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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - UPSC MCQ


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80 Questions MCQ Test CSAT Preparation - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 1

Directions (Q. 1-8)  Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on these passages only.

Passage 1

"Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued. Antitrust rules broke monopolies such as John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil. The flow of bribes to senators shrank.

In the emerging world, the past quarter-century has been great for rent-seekers. Soaring property prices have enriched developers who rely on approvals for projects. The commodities boom has inflated the value of oilfields and mines, which are invariably intertwined with the state. Some privatisations have let tycoon's milk monopolies or get assets cheaply. The links between politics and wealth are plainly visible in China, where a third of billionaires are party members.

Capitalism based on rent-seeking is not just unfair, but also bad for long-term growth. As our briefing on India explains, resources are misallocated: crummy roads are often the work of crony firms. Competition is repressed: Mexicans pay too much for their phones. Dynamic new firms are stifled by better-connected incumbents. And if linked to the financing of politics, rent-heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish. When ministers are on the take, why shouldn't underpaid junior officials be?

 

Q. Which of the following statements are valid with reference to the above passage?

1. Rent seeking was a fortune maker for the ruler's cronies

2. Only politicians can make money by seeking rent.   

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 1

The correct answer is 'Rent seeking was a fortune maker for the ruler's cronies'. "Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 2

Passage 1

"Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued. Antitrust rules broke monopolies such as John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil. The flow of bribes to senators shrank.

In the emerging world, the past quarter-century has been great for rent-seekers. Soaring property prices have enriched developers who rely on approvals for projects. The commodities boom has inflated the value of oilfields and mines, which are invariably intertwined with the state. Some privatisations have let tycoon's milk monopolies or get assets cheaply. The links between politics and wealth are plainly visible in China, where a third of billionaires are party members.

Capitalism based on rent-seeking is not just unfair, but also bad for long-term growth. As our briefing on India explains, resources are misallocated: crummy roads are often the work of crony firms. Competition is repressed: Mexicans pay too much for their phones. Dynamic new firms are stifled by better-connected incumbents. And if linked to the financing of politics, rent-heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish. When ministers are on the take, why shouldn't underpaid junior officials be?

 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statement(s) are NOT correct?

1. The rent seeking system ended the struggle against robber barons in America

2. China exemplifies the close relationship between politics and wealth

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 2

The rent seeking system ended the struggle against robber barons in America. "Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 3

Passage 1

"Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued. Antitrust rules broke monopolies such as John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil. The flow of bribes to senators shrank.

In the emerging world, the past quarter-century has been great for rent-seekers. Soaring property prices have enriched developers who rely on approvals for projects. The commodities boom has inflated the value of oilfields and mines, which are invariably intertwined with the state. Some privatisations have let tycoon's milk monopolies or get assets cheaply. The links between politics and wealth are plainly visible in China, where a third of billionaires are party members.

Capitalism based on rent-seeking is not just unfair, but also bad for long-term growth. As our briefing on India explains, resources are misallocated: crummy roads are often the work of crony firms. Competition is repressed: Mexicans pay too much for their phones. Dynamic new firms are stifled by better-connected incumbents. And if linked to the financing of politics, rent-heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish. When ministers are on the take, why shouldn't underpaid junior officials be?

 

Q. The reason petty corruption in politics flourished is :

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 3

The reason petty corruption in politics flourished is because rent heavy capitalism involving bribing ministers sets such a tone that the junior officials do not hesitate to take bribes.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 4

Passage 1

"Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued. Antitrust rules broke monopolies such as John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil. The flow of bribes to senators shrank.

In the emerging world, the past quarter-century has been great for rent-seekers. Soaring property prices have enriched developers who rely on approvals for projects. The commodities boom has inflated the value of oilfields and mines, which are invariably intertwined with the state. Some privatisations have let tycoon's milk monopolies or get assets cheaply. The links between politics and wealth are plainly visible in China, where a third of billionaires are party members.

Capitalism based on rent-seeking is not just unfair, but also bad for long-term growth. As our briefing on India explains, resources are misallocated: crummy roads are often the work of crony firms. Competition is repressed: Mexicans pay too much for their phones. Dynamic new firms are stifled by better-connected incumbents. And if linked to the financing of politics, rent-heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish. When ministers are on the take, why shouldn't underpaid junior officials be?

 

Q. Which of the following is caused by rent heavy Capitalism?

1. Competition is repressed

2. Inflation occurs

3. Bribery flourishes

4. Long term growth suffer

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 4

B is the correct option.Heavy Capitalism causes Competition is repressed, Inflation occurs and  Long term growth suffer.
“Competition is repressed:....................heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish.” 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 5

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state of the universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half of the information needed to satisfy Laplace's view of determinism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future.

 

Q. The passage suggests that if scientific determinism were TRUE:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 5

The end of the first paragraph states that "if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state of the universe." Thus, if scientific determinism were true, scientists in theory could predict the future.

The passage says choice B is not true because of the uncertainty principle, but it does not imply that this fact would be true if determinism were also true.

Choice C is not necessarily true; if scientific determinism were true, it would mean scientists could predict the future in theory, even if practically there were no way to do it.

Choice D is not correct because the equations have nothing to do with determinism.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 6

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state of the universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half of the information needed to satisfy Laplace's view of determinism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future

 

Q. According to the passage, wave functions:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 6

The relevant part of the passage is here: "Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions." Since wave functions are probabilities, they present a range of possibilities, as choice C states.

Choice A is contradicted by the passage.

Choice B is incorrect based on the information in the passage.

Choice D is wrong because wave functions only allow scientists to figure out a probability, not the future state.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 7

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state ofthe universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half ofthe information needed to satisfy Laplace's view ofdeterminism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future.

 

Q. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 7

To answer this question, use your analytical reading skills to find the progression of the ideas. The first part of the paragraph introduces the idea of scientific determinism.

Next, the passage states that the principle was thrown into doubt. Finally, the passage indicates that physicists can reach half of the requirements for determinism but no more. That matches choice C best.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 8

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state of the universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half of the information needed to satisfy Laplace's view of determinism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future

 

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's conclusion in the passage's final sentence?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 8

This is an apply the information question. It is similar to a Critical Reasoning strengthen question. The author's conclusion and premise are: Premise: Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time.

Conclusion: Under modern physics theories, exactly half of the information needed to satisfy determinism is available and that is as far as any researcher can go in predicting the future.

This argument relies on the assumption that quantum mechanics is correct and that scientists will never be able to accurately measure both the position and velocity of a particle.

Choice D strengthens the argument by indicating quantum mechanics is in fact correct in its assertions of  uncertainty.

Choice A would weaken the argument by indicating that perhaps quantum mechanics is wrong.

Choice B is irrelevant because the argument hinges on quantum mechanics.

Choice C does not address the author's argument. It introduces another barrier to predicting the future, but is not relevant to the conclusion and premise in the passage.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 9

Directions for the following 4 (four) questions:

Following table shows tea production data of India for various years. Study the following graph and answer the questions.   

Q. Which year has maximum increment in percentage value compared to previous year?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 9

Go option wise. Option a is incorrect as value decreases.

Among rest three, increment in b is least so answer is between c and d.

For option c, (60 - 40) / 40 = 0.5 which is 50%

For option d, (40 - 25) / 25 = 0.6 which is 60%

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 10

Following table shows tea production data of India for various years. Study the following graph and answer the questions.

Q. What is percentage increase in production for 2013 when compared with 2008?​

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 10

Actual increment in value is = 80-60 = 20 units

So 20 = x% of 60 which gives value of x as 33.33% which is the required answer

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 11

Following table shows tea production data of India for various years. Study the following graph and answer the questions. 

 

Q. Out of eight years, in how many years production was lesser than simple average of all eight years?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 11

As calculated in last question = sum of all eight years = 170+270 = 440 So average = 440/8 = 55

Answer is 4 as one has to check it with each year.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 12

Following table shows tea production data of India for various years. Study the following graph and answer the questions. 

 

Q. What is difference between simple average of first four years and last four years?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 12

Sum of first four years = 170 Sum of last four years = 270

Difference between them = 100 so difference between averages = 100/4 = 25

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 13

logx(4) = 1/3, then x = ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 13

In simplified form it becomes x =43 = 64

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 14

The number of solutions of (x2 + 1)2 + 2(x2 + 1) - 3 = 0 is equal to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 14

Though highest power of x is 4.Number of solutions will not be 4.

Substitute x2 + 1 = t and get quadratic in t. there will be two solutions and only one of them will give x real value.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 15

If f(x) = x - 4, then what is value of f(f(3)) = ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 15

f(f(3)) means first find value of f(3) and put that again in f() to find final value.

f(3) = 3 - 4 = - 1

f(-1) = - 5 = final answer

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 16

Which of the following has maximum value?

P and Q are two real numbers.  ​

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 16

|number| gives absolute value of number. For example |-4.6| of is 4.6 and |2.4| of is 2.4. so out of all given options |p| + |q| has maximum value.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 17

How many solutions do the equation 1/x + 1/(x + 1) = 1/3 have?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 17

By simplifying it a quadratic in x is obtained with two real roots.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 18

Let f(x) = 2x + 4. Which of the following statements is true?   

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 18

y = 2x + 4 is straight line not passing through origin. It cuts x axis at (-2,0) and y axis at (0,4).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 19

The lines y = 2x and 2y = -x are 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 19

If multiplication of slopes of two lines = -1 then they are perpendicular.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 20

Write following sentence in mathematical form "The price is no less than 100 rupees and is at most 145"   

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 20

First part of sentence is x> 100 Second part of sentence is x< 145 So combined 100 <x< 145

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 21

Directions for following 4(four) questions: 

Following chart indicates internal division of electricity usage for two years. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below.

 

Q. If consumption in one sector is increased it will be marked 2 and decreased then by -1. If it remained unchanged then it will marked as 0. What is total of all 6 sectors?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 21

Increment in agriculture + domestic = 2+2 = 4 Decrement in industrial + loss = -1-1 = -2 Unchanged in rest = 0 Total = 4-2 =2

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 22

Following chart indicates internal division of electricity usage for two years. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below.

 

Q. Total electricity consumption in 2012 is 1.5 times of the total electricity consumption in 2011, then what is percentage increase in the electricity consumption of the agricultural sector?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 22

There are two increases— one is the increase in the share of agriculture (66.66%). the other is an increase of 50% in total. Net increase = 150%.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 23

Following chart indicates internal division of electricity usage for two years. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below.

 

Q. What is maximum number of sectors one should add to cross 50% consumption for 2012 year?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 23

Start adding sector from lowest and count till you cross 50.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 24

Following chart indicates internal division of electricity usage for two years. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below.

 

Q. The agricultural consumption of electricity doubled for given years. By how much percentage has the total electricity consumption grown up?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 24

There is an increase in the share of agriculture (66.66%), to make the agricultural consumption double, total consumption is to be increased by 20%.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 25

Directions for the following 9 (nine) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on these passages only. 

Passage 1

The Slavic languages are a group of closely related languages that have speakers in most of Eastern Europe, the Balkans, in parts of Central Europe, and certain parts of Asia. The Slavic languages are broadly divided into three main branches, including East Slavic, West Slavic, and South Slavic, each of which is further divided into subgroups. The standard, or literary, components of each of the Slavic languages are distinct. However, the spoken dialects of each language are often closely related, and there exist what scholars call transitional dialects that bridge the gaps between the three Slavic languages. The common ancestor of the three Slavic languages is believed to be the Proto-Baltic-Slavic language, a dialect spoken approximately 3,000 B.C. in what today is Lithuania. The fact that the three branches of Slavic languages share approximately 280 words is usually given as proof for such a parent, ancestor language.

 

Q. What would be an appropriate title for this short passage?​

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 25

Remember that a title should summarize the entire passage, and not just parts of it. The first and third choices are not appropriate titles because the passage is not about the rise and fall of the Slavic languages, and the literary history of the Slavic languages is not discussed anywhere in the passage.

The fourth choice is not the right answer because although Lithuania at 3,000 B.C. is discussed, there is no mention of geography in the passage. The second choice, therefore, is the best, and in fact the passage first describes, then discusses the origins of, and concludes with the similarities of the Slavic languages.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 26

Passage 1

The Slavic languages are a group of closely related languages that have speakers in most of Eastern Europe, the Balkans, in parts of Central Europe, and certain parts of Asia. The Slavic languages are broadly divided into three main branches, including East Slavic, West Slavic, and South Slavic, each of which is further divided into subgroups. The standard, or literary, components of each of the Slavic languages are distinct. However, the spoken dialects of each language are often closely related, and there exist what scholars call transitional dialects that bridge the gaps between the three Slavic languages. The common ancestor of the three Slavic languages is believed to be the Proto-Baltic-Slavic language, a dialect spoken approximately 3,000 B.C. in what today is Lithuania. The fact that the three branches of Slavic languages share approximately 280 words is usually given as proof for such a parent, ancestor language.

 

Q. According to the author, which of the following is TRUE?​

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 26

Choice 1 is definitely not the answer because the passage says nothing about Africa.

Choice 2 is not the right answer because the passage says specifically that the standard components of each of the Slavic languages is distinct.

After hints 1 and 2, the remaining choices are 3 and 4. Choice 3 is true because, according to the first sentence, the Slavic languages are spoken in eastern and central Europe, as well as in Asia. The fourth choice is not correct because the last sentence of the passage states that the Slavic languages share approximately 280 words.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 27

Passage 2

The St. Bartholomew's Day Massacre was a series of Catholic mob violence episodes against members of the French Protestant Reformed Church. On August 24, 1572, Admiral Gaspard de Coligny, the leader of the Protestant Reformed Church, was murdered, and this set of a crime wave that continued for well over one month and spread throughout the French countryside. In all, it is estimated that 50,000 people were killed. The events which transpired in France in August and September of 1572 were the result of many factors, including the Glorious Reformation which had its roots in Germany and because of growing strife within the Catholic Church. However, historians disagree whether the massacre was premeditated, and in fact many now agree that Rome had only a secondary role in the planning and execution of the massacre. However, proponents of the idea that Rome was directly responsible for the massacre refer to the fact that Pope Gregory XIII commissioned the production of a special commemorative medal to honor the massacre of the Protestants.

 

Q. Which of the following statements would the author most likely disagree with?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 27

First eliminate those choices that you know that author would agree with. Eliminate choices 1 and 2 because they are explicitly stated in the passage. Likewise, choice 4 is stated in the passage, so the author would agree with those statements. Choice 3 is the only feasible answer, and in fact the author writes that ...many [historians] now agree that Rome had only a secondary role in the ... , and so that author contends that Rome had at least a minor role.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 28

Passage 2

The St. Bartholomew's Day Massacre was a series of Catholic mob violence episodes against members of the French Protestant Reformed Church. On August 24, 1572, Admiral Gaspard de Coligny, the leader of the Protestant Reformed Church, was murdered, and this set of a crime wave that continued for well over one month and spread throughout the French countryside. In all, it is estimated that 50,000 people were killed. The events which transpired in France in August and September of 1572 were the result of many factors, including the Glorious Reformation which had its roots in Germany and because of growing strife within the Catholic Church. However, historians disagree whether the massacre was premeditated, and in fact many now agree that Rome had only a secondary role in the planning and execution of the massacre. However, proponents of the idea that Rome was directly responsible for the massacre refer to the fact that Pope Gregory XIII commissioned the production of a special commemorative medal to honor the massacre of the Protestants.

 

Q. Which of the following best describes the development of the passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 28

There is no mention of any psychological analysis, and so choice 2 can be eliminated. The author does not begin with a question, so eliminate choice 3.

Of all the answer choices, only choice 1 describes the development of the passage; all of the other choices are irrelevant, are not based on the reading passage, or are not in the correct order.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 29

Passage-3

The Andromeda Galaxy, also known as Messier 31, NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 2.5 million light- years away from Earth. The Andromeda Galaxy is in the constellation Andromeda, and it is the nearest spiral galaxy to our own, the Milky Way. Both the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy are members of the Local Group, which also includes the Griangulum Galaxy, among others. Until recently, it was believed that the Andromeda Galaxy had the greatest mass of the three Galaxies in the Local Group, but recent findings suggest that the Milky Way has the most dark matter out of the three, and this fact may suggest that in fact the Milky Way is the most massive. Scientists are still uncertain, and more research is needed to settle the matter. In terms of the actual number of stars, however, the Andromeda Galaxy contains approximately 1 trillion stars, which is much more than are contained in the Milky Way.

The Andromeda Galaxy is visible to the naked eye in a moderately dark sky, and it appears quite small without a telescope because only the central part is bright enough to be visible. However, the angular diameter of the Andromeda Galaxy is seven times that of the full moon, and so if all of the stars of the Andromeda Galaxy were easily visibly to the naked eye, the galaxy would be the dominant object in the sky.

 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 29

A question that asks you a question about specific details in the passage means that the answer is explicitly stated in the passage. Which ofthe four statements are stated explicitly in the passage? The first choice, for example, is not explicitly stated in the passage. The only mention in regards to the numbers of stars is that the Andromeda Galaxy has 1 trillion stars, which is more stars than are in the Milky Way. However, there is no mention of the actual numbers of stars in the Milky Way. Of all the choices, only the third choice is stated in the passage. Although the passage does not state how many galaxies there are in the Local Group, three names are given. All of the other answer choices are not stated in the passage.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 30

Passage-3

The Andromeda Galaxy, also known as Messier 31, NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 2.5 million light- years away from Earth. The Andromeda Galaxy is in the constellation Andromeda, and it is the nearest spiral galaxy to our own, the Milky Way. Both the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy are members of the Local Group, which also includes the Griangulum Galaxy, among others. Until recently, it was believed that the Andromeda Galaxy had the greatest mass of the three Galaxies in the Local Group, but recent findings suggest that the Milky Way has the most dark matter out of the three, and this fact may suggest that in fact the Milky Way is the most massive. Scientists are still uncertain, and more research is needed to settle the matter. In terms of the actual number of stars, however, the Andromeda Galaxy contains approximately 1 trillion stars, which is much more than are contained in the Milky Way.

The Andromeda Galaxy is visible to the naked eye in a moderately dark sky, and it appears quite small without a telescope because only the central part is bright enough to be visible. However, the angular diameter of the Andromeda Galaxy is seven times that of the full moon, and so if all of the stars of the Andromeda Galaxy were easily visibly to the naked eye, the galaxy would be the dominant object in the sky.

 

Q. In the passage, the author writes, "Scientists are still uncertain, and more research is needed to settle the matter," referring to the fact that scientists are uncertain about the relative masses of the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy. If the author wanted to include more details about this, which of the following should also be included in the passage?​

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 30

Of all the answer choices, you'll have to choose the one that provides the required information but also which fits best with the structure and style ofthe overall reading passage. The second choice is not correct because the current passage is an overview and summary of a single topic, and nowhere else in the passage are there any intricate details or physics formula. The first choice is not correct because this passage is not a philosophical essay, but instead a scientific review article, and so including a philosophical discussion would not fit with the overall style of the rest of the passage.

The third choice is not the answer, because it is not related to a discussion about the masses of the two galaxies. The fourth choice is a good fit, and in fact is the right answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 31

Passage 4

The period between 1880 and 1900 was a boom time for American politics. The country was for once free of the threat of war, and many of its citizens were living comfortably. However, as these two decades went by, the American farmer found it harder and harder to live comfortably. Crops such as cotton and wheat, once the bulwark of agriculture, were selling at prices so low that it was nearly impossible for farmers to make a profit. Furthermore, improvements in transportation allowed foreign competition to materialize, making it harder for American farmers to dispose of surplus crop. Finally, years of drought in the Midwest and the downward spiral of businesses in the 1890s devastated many of the nation's farmers. As a result of the agricultural depression, many farm groups, most notably the Populist Party, arose to fight what farmers saw as the reasons for the decline in agriculture. During the last twenty years of the nineteenth century, many farmers in the United States saw monopolies and trusts, railroads, and money shortages and the demonetization of silver as threats to their way of life, though in many cases their complaints were not valid.

The growth of the railroad was one of the most significant elements in American economic growth. However, in many ways, the railroads hurt small shippers and farmers. Extreme competition between rail companies necessitated some way to win business. To do this, many railroads offered rebates and drawbacks to larger shippers who utilized the railroad's services. However, this practice hurt smaller shippers, including farmers, for often times railroad companies would charge more to ship products short distances than they would for long trips. The rail companies justified this practice by asserting that if they did not provide such rebates, they would not make enough profit to stay in business. In his testimony to the Senate Cullom Committee, George W. Parker stated, "... the operating expense of this road...requires a certain volume of business to meet these fixed expenses....in some seasons of the year, the local business of the road...is not sufficient to make the  earnings...when we make up a train of ten of fifteen cars of local freight...we can attach fifteen or twenty cars...of strictly through business. We can take the latter at a very low rate than go without it..." Later, when asked of the consequences of charging local traffic the same rate as through freight, Mr. Parker responded, "Bankruptcy, inevitably and speedy ..." While the railroads felt that they must use this practice to make a profit, the farmers were justified in complaining, for they were seriously injured by it. The railroads regularly used rebates and drawbacks to help win the business of large shippers, and made up this loss in profit by increasing the cost to smaller shippers such as farmers. As a result, many farmers, already hurt by the downslide in agriculture, were ruined. Thus, the farmers of the late nineteenth century had a valid complaint against railroad shippers, for these farmers were hurt by the unfair practices of the railroads.

Near the end of the nineteenth century, business began to centralize, leading to the rise of monopolies and trusts. Falling prices, along with the need for better efficiency in industry, led to the rise of such companies as Carnegie Steel and Standard Oil, which controlled a majority of the nation's supply of raw steel and oil, respectively. The rise of these monopolies and trusts concerned many farmers, for they felt that the disappearance of competition would lead to erratic and unreasonable price rises that would hurt consumers. James B. Weaver, the Populist party's presidential candidate in the 1892 election, summed up the feelings of many Americans of the period in his work, "A Call to Action: An Interpretation of the Great Uprising". He wrote, "It is clear that trusts are...in conflict with the Common law. They are monopolies organized to destroy competition and restrain trade.... Once they secure control of a given line, they are master of the situation... They can limit the price of the raw material so as to impoverish the producer, drive him to a single market, reduce the price of every class of labor connected with the trade, throw out of employment large numbers persons...and finally...they increase the price to the consumer...."

Accordingly, it appears that the main weapons of the trust are threats, intimidation, bribery, fraud, wreck, and pillaging. However, the facts refute many of Weaver's charges against the monopolies. While it is true that many companies used questionable means to achieve their monopoly, many were not out to crush competitors. To the contrary, John D. Rockefeller, head of Standard Oil, competed ruthlessly not to crush other refiners but to persuade them to join Standard Oil and share the business so all could profit. Furthermore, the fear that the monopolies would raise prices unreasonably was never realized. Prices tended to fall during the latter part of the 1800's creating what some have called a "consumer's millennium".

 

Q. According to the passage, what is the most accurate definition of bulwark as it is used in the first paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 31

First, be sure to find the sentence that uses the word bulwark , as you are being asked to infer from the passage what the meaning of the word is. In this case, bulwark can have one of several meanings, so you need to know exactly how it is being used. In the first paragraph, it is stated: Crops such as cotton and wheat, once the bulwark of agriculture ... . Now replace the word bulwark in this phrase with each of the provided answer choices. Which one makes sense? Only the bulk of makes sense here. All of the other phrases, although they may be fitting for a definition of the word bulwark when used in another context, are here no appropriate.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 32

Passage 4

The period between 1880 and 1900 was a boom time for American politics. The country was for once free of the threat of war, and many of its citizens were living comfortably. However, as these two decades went by, the American farmer found it harder and harder to live comfortably. Crops such as cotton and wheat, once the bulwark of agriculture, were selling at prices so low that it was nearly impossible for farmers to make a profit. Furthermore, improvements in transportation allowed foreign competition to materialize, making it harder for American farmers to dispose of surplus crop. Finally, years of drought in the Midwest and the downward spiral of businesses in the 1890s devastated many of the nation's farmers. As a result of the agricultural depression, many farm groups, most notably the Populist Party, arose to fight what farmers saw as the reasons for the decline in agriculture. During the last twenty years of the nineteenth century, many farmers in the United States saw monopolies and trusts, railroads, and money shortages and the demonetization of silver as threats to their way of life, though in many cases their complaints were not valid.

The growth of the railroad was one of the most significant elements in American economic growth. However, in many ways, the railroads hurt small shippers and farmers. Extreme competition between rail companies necessitated some way to win business. To do this, many railroads offered rebates and drawbacks to larger shippers who utilized the railroad's services. However, this practice hurt smaller shippers, including farmers, for often times railroad companies would charge more to ship products short distances than they would for long trips. The rail companies justified this practice by asserting that if they did not provide such rebates, they would not make enough profit to stay in business. In his testimony to the Senate Cullom Committee, George W. Parker stated, "... the operating expense of this road...requires a certain volume of business to meet these fixed expenses....in some seasons of the year, the local business of the road...is not sufficient to make the 

earnings...when we make up a train of ten of fifteen cars of local freight...we can attach fifteen or twenty cars...of strictly through business. We can take the latter at a very low rate than go without it..." Later, when asked of the consequences of charging local traffic the same rate as through freight, Mr. Parker responded, "Bankruptcy, inevitably and speedy ..." While the railroads felt that they must use this practice to make a profit, the farmers were justified in complaining, for they were seriously injured by it. The railroads regularly used rebates and drawbacks to help win the business of large shippers, and made up this loss in profit by increasing the cost to smaller shippers such as farmers. As a result, many farmers, already hurt by the downslide in agriculture, were ruined. Thus, the farmers of the late nineteenth century had a valid complaint against railroad shippers, for these farmers were hurt by the unfair practices of the railroads.

Near the end of the nineteenth century, business began to centralize, leading to the rise of monopolies and trusts. Falling prices, along with the need for better efficiency in industry, led to the rise of such companies as Carnegie Steel and Standard Oil, which controlled a majority of the nation's supply of raw steel and oil, respectively. The rise of these monopolies and trusts concerned many farmers, for they felt that the disappearance of competition would lead to erratic and unreasonable price rises that would hurt consumers. James B. Weaver, the Populist party's presidential candidate in the 1892 election, summed up the feelings of many Americans of the period in his work, "A Call to Action: An Interpretation of the Great Uprising". He wrote, "It is clear that trusts are...in conflict with the Common law. They are monopolies organized to destroy competition and restrain trade.... Once they secure control of a given line, they are master of the situation... They can limit the price of the raw material so as to impoverish the producer, drive him to a single market, reduce the price of every class of labor connected with the trade, throw out of employment large numbers persons...and finally...they increase the price to the consumer...."

Accordingly, it appears that the main weapons of the trust are threats, intimidation, bribery, fraud, wreck, and pillaging. However, the facts refute many of Weaver's charges against the monopolies. While it is true that many companies used questionable means to achieve their monopoly, many were not out to crush competitors. To the contrary, John D. Rockefeller, head of Standard Oil, competed ruthlessly not to crush other refiners but to persuade them to join Standard Oil and share the business so all could profit. Furthermore, the fear that the monopolies would raise prices unreasonably was never realized. Prices tended to fall during the latter part of the 1800's creating what some have called a "consumer's millennium".

Q. According to the passage, the advent of what component of business made it difficult for farmers to dispose of surplus materials?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 32

Remember that whenever a question begins with "according to the passage", be rest assured that the answer is either directly or indirectly provided in the passage. Quickly skim over the passage to look for that part that discusses surpluses. In the first paragraph, it is written: Furthermore, improvements in transportation allowed foreign competition to materialize, making it harder for American farmers to dispose of surplus crop. According to the passage, improvements in transportation and the subsequent rise of foreign competition is what made it difficult to dispose of surplus.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 33

Passage 4

The period between 1880 and 1900 was a boom time for American politics. The country was for once free of the threat of war, and many of its citizens were living comfortably. However, as these two decades went by, the American farmer found it harder and harder to live comfortably. Crops such as cotton and wheat, once the bulwark of agriculture, were selling at prices so low that it was nearly impossible for farmers to make a profit. Furthermore, improvements in transportation allowed foreign competition to materialize, making it harder for American farmers to dispose of surplus crop. Finally, years of drought in the Midwest and the downward spiral of businesses in the 1890s devastated many of the nation's farmers. As a result of the agricultural depression, many farm groups, most notably the Populist Party, arose to fight what farmers saw as the reasons for the decline in agriculture. During the last twenty years of the nineteenth century, many farmers in the United States saw monopolies and trusts, railroads, and money shortages and the demonetization of silver as threats to their way of life, though in many cases their complaints were not valid.

The growth of the railroad was one of the most significant elements in American economic growth. However, in many ways, the railroads hurt small shippers and farmers. Extreme competition between rail companies necessitated some way to win business. To do this, many railroads offered rebates and drawbacks to larger shippers who utilized the railroad's services. However, this practice hurt smaller shippers, including farmers, for often times railroad companies would charge more to ship products short distances than they would for long trips. The rail companies justified this practice by asserting that if they did not provide such rebates, they would not make enough profit to stay in business. In his testimony to the Senate Cullom Committee, George W. Parker stated, "... the operating expense of this road...requires a certain volume of business to meet these fixed expenses....in some seasons of the year, the local business of the road...is not sufficient to make the earnings...when we make up a train of ten of fifteen cars of local freight...we can attach fifteen or twenty cars...of strictly through business. We can take the latter at a very low rate than go without it..." Later, when asked of the consequences of charging local traffic the same rate as through freight, Mr. Parker responded, "Bankruptcy, inevitably and speedy ..." While the railroads felt that they must use this practice to make a profit, the farmers were justified in complaining, for they were seriously injured by it. The railroads regularly used rebates and drawbacks to help win the business of large shippers, and made up this loss in profit by increasing the cost to smaller shippers such as farmers. As a result, many farmers, already hurt by the downslide in agriculture, were ruined. Thus, the farmers of the late nineteenth century had a valid complaint against railroad shippers, for these farmers were hurt by the unfair practices of the railroads.

Near the end of the nineteenth century, business began to centralize, leading to the rise of monopolies and trusts. Falling prices, along with the need for better efficiency in industry, led to the rise of such companies as Carnegie Steel and Standard Oil, which controlled a majority of the nation's supply of raw steel and oil, respectively. The rise of these monopolies and trusts concerned many farmers, for they felt that the disappearance of competition would lead to erratic and unreasonable price rises that would hurt consumers. James B. Weaver, the Populist party's presidential candidate in the 1892 election, summed up the feelings of many Americans of the period in his work, "A Call to Action: An Interpretation of the Great Uprising". He wrote, "It is clear that trusts are...in conflict with the Common law. They are monopolies organized to destroy competition and restrain trade.... Once they secure control of a given line, they are master of the situation... They can limit the price of the raw material so as to impoverish the producer, drive him to a single market, reduce the price of every class of labor connected with the trade, throw out of employment large numbers persons...and finally...they increase the price to the consumer...."

Accordingly, it appears that the main weapons of the trust are threats, intimidation, bribery, fraud, wreck, and pillaging. However, the facts refute many of Weaver's charges against the monopolies. While it is true that many companies used questionable means to achieve their monopoly, many were not out to crush competitors. To the contrary, John D. Rockefeller, head of Standard Oil, competed ruthlessly not to crush other refiners but to persuade them to join Standard Oil and share the business so all could profit. Furthermore, the fear that the monopolies would raise prices unreasonably was never realized. Prices tended to fall during the latter part of the 1800's creating what some have called a "consumer's millennium".

 

Q. Which of the following is a possible final sentence to the final paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 33

When asked to select a possible "final" or "next" sentence, you have to analyze the organization and style of the essay. Here, the last paragraph is about complaints that were made against monopolies. Remember that you have to select the best answer, not merely a good answer. First eliminate those choices which may be true in this case but which would not follow logically at the last paragraph. Eliminate choices 2 and 3. Choice lisa valid next sentence, and actually sums up or concludes the arguments that are made in the final paragraph. Choice 4, although it may have been true, is not the focus of the last paragraph or essay, so eliminate that.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 4 - Question 34

For what value of C, the equations 3x + 4y = 27 and 6x + Cy = 54 will have infinite solutions in common?