UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  CSAT Preparation  >  UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

80 Questions MCQ Test CSAT Preparation - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 for UPSC 2024 is part of CSAT Preparation preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 below.
Solutions of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 questions in English are available as part of our CSAT Preparation for UPSC & UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 solutions in Hindi for CSAT Preparation course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 | 80 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study CSAT Preparation for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 1

Correct the given equations by interchanging the two signs (10 - 14 ÷7 x 3 + 4 = 20)

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 1

Interchange of sign + and x makes the equation into 10 – 14 ÷ 7 + 3 x 4 = 10 - 2 + 3 × 4 = 20. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 2

Select the correct set of symbols which will fit in the given equation 5 0 6 8 = 48

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 2
These questions are mainly solved with a hit and trial method. Let check option (c), we get 5 × 0 + 6 × 8 = 48, Which is correct. So, (C) must be the right choice.

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 3

Direction for: Each of the following questions is based on the following information:

1. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q R, S, T and U.

2. Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.

3. S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

4. R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.

If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose flat will be next to that of U?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 3

Interchanging flats P and T

Hence flat R will be next to U.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 4

Direction for: Each of the following questions is based on the following information:

1. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q R, S, T and U.

2. Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.

3. S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

4. R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.

Which of the following combinations get south facing flats?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 4

Hence URP flat combinations get south facing flats.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 5

Direction for: Each of the following questions is based on the following information:

1. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q R, S, T and U.

2. Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.

3. S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

4. R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.

The flats of which of the other pairs than SU, is diagonally opposite to each other?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 5

Hence QP is diagonally opposite to each other.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 6

India is rushing headlong towards economic success and modernisation, counting on high- tech industries such as information technology and biotechnology to propel the nation to prosperity. India’s recent announcement that it would no longer produce unlicensed inexpensive generic pharmaceuticals bowed to the realities of the World Trade Organisation while at the same time challenging the domestic drug industry to compete with the multinational firms. Unfortunately, its weak higher education sector constitutes the Achilles heel of this strategy. India’s main competitors especially China but also Singapore, Taiwan, and South Korea are investing in large and differentiated higher education systems. They are providing access to large numbers of students at the bottom of the academic system while at the same time building some research based universities that are able to compete with the world’s best institutions. There are a small number of high quality institutions, departments, and centres that can form the basis of the quality sector in higher education. India Educates approximately 10 percent of Its young people in higher education compared with more than half in the major industrialized countries and 15 percent in China. Almost all of the world’s academic systems resemble a pyramid, with a small high quality tier at the top and massive sector at the bottom. India has a tiny top tier. None of its universities occupies a solid position at the top. A few of the best universities have some excellent departments and centres, and there are a small number of outstanding undergraduate colleges.

Q. By what measures can you say that the Asian countries, other than India, are heading towards a knowledge based economy?

1. Building competitive research based universities.

2. Investing in diverse higher education systems,

3. Providing access to higher education to a select few students.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 6
In the passage it is mentioned that “India ’s main competitors especially China but also Singapore, Taiwan, and South Korea are investing in large and differentiated higher education systems. They are providing access to large numbers of students at the bottom of the academic system while at the same time building some research based universities that are able to compete with the world ’s best institutions. ``implies that the Asian countries except India are building competitive research based universities and investing in diverse higher education systems to head towards a knowledge based economy.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 7

India is rushing headlong towards economic success and modernisation, counting on high- tech industries such as information technology and biotechnology to propel the nation to prosperity. India’s recent announcement that it would no longer produce unlicensed inexpensive generic pharmaceuticals bowed to the realities of the World Trade Organisation while at the same time challenging the domestic drug industry to compete with the multinational firms. Unfortunately, its weak higher education sector constitutes the Achilles heel of this strategy. India’s main competitors especially China but also Singapore, Taiwan, and South Korea are investing in large and differentiated higher education systems. They are providing access to large numbers of students at the bottom of the academic system while at the same time building some research based universities that are able to compete with the world’s best institutions. There are a small number of high quality institutions, departments, and centres that can form the basis of the quality sector in higher education. India Educates approximately 10 percent of Its young people in higher education compared with more than half in the major industrialized countries and 15 percent in China. Almost all of the world’s academic systems resemble a pyramid, with a small high quality tier at the top and massive sector at the bottom. India has a tiny top tier. None of its universities occupies a solid position at the top. A few of the best universities have some excellent departments and centres, and there are a small number of outstanding undergraduate colleges.

What did India agree to do at the behest of the World Trade Organisation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 7
In the passage it is mentioned that “India’s recent announcement that it would no longer produce unlicensed inexpensive generic pharmaceuticals bowed to the realities of the World Trade Organisation” implies that India agreed to manufacture cheap common medicines without a license at the behest of the World Trade Organisation.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 8

India is rushing headlong towards economic success and modernisation, counting on high- tech industries such as information technology and biotechnology to propel the nation to prosperity. India’s recent announcement that it would no longer produce unlicensed inexpensive generic pharmaceuticals bowed to the realities of the World Trade Organisation while at the same time challenging the domestic drug industry to compete with the multinational firms. Unfortunately, its weak higher education sector constitutes the Achilles heel of this strategy. India’s main competitors especially China but also Singapore, Taiwan, and South Korea are investing in large and differentiated higher education systems. They are providing access to large numbers of students at the bottom of the academic system while at the same time building some research based universities that are able to compete with the world’s best institutions. There are a small number of high quality institutions, departments, and centres that can form the basis of the quality sector in higher education. India Educates approximately 10 percent of Its young people in higher education compared with more than half in the major industrialized countries and 15 percent in China. Almost all of the world’s academic systems resemble a pyramid, with a small high quality tier at the top and massive sector at the bottom. India has a tiny top tier. None of its universities occupies a solid position at the top. A few of the best universities have some excellent departments and centres, and there are a small number of outstanding undergraduate colleges.

Which of the following are India’s weaknesses when it comes to higher education?

1. Indian universities do not have the requisite teaching faculty to cater to the needs of the higher education sector.

2. Only five Indian universities occupy the top position very strongly, in the academic pyramid, when it comes to higher education.

3. India has the least percentage of young population taking to higher education as compared to the rest of the comparable countries.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 8
In the passage it is mentioned that “Almost all of the world’s academic systems resemble a pyramid, with a small high quality tier at the top and massive sector at the bottom. India has a tiny top tier. ” Implies that India’s weakness is that it has the least percentage of young population taking to higher education as compared to the rest of the comparable countries.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 9

Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system is based on the detection of photons—quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other particles so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire universe, even traversing substantial aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neutrinos can thus escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are blocked by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them information about the site and circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos could provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history of the universe.

With which of the following statements regarding neutrino astronomy would the author be most likely to agree?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 9
From the passage it can be inferred that according to the author neutrino astronomy would be most likely to major breakthroughs in astronomy.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 10

Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system is based on the detection of photons—quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other particles so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire universe, even traversing substantial aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neutrinos can thus escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are blocked by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them information about the site and circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos could provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history of the universe.

According to the passage, one advantage that neutrinos have for studies in astronomy is that they

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 10
In the passage it is mentioned that “, neutrinos carry with them information about the site and circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos could provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history of the universe. ” Implies that they carry information about their history with them.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 11

In which direction is A from B?

Statement- (1) C is in the South from B which is in the West of A.

Statement- (2) B and D is in a straight line and D is in the South from A.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 11
From the Statement (1), C is in South of B and B is in West of A. Hence, A is East of B.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 12

Directions: Symbols %, #, $, © are used with different meanings as explained below:

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.

‘P $ Q’ means ‘ P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’ .

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.

Three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by two conclusions (1) and (2). Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusions(s) is/are definitely true.

Statements — M $ K, K © F, F % H. Conclusions—

1. M # F

2. M $ F

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 12
M $ K =>M = K,

K ©F =>K ≥ F,

F % H =>F

⸫ M = K ≥ F

1) M $ F =>M =F

2) M # F =>M >F. Since, M = K, which is greater than or equal to F. Therefore, M is either greater than or equal to F

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 13

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Manish and Shubham are good in Dance and Cricket. Akash and Manish are good in Cricket and Singing. Akash, Prakash and Niraj are good in Singing and Swimming. Niraj and Akash are good in Singing and Cooking. Prakash and Shubham are good in Swimming and Dance.

Who is good in Cricket, Swimming and Dance?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 13

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 14

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Manish and Shubham are good in Dance and Cricket. Akash and Manish are good in Cricket and Singing. Akash, Prakash and Niraj are good in Singing and Swimming. Niraj and Akash are good in Singing and Cooking. Prakash and Shubham are good in Swimming and Dance.

Who is good in Singing, Dance and Cricket?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 14

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 15

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Manish and Shubham are good in Dance and Cricket. Akash and Manish are good in Cricket and Singing. Akash, Prakash and Niraj are good in Singing and Swimming. Niraj and Akash are good in Singing and Cooking. Prakash and Shubham are good in Swimming and Dance.

Who is good in Singing, Swimming and Dance?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 15

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 16

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Manish and Shubham are good in Dance and Cricket. Akash and Manish are good in Cricket and Singing. Akash, Prakash and Niraj are good in Singing and Swimming. Niraj and Akash are good in Singing and Cooking. Prakash and Shubham are good in Swimming and Dance.

Who is good in Singing, Swimming and Cooking but not in Cricket?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 16

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 17

Despite the best efforts of those responsible for preventing fraud, one inevitable reality remains: “fraud happens.” Because fraud and misconduct can occur at various levels in any organization, it is essential that appropriate preventive and detective techniques are in place. Although fraud prevention and detection are related concepts, they are not the same. While prevention encompasses policies, procedures, training, and communication, detection involves activities and programs designed to identify fraud or misconduct that is occurring or has occurred. Although preventive measures cannot ensure that fraud will not be committed, they are the first line of defence in minimizing fraud risk. One key to prevention is making personnel throughout the organization aware of the fraud risk management program, including the types of fraud and misconduct that may occur. This awareness should enforce the notion that all of the techniques established in the program are real and will be enforced. The ongoing communication efforts could provide information on the potential disciplinary, criminal, and civil actions that the organization could take against the individual. With this in mind, prevention and deterrence are interrelated concepts. If effective preventive controls are in place, working, and well-known to potential fraud perpetrators, they serve as strong deterrents to those who might otherwise be tempted to commit fraud. Fear of getting caught is always a strong deterrent. Effective preventive controls are, therefore, strong deterrence controls.

According to the passage, what is the fundamental difference between fraud prevention and fraud detection?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 17
It is mentioned in the passage that prevention encompasses policies, procedures, training, and communication, while detection involves activities and programs designed to identify fraud.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 18

Despite the best efforts of those responsible for preventing fraud, one inevitable reality remains: “fraud happens.” Because fraud and misconduct can occur at various levels in any organization, it is essential that appropriate preventive and detective techniques are in place. Although fraud prevention and detection are related concepts, they are not the same. While prevention encompasses policies, procedures, training, and communication, detection involves activities and programs designed to identify fraud or misconduct that is occurring or has occurred. Although preventive measures cannot ensure that fraud will not be committed, they are the first line of defence in minimizing fraud risk. One key to prevention is making personnel throughout the organization aware of the fraud risk management program, including the types of fraud and misconduct that may occur. This awareness should enforce the notion that all of the techniques established in the program are real and will be enforced. The ongoing communication efforts could provide information on the potential disciplinary, criminal, and civil actions that the organization could take against the individual. With this in mind, prevention and deterrence are interrelated concepts. If effective preventive controls are in place, working, and well-known to potential fraud perpetrators, they serve as strong deterrents to those who might otherwise be tempted to commit fraud. Fear of getting caught is always a strong deterrent. Effective preventive controls are, therefore, strong deterrence controls.

How the HR department of an organization can play a vital role in the prevention of fraud in the company?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 18
The HR department of an organization can play vital role in the prevention of fraud in the company "by evaluating employee’s credentials and competence, and being aware of any issues of personal integrity, confirmation of work history and education presented on a job application".

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 19

Despite the best efforts of those responsible for preventing fraud, one inevitable reality remains: “fraud happens.” Because fraud and misconduct can occur at various levels in any organization, it is essential that appropriate preventive and detective techniques are in place. Although fraud prevention and detection are related concepts, they are not the same. While prevention encompasses policies, procedures, training, and communication, detection involves activities and programs designed to identify fraud or misconduct that is occurring or has occurred. Although preventive measures cannot ensure that fraud will not be committed, they are the first line of defence in minimizing fraud risk. One key to prevention is making personnel throughout the organization aware of the fraud risk management program, including the types of fraud and misconduct that may occur. This awareness should enforce the notion that all of the techniques established in the program are real and will be enforced. The ongoing communication efforts could provide information on the potential disciplinary, criminal, and civil actions that the organization could take against the individual. With this in mind, prevention and deterrence are interrelated concepts. If effective preventive controls are in place, working, and well-known to potential fraud perpetrators, they serve as strong deterrents to those who might otherwise be tempted to commit fraud. Fear of getting caught is always a strong deterrent. Effective preventive controls are, therefore, strong deterrence controls.

What is the strong deterrent for fraud according to this passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 19
The fear of getting caught is the strong deterrent for fraud according to this passage.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 20

One year ago, the ratio between Rajeev’s salary and Shivani’s salary is 4:5. The ratio between their individual salary of the last year and current year is 2:5 and 10: 11 respectively. If the total current salary of Rajeev and Shivani is 6200. Then find the current salary of Shivani?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 20

Let previous year salary of Rajeev be 4x and Shivani be 5x Rajeev’s Previous year salary be 2y and Current year salary be 5y So, 4x is equal to 2y then 5y is equal to 10x.

Similarly, Shivani’s previous year salary was 10y and Current year salary was 11y. So, 5x is equal to 10y then 11y is equal to (11/2) x.

So, the current year salary ratio is 20: 11.

Given, 31x = 6200

⇒ x = 200 The current salary of Shivani = (11/31) × 6200 = 2200

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 21

There is a Hockey match of Dhyanchand tomorrow, at Motera stadium. In recent years, it has rained only 73 days each year. Unfortunately, the weatherman has predicted rain for tomorrow. When it actually rains, the weatherman correctly forecasts rain 80 of the time. When it doesn't rain, he incorrectly forecasts rain 20 of the time. What is the probability that it will rain on the day of Dhyanchand's Hockey match?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 21

The sample space is defined by two mutually-exclusive events - it rains or it does not rain. Additionally, a third event occurs when the weatherman predicts rain. Notation for these events appears below.

Event A1 It rains on Dhyanchand's Hockey match.

Event A2 It does not rain on Dhyanchand's Hockey match Event B The weatherman predicts rain.

In terms of probabilities, we know the following:

P (A1) = 73/365 = 0.2 [It rains 73 days out of the year.]

P (A2) = 292/365 = 0.8 [It does not rain 292 days out of the year.]

P (B|A1) = 0.8 [When it rains, the weatherman predicts rain 80% of the time.] P (B|A2) = 0.2 [When it does not rain, the weatherman predicts rain 20% of the time.] We want to know P (A1|B), the probability it will rain on the day of Dhyanchand's Hockey match, given a forecast for rain by the weatherman. The answer can be determined from Bayes' theorem, as shown below.

=

=

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 22

Study the following table and answer the question based on it.

Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per Annum Over the given Years

The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 22
Total bonus paid = 16

Total salary = 1540

Percentage = (16/1540) X 100 = 1.03%

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 23

Study the following table and answer the questions (Q.22 - Q.23) based on it.

Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per Annum Over the given Years

The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximate?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 23
Total spent on taxes = 465

Total spent on fuel & transport = 275

Ratio = 465/275 = 93/55 = 93: 55

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 24

if the HCF of two numbers (each greater than 15) be 15 and LCM be 315, then the sum of numbers will be

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 24

Let the number be 15a and 15b, then using the product of numbers = LCM × HCF

=15a ×15b = 315 × 15

= a × b= 21

21 = 3 × 7 so, numbers can be 15 × 3, 15 × 7

Sum =45 + 105= 150

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 25

A certain number when divided by 247 leaves a remainder 17, another number when divided by 361 leaves a remainder 52. What is the remainder when the sum of these two numbers is divided by 19?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 25
N1 = 247x + 17 and N2 = 361y + 52

N1 + N2 = (19 × 13 × x + 17) + (19 ×19 × y + 52)

Remainder when N1 + N2 is divided by 19,

=

=12

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 26

find the least value of “b” for which 67b326 is divisible by 3?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 26
The required number is b.

Then, = 6+7+b+3+2+6=24+b is divisible by 3.

Therefore, the least value of b is 0.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 27

From ‘apparel to aerospace’, ‘steel to software’, the pace of technological innovation is quickening. No longer can companies afford to miss generation of technology and expect to remain competitive. Adding to the pressure, innovations are increasingly crossing industry boundaries; a new fibre developed by the textile industry has potential for building materials and medical equipment. Some companies are adept at using a diversity of technologies to create new products that transform markets. But many others are floundering because they rely on a technology strategy that no longer works in such a fast changing environment. The difference between success and failure is not how much a company spends on research and development

(R&D), but how it approaches it. There are two possible approaches. Either a company can invest in R&D that uses an older generation of technology, the ‘breakthrough’ approach-or its focus on combining existing technologies into hybrid technologies - the ‘technologies fusion’ approach. It blends incremental technical improvements from several previously separate fields of technology to create products that revolutionise markets. In a world where the old maxim ‘one technology one industry’ no longer applies, a singular breakthrough strategy is inadequate; companies need to include both the breakthrough and fusion approaches in their technology strategy. Relying on breakthroughs alone fails because it focuses the R&D efforts to narrowly, ignoring the possibilities of combining technologies. Yet many western companies still rely almost exclusively - on the breakthrough approach. The reasons are complex: a distrust of outside innovations and not-invented here engineering and arrogance and aversion to sharing research results.

Which of the following would correctly reflect the position regarding the two approaches to technology adoption?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 27
Refer the first sentence of the last paragraph “In a world where the old maxim ‘one technology one industry’ no longer applies, a singular breakthrough strategy is inadequate; companies need to include both the breakthrough and fusion approaches in their technology strategy.”

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 28

From ‘apparel to aerospace’, ‘steel to software’, the pace of technological innovation is quickening. No longer can companies afford to miss generation of technology and expect to remain competitive. Adding to the pressure, innovations are increasingly crossing industry boundaries; a new fibre developed by the textile industry has potential for building materials and medical equipment. Some companies are adept at using a diversity of technologies to create new products that transform markets. But many others are floundering because they rely on a technology strategy that no longer works in such a fast changing environment. The difference between success and failure is not how much a company spends on research and development

(R&D), but how it approaches it. There are two possible approaches. Either a company can invest in R&D that uses an older generation of technology, the ‘breakthrough’ approach-or its focus on combining existing technologies into hybrid technologies - the ‘technologies fusion’ approach. It blends incremental technical improvements from several previously separate fields of technology to create products that revolutionise markets. In a world where the old maxim ‘one technology one industry’ no longer applies, a singular breakthrough strategy is inadequate; companies need to include both the breakthrough and fusion approaches in their technology strategy. Relying on breakthroughs alone fails because it focuses the R&D efforts to narrowly, ignoring the possibilities of combining technologies. Yet many western companies still rely almost exclusively - on the breakthrough approach. The reasons are complex: a distrust of outside innovations and not-invented here engineering and arrogance and aversion to sharing research results.

Which of the following features of technology has been highlighted most prominently by the author of the passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 28
The author has highlighted the two approaches that have been described in the entire passage.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 29

From ‘apparel to aerospace’, ‘steel to software’, the pace of technological innovation is quickening. No longer can companies afford to miss generation of technology and expect to remain competitive. Adding to the pressure, innovations are increasingly crossing industry boundaries; a new fibre developed by the textile industry has potential for building materials and medical equipment. Some companies are adept at using a diversity of technologies to create new products that transform markets. But many others are floundering because they rely on a technology strategy that no longer works in such a fast changing environment. The difference between success and failure is not how much a company spends on research and development

(R&D), but how it approaches it. There are two possible approaches. Either a company can invest in R&D that uses an older generation of technology, the ‘breakthrough’ approach-or its focus on combining existing technologies into hybrid technologies - the ‘technologies fusion’ approach. It blends incremental technical improvements from several previously separate fields of technology to create products that revolutionise markets. In a world where the old maxim ‘one technology one industry’ no longer applies, a singular breakthrough strategy is inadequate; companies need to include both the breakthrough and fusion approaches in their technology strategy. Relying on breakthroughs alone fails because it focuses the R&D efforts to narrowly, ignoring the possibilities of combining technologies. Yet many western companies still rely almost exclusively - on the breakthrough approach. The reasons are complex: a distrust of outside innovations and not-invented here engineering and arrogance and aversion to sharing research results.

What, according to the author, is adding to the pressure on the companies?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 29
Refer the third sentence of the first paragraph “Adding to the pressure, innovations are increasingly crossing industry boundaries; a new fibre developed by the textile industry has potential for building materials and medical equipment.”

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 30

Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth century that the ice ages were caused by variations in the Earth’s orbit around the Sun. For some time, this theory was considered untestable, largely because there was no sufficiently precise chronology of the ice ages with which the orbital variations could be matched. To establish such a chronology, it is necessary to determine the relative amounts of land ice that existed at various times in the Earth’s past. A recent discovery makes such a determination possible: relative land-ice volume for a given period can be deduced from the ratio of two oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sediments. Almost all the oxygen in water is oxygen 16, but a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the heavier isotope 18.

When an ice age begins, the continental ice sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of water evaporated from the ocean that will eventually return to it. Because heavier isotopes tend to be left behind when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces, the remaining ocean water becomes progressively enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can be determined by analyzing ocean sediments of the period, because these sediments are composed of calcium carbonate shells of marine organisms, shells that were constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the surrounding ocean. The higher the ratio of oxygen 18 to oxygen 16 in a sedimentary specimen, the more land ice there was when the sediment was laid down.

According to the passage, which of the following is true of the ratios of oxygen isotopes in ocean sediments?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 30
According to passage ratios of oxygen isotopes in ocean sediments can be used to deduce the relative volume of land ice that was present when the sediment was laid down.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 31

Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth century that the ice ages were caused by variations in the Earth’s orbit around the Sun. For some time, this theory was considered untestable, largely because there was no sufficiently precise chronology of the ice ages with which the orbital variations could be matched. To establish such a chronology, it is necessary to determine the relative amounts of land ice that existed at various times in the Earth’s past. A recent discovery makes such a determination possible: relative land-ice volume for a given period can be deduced from the ratio of two oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sediments. Almost all the oxygen in water is oxygen 16, but a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the heavier isotope 18.

When an ice age begins, the continental ice sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of water evaporated from the ocean that will eventually return to it. Because heavier isotopes tend to be left behind when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces, the remaining ocean water becomes progressively enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can be determined by analyzing ocean sediments of the period, because these sediments are composed of calcium carbonate shells of marine organisms, shells that were constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the surrounding ocean. The higher the ratio of oxygen 18 to oxygen 16 in a sedimentary specimen, the more land ice there was when the sediment was laid down.

It can be inferred from the passage that precipitation formed from evaporated ocean water has

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 31
From the passage we can infer that precipitation formed from evaporated ocean water has less oxygen 18 than does ocean water.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 32

Greek architecture of the great age is the expression of men who were, first of all, intellectual artists, kept firmly within the visible world by their mind, but, only second to that, lovers of the human world. The Greek temple is the perfect expression of the pure intellect illumined by the spirit. No other great buildings anywhere approach its simplicity. In the Parthenon straight columns rise to plain capitals; a pediment is sculptured in bold relief; there is nothing more. And yet-here is the Greek miracle this absolute simplicity of structure is alone in majesty of beauty among all the temples and cathedrals and palaces of the world. Majestic but human, truly Greek. No superhuman force as in Egypt; no strange supernatural shapes as in India; the Parthenon is the home of humanity at ease, calm, ordered, sure of itself and the world. The Greeks flung a challenge to nature in the fullness of their joyous strength. They set their temples on the summit of a hill overlooking the wide sea, outlined against the circle of the sky. They would build what was more beautiful than hill and sea and sky and greater than all these. It matters not at all if the temple is large or small; one never thinks of the size. It matters not how much it is in ruins. A few white columns dominate the lofty height at Sounion as securely as the great mass of the Parthenon dominates all the sweep of sea and land around Athens. To the Greek architect man was the master of the world. His mind could understand its laws; his spirit could discover its beauty

The Greeks flung a challenge to nature in the fullness of their joyous strength.” Which of the following best captures the 'challenge' that is being referred to?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 32
To build monuments those were more appealing to the mind and spirit than nature's creations. Not stated explicitly, but this is what is implied.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 33

Of the 1500 candidates, who were interviewed for a position at a Bank, 900 had a Car, 630 had a motorcycle and 690 had a mobile phone. 300 of them had both, a Car and a motorcycle, 230 had both, a motorcycle and a mobile phone and 360 had both, a Car and mobile phone and 100 had all three. How many candidates had none of the three?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 33

Number of candidates who had none of the three = Total number of candidates - number of candidates who had at least one of three devices.

Total number of candidates = 1300 =n(U), where U is the universal set

Number of candidates who had at least one of the three =n(A∪B∪C), where A is the set of those who have a two wheeler, B the set of those who have a credit card and C the set of those who have a mobile phone.

We know that n(A∪B∪C)=n(A)+n(B)+n(C)
−[n(A∩B)+n(B∩C)+n(C∩A)]+n(A∩B∩C)
Therefore, n(A∪B∪C)=900+630+690−{300+230+360}+100
Or n(A∪B∪C)=1430.
As 190 candidates who attended the interview had at least one of the three gadgets, n(U)−n(A∪B∪C)= 1500 - 1430 = 70 candidates had none of three.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 34

The ratio of Adam’s age 4 years ago and Eve’s age after 4 years is 1: 1. Presently, the ratio of their ages is 4 : 3. Find the ratio between Adam’s age 4 years hence and Eve’s age 4 years

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 34

Currently, the ratio of their ages is 4: 3. Suppose, their ages are: 4x and 3x.

Adam’s age 4 years ago = 4x – 4

Eve’s age after 4 years = 3x + 4

The ratio of Adam’s age 4 years ago and Eve's age after 4 years is 1: 1

Therefore,

=

Solving, we get x = 8

We are required to find the ratio between Adam’s age 4 years hence and Eve’s age 4 years ago.

Adam's age: (4x + 4)

Eve's age: (3x – 4)

Putting the value of x, we get:

= = =

So, the required ratio is 9: 5

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 35

Out of the four annual examinations, each with a total of 100 marks, a student secured average marks of 35%, 65% and 50% in the first, second and third annual examinations. To have an overall average of 60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the fourth annual examination?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 35
Let the average marks in the third Annual examination be x.

Total marks = (Marks in first + second + third + fourth) Annual examination

So, the student must score 90% in the fourth annual examination to secure 60% overall average.

∴ Average marks in the third annual examination

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 36

In a college, 12% of total students are interested in chess. 3/4 of the total students are interested in hockey. 10 % of the remaining students are interested in singing and the remaining 117 are interested in dancing. How many students are there in college?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 36

Total percentage of students = 100%

Students interested in chess = 12%

Students interested in Hockey = 3/4 × 100 = 75%

Students interested in singing = 10% 13%

% of students interested in Dancing =[100 − (12 + 75 + 1.3)]% = 11.7%

So 11.7% = 117, then 100% =117/11.7 x 100 = 1,000

So, total number of students = 1,000

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 37

K is South-West of L. If M is South-East of L, then M is in which direction of K?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 37

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 38

Rehman earns a profit of 50% on selling a knife at 40% discount on the printed price. The ratio of Cost price and the printed price is:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 38
Let the cost price = Rs. 100

Selling price = Rs. 150

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 39

In a poor country like India, as income rises people first concentrate on increasing their consumption of what they regard as basic or more essential consumer goods. For the poor, these goods would primarily include cereals and for people at successive levels of higher income protective foods, simple non-food consumer goods, more modern, better quality non-food consumer goods and simple consumer durables, better quality consumer goods, and so on. When the demand for basic and more essential consumer goods is more or less met, demand for the next higher level of consumer goods begins to impinge on consumer decision making and their consumption increases. There is thus a hierarchy of income levels and a hierarchy of consumer goods. As incomes rise and one approaches the turning point referred to, there is an upward movement along the hierarchy in the demand for consumer goods which exhibits itself in a relative increase in the demand for these goods. If one examines the past consumption behaviour of households in India, one finds confirmation of the proposition just made. Until the mid seventies one notices a rise in the proportion of consumption expenditure on cereals, and thereafter, a steady decline reflecting a progressive increase in the relative expenditure on non-cereal or protective foods. About the same time the rising trend in the share of food in total consumption expenditure also begins to decline, raising the proportion of expenditure on non-food consumer goods. Simultaneously one also notices a sharper rise in the proportion of expenditure on consumer durables. Thus, what one sees is an upward movement in consumer demand along the hierarchy of consumer goods which amounts to a major change in consumer behaviour.

As income rises in a poor country like India, the poor people concentrate on increasing their consumption of

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 39
Refer the first two sentences of the passage “In a poor country like India, as income rises people first concentrate on increasing their consumption of what they regard as basic or more essential consumer goods. For the poor, these goods would primarily include cereals and for people at successive levels of higher income protective foods, simple non-food consumer goods, more modern, better quality non-food consumer goods and simple consumer durables, better quality consumer goods, and so on.”

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 40

In a poor country like India, as income rises people first concentrate on increasing their consumption of what they regard as basic or more essential consumer goods. For the poor, these goods would primarily include cereals and for people at successive levels of higher income protective foods, simple non-food consumer goods, more modern, better quality non-food consumer goods and simple consumer durables, better quality consumer goods, and so on. When the demand for basic and more essential consumer goods is more or less met, demand for the next higher level of consumer goods begins to impinge on consumer decision making and their consumption increases. There is thus a hierarchy of income levels and a hierarchy of consumer goods. As incomes rise and one approaches the turning point referred to, there is an upward movement along the hierarchy in the demand for consumer goods which exhibits itself in a relative increase in the demand for these goods. If one examines the past consumption behaviour of households in India, one finds confirmation of the proposition just made. Until the mid seventies one notices a rise in the proportion of consumption expenditure on cereals, and thereafter, a steady decline reflecting a progressive increase in the relative expenditure on non-cereal or protective foods. About the same time the rising trend in the share of food in total consumption expenditure also begins to decline, raising the proportion of expenditure on non-food consumer goods. Simultaneously one also notices a sharper rise in the proportion of expenditure on consumer durables. Thus, what one sees is an upward movement in consumer demand along the hierarchy of consumer goods which amounts to a major change in consumer behaviour.

Whenever there is a decline in the proportion of consumption expenditure on cereals

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 40
Refer the second sentence of the second paragraph “Until the mid-seventies one notices a rise in the proportion of consumption expenditure on cereals, and thereafter, a steady decline reflecting a progressive increase in the relative expenditure on non-cereal or protective foods.”

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 41

In a poor country like India, as income rises people first concentrate on increasing their consumption of what they regard as basic or more essential consumer goods. For the poor, these goods would primarily include cereals and for people at successive levels of higher income protective foods, simple non-food consumer goods, more modern, better quality non-food consumer goods and simple consumer durables, better quality consumer goods, and so on. When the demand for basic and more essential consumer goods is more or less met, demand for the next higher level of consumer goods begins to impinge on consumer decision making and their consumption increases. There is thus a hierarchy of income levels and a hierarchy of consumer goods. As incomes rise and one approaches the turning point referred to, there is an upward movement along the hierarchy in the demand for consumer goods which exhibits itself in a relative increase in the demand for these goods. If one examines the past consumption behaviour of households in India, one finds confirmation of the proposition just made. Until the mid seventies one notices a rise in the proportion of consumption expenditure on cereals, and thereafter, a steady decline reflecting a progressive increase in the relative expenditure on non-cereal or protective foods. About the same time the rising trend in the share of food in total consumption expenditure also begins to decline, raising the proportion of expenditure on non-food consumer goods. Simultaneously one also notices a sharper rise in the proportion of expenditure on consumer durables. Thus, what one sees is an upward movement in consumer demand along the hierarchy of consumer goods which amounts to a major change in consumer behaviour.

Prices of protective food have risen because

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 41

Refer the first few lines of the first paragraph “For the poor, these goods would primarily include cereals and for people at successive levels of higher income protective foods, simple non -food consumer goods, more modern, better quality non-food consumer goods and simple consumer durables, better quality consumer goods, and so on.”

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 42

In the eighteenth century, Japan’s feudal overlords, from the shogun to the humblest samurai, found themselves under financial stress. In part, this stress can be attributed to the overlords’ failure to adjust to a rapidly expanding economy, but the stress was also due to factors beyond the overlords’ control. Concentration of the samurai in castle-towns had acted as a stimulus to trade. Commercial efficiency, in turn, had put temptations in the way of buyers. Since most samurai had been reduced to idleness by years of peace, encouraged to engage in scholarship and martial exercises or to perform administrative tasks that took little time, it is not surprising that their tastes and habits grew expensive. Overlord’s income, despite the increase in rice production among their tenant farmers, failed to keep pace with their expenses. Although shortfalls in overlord’s income resulted almost as much from laxity among their tax collectors as from their higher standards of living, a misfortune like a fire or flood, bringing an increase in expenses or a drop in revenue, could put a domain in debt to the city rice-brokers who handled its finances. Once in debt, neither the individual samurai nor the shogun himself found it easy to recover. It was difficult for individual samurai overlords to increase their income because the amount of rice that farmers could be made to pay in taxes was not unlimited, and since the income of Japan’s central government consisted in part of taxes collected by the shogun from his huge domain, the government too was constrained.

According to the passage, the major reason for the financial problems experienced by Japan’s feudal overlords in the eighteenth century was that

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 42
In the passage it is mentioned about high living standards. So according to passage the major reason for the financial problems experienced by Japan’s feudal overlords in the eighteenth century was that spending had outdistanced income.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 43

In the eighteenth century, Japan’s feudal overlords, from the shogun to the humblest samurai, found themselves under financial stress. In part, this stress can be attributed to the overlords’ failure to adjust to a rapidly expanding economy, but the stress was also due to factors beyond the overlords’ control. Concentration of the samurai in castle-towns had acted as a stimulus to trade. Commercial efficiency, in turn, had put temptations in the way of buyers. Since most samurai had been reduced to idleness by years of peace, encouraged to engage in scholarship and martial exercises or to perform administrative tasks that took little time, it is not surprising that their tastes and habits grew expensive. Overlord’s income, despite the increase in rice production among their tenant farmers, failed to keep pace with their expenses. Although shortfalls in overlord’s income resulted almost as much from laxity among their tax collectors as from their higher standards of living, a misfortune like a fire or flood, bringing an increase in expenses or a drop in revenue, could put a domain in debt to the city rice-brokers who handled its finances. Once in debt, neither the individual samurai nor the shogun himself found it easy to recover. It was difficult for individual samurai overlords to increase their income because the amount of rice that farmers could be made to pay in taxes was not unlimited, and since the income of Japan’s central government consisted in part of taxes collected by the shogun from his huge domain, the government too was constrained.

The passage implies that individual samurai did not find it easy to recover from debt for which of the following reasons?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 43
In the passage it is mentioned that “It was difficult for individual samurai overlords to increase their income because the amount of rice that farmers could be made to pay in taxes was not unlimited ” implies they didn’t find easy to recover from debt because there was a limit to the amount in taxes that farmers could be made to pay.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 44

Direction: Six members of a family P, Q, R, S, T and U. There are two couples each having one unmarried child in the family. Each has a profession namely Doctor, Musician, Actor, Engineer, Pilot and Soldier not in the same order as written.

1. R is father of Soldier

2. Pilot marries T, who is neither Engineer nor Soldier

3. Q is a doctor and married to an Engineer

4. U, the son of Pilot is an Actor

5. P is neither a soldier nor an Engineer.

6. R and P are brothers

What is the occupation of P?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 45

Direction: Six members of a family P, Q, R, S, T and U. There are two couples each having one unmarried child in the family. Each has a profession namely Doctor, Musician, Actor, Engineer, Pilot and Soldier not in the same order as written.

1. R is father of Soldier

2. Pilot marries T, who is neither Engineer nor Soldier

3. Q is a doctor and married to an Engineer

4. U, the son of Pilot is an Actor

5. P is neither a soldier nor an Engineer.

6. R and P are brothers

T is married to?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 46

Direction: Six members of a family P, Q, R, S, T and U. There are two couples each having one unmarried child in the family. Each has a profession namely Doctor, Musician, Actor, Engineer, Pilot and Soldier not in the same order as written.

1. R is father of Soldier

2. Pilot marries T, who is neither Engineer nor Soldier

3. Q is a doctor and married to an Engineer

4. U, the son of Pilot is an Actor

5. P is neither a soldier nor an Engineer.

6. R and P are brothers

What is the occupation of S?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 46
Using statements, what we get is written in table below;

Now, T is neither Engineer nor soldier and Q is Doctor and U is an Actor and she is married to a Pilot, so she must be a Musician. P is neither Soldier nor Engineer. So, he must be Pilot and Married to T. Therefore, R is married to Q. Hence, S is a soldier and Son of R and Q; U is the son of P and T.

Now, the table looks like,

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 47

A sum of Rs. 299 is divided between A, B, C in the ratio 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4. find the amount of B.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 47

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 48

Directions: The following table shows the marks obtained by 100 students in Mathematics, Science and the average of the two subjects.

Find the number of students who got 60% or more marks in both subjects.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 48

The particular student who got 60% or more marks in Maths may or may not get 60% or more marks in Science. Hence we can’t find the number of students who got 60% or more marks in both subjects. Therefore, data is inadequate.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 49

A sum of Rs. 2,310 is divided between A, B and C such that the ratio of the shares of B and C is 3 ∶ 5 and the ratio of the shares of C and A is 4 ∶ 9. What is the difference (in Rs.) between the shares of A and C?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 49

Given:
The total sum of the amount = Rs. 2310
Calculation:
B : C = 3 : 5 = 12 : 20
C : A = 4 : 9 = 20 : 45
∴ B : C : A = 12 : 20 : 45
So, A - C = [(45 - 20)/77] × 2310
= (25/77) × 2310
= 750
∴ The difference (in Rs.) between the shares of A and C is Rs. 750

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 50

Directions: The following table shows the marks obtained by 100 students in Mathematics, Science and the average of the two subjects.

If to qualify in the examination one has to secure a minimum of 60% marks in both subjects, find the maximum number of students who have qualified the examination.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 50

For maximum number of students to get 60% or more marks in both subjects, 35 + 24 = 59 students who got 60% or more marks in Maths must get 60% or more marks in Science.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 51

According to Bruce Hoffman, an American specialist on political violence, old terrorism generally had a specific manifesto-to overthrow a colonial power or the capitalist system and so on. These terrorists were not shy about planting a bomb or hijacking an aircraft and they set some limit to their brutality. Killing so many innocent people might turn their natural supporters off. Political terrorists want a lot of people watching but not a lot of people dead. “Old terrorism sought to change the world while the new sort is often practised by those who believe that the world has gone beyond redemption”, he added. Hoffman says, “New terrorism has no long-term agenda but is ruthless in its short-term intentions. It is often just a cacophonous cry of protest or an outburst of religious intolerance or a protest against the West in general and the US in particular. Its perpetrators may be religious fanatics or diehard opponent of a government and see no reason to show restraint. They are simply intent on inflicting the maximum amount of pain of the victim.”

According to the author of the passage, the root cause of terrorism is

1. Religious fanaticism

2. socio-political changes in countries

3. The enormous population growth

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 51
In the passage it is mentioned that it is often just a cacophonous cry of protest or an outburst of religious intolerance implies that according to author Religious fanaticism is the root cause of terrorism.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 52

According to Bruce Hoffman, an American specialist on political violence, old terrorism generally had a specific manifesto-to overthrow a colonial power or the capitalist system and so on. These terrorists were not shy about planting a bomb or hijacking an aircraft and they set some limit to their brutality. Killing so many innocent people might turn their natural supporters off. Political terrorists want a lot of people watching but not a lot of people dead. “Old terrorism sought to change the world while the new sort is often practised by those who believe that the world has gone beyond redemption”, he added. Hoffman says, “New terrorism has no long-term agenda but is ruthless in its short-term intentions. It is often just a cacophonous cry of protest or an outburst of religious intolerance or a protest against the West in general and the US in particular. Its perpetrators may be religious fanatics or diehard opponent of a government and see no reason to show restraint. They are simply intent on inflicting the maximum amount of pain of the victim.”

The sole objective of the old terrorism, according to Hoffman, was to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 52

According to Hoffman old terrorism generally had a specific manifesto-to overthrow a colonial power or the capitalist system and so on.

Explanation:


  • Objective of Old Terrorism: The main objective of old terrorism was to give a setback to the socio-political order. This could involve overthrowing a colonial power or the capitalist system, but the ultimate goal was to challenge and disrupt the existing societal structure.

  • Manifesto of Old Terrorism: Old terrorists often had a specific manifesto or set of beliefs that they wanted to promote. They had a clear agenda and sought to change the world in accordance with their beliefs. They were not shy about using violence, such as planting bombs or hijacking aircraft, to achieve their goals.

  • Limit to Brutality: Old terrorists generally set limits to their brutality. They understood that killing too many innocent people could turn their natural supporters against them. Their goal was to attract attention and create change, rather than simply causing widespread destruction.

  • Long-Term Agenda: Old terrorism was driven by a long-term agenda, such as removing colonial powers or challenging the capitalist system. The terrorists believed that their actions could lead to lasting change in society.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 53

According to Bruce Hoffman, an American specialist on political violence, old terrorism generally had a specific manifesto-to overthrow a colonial power or the capitalist system and so on. These terrorists were not shy about planting a bomb or hijacking an aircraft and they set some limit to their brutality. Killing so many innocent people might turn their natural supporters off. Political terrorists want a lot of people watching but not a lot of people dead. “Old terrorism sought to change the world while the new sort is often practised by those who believe that the world has gone beyond redemption”, he added. Hoffman says, “New terrorism has no long-term agenda but is ruthless in its short-term intentions. It is often just a cacophonous cry of protest or an outburst of religious intolerance or a protest against the West in general and the US in particular. Its perpetrators may be religious fanatics or die hard opponent of a government and see no reason to show restraint. They are simply intent on inflicting the maximum amount of pain of the victim.”

Which of the following statements is true about new terrorism?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 53
New terrorism has no long-term agenda but is ruthless in its short-term intentions.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 54

In the recent Justice as Translation, James Boyd White argues that opinion-writing should be regarded as an act of "translation,” and judges as "translators.” As such, judges find themselves mediating between the authoritative legal text and the pressing legal problem that demands resolution. A judge must essentially “reconstitute” that text by fashioning a new one, which is faithful to the old text but also responsive to and informed by the conditions, constraints, and aspirations of the world in which the new legal problem has arisen.

Which one of the following phrases best describes the meaning of “Re-constitute” used in the passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 54
In the passage author motioned that “A judge must essentially “re-constitute” that text by fashioning a new one, which is faithful to the old text but also responsive to and informed by the conditions, constraints, and aspirations of the world in which the new legal problem has arisen” implies that new-one is explained according to the time. So, (c) best describes.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 55

It is an old saying that knowledge is power. Education is an instrument which imparts knowledge and, therefore, indirectly controls power. Therefore, ever since the dawn of civilization persons in power have always tried to supervise or control education. It has been the handmaid of the ruling class. During the Christian era, the ecclesiastics controlled the institution of education and diffused among the people the gospel of the Bible and religious teachings. These gospels and teachings were no other than a philosophy for the maintenance of the existing society. It taught the poor man to be meek and to earn his bread with the sweat of his brow, while the priests and the landlords lived in luxury and fought duels for the slightest offense.

Why have persons in power always tried to supervise or control education?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 55
From the passage, it is concluded that persons in power always tried to supervise or control education because education is key to knowledge which indirectly controls power.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 56

It is an old saying that knowledge is power. Education is an instrument which imparts knowledge and, therefore, indirectly controls power. Therefore, ever since the dawn of civilization persons in power have always tried to supervise or control education. It has been the handmaid of the ruling class. During the Christian era, the ecclesiastics controlled the institution of education and diffused among the people the gospel of the Bible and religious teachings. These gospels and teachings were no other than a philosophy for the maintenance of the existing society. It taught the poor man to be meek and to earn his bread with the sweat of his brow, while the priests and the landlords lived in luxury and fought duels for the slightest offense.

What do you mean by the “sweat of his brow”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 56
From the passage, it is concluded that the phrase “sweat of his brew” is used for very hard work to earn bread.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 57

All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet; therefore all athletes who do not eat a well-balanced diet are bad athletes. 
The best conclusion from this statement is that

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 57

From the statement only option (b) can be concluded
 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 58

Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 58

Speed without stoppages = 54km/hr 
Speed with stoppages = 45km/hr
Stoppages per hour =

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 59

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two of whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 59

Let the Circles represent the Females and Squares represent the Males.

Thus, C is the Son of A.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 60

Out of 130 students appearing in an exam, 62 failed in Science, 52 failed in English, whereas 24 failed in both Science and English. The number of students who passed is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 60

Total students =130
Number of failed students = (62 + 52) – 24 = 114 – 24 = 90 
(24 is subtracted to avoid repetition as it is included in both 62 and 52) 
Number of students who passed = 130 – 90 = 40.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 3 - Question 61

Average production of Wheat (in Lakh tonnes) by three different countries America, Britain & Canada over the years is 51.