expected to know something about the elementary physics and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but they probably know hardly more than any bright boy can pick up from an interest in wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours.As to the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience of teachers and the requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the pupils not only do not learn scientific method but learn precisely the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told and to reproduce it when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or not. The way in which educated people respond to such quackeries as spiritualism or astrology, not to say more dangerous ones such as racial theories or currency myths, shows that fifty years of education in the method of science in Britain or Germany has produced no visible effect whatever. The only way of learning the method of science is the long and bitter way of personal experience, and, until the educational or social systems are altered to make this possible, the best we can expect is the production of a minority of people who are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still smaller minority who are able to use and develop them.

Q.

The author blames all of the following for the failure to impart scientific method through the education system except-

Solution:

The 3rd para talks about the failure and the 1st three reasons can be found in the 5th, 7th and the 10th lines respectively.

QUESTION: 47

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into education would remove the conventionality, artificiality, and backward-lookingness which were characteristic; ofclassical studies, butthey were gravely disappointed. So, too, in their time had the humanists thought that the study of the classical authors in the original would banish at once the dull pedantry and superstition of mediaeval scholasticism? The professional schoolmaster was a match for both of them, and has almost managed to make the understanding of chemical reactions as dull and as dogmatic an affair as the reading of Virgil's Aeneid.
The chief claim for the use of science in education is that it teaches a child something about the actual universe in which he is living, in making him acquainted with the results of scientific discovery, and at the same time teaches him how to think logically and inductively by studying scientific method. A certain limited success has been reached in the first of these aims, but practically none at all in the second. Those privileged members of the community who have been through a secondary or public school education may be expected to know something about the elementary physics and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but they probably know hardly more than any bright boy can pick up from an interest in wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours.

As to the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience of teachers and the requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the pupils not only do not learn scientific method but learn precisely the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told and to reproduce it when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or not. The way in which educated people respond to such quackeries as spiritualism or astrology, not to say more dangerous ones such as racial theories or currency myths, shows that fifty years of education in the method of science in Britain or Germany has produced no visible effect whatever. The only way of learning the method of science is the long and bitter way of personal experience, and, until the educational or social systems are altered to make this possible, the best we can expect is the production of a minority of people who are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still smaller minority who are able to use and develop them.

Q.

 

All of the following can be inferred from the text except

Solution:

The 1st point is mentioned in the 5th line of the second paragraph, the 2nd in the 6th line of the 1st paragraph and the 4th in the 2nd line of the 2nd paragraph.

QUESTION: 48

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

The issue concerning carrying out mineral exploration as well as opening up of new mines in the declared forest areas has been debated extensively both at the central and state level and at various seminars and symposia. Some action points in this regard will include updating of revenue and forest land records ofthe mineral bearing areas by the Forest and Revenue Departments of the State Governments and the IBM speeding up the process of generating the remaining 270 odd maps with forest overlays, etc. This is an important project and is monitored by the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Updating of revenue and forest land records by the State Governments is one of the Plan objectives and it will continue to be monitored by the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
IBM should also study, deposit-wise, the impact of exploration and mining on flora and fauna and other damages including on human settlements in forests with mineral resources. The next logical step would be to suggest the manner in which the impact will be minimised, which may include afforestation, taking care to replicate the flora and fauna, measures for rehabilitation including time bound and satisfactory re- location of human settlements, etc.
With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:
1. Mineral exploration is a debatable subject both at the Central and State level.
2. IBM has undertaken a study concerning mineral exploration

Q.

 

Which of the following statements is valid?

Solution:

From the passage, it is clear that the issue is not mineral exploration per se but mineral exploration as well as opening up of new mines in the declared forest areas. Thus statement 1 is not valid in light of the passage. Also, the passage does not suggest that IBM has undertaken a study concerning mineral exploration. It only tells us that "IBM speeding up the process of generating the remaining 270 odd mps with forest overlays" is one of the action and it "should also study, deposit wise, the impact of exploration and mining on flora and fauna and other damages including on human settlements in forests with mineral resources."

QUESTION: 49

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

The issue concerning carrying out mineral exploration as well as opening up of new mines in the declared forest areas has been debated extensively both at the central and state level and at various seminars and symposia. Some action points in this regard will include updating of revenue and forest land records ofthe mineral bearing areas by the Forest and Revenue Departments of the State Governments and the IBM speeding up the process of generating the remaining 270 odd maps with forest overlays, etc. This is an important project and is monitored by the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Updating of revenue and forest land records by the State Governments is one of the Plan objectives and it will continue to be monitored by the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
IBM should also study, deposit-wise, the impact of exploration and mining on flora and fauna and other damages including on human settlements in forests with mineral resources. The next logical step would be to suggest the manner in which the impact will be minimised, which may include afforestation, taking care to replicate the flora and fauna, measures for rehabilitation including time bound and satisfactory re- location of human settlements, etc.
With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:
1. Mineral exploration is a debatable subject both at the Central and State level.
2. IBM has undertaken a study concerning mineral exploration

Q.

Which of the given statements is valid?

Solution:

The passage mentions "The impact of exploration and mining on flora and fauna and other damages" and also talks about "the next logical step" to minimize such impact. Thus we can infer that the impact being talked about is a matter of concern. Statement 2 is negated as it cannot be inferred from the passage that "IBM speeding up the process of generating the remaining 270 odd maps with forest overlays, etc " would allay concerns about mineral exploration. It is merely stated that this is an action point with regard to the debate about mineral exploration. Thus only statement 1 is valid.

QUESTION: 50

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

The issue concerning carrying out mineral exploration as well as opening up of new mines in the declared forest areas has been debated extensively both at the central and state level and at various seminars and symposia. Some action points in this regard will include updating of revenue and forest land records ofthe mineral bearing areas by the Forest and Revenue Departments of the State Governments and the IBM speeding up the process of generating the remaining 270 odd maps with forest overlays, etc. This is an important project and is monitored by the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Updating of revenue and forest land records by the State Governments is one of the Plan objectives and it will continue to be monitored by the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
IBM should also study, deposit-wise, the impact of exploration and mining on flora and fauna and other damages including on human settlements in forests with mineral resources. The next logical step would be to suggest the manner in which the impact will be minimised, which may include afforestation, taking care to replicate the flora and fauna, measures for rehabilitation including time bound and satisfactory re- location of human settlements, etc.
With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:
1. Mineral exploration is a debatable subject both at the Central and State level.
2. IBM has undertaken a study concerning mineral exploration

Q.

Which of the given assumptions is valid?

Solution:

Whether minimising the impact of exploration and mining is a crucial factor for the betterment of flora and fauna cannot be ascertained based on the information available in the passage. Also, the passage does not suggest that re location of human settlements is an inevitable part of the Plan objective.

QUESTION: 51

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow.

A pharmaceutical company tested a new painkiller on 1,000 lab rats that were fed large doses of the painkiller for a two-month period. By the end of the experiment, 39 of the rats had died. The company concluded that the painkiller was sufficiently safe to test on humans.

Q.

Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the pharmaceutical company's conclusion?

Solution:

If it is normal for up to 50 rats to die, then the death of 39 rats does not in itself suggest that the new drug is inherently unsafe. Answers (a) and (b) help explain why the rats died, but they do not give strong evidence thatwhateverkilled the ratswouldnot beequallydangerousforhumans.

QUESTION: 52

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow.

A pharmaceutical company tested a new painkiller on 1,000 lab rats that were fed large doses of the painkiller for a two-month period. By the end of the experiment, 39 of the rats had died. The company concluded that the painkiller was sufficiently safe to test on humans.Q.Which of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the pharmaceutical company's conclusion?

Solution:

A disproportionately high percentage (about 1 in 60 versus 1 in 600,000) of rats developing a rare and lethal form of liver cancer during a drug trial should be cause for considerable alarm. If the drug's effect on rats is in any way comparable to its effect on humans and if it is not, why test it on rats in the first place? then the drug is clearly unsafe to test on humans.

QUESTION: 53

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

In a row of five children A, B, C, D and E, who is standing in the middle?
Statements:
I. D is to the immediate right of E and B is to the immediate left of E.
II. B is at the extreme left of the, row.

Solution:

From I, we have the order: B, E, D.
From II, B is at the extreme left of the row.
Thus, considering both I and II, we conclude that among the five children, D is the third and hence the middle child in the row.

QUESTION: 54

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

How many employees of Bank A opted for VRS?
Statements:
I. 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 other cadre employees opted for VRS.
II. 28% of the employees in the age-group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age-groups opted for VRS.

Solution:

From I, we have: number of employees who opted for VRS = 18% of 950 + 6% of 1100 = 171 + 66 = 237.
From II, we cannot get the required answer until and unless the number of employees in age-group 51 to 56 and other age-groups is known.

QUESTION: 55

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

Among M, N, D, P and K, who is the 2nd highest earner among them?
Statements:
I. N earns more than M and P but less than only D.
II. M earns more than P who earns less than K.

Solution:

From I, we have: N>M,N>P,D>N. Thus, we have: D>N>M>Por D>N> P>M.
But, from II, M earns more than P i.e. D > N > M > P. Also, since P earns less than K and N earns less than only D, so we have: D>N>K>M>P or D>N>M> K>P.
Hence, N is the 2nd highest earner.

QUESTION: 56

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is S's rank from the top in a class of 35 students?
Statements:
I. S ranks three ranks above A, who ranks 18th from the bottom.
II. S's rank from the top is two ranks below D who ranks 23rd from the bottom.

Solution:

From I, We know that in a class of 35 students, A ranks 18th from the bottom and 18th from the top.
S is three ranks above A and so, S ranks 15th from the top.
From II, D ranks 23rd from the bottom and hence she is 13th from the top. S, being 2 ranks below D, is thus 15th from the top.

QUESTION: 57

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

It is 6:00 pm, when can Hemu get next bus for Bokaro from Ranchi?
 

Statements:
I. Buses for Bokaro leave after every 30 minutes, till 10 p.m.

II. Fifteen minutes ago, one bus has left for Bokaro.

Solution:

II reveals that the previous bus had left at 5:45 pm. As given in I, the next bus would leave after 30 minutes i.e. at 6:15 pm.

QUESTION: 58

Government deregulation of the long-distance telephone business has resulted in increased competition among telephone carriers, thus resulting in lower prices for consumers. This process, however, will ultimately result in lower-quality service for consumers, because as the telephone carriers drop their prices to compete with one another for customers, they will be forced to cut corners on nonessential items like customer service.Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the argument that government deregulation of the telephone business will result in lower-quality customer service?

Solution:

Directly challenges the assumption made in the passage that market forces will drive telephone companies to cut corners on customer service in order to cut costs, because (c) implies that market forces will give these companies at least as much of an incentive to improve customer service as to cut costs. None of the other answers challenge this assumption. The cost savings mentioned in (a) and (d) do not actually give the companies any incentive to devote more resources to customer service.

QUESTION: 59

Physician: The hormone melatonin has shown promise as a medication for sleep disorders when taken in synthesized form. Because the long-term side effects of synthetic melatonin are unknown, however, I cannot recommend itsuseatthis time.

Patient: Your position is inconsistent with your usual practice. You prescribe many medications that you know have serious side effects, so concern about side effects cannot be the real reason you will not prescribe melatonin.

The patient's argument is flawed because it fails to consider that

Solution:

Argument Evaluation
Situation: The physician refuses to prescribe synthetic melatonin to treat sleep disorders despite this medication's promise. The reason the physician offers for this refusal is that the long-term side effects of synthetic melatonin are unknown. The patient responds that because the physician prescribes other medications that are known to have serious side effects, it cannot be a concern for synthetic melatonin's side effects that is prompting the physician's refusal to prescribe that medication.

Reasoning: What does the patient's argument fail to consider? The patient says that the inconsistency in the physician's position lies in the physician's unwillingness to prescribe synthetic melatonin coupled with a willingness to prescribe other medications that are known to have serious side effects. But notice that the physician does not say that synthetic melatonin has serious side effects; rather, the physician points out that the long-term side effects of synthetic melatonin are unknown. The physician most likely prescribes medications that have serious side effects because the medications' benefits outweigh the risks posed by their side effects. In the case of synthetic melatonin, however, this kind of decision cannot be made.
(a) The patient's argument has to do with whether the physician's refusal to prescribe synthetic melatonin is consistent with the physician's usual prescription practices. The question of whether naturally produced melatonin has different side effects than synthetic melatonin has no bearing on that argument.
(b) It is quite reasonable for the patient's argument not to mention this possibility, especially since the physician expresses a belief that synthetic melatonin may be effective—but expresses no belief about whether or not it has been conclusively shown to be effective.

(c) The patient makes clear that the physician prescribes medications that have serious side effects; the time those side effects take to manifest themselves is not relevant to the argument.
(d) Correct. The patient's argument is flawed in failing to consider this key difference between known risks and unknown risks. If the patient had considered this key difference, the patient would have realized that the physician's position is not at all inconsistent, and that the physician's refusal to prescribe is genuinely based on a concern about an unknown risk.

QUESTION: 60

Plan: Concerned about the welfare of its senior citizens, the government of Runagia decided two years ago to increase by 20 percent the government-provided pension paid to all Runagians age sixty-five and older.

Result: Many Runagian senior citizens are no better off financially now than they were before the increase. Further information: The annual rate of inflation since the pension increase has been below 5 percent, and the increased pension has been duly received by all eligible Runagians.

In light of the further information, which of the following, if true, does most to explain the result that followed implementation ofthe plan?

Solution:

Evaluation of a Plan
Situation: Two years ago, Runagia's government attempted to improve senior citizens' welfare by increasing senior citizens' pensions by 20 percent. Unfortunately, many of those senior citizens' welfare did not improve. This result occurred despite inflation being relatively low below 5 percent and all appropriate people receiving their increased pensions.
Reasoning: What would do most to explain why many of Runagia's senior citizens are no better off than they were before their pensions increased? Many of Runagia's senior citizens were not helped by receiving more money. Clearly, these senior citizens used nearly 20 percent more money than they did before to maintain the same standard of living. Usually, this could be explained by high inflation but the further information informs us that the annual rate of inflation was well below the percentage of the pension increase. The annual rate of inflation is, however, an average calculated over a large number of goods and services. The prices of some goods and services rise more than the prices of other goods and services. It could be the case that the goods and services senior citizens need are those that have risen most in price. If this were the case, their pension increase could have been insufficient to raise their standard of living.
(a) Regardless of what someone relies on for their income, a 20 percent increase in that income would be expected to raise that person's standard of living.
(b) The 20 percent increase in pensions occurred two years ago. Whatever problems a three-week delay in the cashing of pension checks caused would be unlikely to persist over two years.
(c) Correct. This statement properly identifies a reason why the plan's result was that many Runagian senior citizens were no better off than they were before the increase.
(d) Even if it were true that an all-time high number of Runagians over sixty-five were living below the poverty line at the time of the pension increase, it would still be expected that such an increase would leave them better off financially than they were before the increase.

QUESTION: 61

Many political activists have decided to stage a demonstration to protest against the steep price rise in essential commodities. Traffic is expected to be disrupted. What should be done?

Solution:

Options (a) and (d) are over reactions, (a) being the extreme and not acceptable in a democracy, (b) and (c) are the rational choices, (b) being more effective and direct in solving the problem.

QUESTION: 62

The school dropout rate in many parts of the district has risen sharply during the last few years as the parents of these children make them work in the fields owned by rich farmers to earn enough to get at least one meal a day. What would you suggest be done in the circumstances?
 

1. To treat child labour and the deprivation of the right of education of a child as a crime and arrest the defaulting parents
2. Get the government to create a mechanism for the provision of free food grains to the poor in the district so that parents need not send their children to work
3. Make arrangements for the schools to provide free mid-day meals for children so that they are encouraged to come to school and also get the nutrition they require
4. Put in place a food-for-work programme for the adults from among the poor that could supplement their income and they would not be forced to send their children to work

Solution:

I is not only authoritarian, it reflects an insensitivity to and a lack of understanding of the real situation. II appears to be a solution, but it is not long-term arrangement. As soon as the scheme is withdrawn, as it simply cannot be permanent, the situation will be back to square one. Ill and IV, on the other hand, seem feasible and possible ways to solve the problem.

QUESTION: 63

You have promoted a woman in your department because she is good at her work, has the right qualifications, and has shown potential for decisive action, which is a requirement in the new post. The post is one coveted by many others in the department. The woman promoted happens to be your boss's daughter, and three of those not promoted are complaining about favouritism, and are threatening to report the matter to higher authorities. What would you do?

Solution:

(a) It is best to nip rumours in the bud and tackle the complaining group without changing your decision if that decision has been based on principles. And it is best to talk to all the members of the disgruntled group together. It is necessary to convey the message that you are not likely to be cowed by their behaviour, even as they get an opportunity to get an explanation for your action.

Option (b) is underhand behaviour and puts you in a dubious position, besides being likely to prove harmful to the organisation in the long run.

Option (d) shows a proactive but not a mature approach to the problem at hand. If your decision is based on right principles, a complaint against you is not going to work, so there is not much justification for being so cautious.

Option (c) is also less preferable because the rumours cast aspersion on your work ethics, and letting them continue till they die a natural death may, instead, boomerang on you.

QUESTION: 64

Read the following information and answer the item that follow.

A leading socialite decided to organise a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that at least on one side it has a person of the opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostess's right, next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila, who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
 

Q.

The eighth person present.Jackie, must be:
I. the host

II. seated to Shobha's right

III. seated opposite Urmila

Solution:

Jackie is the host sitting on Shobha's right hence (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 65

Read the following information and answer the item that follow.

A leading socialite decided to organise a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that at least on one side it has a person of the opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostess's right, next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila, who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.

Q.

Which of the following persons is definitely not seated next to a person of the same sex?

Solution:

Out of the given four options Shobha is the only study person not seated next to a person of the same sex.

QUESTION: 66

Read the following information and answer the item that follow.

A leading socialite decided to organise a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that at least on one side it has a person of the opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostess's right, next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila, who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.

Q.

If Ratan would have exchanged sets with a person four places to his left, which of the following would have been true after the exchange?
I. No one was seated between two persons of the opposite sex. (e.g. no man was seated between two women)
II. One side of the table consisted entirely of persons of the same sex.
III. Either the host or the hostess changed seates.

Solution:

Only (I) statement is true, hence the correct answer is (a)

QUESTION: 67

Read the following information and answer the item that follow.A leading socialite decided to organise a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that at least on one side it has a person of the opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostess's right, next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila, who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.

Q.

If each person is placed directly opposite his or her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married?

Solution:

Ratan and Monisha are sitting opposite to each other, hence they must be married and (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 68

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passage. Your answers to these items should be based on this passage only.

Passage
Recent findings show that changing climate patterns will affect the picturesque region in several ways. The most obvious one- assessed by analysing temperature data over the last 35 years from 11 meteorological stations in seven states across the region- is an increase in the occurrence of ‘warm nights'. This trend is likely to worsen, according to computer based climate models that were used to predict future climate trends. According to recent research exercises conducted at the Centre forAtmospheric Sciences at IIT Delhi., there has even been a rise of about two degrees, huge by climate change standards, in the average might time temperature between 1971 and 2005. The annual mean temperature over northeast India also displays a markedly upward trend.
An increase in the frequency and intensity of' warm nights' does not just mean discomfort for local communities used to temperatures that range from cool to cold after sunset over the course of the year. Such warming has far more serious ramifications. As Dash puts it. "We have not assessed the impact ofwarm events on biodiversity. But we can say that the ecosystem, including the glaciers in the region, could be affected by the temperature rise."

Communities in the North eastern states are realising what the fallout of such change means, but in different ways. "The fact that the temperature is increasing is being felt for the past 2 decades. But the trends vary in different regions. I think the impact is slightly more intense in the Northeast region than other parts of India. Even though there are several scientific studies based on different computer models, their predictions are different from each other. The community though, has a consensus on certain trends that they are experiencing," says Partha Das osAranyak, an environmental NGO in Guwahati.
Three trends are clear; an overall warming across all seasons; heat waves in summer; and shrinking winters. In Meghalaya, for one, such climate is gradually being registered. B.K. Tiwari of the Northeastern Hill University conducted a study on people's perception of climate change in the region a few years ago. "But the responses were not conclusive. There was a consensus only on 1 aspect; most people agreed that extreme weather events like floods have become more frequent. But these perceptions have no scientific backing. They are just people's assessments. So I think relying on the IMD data of at least 30 years is a more practical method of understanding climate change." He says

 

Consider the following statements
1. Changing climate patterns will strip the Northeastern states of their picturesque beauty.
2. The average right time temperature will continue to grow at a rate of 10 per cent per decade.

Q.

Which of the given assumptions are valid?

Solution:

Statement 1 can be ruled out as there is no mention in the passage of such a drastic effect of climate change on the beauty of the north-eastern states. The passage merely states that "Recent findings show that charging climate patterns will affect the picturesque region in several ways." Statement 2 is not supported by any information in the passage and is therefore invalid. Thus option d is correct.

QUESTION: 69

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passage. Your answers to these items should be based on this passage only.

Passage
Recent findings show that changing climate patterns will affect the picturesque region in several ways. The most obvious one- assessed by analysing temperature data over the last 35 years from 11 meteorological stations in seven states across the region- is an increase in the occurrence of ‘warm nights'. This trend is likely to worsen, according to computer based climate models that were used to predict future climate trends. According to recent research exercises conducted at the Centre forAtmospheric Sciences at IIT Delhi., there has even been a rise of about two degrees, huge by climate change standards, in the average might time temperature between 1971 and 2005. The annual mean temperature over northeast India also displays a markedly upward trend.
An increase in the frequency and intensity of' warm nights' does not just mean discomfort for local communities used to temperatures that range from cool to cold after sunset over the course of the year. Such warming has far more serious ramifications. As Dash puts it. "We have not assessed the impact ofwarm events on biodiversity. But we can say that the ecosystem, including the glaciers in the region, could be affected by the temperature rise."

Communities in the North eastern states are realising what the fallout of such change means, but in different ways. "The fact that the temperature is increasing is being felt for the past 2 decades. But the trends vary in different regions. I think the impact is slightly more intense in the Northeast region than other parts of India. Even though there are several scientific studies based on different computer models, their predictions are different from each other. The community though, has a consensus on certain trends that they are experiencing," says Partha Das osAranyak, an environmental NGO in Guwahati.
Three trends are clear; an overall warming across all seasons; heat waves in summer; and shrinking winters. In Meghalaya, for one, such climate is gradually being registered. B.K. Tiwari of the Northeastern Hill University conducted a study on people's perception of climate change in the region a few years ago. "But the responses were not conclusive. There was a consensus only on 1 aspect; most people agreed that extreme weather events like floods have become more frequent. But these perceptions have no scientific backing. They are just people's assessments. So I think relying on the IMD data of at least 30 years is a more practical method of understanding climate change." He says

 

Consider the following statements
1. Changing climate patterns will strip the Northeastern states of their picturesque beauty.
2. The average right time temperature will continue to grow at a rate of 10 per cent per decade.

Q.

What does the author mean when he states that communities in the Northeast are realising, in different ways, the fallout of climate change?

Solution:

The author states that communities in the northeast are realising the fallout of climate change in different ways. Furthermore the author mentions that "the trends vary in different regions." This means that the experiences of the impact of climate change differ from region to region. Option a can be ruled as the passage mentions that rather than varying perceptions regarding climate change ‘most people agreed that extreme weather events like floods have become more frequent'. Option c can be ruled out because the author quoted Partha J Das of Aranyak, an environmental NGO in Guwahati, as saying, "I think the impact....other parts of the country." This does not indicate that climate change in the northeast when viewed collectively is much more intense. Option d is incorrect as the sentence "But we can say....the temperature rise" in the second paragraph indicates that climate change in the northeast will affect the glaciers in the northeastern region itself- not the glaciers in the "far north of the country."

QUESTION: 70

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passage. Your answers to these items should be based on this passage only.

Passage
Recent findings show that changing climate patterns will affect the picturesque region in several ways. The most obvious one- assessed by analysing temperature data over the last 35 years from 11 meteorological stations in seven states across the region- is an increase in the occurrence of ‘warm nights'. This trend is likely to worsen, according to computer based climate models that were used to predict future climate trends. According to recent research exercises conducted at the Centre forAtmospheric Sciences at IIT Delhi., there has even been a rise of about two degrees, huge by climate change standards, in the average might time temperature between 1971 and 2005. The annual mean temperature over northeast India also displays a markedly upward trend.
An increase in the frequency and intensity of' warm nights' does not just mean discomfort for local communities used to temperatures that range from cool to cold after sunset over the course of the year. Such warming has far more serious ramifications. As Dash puts it. "We have not assessed the impact ofwarm events on biodiversity. But we can say that the ecosystem, including the glaciers in the region, could be affected by the temperature rise."

Communities in the North eastern states are realising what the fallout of such change means, but in different ways. "The fact that the temperature is increasing is being felt for the past 2 decades. But the trends vary in different regions. I think the impact is slightly more intense in the Northeast region than other parts of India. Even though there are several scientific studies based on different computer models, their predictions are different from each other. The community though, has a consensus on certain trends that they are experiencing," says Partha Das osAranyak, an environmental NGO in Guwahati.
Three trends are clear; an overall warming across all seasons; heat waves in summer; and shrinking winters. In Meghalaya, for one, such climate is gradually being registered. B.K. Tiwari of the Northeastern Hill University conducted a study on people's perception of climate change in the region a few years ago. "But the responses were not conclusive. There was a consensus only on 1 aspect; most people agreed that extreme weather events like floods have become more frequent. But these perceptions have no scientific backing. They are just people's assessments. So I think relying on the IMD data of at least 30 years is a more practical method of understanding climate change." He says

 

Consider the following statements
1. Changing climate patterns will strip the Northeastern states of their picturesque beauty.
2. The average right time temperature will continue to grow at a rate of 10 per cent per decade.

Q.

From the information in the passage, which of the following can best be inferred?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect as the passage clearly mentions that the people of the northeast are aware of the climate changes taking place. Option b can be inferred from the sentence “But these perceptions...climate change” in the last paragraph as it focuses on the importance of scientific data. Option c is incorrect as there is no mention of mosquitoes in high altitude areas of the northeast in the passage. Option d is also incorrect as it goes beyond the scope of the passage- changes in the cultural pattern in the northeastern have not been discussed in the passage.

QUESTION: 71

Between I960 and 1970, ivory poachers in the African nation of Zinbaku killed over 6500 elephants. During that period, the total elephant population in Zinbaku fell from about 35000 to just under 30000. In 1970, new antipoaching measures were implemented in Zinbaku, and between 1970 and 1980 over 800 poachers were arrested and expelled from the country. Nevertheless, by 1980, the elephant population in Zinbaku had fallen to about 21000. Which of the following, if true, would best help to explain the apparent paradox presented above?

Solution:

The other options simply contradict the facts given in the passage.

QUESTION: 72

Partly because of bad weather, but also partly because some major pepper growers have switched to high- priced cocoa, world production of pepper has been running well below worldwide sales for three years. Pepper is consequently in relatively short supply. The price of pepper has soared in response; it now equals that of cocoa. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Solution:

A naturally drawn inference.

QUESTION: 73

Companies that advertise on television complain that digital television recording (DTR) services make it possible for consumers to watch television programs without viewing the commercials that these advertisers have paid the television networks to broadcast.The DTR service providers respond that their services may actually help the advertisers, because without their service, many consumers would not have been able to watch the programs or the commercials in them—in the first place.Which of the following, if true, offers the most support to the advertisers' claims that the DTR services are currently hurting their businesses?

Solution:

Suggests that the defense stated by the DTR services providers works only in theory, not in practice. If most subscribers to these services are automatically avoiding all commercials, the companies that have paid to broadcast advertising messages to these viewers are going to get less of a return from their advertising investment, which will hurt their businesses.

QUESTION: 74

You have been instrumental in getting a project of getting potable water in a village successful. The villagers are grateful and the community leader expresses their appreciation by meeting you at the office with a box of sweets and an envelope of cash. How would you respond?

Solution:

(c) is the best option. Option (a) and (b) may not be really 'wrong' but it does not seem entirely 'right' either to accept gifts - cash or otherwise - for doing one's official duty. Option (d) is unnecessarily self-righteous: the act of the villager does not quite accord with the act of offering of a bribe.

QUESTION: 75

You have been given a certain target for achieving but you have not been given adequate resources. There is lack of finances, lack of manpower, lack of government cooperation, etc. What do you do in such a situation?

Solution:

Option (b) is the best approach in the given situation. Option a would not be the correct choice as a proper civil servant would try to finish any work he is given.

QUESTION: 76

Read the following information and answer the items that follow.
There are five villages A, B, C, D and E. Two of these have post offices, three have schools and three are accessible by road. Two have population of more than 5000 each, two have population between 2000 and 5000 each, and one has a population of less than 2000. Two of these villages have electricity in addition to certain other facilities such as school and accessibility by road. One village with a population of less than 2000 has a school but neither has a villages with a population of more than 5000 has a school. Of the two villages having population between 2000 and 5000 only one has a post office and is accessible by road. A is accessible by road. B has a population of more than 5000, D has a school and is accessible by road but does not have a post office, while E has a school but is not accessible by road. C does not have a post office.

Q.

Which village has a school and also a post office?

Solution:

Based on this table

QUESTION: 77

Read the following information and answer the items that follow.
 

There are five villages A, B, C, D and E. Two of these have post offices, three have schools and three are accessible by road. Two have population of more than 5000 each, two have population between 2000 and 5000 each, and one has a population of less than 2000. Two of these villages have electricity in addition to certain other facilities such as school and accessibility by road. One village with a population of less than 2000 has a school but neither has a villages with a population of more than 5000 has a school. Of the two villages having population between 2000 and 5000 only one has a post office and is accessible by road. A is accessible by road. B has a population of more than 5000, D has a school and is accessible by road but does not have a post office, while E has a school but is not accessible by road. C does not have a post office.

Q.

Which village does not have any of the facilities available to other villages?

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

Read the following information and answer the items that follow.
There are five villages A, B, C, D and E. Two of these have post offices, three have schools and three are accessible by road. Two have population of more than 5000 each, two have population between 2000 and 5000 each, and one has a population of less than 2000. Two of these villages have electricity in addition to certain other facilities such as school and accessibility by road. One village with a population of less than 2000 has a school but neither has a villages with a population of more than 5000 has a school. Of the two villages having population between 2000 and 5000 only one has a post office and is accessible by road. A is accessible by road. B has a population of more than 5000, D has a school and is accessible by road but does not have a post office, while E has a school but is not accessible by road. C does not have a post office.

Q.

Which two villages have electricity?

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

Read the following information and answer the items that follow.
There are five villages A, B, C, D and E. Two of these have post offices, three have schools and three are accessible by road. Two have population of more than 5000 each, two have population between 2000 and 5000 each, and one has a population of less than 2000. Two of these villages have electricity in addition to certain other facilities such as school and accessibility by road. One village with a population of less than 2000 has a school but neither has a villages with a population of more than 5000 has a school. Of the two villages having population between 2000 and 5000 only one has a post office and is accessible by road. A is accessible by road. B has a population of more than 5000, D has a school and is accessible by road but does not have a post office, while E has a school but is not accessible by road. C does not have a post office.

Q.

Which three villages are accessible by road?

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

Read the following information and answer the items that follow.
There are five villages A, B, C, D and E. Two of these have post offices, three have schools and three are accessible by road. Two have population of more than 5000 each, two have population between 2000 and 5000 each, and one has a population of less than 2000. Two of these villages have electricity in addition to certain other facilities such as school and accessibility by road. One village with a population of less than 2000 has a school but neither has a villages with a population of more than 5000 has a school. Of the two villages having population between 2000 and 5000 only one has a post office and is accessible by road. A is accessible by road. B has a population of more than 5000, D has a school and is accessible by road but does not have a post office, while E has a school but is not accessible by road. C does not have a post office.

Q.

Which village has a population of less than 2000?

Solution:

It’s been given directly that
A is accessible by road.
B has a population of more than 5000.
D has a school and is accessible by road but does not have a post office.
E has a school but is not accessible by road.
It’s been given that the village with population more than 5000 has a school which implies B has a school and this point also has another implication that there are total three schools and we just established on in B and other two are in D and E which means either D or E has a population greater than 5000. To figure out which one has the population we can use another fact provided above i.e. one village with the population of less than 2000 also has a school but neither has a post office nor is accessible by road. Now, since D is accessible by road, therefore, it can’t be the one with the population less than 2000 and hence, E is the one with population less than 2000. Also, A and C does not have schools.
Both A and C are the villages have the population between 2000 & 5000. And only one of them has a post office and accessibility by road. Since A is accessible by road, therefore, it must have a post office. Also, three villages have road accessibility we have established two of them and one is left which should be B as only one the village having population between 2000 and 5000, only one has a post office and is accessible by road thus C can’t be the one and thus also implies that B has the post office as well. Also, two of these villages have electricity in addition to certain other facilities such as schools and accessibility by road and the only suited options that fulfill these criteria is B and D.
Hence, none of the given options are correct.