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# UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 7 (August 26, 2021)

## 80 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 7 (August 26, 2021)

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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 7 (August 26, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 80 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 7 (August 26, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 7 (August 26, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 7 (August 26, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 7 (August 26, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Solution:

Option a cannot be inferred as the passage only states that the loss of \$150 billion is a 25 percent jump from the previous year. There is no information available to conclude that it is the highest ever. Option b is also incorrect as the passage states ‘Are these extreme events...answer is probably both.' Thus, the author does not attribute the climate change only to human activities. Option c is incorrect as it is a broad generalization and the scope of the passage is narrow. It would be inappropriate to draw option c as a conclusion. Option d can be inferred from the second paragraph ‘In the USA last year..........nine such disasters in 2008'.

QUESTION: 2

Solution:

The passage is primarily about the reasons behind weather disasters. The damage and monetary losses are presented in the introduction to describe the extent to which the weather has changed. Thus option b is correct.

QUESTION: 3

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct as the last paragraph mentions ‘The primary forces....EI Nino and La Nina.' Statement 2 is not correct as based on the information given in the passage one cannot conclusively infer that Bangkok, Thailand is the biggest producer of computer hard drives in the world. Thus option a is correct.

QUESTION: 4

Passage 1

There's been a change in the weather. Extreme events like the Nashville flood - described by officials as a once - in - a - millennium occurrence - are happening more frequently than they used to. A month before Nashville, torrential downpours dumped 11 inches of rain on Rio de janeiro in 24 hours, triggering mud slides that buried hundreds. About three months after Nashville, record rain in Pakistan caused flooding that affected more than 20 million people. In late 2011, floods in Thailand submerged hundreds of factories near Bangkok, creating a worldwide shortage of computer hard drives.

And it is not just heavy rains that are making headlines. During the past decade we have also been severe droughts in places like Texas, Australia and Russia as well as in East Africa, where tens of thousands have taken refuge in camps. Deadly heat waves hit Europe, and record numbers of tornadoes have ripped across the United States. Losses from such events helped push the cost of whether disasters in 2011 to an estimated \$150 billion worldwide, a roughly 25% jump from the previous year. In the USA, last year, a record 14 events caused a billion dollars or more of damage each, far exceeding the previous record of 9 such disasters in 2008.

What is going on? Are these extreme events signals of a dangerous, human made shift in Earth's climate? Or are we just going through a natural stretch of bad luck?

The short answer is: probably both. The primary forces driving recent disasters have been natural climate cycles, especially El Nino and La Nina. Scientists have learned a lot during the past few decades about how that strange seesaw in the equatorial Pacific affects weather worldwide. During an El Nino, a giant pool of warm water that normally sits in the central Pacific surges east all the way to South America; during a La Nina, it shrinks and retreats into the Western Pacific. Heat and water vapour coming off the warm pool generate thunderstorms so powerful and towering that their influence extends out of the tropics to the jet streams that blow across the middle altitudes. As the warm pool shifts back and forth along the equator, the wavy paths of the jet streams shift north and south- which changes the tracks that storms follow across the continents. An El Nino tends to push directing storms over the southern USA and Peru while visiting drought and fire on Australia. In a La Nina, the rains flood Australia and fail in the American Southwest and Texas - and in even more distant places like East Africa.

Consider the following statements:

1. Both heavy rains and droughts have affected the world

2. Events in the Pacific can cause changes in the weather of areas like East Africa With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is/are valid?

Solution:

The passage mentions the havoc wreaked by both the droughts and heavy rains. Thus statement 1 is valid. The passage also mentions ‘Scientists have learned a lot....affects weather worldwide' and also ‘In a La Nina.......like East Africa.' Thus statement 2 is also valid and hence option c is correct.

QUESTION: 5

Passage 2

Focus should be on raising land productivity and water use efficiency. State specific strategies are needed. Dry areas need to focus on livestock. Most importantly, markets must be reformed. An important beginning has been made by granting statutory status to warehouse receipts. However, the real benefits from this measure can accrue only when the appropriate warehouse infrastructure and supporting backward linkages have been created and a nationwide trading platform has been put in place. Consideration should be given to extending infrastructure status to a wider range of agricultural market facilities in the same manner as for warehouses. States must modify the Essential Commodities Act (ECA) and the APMC Act (perhaps exclude horticulture and perishables entirely from the ambit of APMC), rebuild the extension system, increase the involvement of the private sector in marketing, and also facilitate leasing in/out of land by farmers. State agricultural universities and extension networks are in a bad shape and need strengthening.

MGNREGS has helped generate employment and income in rural areas but it can do much more to increase land productivity, particularly in rainfed areas. In addition, MGNREGS has transformed rural labour relations, which is bound to affect the production decisions of farmers, both in terms of crops as well as technologies. The agricultural support systems must facilitate this transition, which requires greater flexibility and responsiveness.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Currently the land productivity is quite low.

2. Appropriate warehouse infrastructure is potentially beneficial.

As per the above passage, which of the given statements is/are valid?

Solution:

The passage only talks of raising the land productivity, based on this information one cannot say that currently the land productivity is low. It is possible that there is a need for raising the productivity for future needs. The

sentence ‘However the real benefits........ been put in place.' tells that appropriate warehouse infrastructure is

potentially beneficial. Thus option b is correct

QUESTION: 6

Passage 2

Focus should be on raising land productivity and water use efficiency. State specific strategies are needed. Dry areas need to focus on livestock. Most importantly, markets must be reformed. An important beginning has been made by granting statutory status to warehouse receipts. However, the real benefits from this measure can accrue only when the appropriate warehouse infrastructure and supporting backward linkages have been created and a nationwide trading platform has been put in place. Consideration should be given to extending infrastructure status to a wider range of agricultural market facilities in the same manner as for warehouses. States must modify the Essential Commodities Act (ECA) and the APMC Act (perhaps exclude horticulture and perishables entirely from the ambit of APMC), rebuild the extension system, increase the involvement of the private sector in marketing, and also facilitate leasing in/out of land by farmers. State agricultural universities and extension networks are in a bad shape and need strengthening.

MGNREGS has helped generate employment and income in rural areas but it can do much more to increase land productivity, particularly in rainfed areas. In addition, MGNREGS has transformed rural labour relations, which is bound to affect the production decisions of farmers, both in terms of crops as well as technologies. The agricultural support systems must facilitate this transition, which requires greater flexibility and responsiveness.

Q. Consider the following assumptions:

1. State agricultural universities have a room for improvement.

2. The current problem can be solved through market reforms alone.

With reference to the passage, which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

The last sentence of the first paragraph tells that the state universities are in a bad shape; this means that they have room for improvement. The passage mentions the need for market reforms as one of the vital things to be done but it is nowhere mentioned that market reforms alone can solve the problem at hand.

QUESTION: 7

Passage 2

Focus should be on raising land productivity and water use efficiency. State specific strategies are needed. Dry areas need to focus on livestock. Most importantly, markets must be reformed. An important beginning has been made by granting statutory status to warehouse receipts. However, the real benefits from this measure can accrue only when the appropriate warehouse infrastructure and supporting backward linkages have been created and a nationwide trading platform has been put in place. Consideration should be given to extending infrastructure status to a wider range of agricultural market facilities in the same manner as for warehouses. States must modify the Essential Commodities Act (ECA) and the APMC Act (perhaps exclude horticulture and perishables entirely from the ambit of APMC), rebuild the extension system, increase the involvement of the private sector in marketing, and also facilitate leasing in/out of land by farmers. State agricultural universities and extension networks are in a bad shape and need strengthening.

MGNREGS has helped generate employment and income in rural areas but it can do much more to increase land productivity, particularly in rainfed areas. In addition, MGNREGS has transformed rural labour relations, which is bound to affect the production decisions of farmers, both in terms of crops as well as technologies. The agricultural support systems must facilitate this transition, which requires greater flexibility and responsiveness.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. MGNREGS has not done much to increase land productivity

2. Transformation of rural labour relations influences production decisions of farmers With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is/are valid?

Solution:

The sentence ‘MGNREGS has helped....in rainfed areas' says that MGNREGS can do much more to increase land productivity. This does not tell us whether MGNREGS has done much to increase land productivity or not. The second last sentence of the passage tells that the transformation in rural labour relations is bound to affect the production decisions of farmers. Hence it can be said that the transformation of the rural labour relations influences the production decisions of the farmers

QUESTION: 8

Passage 3

With the advancement in the frontiers of science, there is an emerging demand for hi-tech minerals, which will have to be met. This will call for earth scientists anticipating demand and exploring and extracting these minerals with cost effective and environment friendly extraction technologies. Agencies of both ofthe central and state governments will have to play an important promotional role in the exploration of these minerals.

The mineral surveys and exploration programmes to be carried out by the central and state agencies will also have to be targeted to take up concept oriented studies integrating geological, geo-physical and geochemical surveys appropriately linked up with laboratory studies involving state ofthe art technologies. Deeper probing of known deposits; intensive and extensive belt wise mineral exploration including covering areas out of the traditional mineral belts and even basement rocks will also have to be undertaken.

Concerted action plans need to be drawn up by the concerned organisations to acquire higher capability in all fields of mineral exploration and development. This will call for technology upgradation for field data acquisition, state of the art laboratory back up and development of expertise. Focus areas will include air-borne surveys, ground geophysical surveys, exploratory drilling, marine survey, etc.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Meeting the emerging demand for hi-tech minerals is an imperative.

2. Advancements in science have resulted in emerging demand for hi-tech minerals. With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is/are valid?

Solution:

As the first sentence of the passage tells that the emerging demand for hi-tech minerals will have to be met, one can say that meeting the emerging demand for hi-tech minerals in an imperative. Statement 2 is invalid as the first sentence of the passage tells us that due to the advancement in science, the demand for hi-tech minerals has emerged. Hence, option c is correct.

QUESTION: 9

Passage - 3

With the advancement in the frontiers of science, there is an emerging demand for hi-tech minerals, which will have to be met. This will call for earth scientists anticipating demand and exploring and extracting these minerals with cost effective and environment friendly extraction technologies. Agencies of both ofthe central and state governments will have to play an important promotional role in the exploration of these minerals.

The mineral surveys and exploration programmes to be carried out by the central and state agencies will also have to be targeted to take up concept oriented studies integrating geological, geo-physical and geochemical surveys appropriately linked up with laboratory studies involving state ofthe art technologies. Deeper probing of known deposits; intensive and extensive belt wise mineral exploration including covering areas out of the traditional mineral belts and even basement rocks will also have to be undertaken.

Concerted action plans need to be drawn up by the concerned organisations to acquire higher capability in all fields of mineral exploration and development. This will call for technology upgradation for field data acquisition, state of the art laboratory back up and development of expertise. Focus areas will include air-borne surveys, ground geophysical surveys, exploratory drilling, marine survey, etc.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Earth scientists will come up with cost effective extraction technologies.

2. Promotion of the extraction of hi-tech minerals is required. With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is/are valid?

Solution:

The passage tells that ‘emerging demand for hi-tech minerals only calls for earth scientists anticipating demand and exploring and extracting these minerals with cost effective and environment friendly extraction technologies'. This does not mean that the scientists will definitely come up with the cost effective exploration technologies. The sentence ‘Agencies of both....of these minerals' makes it clear that promotion for the extraction of hi-tech minerals is required. Thus option b is correct

QUESTION: 10

Passage - 3

With the advancement in the frontiers of science, there is an emerging demand for hi-tech minerals, which will have to be met. This will call for earth scientists anticipating demand and exploring and extracting these minerals with cost effective and environment friendly extraction technologies. Agencies of both ofthe central and state governments will have to play an important promotional role in the exploration of these minerals.

The mineral surveys and exploration programmes to be carried out by the central and state agencies will also have to be targeted to take up concept oriented studies integrating geological, geo-physical and geochemical surveys appropriately linked up with laboratory studies involving state ofthe art technologies. Deeper probing of known deposits; intensive and extensive belt wise mineral exploration including covering areas out of the traditional mineral belts and even basement rocks will also have to be undertaken.

Concerted action plans need to be drawn up by the concerned organisations to acquire higher capability in all fields of mineral exploration and development. This will call for technology upgradation for field data acquisition, state of the art laboratory back up and development of expertise. Focus areas will include air-borne surveys, ground geophysical surveys, exploratory drilling, marine survey, etc.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Concept oriented studies are an important component of mineral surveys and exploration programs.

2. The area of mineral exploration can acquire higher capability through concerted action plans. With reference to the passage, which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

The line ‘The mineral surveys........ state of the art technologies' only tells us that mineral surveys etc. have to be targeted to take up the concept oriented studies. On this basis, one cannot say that the concept oriented studies are a component of mineral surveys and exploration programs. The line ‘Concerted action plans need.... exploration and development' makes it quite clear that the area of mineral extraction can acquire higher capability through concerted action plans. Thus option b is correct.

QUESTION: 11

Directions (Q.11-15) for the following  items:

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:

Statements:

I. When students of Shravan's class are ranked in descending order of their heights, Shravan's rank is 17th from the top among all the students and 12th among boys.

II. Shravan's rank from the bottom on the basis of height among boys is 18th and among all students, 29th.

Q. How many girls are taller than Shravan in his class?

Solution:

From I, we conclude that there are 16 students and 11 boys taller than Shravan. This implies that there are 5 girls taller than Shravan. In II, Shravan's rank from the bottom is mentioned and to ascertain the number of girls taller than him, we need to know his rank from the top for which the number of students in the class is required, which is not given.

QUESTION: 12

Statements:

I. M's brother is husband of P.

II. P is mother of R's sister.

Q. How is R related to M?

Solution:

From II, we conclude that P is R's mother.

From I, we conclude that M is the brother or sister of P's husband, who is also R's father. Thus, R is either nephew or niece of M.

QUESTION: 13

Statements:

I. Gautam was born exactly 28 years after his mother was born.

II. His mother will be 55 years 4 months and 5 days on August 18 this year.

Q. On which day in April is Gautam's birthday?

Solution:

Clearly, the birthday of Gautam's mother can be found out from II and then Gautam's birthday can be determined using the fact given in

QUESTION: 14

Statements:

I. C, who is third to the left of D, is to the immediate right of A and second to the left of E.

II. C is second to the left of E, who is not at any of the ends and who is third to the right of A. D is at one of the ends.

Q. Among A, B, C, D and E, who is in the middle while standing in a row?

Solution:

From each one of I and II, we get the order: A, C, B, E, D. Clearly, B is in the middle

QUESTION: 15

Statements:

I. A and D are heavier than B, E and F but none of them is the heaviest.

II. A is heavier than D but lighter than C.

Q. Among A, B, C, D, E and F, who is the heaviest?

Solution:

From I, we conclude that since none of A and D is the heaviest and each one of B, E and F is lighter than both A and D, so C is the heaviest.

QUESTION: 16

Directions (Q. 16-25) select the most appropriate answer.

Your company is undergoing a serious economic peril. The only way out of this situation is to urgently bring in some public money into the company. However, some of the Directors in the company are against this idea as they think that the time is not ripe for raising public money. You will​

Solution:

As the situation demands it, using the veto and going ahead with the plan is the best option. Option c comes next but it may prove to be time consuming whereas the matter at hand is urgent. Going with the option a is next but it would show that you give up too easily. Option d is the worst choice as it will portray you as a quitter.

QUESTION: 17

Solution:

Option c is the best choice as you are responsible for your subordinate and this action will not only pacify your superior but also ensure him/her that this kind of mistake will not happen in the future. Option b is the next best choice but taking the blame on yourself may only embolden your subordinate to make more such mistakes in the future. Option a comes next. However, pinning the blame on him/her just because he/she does not share a cordial relation with you will be unprofessional. Option d does not solve the problem of answering the query that has been made by your superior.

QUESTION: 18

You have been nominated the head of a committee that is incharge of setting up roads in a remote village area. This road will give the villagers connectivity to the closest town and aid transport of goods and services. However you notice that the local traders who fear competition from outsiders oppose this and threaten your family and you using the force of some local goons. You will

Solution:

A crisis situation like this demands for immediate action. Since you are being threatened, the immediate action should be to report the matter to the local police and let the law take its course. Warning the goons would only worsen matters. Trying to convince the traders would be the next best choice as this would help them to see the bigger picture and long term benefits. Also, trying to get yourself removed from the Committee is incorrect and cowardly as it your duty to ensure that the roads are built in the village.

QUESTION: 19

You got a 2 month internship in the company of your choice and if you do well the company will offer you a job at the end of 2 months. Your boss has given you a project with a deadline to complete it in a month and has promised to provide 2 people for completing the project on time. Two weeks have passed and rather than giving you any more people to help with the project your boss keeps giving you other short term assignments to finish. Also, he/she is pressurizing you and saying that it seems unlikely that you will get the job if you do not complete the project within the given deadline. You will

Solution:

Since you had been promised help at the time of taking up the project, it is only fair that you should remind your supervisor of the same. Moreover, talking about the extra work that has been coming your way is also a valid point to ask for more help. Such a course of action would put your point of view across and at the same time would bring the expectations of your boss in line with the ground reality. Option d is the next best option. Since this is a short term internship and because you really want this job in your dream company you would compromise by working overtime to complete the task.

QUESTION: 20

You have just found that one of your colleagues has been using his official position to secretly demand gifts and favors from the vendors who supply materials to your organization, with the promise to finalize the contract in their favor. Given this situation you will,

Solution:

The best course would be to approach the Ethics Committee. Any proceedings of the committee would be part of official record and the committee would also have the authority to ensure compliance would also have the authority to ensure compliance with its decision. Moreover, since there is a clear company policy regarding such behaviour, you should follow the method prescribed in the policy for dealing with such a situation. The next best option would be to speak to your colleague directly. Ignoring the matter would not be in your interest of your organization. Similarly contacting the vendors would not deal with the root of the problem since the vendors are only responding to the other made by your colleagues in order to secure their own business.

QUESTION: 21

You are the District Magistrate. There has been an incident in the government hospital. A mob went on a rampage in the hospital after a child admitted with head injuries died allegedly due to the negligence of the Medical Officer on duty. Now the medical officers have complained to you saying that it is impossible to work in such a threatening environment. You will

Solution:

Assuring the locals that a proper investigation of the case will take place will help in pacifying them. Hence, option d is the best course of action. Since the medical officers are also agitated and are refusing the allegation, assuring them that the matter will be thoroughly investigated is the next best option. You cannot reprimand the medical officer as the death due to his negligence is the allegation at the moment. Thus, option b is negated. The medical officer's apology is welcome but it will not compensate their loss in anyway. Hence option c is also negated.

QUESTION: 22

You are working as an HR manager in an educational organization. The company is facing a financial crunch and as a consequence there are consistent salary disbursement delays. The training staff at one of the centers is highly agitated and refuses to take classes. You will

Solution:

A situation such as this, requires employees' support and cooperation. The best possible option is to keep things transparent so as to gain the employees' trust and commitment towards the organization. Hence option d is the best choice. Option a is the next best course of action as it clarifies to the employees that they are not alone in facing this problem and appeals to the sense of community and belonging with the others in the organization. Putting pressure on the finance department will not help resolve the issue because the company has no money in the first place. Moreover, releasing salaries for only one center can worsen the situation at other centers. Threatening the staff will aggravate the situation and not solve it as the company is at fault and not the employees. Thus options b and c are negated.

QUESTION: 23

You have recently joined a cross functional team wherein you are supposed to work with an individual of another team with whom you are not on good terms. You would

Solution:

Being a part of the team and maintaining as much contact as is necessary for getting the work done is the best choice, which is option d. Option a is the next best option available. It shows your honesty and willing to take your boss into confidence rather than going ahead and facing problems later on. Threatening the other person to withdraw his name would be an unprofessional conduct. Also, being part of the team to seek an opportunity for revenge is not the correct approach as it would strain your relations with the said individual further and hamper your work.

QUESTION: 24

Your subordinate has been working for a month on an important presentation for a client, involving large number of facts and figures. The report has to be presented tomorrow morning in a meeting with the client. Due to a personal tragedy in his family, your subordinate has taken an unplanned leave from the office. Only your subordinate has the access to the presentation and you are unable to reach him through phone or mail. You will

Solution:

Going ahead with the meeting without the presentation may result in a bad image in front of the client or worse a loss of the client. Also, preparing the presentation all by yourself, that too in a day's time, is not a plausible option. The presentation took a month to prepare as it dealt with various facts and figures and it would be impossible to replace it with a presentation prepared in a day. Asking the client for an extension by citing the actual reason is the best course of action as it is a genuine case and the client will understand as such a tragedy is out of everyone's control. Option c is the next best course as it enables you to get the said presentation and at the same time not pressure your subordinate at a time of personal tragedy.

QUESTION: 25

You are a sessions judge at a district court where corruption is rampant. You have come across a case wherein an influential person has been accused of murder of a dalit. This has fired up the sentiments of the general public. However, a close relative of the accused has approached you and offered you a bribe in order to exonerate the accused. You will

Solution:

Option b is the best option as it is necessary that the action be initiated against the man for offering you bribe and the ongoing enquiry will help ascertain the truth. Option d is the second best option as you can try and expedite the inquiry in an attempt to ensure justice for the victim's family. Option c is not correct as you should not approach a higher judge regarding this matter, as it would mean that you could not handle the situation on your own. Option a is not feasible as it is unethical of you to pass a judgement punishing the accused for the murder without giving him a fair trial.

QUESTION: 26

Directions(Q. 26-34)  for the following items:

The following  items are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.

Passage - 1

All this time, Abe had kept on steadily with his reading whenever he had time, especially in the long winter evenings when he could read by the firelight. Lamps and candles were luxuries no settler could afford, but the wood was plentiful and it was easy to heap the fire high and make a splendid blaze.

He was careful, too, not to forget his writing, and he practiced writing his own name in the snow with a charred stick on slabs of wood. His father was not always pleased to find every smooth surface of the house scrawled over with black marks, but he had a great respect for learning and when he found that Abe was teaching himself to write, he was quite proud of the boy. When spring came around and they were working together in the fields, Abe took a stick and began writing his name with great care in the soft earth.

Q. Why was Abe's father proud of him?

1. Abe had not forgotten his name

2. Abe was teaching himself to write

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

Solution:

Only Statement 2 follows from the passage "when he found....proud of the boy".

QUESTION: 27

Passage - 1

All this time, Abe had kept on steadily with his reading whenever he had time, especially in the long winter evenings when he could read by the firelight. Lamps and candles were luxuries no settler could afford, but the wood was plentiful and it was easy to heap the fire high and make a splendid blaze.

He was careful, too, not to forget his writing, and he practiced writing his own name in the snow with a charred stick on slabs of wood. His father was not always pleased to find every smooth surface of the house scrawled over with black marks, but he had a great respect for learning and when he found that Abe was teaching himself to write, he was quite proud of the boy. When spring came around and they were working together in the fields, Abe took a stick and began writing his name with great care in the soft earth.

Q. Examine the following statements:

1. Abe used to read only during the evenings

2. Fire was a luxury for all the settlers

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

Solution:

It is nowhere mentioned that Abe reads only during evenings. The lamps and candles are expensive which does not make fire a luxury for the settlers

QUESTION: 28

Passage - 1

All this time, Abe had kept on steadily with his reading whenever he had time, especially in the long winter evenings when he could read by the firelight. Lamps and candles were luxuries no settler could afford, but the wood was plentiful and it was easy to heap the fire high and make a splendid blaze.

He was careful, too, not to forget his writing, and he practiced writing his own name in the snow with a charred stick on slabs of wood. His father was not always pleased to find every smooth surface of the house scrawled over with black marks, but he had a great respect for learning and when he found that Abe was teaching himself to write, he was quite proud of the boy. When spring came around and they were working together in the fields, Abe took a stick and began writing his name with great care in the soft earth.

Q. Abe used to

1. work with his father in the fields sometimes

2. write his name in the snow, on wood and in the earth

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 follows from the second last line of the last paragraph and Statement 2 follows from the first line of the last paragraph.

QUESTION: 29

Passage - 2

When the late evolutionist and polymath Stephen Jay Gould was a toddler, he became fascinated and terrified by the towering Tyrannosaurus rex skeleton at the American Museum of Natural History. Gould later claimed that he decided on the spot to become a palaeontologist- years before he even learned the word. Steven Pinker does not believe this oft told story. Pinker relates that Gould dedicated his first book: "For my father, who took me to see the Tyrannosaurus when I was five" and admires Gould's genius for coming up with that charming line, "But he does not believe it. Pinker says that long term memory is notoriously untrustworthy. Many children are exposed to books and museums, but few become scientists. Pinker concludes that perhaps the essence of who we are from birth shapes our childhood experiences rather than the other way round.

Q. Steven Pinker

Solution:

Nowhere in the passage it has been mentioned that he was a palaeontologist or a psychologist or the writer of a book. That leaves us only with option b.

QUESTION: 30

Passage - 2

When the late evolutionist and polymath Stephen Jay Gould was a toddler, he became fascinated and terrified by the towering Tyrannosaurus rex skeleton at the American Museum of Natural History. Gould later claimed that he decided on the spot to become a palaeontologist- years before he even learned the word. Steven Pinker does not believe this oft told story. Pinker relates that Gould dedicated his first book: "For my father, who took me to see the Tyrannosaurus when I was five" and admires Gould's genius for coming up with that charming line, "But he does not believe it. Pinker says that long term memory is notoriously untrustworthy. Many children are exposed to books and museums, but few become scientists. Pinker concludes that perhaps the essence of who we are from birth shapes our childhood experiences rather than the other way round.

Q. Which of the following statements reflect/s Pinker's views?

1. Long term memories cannot be correct

2. Childhood experiences are influenced by who we essentially are

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect as Pinker says that the childhood memories cannot be trusted, he does not say that they cannot be correct. Statement 2 is correct. Refer to the last line of the passage.

QUESTION: 31

Passage - 2

When the late evolutionist and polymath Stephen Jay Gould was a toddler, he became fascinated and terrified by the towering Tyrannosaurus rex skeleton at the American Museum of Natural History. Gould later claimed that he decided on the spot to become a palaeontologist- years before he even learned the word. Steven Pinker does not believe this oft told story. Pinker relates that Gould dedicated his first book: "For my father, who took me to see the Tyrannosaurus when I was five" and admires Gould's genius for coming up with that charming line, "But he does not believe it. Pinker says that long term memory is notoriously untrustworthy. Many children are exposed to books and museums, but few become scientists. Pinker concludes that perhaps the essence of who we are from birth shapes our childhood experiences rather than the other way round.

Q. Which of the following is/ are correct?

1. Those who grow up as scientists are usually not exposed to books and museums in their childhood

2. Only those who become scientists remember their childhood experiences of books and museums

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

Solution:

The passage does mention that "Many children are exposed to books and museums but a few become scientists". From this statement, we can not infer either 1 or 2.

QUESTION: 32

Passage - 3

For want of a better job, Orwell took a job with the Burmese civil service. It was here in Burma, that Orwell begin to assert his independence from his privileged upbringing. Revealingly, Orwell later told that he found himself rooting for the local population; and despising the imperial ideology which he represented. He resigned from his position in 1927.

It was in the nature of Orwell to try and see a situation from other people's point of view. He was unhappy at accepting the conventional social wisdom. In fact, he grew to despise the middle class upbringing so much so that he decided to spend time as a tramp. He wanted to experience life from the view of the gutter. His vivid experiences are recorded in the book "Down and Out in Paris and London". No longer could Orwell be described as a "Champagne Socialist"; by living with the poorest and underprivileged, he gained a unique insight into the practical working class ideas and working class politics

Q. Orwell-

1. loved his job with the Burmese Civil Service

2. did not have a privileged upbringing

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

Solution:

The passage clearly mentions that he despised the imperial ideology which he represented and he had a privileged upbringing.

QUESTION: 33

Passage - 3

For want of a better job, Orwell took a job with the Burmese civil service. It was here in Burma, that Orwell begin to assert his independence from his privileged upbringing. Revealingly, Orwell later told that he found himself rooting for the local population; and despising the imperial ideology which he represented. He resigned from his position in 1927.

It was in the nature of Orwell to try and see a situation from other people's point of view. He was unhappy at accepting the conventional social wisdom. In fact, he grew to despise the middle class upbringing so much so that he decided to spend time as a tramp. He wanted to experience life from the view of the gutter. His vivid experiences are recorded in the book "Down and Out in Paris and London". No longer could Orwell be described as a "Champagne Socialist"; by living with the poorest and underprivileged, he gained a unique insight into the practical working class ideas and working class politics

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Orwell was always against conventional wisdom

2. Orwell despised his middle class upbringing

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect as the passage states that he was unhappy at accepting the conventional social wisdom, which does not mean that he was totally against the conventional wisdom. Statement 2 is mentioned in the passage in the 2nd line of the last paragraph.

QUESTION: 34

Passage - 3

For want of a better job, Orwell took a job with the Burmese civil service. It was here in Burma, that Orwell begin to assert his independence from his privileged upbringing. Revealingly, Orwell later told that he found himself rooting for the local population; and despising the imperial ideology which he represented. He resigned from his position in 1927.

It was in the nature of Orwell to try and see a situation from other people's point of view. He was unhappy at accepting the conventional social wisdom. In fact, he grew to despise the middle class upbringing so much so that he decided to spend time as a tramp. He wanted to experience life from the view of the gutter. His vivid experiences are recorded in the book "Down and Out in Paris and London". No longer could Orwell be described as a "Champagne Socialist"; by living with the poorest and underprivileged, he gained a unique insight into the practical working class ideas and working class politics

Q. Why did Orwell decide to spend time as a tramp?

1. He was unhappy about his upbringing

2. He wanted to understand working class ideas better

Choose the correct option using the codes given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct as it answers why Orwell decided to spend time as a tramp. Statement 2 is nowhere mentioned in the passage. His ability to understand the working class ideas better was a result of his living as a tramp. But he lived as a tramp as he despised the middle class upbringing.

QUESTION: 35

Directions(Q.34-40) for the following items:

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:

Statements:

I. There are ten students between Nitin and Deepak.

II. Deepak is twentieth from the top.

Q. What is Nitin's rank from the top in a class of forty students?

Solution:

Since there are ten students between Nitin and Deepak, so Nitin may be eleven ranks above or below Deepak. Thus, Nitin may be 9th or 31st from the top.

QUESTION: 36

Statements:

I. If Sunny turns to his right and again turns to his right, he will be facing the North.

II. If Sunny walks some distance and turns left and again walks some distance, then his face will be towards left of Dinesh who is facing the South.

Q. Which direction is Sunny facing now?

Solution:

From I, we conclude that Sunny is facing South, since a person facing South shall face North on turning to his right, twice.

From II, we know that after walking, Sunny shall face towards left of Dinesh facing South i.e. East and a person walking southwards shall face East on turning to 'his left.

Thus, Sunny is facing the South.

QUESTION: 37

Statements:

I. T does not study in the same school as either R or J.

II. R and J study in schools D and F respectively.

Q. T studies in which of the schools B, C, D, E and F?

Solution:

As given in I and II, R studies in school D and J studies in school F. So, T does not study in school D or school F. Thus, T studies in any one of the schools B, C or E.

QUESTION: 38

Statements:

I. Divya's mother is sister of Shaloo's father.

II. Shaloo is the daughter of Divya's grandfather's only child.

Q. How is Divya related to Shaloo?

Solution:

From I, we conclude that Divya's mother is Shaloo's aunt or Divya is Shaloo's cousin.

Now, Divya's grandfather's only child is Divya's parent. So, from II, we conclude that Shaloo and Divya are daughters of the same parents i.e. Divya is Shaloo's sister.

QUESTION: 39

Statements:

I. Last year 2935 cards were sold.

II. The number of cards sold this year was 1.2 times that of last year.

Q. How many New Year's greeting cards were sold this year in your shop?

Solution:

From both I and II, we find that the number of cards sold this year = (2935 x 1.2) = 3522.

QUESTION: 40

Statements:

I. K has two sons, one of the sons is A.

II. The mother of T has only two sons A and B.

Q. How is T related to K?

Solution:

From II, we know that T's mother has only two sons, A and B. This implies that T is the sister of both A and B. But, from I, A is also K's son. So, T is the daughter of K.

QUESTION: 41

Directions (Q. 41-50) select the most appropriate answer.

You have been appointed as the Chief Secretary in a state where a Nuclear Plant has been proposed. People vehemently opposed this project because not much has been done by the government for the victims of nuclear accidents in the past. Now, the onus lies on you to smoothly set up the Nuclear plant as it will help fulfill the urgent energy need of the country. You will-

Solution:

Option b is the best way to go ahead as it will ally the apprehensions of the locals and pacify them.

Option c is the next best option as educating the people in the area and clarifying their misconceptions regarding the nuclear power plants will help to ensure that such protests do not recur in the future. But it will take a lot of time, so next best to option b. Option d is incorrect as you cannot ask the government to scrap the project just because it is potentially dangerous for the local people, overlooking the fact that it will benefit many more people by fulfilling the energy needs of the country. Option a is incorrect as using the force to clamp down the protests will be inappropriate as the protesters are not violent.

QUESTION: 42

You head the commercial aviation arm of the government, which is not doing well financially. The reason for this is the laid back attitude of the employees of the company. The employees hardly bother about providing the services to the customer. You have been asked to turn around the organization and make it possible. You will-

Solution:

The actual problem in this situation is the laidback attitude of the employees. Only bringing a change in the attitude of the employees can solve this problem and option a aptly caters to this need in the long term and hence is the best option. Option b is the next best option as even though it cannot be considered a long term solution it will communicate to the employees your resolve to fix matters. Option d is not correct as it is impracticable of you to ask the government to cancel the license of other aviation companies for no fault of theirs. Option c is incorrect as any financial help will not help in the turn around of the organization until the employees have the right attitude to run the organization.

QUESTION: 43

You are a director in the Land Revenue Department and responsible for probing illegal land deals. It has come to your notice through media reports that an influential politician's relative is connected with such an illegal deal. This has created widespread furore among the general public. You will

Solution:

Option c is the best choice as initiating an inquiry is the procedural way to deal with the case. Option b is the next best choice and could be in a way be part of the inquiry mentioned in option c. Moreover, it also prevents the possible tampering of evidence by the accused but it would require a search warrant for raiding the place and this will take you some time to obtain, hence, this cannot be done immediately. Option a is incorrect as you are not a police officer and arresting the person merely based on the media reports will be inappropriate. Options d is incorrect as this would mean that you are trying to shun the responsibility at hand and compromising on your ethics.

QUESTION: 44

You had rented out a tenement to a group of five labourers who claimed to be extremely poor and wanted a discount on the rent. You agreed to rent them the place for a very low amount keeping in mind their impoverished condition. For some months they delayed paying the rent on the pretext of non-payment of wages by their employer. One day you found that the tenement is vacated and theses labourers are nowhere to be found and the rent for several months was due on them. You will

Solution:

Option c is the best choice as for the labourers to deceive you in such a manner and leave without paying the money they owe you, is tantamount to theft and you should definitely inform the police. Option b is the next best course as you have been civil enough to understand their problem and offer them discount as well as significant leeway in paying rent. Option a is incorrect as it would mean that you let yourself be wronged without taking any steps to rectify the situation. Option d is incorrect as it does not solve the problem at hand in any way.

QUESTION: 45

You are a member of a Women's Rights Group campaigning against the practice of dowry. It has come to your notice that, at a certain wedding, the groom's family has demanded a huge dowry. You would

Solution:

Since the practice of asking for dowry is illegal, on getting to hear of such a demand it is incumbent on you to report the matter to the police. Thus option b is the best choice. The next best course for you would be to inform the District Magistrate of your district so that steps can be taken to institutionalize a preventive mechanism to deter such an event from happening in the future.

QUESTION: 46

You think that you are quite competent in your work and your boss keeps on saying that you have a good potential. However, your boss promotes other colleagues of yours whom you think are worse off as compared to you in terms of competency. You will​

Solution:

Option b is the best choice as it is possible that you may be wrong in thinking that you are quite competent in your work. A self assessment and comparison may make you identity your weak areas and improve on them. Option a is the next best choices if your boss says that you have a good potential then you can ask your boss whether he is considering things other than merit to promote people. However this should only be done once you make a comparative analysis of yourself vis a vis other candidates who have been promoted. Option c is unethical s it amounts to use illegal means to get you promoted. Option d is incorrect as there is no need to go to the court for this trivial matter and this threat to the high authorities seems unnecessary and may only worsen the situation as it may result in a bad equation with your boss as well as the authorities that you approach.

QUESTION: 47

You are working as a supply supervisor in a leading oil company in the public sector. It has come to your attention that certain company officials are stealing petrol from the company's plant and adulterating the remaining to cover up their tracks. They can sell the stolen petrol illegally to make a neat profit. You would

Solution:

Option b is the best choice as it is your duty to bring the matter to the attention to the authorities. Option d is the next best choice since, if for some reason, you are unable to escalate the matter to higher authorities, it would be best to bring the matter to light by taking recourse to the media.

QUESTION: 48

You are pursuing a degree course through distance learning. During your exam you see that all the other candidates are openly cheating and helping each other in collusion with the invigilators. You will

Solution:

Option b is the best choice as it will take care of the situation right at that time. Option c is the next best choice as if the principal does not respond or take any action against this then the police can be approached to intervene in the matter. Option a is incorrect as it is immoral of you to cheat in the examination. Option d is incorrect as it is not a feasible action.

QUESTION: 49

You are a student in a government operated intermediate school. Some children from the economically weaker sections have been admitted to this school. You observe that the teachers and the students from affluent families are biased against these children. You will

Solution:

Option a is the best choice as the principal should be informed about this so that he can take the required action to ensure that such practices are discontinued. Option c is the next best choice in case the principal does not respond to your request. Option b is incorrect as ignoring it would mean that you are an apathetic person and do not take proactive steps if you see something wrong. Option d is incorrect as your parents may not be in a position to influence matters at school.

QUESTION: 50

You are a Sales Manager with a leading FMCG company and report to the Territory Manager for North India. Your team has to present the Sales Target Achievement Report at the upcoming quarterly sales meet. Since most of your targets have not been achieved, your boss has asked you to fudge the sales numbers to show higher sales than the actual. What will you do?

Solution:

Option c is the best choice since your boss is asking you to do something that is unethical. Thus it is your duty to discuss the matter with him and try to influence him to do the right thing. Option d is the next best choice since if your boss disagrees with your suggestion then it would be best for you to decline to be a part of such unethical practices.

QUESTION: 51

Directions (Q.51-57)  for the following items:

Passage 1

By going through literature on communalism, certain important aspects that are worth noting arise. First, arbitrary definitions and explanations, often due to the development of opposing schools of thought, have created vagueness around the phenomenon of communalism and its associations with the concept of community. Second, most of the writings on communalism are not on communalism per se. They are on Hindu communalism, Muslim communalism and the Hindu fundamentalism. The connection between communalism and communities is not addressed properly. Third, features of religious communalism - a presumed homogenous community and community consciousness - are also exhibited by sects, cults, castes and linguistic and regional communities. Such communities and their politics are not seen as a part of the restricted idea of communalism. This is why the use of the idea of the "ethnic" is considered more appropriate, for it can bring under its consideration the full range of such expressions. Fourth, occurrences of communal violence in southern Indian states, its spread to rural and hill areas where tribals and dalits are either involved or attacked, and a range of new subjects for contestation in contemporary times show that communalism is not a peculiar north Indian and urban phenomenon.

Writings on communalism, even while highly analytical, consider community in terms of religion. This narrowing of communalism to apply only to religious communities has been uncritically inherited from colonial understandings of communities in India. To begin a discussion on communalism, it is necessary to see how it has been defined and explained, and how it has been associated with the term community. In a crude way, a group of people with some common bonds or notion of common identity can be treated as a community. Apparently, the association of communalism with community looks simplistic. An analysis of the characteristic features of communalism shows that the complex relationship between communalism and community has largely been overlooked. Jones defines "communalism as consciously shared religious heritage which becomes the dominant form of identity for a given segment of society."

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Communalism has a narrow definition of being inter-religious hence, intra- religious communalism is ignored.

2. The scope of communalism needs to be studied in a broader perspective to bring in comprehensive understanding

With reference of the passage, which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

The passage clearly states that "Writings on communalism.... community in terms of religion". Thus statement 1 is a valid assumption. Statement 2 automatically follows from the passage.

QUESTION: 52

Passage 1

By going through literature on communalism, certain important aspects that are worth noting arise. First, arbitrary definitions and explanations, often due to the development of opposing schools of thought, have created vagueness around the phenomenon of communalism and its associations with the concept of community. Second, most of the writings on communalism are not on communalism per se. They are on Hindu communalism, Muslim communalism and the Hindu fundamentalism. The connection between communalism and communities is not addressed properly. Third, features of religious communalism - a presumed homogenous community and community consciousness - are also exhibited by sects, cults, castes and linguistic and regional communities. Such communities and their politics are not seen as a part of the restricted idea of communalism. This is why the use of the idea of the "ethnic" is considered more appropriate, for it can bring under its consideration the full range of such expressions. Fourth, occurrences of communal violence in southern Indian states, its spread to rural and hill areas where tribals and dalits are either involved or attacked, and a range of new subjects for contestation in contemporary times show that communalism is not a peculiar north Indian and urban phenomenon.

Writings on communalism, even while highly analytical, consider community in terms of religion. This narrowing of communalism to apply only to religious communities has been uncritically inherited from colonial understandings of communities in India. To begin a discussion on communalism, it is necessary to see how it has been defined and explained, and how it has been associated with the term community. In a crude way, a group of people with some common bonds or notion of common identity can be treated as a community. Apparently, the association of communalism with community looks simplistic. An analysis of the characteristic features of communalism shows that the complex relationship between communalism and community has largely been overlooked. Jones defines "communalism as consciously shared religious heritage which becomes the dominant form of identity for a given segment of society."

Q. Consider the following statements:

I. Most writings on communalism have been charged by religious sentiment

II. Colonial understandings of communities in India are less relevant today

With reference of the passage, which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Only statement 2 can be inferred from the passage-'this narrowing of communalism....understandings of communities in India'. Statement 1 states that writings on communalism are charged by religious sentiments. This is not implied in the passage. It only states that most analyses have overemphasized the religious character of communalism, not that the writings themselves were religiously charged.

QUESTION: 53

Passage 1

By going through literature on communalism, certain important aspects that are worth noting arise. First, arbitrary definitions and explanations, often due to the development of opposing schools of thought, have created vagueness around the phenomenon of communalism and its associations with the concept of community. Second, most of the writings on communalism are not on communalism per se. They are on Hindu communalism, Muslim communalism and the Hindu fundamentalism. The connection between communalism and communities is not addressed properly. Third, features of religious communalism - a presumed homogenous community and community consciousness - are also exhibited by sects, cults, castes and linguistic and regional communities. Such communities and their politics are not seen as a part of the restricted idea of communalism. This is why the use of the idea of the "ethnic" is considered more appropriate, for it can bring under its consideration the full range of such expressions. Fourth, occurrences of communal violence in southern Indian states, its spread to rural and hill areas where tribals and dalits are either involved or attacked, and a range of new subjects for contestation in contemporary times show that communalism is not a peculiar north Indian and urban phenomenon.

Writings on communalism, even while highly analytical, consider community in terms of religion. This narrowing of communalism to apply only to religious communities has been uncritically inherited from colonial understandings of communities in India. To begin a discussion on communalism, it is necessary to see how it has been defined and explained, and how it has been associated with the term community. In a crude way, a group of people with some common bonds or notion of common identity can be treated as a community. Apparently, the association of communalism with community looks simplistic. An analysis of the characteristic features of communalism shows that the complex relationship between communalism and community has largely been overlooked. Jones defines "communalism as consciously shared religious heritage which becomes the dominant form of identity for a given segment of society."

Q. What is the reason that communalism has come to be identified only with religion? ​

Solution:

The passage mentions that the ‘narrowing of communalism to....understanding of communities in India'. Option a is the answer. Option b can be ruled out as there is no mention of the frequent tension between communities. Option c makes a statement that cannot be corroborated based on the passage. Option d is incorrect as it fails to be established as a cause- from the information in the passage, it cannot be inferred as a parallel phenomenon.

QUESTION: 54

Passage 1

By going through literature on communalism, certain important aspects that are worth noting arise. First, arbitrary definitions and explanations, often due to the development of opposing schools of thought, have created vagueness around the phenomenon of communalism and its associations with the concept of community. Second, most of the writings on communalism are not on communalism per se. They are on Hindu communalism, Muslim communalism and the Hindu fundamentalism. The connection between communalism and communities is not addressed properly. Third, features of religious communalism - a presumed homogenous community and community consciousness - are also exhibited by sects, cults, castes and linguistic and regional communities. Such communities and their politics are not seen as a part of the restricted idea of communalism. This is why the use of the idea of the "ethnic" is considered more appropriate, for it can bring under its consideration the full range of such expressions. Fourth, occurrences of communal violence in southern Indian states, its spread to rural and hill areas where tribals and dalits are either involved or attacked, and a range of new subjects for contestation in contemporary times show that communalism is not a peculiar north Indian and urban phenomenon.

Writings on communalism, even while highly analytical, consider community in terms of religion. This narrowing of communalism to apply only to religious communities has been uncritically inherited from colonial understandings of communities in India. To begin a discussion on communalism, it is necessary to see how it has been defined and explained, and how it has been associated with the term community. In a crude way, a group of people with some common bonds or notion of common identity can be treated as a community. Apparently, the association of communalism with community looks simplistic. An analysis of the characteristic features of communalism shows that the complex relationship between communalism and community has largely been overlooked. Jones defines "communalism as consciously shared religious heritage which becomes the dominant form of identity for a given segment of society."

Q. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

1. Communalism and community can be used interchangeably to talk about the same group of people

2. Communalism can be defined as the religious heritage that gives rise to a particular community.

Select the answer using the codes given below

Solution:

In the passage, the author states that the complex relation between communalism and community is not usually explored. This does not imply that communalism and community are interchangeable terms. So statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 gives a definition of communalism that equates it to the religious heritage of a particular community. Such a definition does not follow from the passage that states that religious communalism is often overemphasized while other aspects of communalism are neglected.

QUESTION: 55

Passage 2

A report out today warns that even in a fast growing economy like India, failure to invest in agriculture and support small farms has left nearly half the country's children malnourished, with one fifth of the one-billion plus population being hungry.

Action Aid, which published the report ahead of next week's summit in New York to discuss progress on the millennium development goals, says hunger is costing the world's poorest nations \$290 billion a year- more than 10 times the estimated amount needed to meet the goal of halving global hungry by 2015.

India now has worse rates of malnutrition than sub-Saharan Africa; 43.5 % of children under five are underweight and India ranks below Sudan and Zimbabwe in the Global Hunger Index. Even without last year's disastrous monsoon and the ensuring drought and crop failures, hunger was on the increase.

The government has promised a new food security bill to provide cheap food for the poor, but progress has been slow. The reality is that a country desperate to take its place at the world's top table is unwilling to commit to feeding its own population.

Last month the country's Supreme Court castigated the government for allowing 67000 tonnes of badly stored grain to rot- enough to feed 190000 people for a month- and ordered it to distribute 17.8 m tonnes in imminent danger of rotting.

India's Prime Minister protested, saying that the court has crossed the line into policy making and warning that distributing free food to the 37% of the population living BPL will destroy any incentives for the farmers to produce. The court stood firm. It was an order, not a suggestion, the judges said.

According to Action Aid, global hunger in 2009 was at the same level as in 1990. The charity urged developed countries to make good on \$14 billion pledge to fight hunger, announced at last year's G8 summit in Italy.

Q. Consider the following assumptions:

1. Dismally high malnutrition rates show that the Indian government is not doing enough to counter hunger.

2. The new food security bill by the Indian government will help bring in a positive change in the malnutrition rates.

Which of the following assumption is/are valid?

Solution:

The passage mentions that India has dismally high malnutrition rates. The last line of the fourth paragraph also mentions the inference that one can draw from these high rates- ‘The reality is that in a country..... feeding its own population'. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is not correct as there is no certainty that there will be a positive charge due to the food security bill.

QUESTION: 56

Passage 2

A report out today warns that even in a fast growing economy like India, failure to invest in agriculture and support small farms has left nearly half the country's children malnourished, with one fifth of the one-billion plus population being hungry.

Action Aid, which published the report ahead of next week's summit in New York to discuss progress on the millennium development goals, says hunger is costing the world's poorest nations \$290 billion a year- more than 10 times the estimated amount needed to meet the goal of halving global hungry by 2015.

India now has worse rates of malnutrition than sub-Saharan Africa; 43.5 % of children under five are underweight and India ranks below Sudan and Zimbabwe in the Global Hunger Index. Even without last year's disastrous monsoon and the ensuring drought and crop failures, hunger was on the increase.

The government has promised a new food security bill to provide cheap food for the poor, but progress has been slow. The reality is that a country desperate to take its place at the world's top table is unwilling to commit to feeding its own population.

Last month the country's Supreme Court castigated the government for allowing 67000 tonnes of badly stored grain to rot- enough to feed 190000 people for a month- and ordered it to distribute 17.8 m tonnes in imminent danger of rotting.

India's Prime Minister protested, saying that the court has crossed the line into policy making and warning that distributing free food to the 37% of the population living BPL will destroy any incentives for the farmers to produce. The court stood firm. It was an order, not a suggestion, the judges said.

According to Action Aid, global hunger in 2009 was at the same level as in 1990. The charity urged developed countries to make good on \$14 billion pledge to fight hunger, announced at last year's G8 summit in Italy.

Q. Which of the following can be classified as contributing to the worsening malnutrition rates in India?

1. a bleak monsoon season

2. Lack of support to agriculture

Solution:

Option 1 is correct as it is mentioned in the last line of the third paragraph. This situation is linked to India's worsening malnutrition rates. Option 2 is correct as it is mentioned in the first paragraph.

QUESTION: 57

Passage 2

A report out today warns that even in a fast growing economy like India, failure to invest in agriculture and support small farms has left nearly half the country's children malnourished, with one fifth of the one-billion plus population being hungry.

Action Aid, which published the report ahead of next week's summit in New York to discuss progress on the millennium development goals, says hunger is costing the world's poorest nations \$290 billion a year- more than 10 times the estimated amount needed to meet the goal of halving global hungry by 2015.

India now has worse rates of malnutrition than sub-Saharan Africa; 43.5 % of children under five are underweight and India ranks below Sudan and Zimbabwe in the Global Hunger Index. Even without last year's disastrous monsoon and the ensuring drought and crop failures, hunger was on the increase.

The government has promised a new food security bill to provide cheap food for the poor, but progress has been slow. The reality is that a country desperate to take its place at the world's top table is unwilling to commit to feeding its own population.

Last month the country's Supreme Court castigated the government for allowing 67000 tonnes of badly stored grain to rot- enough to feed 190000 people for a month- and ordered it to distribute 17.8 m tonnes in imminent danger of rotting.

India's Prime Minister protested, saying that the court has crossed the line into policy making and warning that distributing free food to the 37% of the population living BPL will destroy any incentives for the farmers to produce. The court stood firm. It was an order, not a suggestion, the judges said.

According to Action Aid, global hunger in 2009 was at the same level as in 1990. The charity urged developed countries to make good on \$14 billion pledge to fight hunger, announced at last year's G8 summit in Italy.

Q. Which of the following statements would help explain the Prime Minister's argument against the Supreme Court order?

Solution:

The argument that the PM puts forth is that distributing free food will destroy any incentives the farmers will have to produce. This indicates an interference with the market economy and hence option b is the answer. Option a can be ruled out as there is no hint that farmers will bear the cost of distributing free grain. Option c cannot be inferred from the passage. Option d is incorrect as it does not help to understand why farmers would be demotivated to produce if the government decides to distribute grain free of cost.

QUESTION: 58

Directions (Q.58-62) for the following items:

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:

Statements:

I. Durgapur is 20 kms away from Rampur.

II. Devipur is 15 kms away from Rampur.

Q. What is the shortest distance between Devipur and Durgapur?

Solution:

Clearly, the distance of each village from Rampur is given in I and II. But nothing about their relative positions is mentioned. So, the distance between the two villages cannot be calculated.

QUESTION: 59

Statements:

I. Prabhakar is heavier than Manoj and Kamal but lighter than Akash.

II. Manoj is lighter than Prabhakar and Akash but heavier than Kamal.

Q. Manoj, Prabhakar, Akash and Kamal are four friends. Who among them is the heaviest?

Solution:

From I, we have: P > M,P > K,A > P.

Thus, A >P > M > K or A > P > K > M.So, Akash is the heaviest.

From II, we have: P > M,A > M,M > K.

Thus, A > P > M > K or P > A > M > K. So, either Akash or Prabhakar is the heaviest.

QUESTION: 60

Statements:

I. Javed's salary is 75% that of Vinod's salary.

II. Javed's salary is Rs 4500.

Q. Vinod's and Javed's salaries are in the proportion of4:3 respectively. What isVinod's salary?

Solution:

Statement I is merely an interpretation ofthe information contained in the question.

However, Vinod's salary can be ascertained from II as follows: Let Vinod's and Javed's salaries be 4x and 3x respectively. Then, 3x = 4500 or x = 1500. Therefore Vinod's salary = 4x = Rs. 6000.

QUESTION: 61

Statements:

I. Gagan, Vimal and Kunal are all of the same age.

II. Total age of Vimal, Kunal and Anil is 32 years and Anil is as old as Vimal and Kunal together.

Q. What is Gagan's age?

Solution:

As given in I and II, we have: G = V=K,V+K + A = 32 and A = V+K.

Putting V+K = A in V+K + A = 32, we have: 2A = 32 or A= 16.

Thus, V + K=16 and V=K. So, V=K=8. Thus, G = 8

QUESTION: 62

Statements:

I. Suman has 20 rupees less than what Tarun has.

II. Vivek has 30 rupees more than whatTarun has.

Q. How much money do Vivek and Suman have together?

Solution:

From I, we have: S = T - 20.

From II, we have: V = T + 30.

Thus, from both I and II, we have: V + S = (T + 30) + (T - 20) = (2T + 10). So, to get the required amount, we need to know the amount that Tarun has.

QUESTION: 63

Directions (Q. 63-64) select the most appropriate answer.

You have cleared all the preliminary rounds of the interview for a prestigious post in a top MNC. On the day of the final round of interviews, while you wait for your turn to interact with the Senior Manager, you overhear two junior managers discussing that the position is rigged and will eventually go to the Senior Manager's brother in law. You will

Solution:

Since you have overheard a conversation, you have no thorough proof of it, submitting a written complaint to the CEO is baseless. Additionally, discussing the matter with the Senior Manager is also uncalled for as you could be reprimanded on believing on more gossip in the office. The best option in this case is ignoring what you hear and going ahead with the interview.

QUESTION: 64

Your supervisor gets all his work done by you and takes all the credit himself. Your senior manager is selecting a team for assigning a prestigious project. Being a part of this project guarantees growth in the organization. He selects your supervisor and not you. You feel that you deserved to be selected as you are more capable than your supervisor. You will

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

Directions (Q. 65-71) for the following items:

Passage 1

The NAC proposals go against its earlier proposal of experimenting with universal entitlements in the poorest 150 districts of the country - a retrograde step for a country where half of the population is malnourished. In the final proposals, even this minimum effort to experiment with universalization was given up. The issue is why the NAC went against such universalization.

A universal PDS is not only the best possible option from the perspective of a rights based approach, it is also far more realistic in its commitment to ensure food security for the poor. Universalization would also be in line with the larger agenda of the UPA government of changing the architecture of the social service programs to make them more inclusive.

Targeting is inherently problematic. The BPL census, which is the primary means of targeting public services and subsidies to the poor, has failed to serve the purpose. The process of targeting is not only administratively costly but also discriminatory to the poor; limiting food security to BPL necessarily involves the exclusion of families who are very similar to other families that have been included. Historically, limiting food security to BPL families has severely impaired the effective access of food for poor families. Large numbers of poor families did not have BPL cards, even when they had cards, access to PDS was not automatic and, even ifthey had access to the PDS, they did not receive the full entitlement of food. But does it really mean that universalization is not feasible? Do we have enough foodgrains for a universal system?

The total requirement of a Universal PDS is 96.60 million tonnes if the entire population lifts its foodgrain quota. However, there will be some sections of the population who will not take their quota of foodgrain. This could be because they are well off and therefore do not need the ration food. It could also be a matter of taste and preference and they may not like the PDS foodgrain which is generally of inferior quality. These will largely be the rich and well off in urban areas.

Q. It can be inferred from the aim of the passage is to

Solution:

The passage starts with the criticism of the NAC's proposal and then moves on, in the next few photographs, to discuss the possible options in improvement. Option c is the answer. Option a is incorrect as though the author extols the virtue of a universal PDS, it is one of the options to better the situation. Option b is incorrect as the passage is also concerned about these families that have not been taken into account by the poverty line. Option d is incorrect as the passage by itself cannot overturn the NAC's proposals nor does it seek to do so.

QUESTION: 66

Passage 1

The NAC proposals go against its earlier proposal of experimenting with universal entitlements in the poorest 150 districts of the country - a retrograde step for a country where half of the population is malnourished. In the final proposals, even this minimum effort to experiment with universalization was given up. The issue is why the NAC went against such universalization.

A universal PDS is not only the best possible option from the perspective of a rights based approach, it is also far more realistic in its commitment to ensure food security for the poor. Universalization would also be in line with the larger agenda of the UPA government of changing the architecture of the social service programs to make them more inclusive.

Targeting is inherently problematic. The BPL census, which is the primary means of targeting public services and subsidies to the poor, has failed to serve the purpose. The process of targeting is not only administratively costly but also discriminatory to the poor; limiting food security to BPL necessarily involves the exclusion of families who are very similar to other families that have been included. Historically, limiting food security to BPL families has severely impaired the effective access of food for poor families. Large numbers of poor families did not have BPL cards, even when they had cards, access to PDS was not automatic and, even ifthey had access to the PDS, they did not receive the full entitlement of food. But does it really mean that universalization is not feasible? Do we have enough foodgrains for a universal system?

The total requirement of a Universal PDS is 96.60 million tonnes if the entire population lifts its foodgrain quota. However, there will be some sections of the population who will not take their quota of foodgrain. This could be because they are well off and therefore do not need the ration food. It could also be a matter of taste and preference and they may not like the PDS foodgrain which is generally of inferior quality. These will largely be the rich and well off in urban areas.

Q. Which of the following options has not been mentioned as a criticism?

Solution:

Option a has been provided as a criticism in the first paragraph. It is clear that the NAC's proposals have been limiting. Option b can also be inferred from the fourth line of the first paragraph. Option c can be inferred from the first sentence of the third paragraph. Option d is incorrect as there is no mention in the passage that food security policies also benefit the rich. And of this situation, the author does not offer any criticism

QUESTION: 67

Passage 1

The NAC proposals go against its earlier proposal of experimenting with universal entitlements in the poorest 150 districts of the country - a retrograde step for a country where half of the population is malnourished. In the final proposals, even this minimum effort to experiment with universalization was given up. The issue is why the NAC went against such universalization.

A universal PDS is not only the best possible option from the perspective of a rights based approach, it is also far more realistic in its commitment to ensure food security for the poor. Universalization would also be in line with the larger agenda of the UPA government of changing the architecture of the social service programs to make them more inclusive.

Targeting is inherently problematic. The BPL census, which is the primary means of targeting public services and subsidies to the poor, has failed to serve the purpose. The process of targeting is not only administratively costly but also discriminatory to the poor; limiting food security to BPL necessarily involves the exclusion of families who are very similar to other families that have been included. Historically, limiting food security to BPL families has severely impaired the effective access of food for poor families. Large numbers of poor families did not have BPL cards, even when they had cards, access to PDS was not automatic and, even ifthey had access to the PDS, they did not receive the full entitlement of food. But does it really mean that universalization is not feasible? Do we have enough foodgrains for a universal system?

The total requirement of a Universal PDS is 96.60 million tonnes if the entire population lifts its foodgrain quota. However, there will be some sections of the population who will not take their quota of foodgrain. This could be because they are well off and therefore do not need the ration food. It could also be a matter of taste and preference and they may not like the PDS foodgrain which is generally of inferior quality. These will largely be the rich and well off in urban areas.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The food grain requirement of the country would in all likelihood be lower than 96.60 million tonnes

2. The rich are likely to place more emphasis on taste than the poor

Which of the following statements is/are valid?

Solution:

Refer to the last paragraph. It indicates that the quota would be less than that actually set. Statement 1 can thus be inferred. Statement 2 can be inferred from the points made in the paragraph.

QUESTION: 68

Passage 1

The NAC proposals go against its earlier proposal of experimenting with universal entitlements in the poorest 150 districts of the country - a retrograde step for a country where half of the population is malnourished. In the final proposals, even this minimum effort to experiment with universalization was given up. The issue is why the NAC went against such universalization.

A universal PDS is not only the best possible option from the perspective of a rights based approach, it is also far more realistic in its commitment to ensure food security for the poor. Universalization would also be in line with the larger agenda of the UPA government of changing the architecture of the social service programs to make them more inclusive.

Targeting is inherently problematic. The BPL census, which is the primary means of targeting public services and subsidies to the poor, has failed to serve the purpose. The process of targeting is not only administratively costly but also discriminatory to the poor; limiting food security to BPL necessarily involves the exclusion of families who are very similar to other families that have been included. Historically, limiting food security to BPL families has severely impaired the effective access of food for poor families. Large numbers of poor families did not have BPL cards, even when they had cards, access to PDS was not automatic and, even ifthey had access to the PDS, they did not receive the full entitlement of food. But does it really mean that universalization is not feasible? Do we have enough foodgrains for a universal system?

The total requirement of a Universal PDS is 96.60 million tonnes if the entire population lifts its foodgrain quota. However, there will be some sections of the population who will not take their quota of foodgrain. This could be because they are well off and therefore do not need the ration food. It could also be a matter of taste and preference and they may not like the PDS foodgrain which is generally of inferior quality. These will largely be the rich and well off in urban areas.

Q. Limited food security to BPL families is not a feasible option. Why?

Solution:

Refer to the first few lines of the third paragraph. The first sentence reveals that limiting food security to BPL families leaves out other deserving families. The second sentence discusses why limiting food security is not feasible- "it impairs the effective access to food for poor families". Option a is the answer. Option b can be ruled out because in the passage, there is no mention of the middlemen in the PDS system. Option c is incorrect as the author never links the issue in this option with limiting food security to BPL families. Option d, while looks like the correct option, stands incorrect due to its general nature.

QUESTION: 69

Passage 2

How is India's middle class culture being changed and affected? Let us have a look at what is happening. First the numbers, independent India did not count its population along the lines of caste, and it required special surveys, like that of the Mandal Commission, to identify the size of peasant groupings. The number was revealed to be over 50% of the population. The British census before independence told us that the Brahmin population was about 6%, though the community's power and projection in urban India was disproportionate.

Three small castes, all put together about 10% of the population, dominated the urban middle classes. Brahmin, Baniya and Kayastha. What most urban Indians know as middle class culture is actually the culture of these 3 communities.

The second most important thing we must consider is the quality and texture of literacy. India was only 5% literate at the turn of the 20th century, and in the last 20 years the direction of urban middle class literacy is towards English. Increasingly, families speak English even at home and most middle class Indians do not read in their mother tongue. We are not referring here to the ability to read, which they have picked up at school. They can speak in the mother tongue, if it is peppered with the English words which have become indispensable. We mean regular reading of literature or entertainment in the mother tongue.

This has produced a unique community. There is no parallel to India of a nation whose middle class is trained to think and approach life in a foreign language, one they have not mastered. India's elite occupy a minimal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English. One reason India produces so little literature is that India's middle class does not own any language properly. The knowledge of English has come to them through stock phrases because the quality of teaching is poor. Even half literate Americans speak better, cleaner and more precise English than educated Indians. And on the mother-tongue side, the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of India's high culture, its classical inheritance.

Q. Consider the following assumptions:

1. Brahmin, Baniya and Kayastha overpowered communities in India

2. Indian middle class is fluent in English

With reference to the above passage, which of the following assumption is/are valid?

Solution:

The sentences ‘Three small castes, all......... of these three communities' tell us two separate things. One that they dominated the middle class and second that what generally is known as middle class culture is the culture of these castes. This in no way means that the three castes overpowered other cultures in India. The author clearly mentions that India is ‘a nation whose middle class............ they have not mastered'. Hence assumption 2 is also negated and option d is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 70

Passage 2

How is India's middle class culture being changed and affected? Let us have a look at what is happening. First the numbers, independent India did not count its population along the lines of caste, and it required special surveys, like that of the Mandal Commission, to identify the size of peasant groupings. The number was revealed to be over 50% of the population. The British census before independence told us that the Brahmin population was about 6%, though the community's power and projection in urban India was disproportionate.

Three small castes, all put together about 10% of the population, dominated the urban middle classes. Brahmin, Baniya and Kayastha. What most urban Indians know as middle class culture is actually the culture of these 3 communities.

The second most important thing we must consider is the quality and texture of literacy. India was only 5% literate at the turn of the 20th century, and in the last 20 years the direction of urban middle class literacy is towards English. Increasingly, families speak English even at home and most middle class Indians do not read in their mother tongue. We are not referring here to the ability to read, which they have picked up at school. They can speak in the mother tongue, if it is peppered with the English words which have become indispensable. We mean regular reading of literature or entertainment in the mother tongue.

This has produced a unique community. There is no parallel to India of a nation whose middle class is trained to think and approach life in a foreign language, one they have not mastered. India's elite occupy a minimal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English. One reason India produces so little literature is that India's middle class does not own any language properly. The knowledge of English has come to them through stock phrases because the quality of teaching is poor. Even half literate Americans speak better, cleaner and more precise English than educated Indians. And on the mother-tongue side, the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of India's high culture, its classical inheritance.

Q. The author makes a reference to regular reading of literature in the mother tongue. What does he imply by this?

Solution:

Refer to the second paragraph. The author mentions literacy in terms of quality and texture. To explain this point further he makes a mention of regular reading of literature. Option b is correct as it is the point that the author is trying to make in the paragraph. Option a is incorrect as the author does not make such a suggestion in the passage. Options c and d cannot be inferred from the passage.

QUESTION: 71

Passage 2

How is India's middle class culture being changed and affected? Let us have a look at what is happening. First the numbers, independent India did not count its population along the lines of caste, and it required special surveys, like that of the Mandal Commission, to identify the size of peasant groupings. The number was revealed to be over 50% of the population. The British census before independence told us that the Brahmin population was about 6%, though the community's power and projection in urban India was disproportionate.

Three small castes, all put together about 10% of the population, dominated the urban middle classes. Brahmin, Baniya and Kayastha. What most urban Indians know as middle class culture is actually the culture of these 3 communities.

The second most important thing we must consider is the quality and texture of literacy. India was only 5% literate at the turn of the 20th century, and in the last 20 years the direction of urban middle class literacy is towards English. Increasingly, families speak English even at home and most middle class Indians do not read in their mother tongue. We are not referring here to the ability to read, which they have picked up at school. They can speak in the mother tongue, if it is peppered with the English words which have become indispensable. We mean regular reading of literature or entertainment in the mother tongue.

This has produced a unique community. There is no parallel to India of a nation whose middle class is trained to think and approach life in a foreign language, one they have not mastered. India's elite occupy a minimal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English. One reason India produces so little literature is that India's middle class does not own any language properly. The knowledge of English has come to them through stock phrases because the quality of teaching is poor. Even half literate Americans speak better, cleaner and more precise English than educated Indians. And on the mother-tongue side, the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of India's high culture, its classical inheritance.

Q. Which of the following options would help one understand the author's argument that the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of India's culture?

Solution:

The last paragraph provides an answer to this question. Option a is incorrect as it does not help explain why there is an erosion of the Indian culture. Option b is incorrect as it is vague- the passage makes a reference to the half-literate Americans. This option does not link with the mother tongue and the Indian culture. Option c is the answer as it provides a reason as to why the loss of language has also resulted in the erosion of India's culture. Option d is incorrect as it only restates the question and does not answer it.

QUESTION: 72

Directions (Q.72-80) for the following items:

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:

Statements:

I. Monika came after Anita but not after Tanvy.

II. Ratna came afterTanvy but not after Sonal.

Q. Among Monika, Anita, Sonal, Ratna and Tanvy, who came last for the program?

Solution:

From I, we have the order: A, M, T.

From II, we have the order: T, R, S.

Combining the above two, we get the order: A, M, T, R, S.

Thus, Sonal came last for the program.

QUESTION: 73

Statements:

I. R is heavier than Q and T but lighter than S.

II. S is not the heaviest.

Q. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the lightest?

Solution:

From I, we have: R > Q, R > T, S > R i.e. S > R > Q > T or S > R > T >  Q.

From II, S is not the heaviest. So, P is the heaviest. Thus, we have: P > S >R >Q >T or P > S > R > T > Q. Hence, either T or Q is the lightest.

QUESTION: 74

Statements:

I. Kapil's mother remembers that Kapil was born before nineteenth but after fifteenth.

II. Kapil's brother remembers that Kapil was born before seventeenth but after twelth.

Q. On which date in August was Kapil born?

Solution:

From I, we conclude that Kapil was born on any one of the dates among 16th, 17th and 18th.

From II, we conclude that Kapil was born on any one of the dates among 13th, 14th, 15th and 16th.

Thus, from both I and II, we conclude that Kapil was born on 16th August.

QUESTION: 75

Statements:

II. Arvind is younger than Kamal.

Q. Madan is elder than Kamal and Sharad is younger than Arvind. Who among them is the youngest?

Solution:

As given, we have: M > K,A > S.

From II, K > A. Thus, we have: M > K > A > S.

So, Sharad is the youngest. From I, M > S. Thus, we have: M > K > A > S or M > A >K > S or M > A > S > K.

QUESTION: 76

Statements:

I. Ritesh will complete 30 years of service in office X in April 2015 and desires to retire.

II. As per office X rules, an employee has to complete minimum 30 years of service and attain age of 60. Ritesh has 3 years to complete age of 60.

Q. Can Ritesh retire from office X in January 2018, with full pension benefits?

Solution:

Clearly, the facts given in I and II contain two conditions to be fulfilled to get retirement and also indicate that Ritesh fulfills only one condition out of them.

QUESTION: 77

Statements:

I. Sulekha's husband is the only son of Nandini's mother.

II. Sulekha's brother and Nandini's husband are cousins.

Q. How is Sulekha related to Nandini?

Solution:

From I, we conclude that Sulekha is the wife of Nandini's mother's only son i.e. Nandini's brother. Thus, Sulekha is Nandini's sister-in-law.

From II, we conclude that Sulekha is the cousin of Nandini's husband, which implies that Sulekha is Nandini's sister-in-law.

QUESTION: 78

Statements:

I. B is heavier than T and C and is lighter than V who is not the heaviest.

II. C is heavier than only T.

Q. Among T, V, B, E and C, who is the third from the top when arranged in the descending order of their weights?

Solution:

From I, we have: B > T, B > C, V > B. Thus, V is heavier than each one of B, T and C. But V is not the heaviest.  So, E is the heaviest.

Thus, we have the order. E > V > B > T > C or E > V > B > C > T. Clearly, B is third from the top.

QUESTION: 79

Statements:

I. Only boys play football.

II. There are forty boys and thirty girls in the class.

Q. How many students in a class play football?

Solution:

It is not mentioned whether all the boys or a proportion of them play football.

QUESTION: 80

Statements:

I. D is sitting opposite to A.

II. B is sitting right of A and left of D.

Q. Who is sitting opposite to C in a round table which seats A, B, C and D?

Solution:

Clearly, each of the given statements shows that B is sitting opposite to C or B is the partner of C.