UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - UPSC MCQ

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80 Questions MCQ Test CSAT Preparation - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 1

The sum of the factors of a number is 124. What is the number?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 1

Any number of the form paqbrc will have (a + 1) (b + 1)(c + 1) factors, where p, q, r are prime. (This is a very important idea)
For any number N of the form paqbrc, the sum of the factors will (1+p1+p2+…+pa)(1+q1+q2+…+qb) (1+r1+r2+…+rc)
Sum of factors of number N is 124. 124 can be factorized as 22 × 31. It can be written as 4 × 31, or 2 × 62 or 1 × 124.
2 cannot be written as (1+p1+p2+…+pa) for any value of p.
4 can be written as (1 + 3)
So, we need to see if 31 can be written in that form.
The interesting bit here is that 31 can be written in two different ways.
= 31= (1+21+22+23+24
= 31= (1+5+52
Or, the number N can be 3×24 or 3×52. Or N can be 48 or 75.
So, more than one such number exists.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 2

Read the information given below carefully and answer. Cyber vulnerabilities within nuclear weapons systems and structures present a whole set of dangers and risks. At best, cyber insecurity in nuclear weapons systems is likely to undermine trust and confidence in military capabilities and in the nuclear weapons infrastructure. At worst, cyber attacks could lead to deliberate misinformation and the inadvertent launch of nuclear weapons. Q. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 2

(a) is correct as the passage essentially highlights the risks insecure cyber nuclear systems possess with the best case scenario being loss of trust on the military and worst being the launch of a nuclear weapon which the statement captures essentially.
(b) is incorrect as the passage does not mention all nuclear countries being exposed to risks and hence, it cannot be deduced from the passage.
(c) is incorrect as the statement makes definitive claims - complete nuclear safety and no misuse, without passage confirming the same. Passage says insecure cyber security may lead to misuse but ensuring complete safety cannot be inferred.
(d) is incorrect as the passage does not comment in general about the performance of the world related to cyber security in nuclear systems. Hence, it cannot be inferred from the passage.

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 3

Read the information given below carefully and answer. Because of its accuracy in outlining the Earth‘s subsurface, the seismic-reflection method remains the most important tool in the search for petroleum reserves. In field practice, a subsurface is mapped by arranging a series of wave-train sources, such as small dynamite explosions, in a grid pattern. As each source is activated, it generates a wave train that moves downward at a speed determined uniquely by the rock‘s elastic characteristics. As rock interfaces are crossed, the elastic characteristics encountered generally change abruptly, which causes part of the energy to be reflected back to the surface, where it is recorded by seismic instruments. The seismic records must be processed to correct for positional differences between the source and the receiver, for unrelated wave trains, and for multiple reflections from the rock interfaces. Then the data acquired at each of the specific source locations are combined to generate a physical profile of the subsurface, which can eventually be used to select targets for drilling. Q. The passage is primarily concerned with

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 4

A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student. The data is kept on computer disk, but unfortunately score of it is lost, because of virus. Only following could be recovered.

An expert committee was formed, which decided that following facts were self-evident.
1. 1/3rd of the male students were average.
2. Half the students were either excellent or good
3. 40% of the students were females.

Q. How many students are both male and good?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 4

Male under the category of good is 22

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 5

A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student. The data is kept on computer disk, but unfortunately score of it is lost, because of virus. Only following could be recovered.

An expert committee was formed, which decided that following facts were self-evident.
1. 1/3rd of the male students were average.
2. Half the students were either excellent or good
3. 40% of the students were females.

Q. How many students were both female and excellent?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 5

Female under excellent category is 0

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 6

Find the lowest 4-digit number which when divided by 3, 4 or 5 leaves a remainder of 2 in each case?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 6

Lowest 4-digit number is 1000.
LCM of 3, 4 and 5 = |3, 4, 5
As we saw above no two numbers are divisible by common factor so their LCM is their
product.
LCM of 3, 4 and 5 = 3 x 4 x 5 = 60.
Dividing 1000 by 60, we get the remainder 40.
Thus, the lowest 4-digit number that exactly divisible by 3, 4 and 5 is 1000 + (60 - 40) = 1020.
Now, add the remainder 2 that's required. Thus, the answer is (1020 + 2 = 1022).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 7

Culture was not incorporated the Millennium Development Goals or their indicators, alleging numerous difficulties to measure its impact on development. However, one of the reasons why the goals set in the year 2000 were not met is probably the failure to explicitly recognize the role of culture in economic growth, resource management, conflict resolution, the approach to social inequities, or the reaffirmation of identities. Nor was it understood at the time that culture is an extremely effective vector for the transmission of knowledge and the basis for innovation and creation, including scientific breakthroughs. It was ignored, perhaps, that there is no one single development recipe, as cultures need to determine their development models, and not the other way around.

Q. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 7

(a) is incorrect as the passage explicitly mentions culture as an extremely effective vector in knowledge transmission etc but does not say anything about it being the most important tool for development.
(b) is incorrect as the passage highlights how culture was not effectively used while formulating the MDGs but does not highlight the need of alternative development recipes in the present scenario.
(c) is incorrect as the passage mentions non usage of culture as one of the reasons MDG goals not being met and not the only reason why.
(d) is correct as the passage explicitly states how the failure to recognize the role of culture was one of the most important reasons of failure to achieve MDGs which were set in the year 2000.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 8

The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 4:7. Which of the following is the sum of all the numbers of all such pairs?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 8

Let the two digit natural number be 10x + y.
On reversing = 10y + x.
Therefore 10x+y : 10y+x = 4:7

=> x:y = 1:2
Such numbers are 12,21,24,42,36,63,48,84. Their sum is 330.
Directions (6-8)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 9

There are 15 students in art class and 37 students in dance class and 12 students are enrolled in both activities. When two classes meet at different hours find the number of students, who are either in art class or in dance class.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 9

Let A be the set of students in art class and B be the set of students in dance class.)
n(A) =15, n(B) = 37, n (A ∩ B) = 12
When 2 classes meet at different hours
n (A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n (A ∩ B)
= 15 + 37 - 12
= 52 - 12
= 40

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 10

Digital technology has transformed the world we live in - disrupting entire industries and changing the social landscape. childhood is no exception. One in three internet users worldwide is a child, and young people are now the most connected of all age groups. From photos posted online to medical records stored in the cloud, many children have a digital footprint before they can even walk or talk. Digital technology can be a game changer for disadvantaged children, offering them new opportunities to learn, socialize and make their voices heard - or it can be yet another dividing line. Millions of children are left out of an increasingly connected world.

Q. Which of the following is most rational inference from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 10

(a) is incorrect as the passage fears the creation of a dividing line between the haves and have-nots and does not promise an eventual spread of technology to the marginalized.
(b) is correct as the passage highlights the benefits of technology for children and also expresses concern over millions being marginalized due to lack of access to it. Hence, the statement can be inferred from the passage.
(c) is incorrect as the passage does not talk about policymakers’ role in providing access to the children. Hence, it cannot be inferred from the passage.
(d) is incorrect as the statement talks about disadvantages of technology which goes beyond the scope of the passage.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 11

Rajeev put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M.?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 11

At 9.15 P.M., the minute hand will point towards west.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 12

(i) Seven types of paints A, B, C, D, E, F and G of different colours red, green, yellow, black, blue, white and orange are filled in different tins P, Q, R, S, T, U and V.
(ii) The order of the types of paints, colours and the tins is not necessarily in the same order.
(iii) Paint B is not kept in tins Q or R and is white in colour.
(iv) Paint D is kept in tin V and is not blue or  red.
(v) F is kept in tin P and is green in colour.
(vi) Paints C and E are kept in tins T and U respectively and are black and yellow in colour respectively.
(vi) G is not blue in colour.
(vii) Red paint is not kept in tin Q.
Which of the following paints is orange in colour?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 13

(i) Seven types of paints A, B, C, D, E, F and G of different colours red, green, yellow, black, blue, white and orange are filled in different tins P, Q, R, S, T, U and V.
(ii) The order of the types of paints, colours and the tins is not necessarily in the same order.
(iii) Paint B is not kept in tins Q or R and is white in colour.
(iv) Paint D is kept in tin V and is not blue or  red.
(v) F is kept in tin P and is green in colour.
(vi) Paints C and E are kept in tins T and U respectively and are black and yellow in colour respectively.
(vi) G is not blue in colour.
(vii) Red paint is not kept in tin Q.

Paint B is kept in which tin?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 14

Almost a decade after the onset of the global financial crisis, national debt in advanced economies remains near its highest level since World War II, averaging 104 percent of GDP. Without measures either to cut spending or increase revenue, the situation will only get worse. As central banks abandon the extraordinary monetary measures, they adopted to battle the crisis, interest rates will inevitably rise from historic lows. That means interest payments will eat up a growing share of government spending, leaving less money to deliver public services or take steps to ensure long term economic growth, such as investing in infrastructure and education. Servicing debt will become a major burden.

This passage relates to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 14

(a) is incorrect as rising interest payments is one of the implications of rising public debt and the passage only deals with advanced economies and not the whole world.
(b) is incorrect as the passage does not talk about developing countries.
(c) is incorrect as the passage mentions poor public spending as an implication of high national debt in advanced economies. It does not relate only to poor public spending in advanced economies.
(d) is correct as the passage essentially highlights the problems created by high national debts in advanced economies. This is the best option among the options given. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 15

Direction: Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Sanju is to the left of Rashmi and to the right of Bipasha. Manu is to the right of Rashmi. Ritika is between Rashmi and Manu.

Who is sitting immediate right to Ritika?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 15

According to question the arrangement will be,

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 16

Direction: Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Sanju is to the left of Rashmi and to the right of Bipasha. Manu is to the right of Rashmi. Ritika is between Rashmi and Manu.

Who is in the middle of the photograph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 16

According to question the arrangement will be,

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 17

In a certain code STUDYING is written as SGNIYDUT. How will SCALING be written in that code?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 17

The first letter is not change remaining letters are written in reverse order.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 18

The world faces a looming water disaster, one that could dry out our food systems. Even as climate change disrupts rainfall patterns, global water demand is projected to increase by 55% by 2050. While agriculture is not the only driver of increased water demand, the world's growing population will need more food, putting further strain on already limited water resources - resources that do not enter into the market value of the food on our plates. This scarcity of water can in turn cause shortage of food supply in the world.

Q. Which of the following is most rational inference from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 18

(a) is incorrect as the passage says nothing about controlling population. Population growth is presented as more of a natural phenomenon.
(b) is correct as the passage first highlights the water scarcity issue and its link to food systems. Then it talks about how rising population and agricultural demand to some extent put stress on water resources which in turn can cause food shortage.
(c) is incorrect as it goes to the extent of predicting doom for the world which cannot be inferred from the passage.
(d) is incorrect as the passage does not suggest the need for charging money for water usage. Hence, it cannot be inferred from the passage.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 19

All the page numbers in a book are added, beginning from page 1. However, a page number was added twice by mistake. If the sum obtained was 850, which page number must have been added twice?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 19

Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’.
Let page number ‘x’ be repeated.

⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850
So,  n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850
⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700
The greatest possible value of n = 40.
Now, for n = 40,  n(n+1)/2 = 40×41/2 = 820
So, x = 30.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 20

Two trains, travelling at 15 and 30 kms per hour, head directly towards each other. They begin at a distance of 60 kms from each other. How far apart are they (in kms) one minute before they collide?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 20

The trains will be colliding after a time which is given by:

After this time of 80 minutes, train (1) has covered:

whereas, train (2) has covered

After 79 minutes, distance covered by the first train (Dl)

After 79 minutes, distance covered by the second train (D2)

So, the separation between the two trains:
= 60 - (D1 + D2)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 21

Read the following 1 Passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Recently some scientists have concluded that meteorites found on Earth and long believed to have a Martian origin might actually have been blasted free of Mars’s gravity by the impact on Mars of other meteorites. This conclusion has led to another question whether meteorite impacts on Earth have similarly driven rocks from this planet to Mars. According to astronomer S. A. Phinney, kicking a rock hard enough to free it from Earth’s gravity would require a meteorite capable of making a crater more than 60 miles across. Moreover, even if Earth rocks were freed by meteorite impact, Mars’s orbit is much larger than Earth, So Phinney estimates that the probability of these rocks hitting Mars is about one-tenth as great as that of Mars’s rocks hitting Earth. To demonstrate this estimate, Phinney used a computer to calculate where 1,000 hypothetical particles would go if ejected from Earth in random directions. He found that 17 of the 1,000 particles would hit Mars.

Q. The Passage is primarily concerned with

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 22

Read the following 1 Passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Recently some scientists have concluded that meteorites found on Earth and long believed to have a Martian origin might actually have been blasted free of Mars’s gravity by the impact on Mars of other meteorites. This conclusion has led to another question whether meteorite impacts on Earth have similarly driven rocks from this planet to Mars. According to astronomer S. A. Phinney, kicking a rock hard enough to free it from Earth’s gravity would require a meteorite capable of making a crater more than 60 miles across. Moreover, even if Earth rocks were freed by meteorite impact, Mars’s orbit is much larger than Earth, So Phinney estimates that the probability of these rocks hitting Mars is about one-tenth as great as that of Mars’s rocks hitting Earth. To demonstrate this estimate, Phinney used a computer to calculate where 1,000 hypothetical particles would go if ejected from Earth in random directions. He found that 17 of the 1,000 particles would hit Mars.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following events may have initiated the process that led to the presence on Earth of meteorites from Mars?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 23

If × stands for 'addition', ÷ stands for 'subtraction', + stands for 'multiplication' and - stands for 'division', then 20 × 8 ÷ 8 - 4 + 2 = ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 23

By the Given data, we have the expression:
⇒ 20 + 8 - 8 ÷ 4 × 2
⇒ 20 + 8 - 2 × 2
⇒ 28 - 4
⇒ 24

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 24

Each question given below is followed by two statements I and II Mark your answer as:
(a) If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the statement alone.
(b) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
(c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either of the statements alone.
(d) If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Q. Two of the sides of a triangle are 6 cm and 8 cm. What is the length of the third side?
I. Area of the triangle is 24 cm2.
II. It is a right angled triangle.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 24

Area of the triangle = (1/2) ab sinθ=(1/2) x 6x 8 x sinθ = 24
⇒ sin θ = 1
∴ θ= 90° ⇒ Right angled triangle.

So, the third side = √(62+ 82) = 10.
Using statement ІІ: Although the triangle is a right angled triangle, still we cannot calculate the length of the third side because we do not know whether the given sides are base, perpendicular or hypotenuse.
Hence, only statement І alone is sufficient to answer the question.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 25

Each question given below is followed by two statements I and II Mark your answer as:
(a) If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the statement alone.
(b) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
(c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either of the statements alone.
(d) If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Q. If ‘X’ is an integer such that 10 < X < 100, what is the value of ‘X’?
I. One of the digits of ‘X’ is 4 more than the other, and the sum of its digits is 10.
II. X > 60.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 25

Let X = pq = 10p + q.
Using statement І:
Case 1:
p + q = 10 and p = q + 4,
Solving, we get, q = 3 and p = 7, i.e. X = 73.
Case 2:
p + q = 10 and q = p + 4,
Solving, we get, p = 3 and q = 7, i.e. X = 37.
So, ‘X’ is either 73 or 37.
Using statement ІІ:
X > 60. We can see that obviously statement II alone is not sufficient.
Combining the information given in both the statements together, we get a unique value of ‘X’, i.e. X = 73.
Hence, by combining both statement І and statement ІІ together, we can answer the question.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 26

Each question given below is followed by two statements I and II Mark your answer as:
(a) If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the statement alone.
(b) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
(c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either of the statements alone.
(d) If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Q. The average salary for a month of the employees of an office is Rs 50,000. What is the number of employees (X) in the office?
І. Exclusion of the highest and the lowest earning members from the office does not change the average monthly salary of the employees.
ІІ. 100 < X< 1000.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 26

Using statement І: No information about the number of employees in the office is given.
Using statement ІІ: The condition 100 < X < 1000 does not give any information about the exact number of employees in the office.
Moreover, we cannot answer the question even by combining both the statements together.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 27

Shalini bought a laptop for Rs. X and sold it to Rahul at a profit of 40%. Rahul used it for some time and then sold it to Sam at a loss of 20%, what would have been Rahul’s profit percent had he bought the laptop directly?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 27

Let Shalini buy at Rs.100 and sells to Rahul at Rs.140. Rahul sells to Sam at 20% loss, therefore at Rs.112. If Rahul had bought it directly, then his profit would have been (112-100) = 12%

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 28

Sonu is brother of Neeraj. Neeraj is father of Rocky. Rocky is son of Puja. In term of relationship what is Sonu of Puja?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 28

Sonu is brother of Neeraj and Neeraj is father of Rocky. So, Sonu is uncle of Rocky. Now, Puja is mother of Rocky, So, Sonu is brother-in-law of Puja.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 29

Find the next term in the series 101, 102, 104, 107 ....

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 29

In this series, 1 is added to the first number, 2 is added to the second number, 3 is added to the third number and so on.
101 + 1 = 102
102 + 2 = 104
104 + 3 = 107
107 + 4 = 111
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 30

There are 4 orange balls, 5 blue balls and 3 white balls are there in a bag. Two balls are selected at random. What is the probability of getting both the balls being blue?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 30

Getting both blue 5/12 * 4/11 = 5/33

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 31

The ratio of the CP and SP of an item is 10:11. What is the gain percent?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 31

Let profit% be x
Profit = SP-CP
Given, CP/SP=10/11
⇒ SP/CP=11/10
profit%= Profit/CP x 100
Profit% = (SP-CP)/CP×100=(SP/CP-1)×100
x = (11/10-1)×100
x = 1/10×100=10%

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 32

Find the next term in the series 6, 18, 54, 162, ....

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 32

This is a Geometric Progression with 3 as the common ratio.
The next term = 162 × 3 = 486
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 33

On Children’s Day, students are gifted pencils and erasers. Each student gets 2 pencils and 1 eraser. There are 92 pencils and 50 erasers. It is found that pencils are less than required. How many pencils should be bought?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 33

No. of erasers is 50 Therefore no. of Pencils should twice of it, that is 100 Hence 8 more are required.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 34

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has a different profession, viz Teacher, Singer, Doctor, Accountant, Lawyer, Banker, Businessman and Actor.

• A sit third to the right of the Actor.
• Only two people sit between the Actor and H.
• Doctor and Businessman are immediate neighbours. Neither A  nor H is either Businessman or a Doctor.
• The Businessman is not an immediate neighbour of the Actor.
• The teacher sits second to the left of E. E is not an immediate neighbour of H.
• The Teacher is an immediate neighbour of both the Accountant and Lawyer.
• The Lawyer sits third to the right of B. B is not Businessman.
• C sits on the immediate right of the singer. A is not a Singer.
• F is not an immediate neighbour of A.
• G is not an immediate neighbour of the Teacher.

What is the profession of G?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 35

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has a different profession, viz Teacher, Singer, Doctor, Accountant, Lawyer, Banker, Businessman and Actor.

• A sit third to the right of the Actor.
• Only two people sit between the Actor and H.
• Doctor and Businessman are immediate neighbours. Neither A  nor H is either Businessman or a Doctor.
• The Businessman is not an immediate neighbour of the Actor.
• The teacher sits second to the left of E. E is not an immediate neighbour of H.
• The Teacher is an immediate neighbour of both the Accountant and Lawyer.
• The Lawyer sits third to the right of B. B is not Businessman.
• C sits on the immediate right of the singer. A is not a Singer.
• F is not an immediate neighbour of A.
• G is not an immediate neighbour of the Teacher.

At what position G is sitting w.r.t. Accountant?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 35

The correct option is D.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 36

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has a different profession, viz Teacher, Singer, Doctor, Accountant, Lawyer, Banker, Businessman and Actor.

• A sit third to the right of the Actor.
• Only two people sit between the Actor and H.
• Doctor and Businessman are immediate neighbours. Neither A  nor H is either Businessman or a Doctor.
• The Businessman is not an immediate neighbour of the Actor.
• The teacher sits second to the left of E. E is not an immediate neighbour of H.
• The Teacher is an immediate neighbour of both the Accountant and Lawyer.
• The Lawyer sits third to the right of B. B is not Businessman.
• C sits on the immediate right of the singer. A is not a Singer.
• F is not an immediate neighbour of A.
• G is not an immediate neighbour of the Teacher.

Who is teacher?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 36

The correct answer is B as following is the chart that can clear ;
A - BANKER
D - LAWYER
H - TEACHER
F - ACCOUNTANT
E - SINGER
C - ACTOR
B - DOCTOR

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 37

Choose the alternative which closely resembles the water image of the given question figure?

Question Figure:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 37

The water image is the inverted image obtained by turning the object upside down. On observing the options we can see that the figure given under option (b) is the appropriate answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 38

In a row of 74 girls, Swati is 27th from left end. Palak is 7th to the right of Swati. What is Palak's position from the right end of the row?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 38

Palak is 34th from left. And there are 74 girls in the row. Palak’s rank from right is (74 – 34 + 1) = 41

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 39

Find the value of expression 98-99+100-101+102……. Up to 1000 terms.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 39

Here, 98-99 = -1
100-101 = -1
102-103 = -1
And, so on
Therefore, total term of -1 will be 1000/2=500
So, the value of expression = 500×-1= -500.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 40

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Question Figures:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 40

The original folded piece of paper is as follows:

On unfolding its layers it will look as shown below:

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 41

The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 41

Let the numbers be
x, x+2, x+4, x+6
Average = (x+2+ x+4)/2 = 27
x+3 = 27
x = 24
Largest number x+6 = 30

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 42

Three papers set Times of India, The Hindu, and Hindustan containing 120, 220 and 300 papers respectively. These papers have to stack in such a way that all the papers are stored name wise in room and height of each stack is same. Then total number of stacks will be.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 42

Firstly, find the HCF of 120, 220 and 300
= prime factors of 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
= prime factor of 220 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 11
= prime factor of 300 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5
So, HCF = 2 × 2 × 5 = 20
Therefore, we make stack of 20 papers each

= 6 + 11+15 = 32

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 43

There is little accurate data on the number of children with disabilities, what disabilities these children have and how disabilities affect their lives. As a result, few governments have a dependable guide for allocating resources to support and assist children with disabilities and their families. Progress is being made toward the inclusion of children with disabilities, albeit unevenly by increasing accessibility.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 43

Option (a) is incorrect as according to the passage it would help in creating a guide for allocating resources and not necessarily solve all their problems.
The passage never stated that increasing accessibility would automatically increase inclusivity. Hence, option (b) is also incorrect.
The passage discussed how lack of accurate data has led to few governments with dependable guide for allocating resources to support and assist children with disabilities and their families leading to uneven progress towards inclusivity of disabled children.
Therefore, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is incorrect since the passage is not focused on the role of authorities.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 44

Preclinical testing in animals can offer information about a drug’s safety and effectiveness before human testing begins, but those tests may not reveal potential side effects. Furthermore, drugs that work in animals often fail in human trials. It has become increasingly difficult to perform animal experiments, because of issues related to the procurement of animals, and strict regulations and ethical issues related to their use. As a result, it is felt that the teaching of pharmacology should be more clinically oriented and that unnecessary animal experimentation should be avoided. Although a number of computer simulation models (CSMs) are available, they are not being widely used.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 44

The passage does not discuss the measure of banning preclinical animal trials. Therefore, option (a) is incorrect.
Option (b) is correct since the passage is focused on mitigating preclinical animal trials and promoting alternative methods such as CSMs.
The passage does not take an extreme position of preclinical animal trials as inconsequential. Therefore, option (c) is incorrect.
Investment on computer simulation models is not discussed in the passage. Hence, option (d) is also incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 45

Digital publishing in India is an emerging market. Currently the market for e-books is small but growing. An important reason for this is that currently e-reading devices are still very expensive for most consumers in India which impacts e-book adoption rates. On the positive side publishers feel that the digital publishing market will grow substantially in India given the increasing sales of devices which support e-books like smartphones and tablets.

​Q. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 45

The passage never claimed that publishing will become entirely digital. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
Option (b) can be negated because of its absolute assertion that e-book market will always be confined which can’t be deduced from the passage. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
The passage never highlighted any reliance of digital devices on digital publishing. Therefore, option (c) can’t be deduced from the passage. Hence, (c) is incorrect.
The passage brings into light how the digital publishing market is growing but only among those consumers who can afford the expensive e-reading devices. But as such devices become cheaper, the market will expand. Therefore, option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 46

Obese people don't want pity and we don't want anything but a hand up so we can get back to work. Some of us would like to contribute and even pay taxes again but we need some assistance. There are all kinds of programs assisting young people to go to school, like student loans and grants. This really large group of our population could benefit from some sort of program that might involve education, liposuction, special footwear, and a part-time personal trainer who would develop individualized solutions for each person. Let's get some intelligent kind of operation going. Let's develop a war on fat.

Q. According to the passage, the obese people want:

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 47

Obese people don't want pity and we don't want anything but a hand up so we can get back to work. Some of us would like to contribute and even pay taxes again but we need some assistance. There are all kinds of programs assisting young people to go to school, like student loans and grants. This really large group of our population could benefit from some sort of program that might involve education, liposuction, special footwear, and a part-time personal trainer who would develop individualized solutions for each person. Let's get some intelligent kind of operation going. Let's develop a war on fat.

Q. It's understood from the passage that an assistance program:

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 48

Direction: Read the following information and answer the following questions given below:

• “P + Q” means P is father of Q
• “P – Q” means P is mother of Q
• “P @ Q” means P is bother of Q
• “P \$ Q” means P is sister of Q
• “P % Q” means P is son of Q

In P – Q + R @ S, how P is related to S?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 48

Here, P – Q means P is mother of Q, and Q + R means Q is father of R implies that P is maternal grandmother of R. R @ S implies R is brother of S, implies that P is maternal grandmother of S also.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 49

Direction: Read the following information and answer the following questions given below:

• “P + Q” means P is father of Q
• “P – Q” means P is mother of Q
• “P @ Q” means P is bother of Q
• “P \$ Q” means P is sister of Q
• “P % Q” means P is son of Q

Q. Which of the following express P is maternal Grandfather of T?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 49

Maternal grandfather implies father of mother. So, using hit and trial method firstly we check option “a”
Now, according to option “a”
P is father of Q, who is mother of R, and R is brother of S, who is sister of T. So, R, S and T are sibling and their mother is Q. P is Q’s father so, he is maternal grandfather of R, S and T.
So, P is maternal grandfather of T. So, option “a” must be correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 50

Various models have been developed to improve community health, but they do not always articulate how they can influence medical education or integrate learners. Enhancing medical students’ and communities’ understanding of the continuum of health and disease through a systemic view of various health problems can advance efforts to build healthier communities. A collaborative health medical education program that understands and learns from its experience can help provide opportunities for diverse types of community members to learn about their rights, responsibilities, and competencies necessary to achieve better health outcomes through collective action.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 50

The passage is not focused on the role and aims of communities per se. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
Option (b) can be negated because of its absolute claim that significant teaching-learning experience will automatically lead to better health outcomes which can’t be deduced from the passage. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
Open information sharing is not discussed in the passage. Therefore, option (c) is incorrect.
Option (d) subsumes the whole passage
wherein the steps to develop a collaborative health program are mentioned. Hence, (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 51

Sumit, Vikram, Vikas, Vinit, Suresh, Sunil, Subodh and Varun are sitting around a table which has eight chairs. Sumit is not opposite to Vinit. Sumit and Subodh have one person sitting between them. Vikram is opposite to Vikas. Suresh is sitting opposite to the person, who is to the immediate left of Vikram. Sunil is to the immediate left to Vinit. No two persons, whose names start with the same letter sit adjacent to each other.

Q. Who among the following could be sitting opposite to sumit?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 52

Sumit, Vikram, Vikas, Vinit, Suresh, Sunil, Subodh and Varun are sitting around a table which has eight chairs. Sumit is not opposite to Vinit. Sumit and Subodh have one person sitting between them. Vikram is opposite to Vikas. Suresh is sitting opposite to the person, who is to the immediate left of Vikram. Sunil is to the immediate left to Vinit. No two persons, whose names start with the same letter sit adjacent to each other.

Q. If Vikas and Suresh interchange their places then who must be sitting to the left of Sunil?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 53

Sumit, Vikram, Vikas, Vinit, Suresh, Sunil, Subodh and Varun are sitting around a table which has eight chairs. Sumit is not opposite to Vinit. Sumit and Subodh have one person sitting between them. Vikram is opposite to Vikas. Suresh is sitting opposite to the person, who is to the immediate left of Vikram. Sunil is to the immediate left to Vinit. No two persons, whose names start with the same letter sit adjacent to each other.

Q. Who is to the immediate right of Subodh?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 54

Consider the word MALAYALAM. Whichever way you read it, from left to right or from right to left, you get the same word. Such a word is known as palindrome. Find the maximum possible number of 7-letter palindromes.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 54

The first letter from the right can be chosen in 26 ways because there are 26
alphabets.
Having chosen this, the second letter can be chosen in 26 ways.

⇒ The first two letters can be chosen in 26×26 ways Having chosen the first two letters, the third letter can be chosen in 26 ways.
⇒ The first three letters can be chosen in 26 × 26 × 26 ways. Having chosen the first three letters, the fourth letter can be chosen in 26 ways.
⇒ All the four letters can be chosen in (26 × 26 × 26 × 26) = 264 ways.
It implies that the maximum possible number of seven letter palindromes is because the fifth is same as the third letter; the sixth letter is the same as the second letter and seventh is same as the first
letter.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 55

The blockchain technology that underpins cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin has the potential to reduce large banking frauds drastically because it enables radical transparency. Every transaction on Bitcoin is public and you do not even need a Bitcoin wallet to see these transactions. Many websites allow anybody with a web browser anywhere in the world to see every single transaction as it happens. Banks can use the same technology to allow the whole world to see every large financing or guarantee transaction.

Q. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 55

Option (a) is incorrect because passage does not talk about impact of Bitcoin on the financial system as a whole.
Option (b) is incorrect because passage does not discuss individual and institutional privacy.
Option (c) is correct since every transaction on Bitcoin is public, leading to transparency and hence has the potential of reducing banking frauds.
Option (d) is incorrect since passage does not argue either about banning Cryptocurrencies nor about whether Cryptocurrencies will replace physical currencies.
Hence option (c) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 56

Despite the global slowdown, the online shopping in India has increased. The growing pace of online buying is because of the attractive discounted prices offered and the ability of the customers to research and compare the prices across several outlets. The average frequency of online purchases in India grew up to 2.9 in the fourth quarter of 2008 from 2.6 during the same quarter in 2007, as reported by the survey of Master Card Worldwide. “The economic meltdown has not affected our business”, said the CEO of an e-commerce portal which specializes in personalized gifting and merchandise space in India. He said, “Our business has increased up to five times this year despite the economic recession”. Currently, we possess a database of 25,000 designs posted by a thousand designers so that the users can create their own merchandise by selecting the designs sitting at home. The CEO also said that with the rise in bandwidth penetration in India and the increasing awareness of internet among people, the online shoppers sense the convenience to click on the products they want to purchase. Holding onto a similar conviction, the CEO of another company said, “With the convenience of online buying, customers can save their time and money to move across multiple outlets for a product. The online shoppers also plan their shopping in advance and conduct research on their planned purchases. It becomes easier for the customers to decide the price at which they want the products”. Sharing views on this point, the manager of the ecommerce portal says, “Through online shopping, customers can attain the objective of value for money during these tough times”.
Today, India is the only country where the 18 to 29 years age group has the highest average spend on online shopping. In India, the popular online purchases include the home appliances and the electronic gadgets like cell phones, camera, laptops and so on. According to the survey, the repurchasing of electronic products has gone up by 51 percent. So to drive these online shoppers, e-commerce portals are adopting a networking culture by incorporating social networking feature in their websites, so that people can discuss with their friends and relatives before buying the particular product. There are more start-ups, who are innovating their products to combat slowdown.

Q. What does the phrase “value for money” as used in the passage mean?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 57

If a man were to sell his chair for Rs. 530 and loses 47%. To gain 25% he should see it for

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 57

47% loss = 53% of CP
53% = Rs. 530
Then to get 25% gain
125% = ?
= Rs.1250

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 58

Consider the following and answer the questions

• Aayush’s playing schedule consists of Cricket, Hockey, Soccer, Tennis, and Volleyball from Monday to Saturday; each game is on one day, one day being a rest day.
• Cricket is played neither on the first day nor on last day but is played earlier than Tennis.
• Volleyball is played on the immediate next day of the tennis day.
• Hockey is played on the immediate previous day of the rest day.
• Volleyball and Soccer were played with a 2-day gap between them.
• Soccer is played on the day following the rest day.

Q. Which of the following is a rest day?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 59

Consider the following and answer the questions

• Aayush’s playing schedule consists of Cricket, Hockey, Soccer, Tennis, and Volleyball from Monday to Saturday; each game is on one day, one day being a rest day.
• Cricket is played neither on the first day nor on last day but is played earlier than Tennis.
• Volleyball is played on the immediate next day of the tennis day.
• Hockey is played on the immediate previous day of the rest day.
• Volleyball and Soccer were played with a 2-day gap between them.
• Soccer is played on the day following the rest day.

Q. Hockey and Volleyball days have a gap of how many days between them?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 59

The correct option is C.
Monday - hockey
Tuesday - rest day
Wednesday - soccer
Thursday - cricket
Friday - tennis
Saturday - volleyball

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 60

Consider the following and answer the questions

• Aayush’s playing schedule consists of Cricket, Hockey, Soccer, Tennis, and Volleyball from Monday to Saturday; each game is on one day, one day being a rest day.
• Cricket is played neither on the first day nor on last day but is played earlier than Tennis.
• Volleyball is played on the immediate next day of the tennis day.
• Hockey is played on the immediate previous day of the rest day.
• Volleyball and Soccer were played with a 2-day gap between them.
• Soccer is played on the day following the rest day.

Q. On which day is soccer played?

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 61

Janice is packing her bags for her vacation. She has 5 unique action figures, but only 3 fit in her bag. How many different groups of 3 action figures toys can she take?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 61

5C3 = 10

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 62

Diversity may have traditionally given rise to a number of cuisines distinct to regions, but changing food habits and extensive migration of workers are spreading local tastes across the country. For instance, a sweet variant of the Gujarati Gorkeri pickle from a leading national player gets its highest sales from West Bengal. Similarly, a Rajasthani sweet lime pickle from the same brand gets its highest sales from Delhi, followed by Karnataka and Maharashtra. Packaged foods major ITC noticed that its branded wheat atta is growing faster in the south as compared to other geographies. Given the growing cosmopolitan consumer behaviors, brands are framing strategies in line with the emergence of fresh consumer demand across regions.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 62

Option (a) is correct because package food brands like ITC adopt their strategies with growing cosmopolitan consumer behaviours and consumer demand across regions.
Option (b) is incorrect since passage does not talk about general north Indian food items, it only mentions branded wheat atta.
Option (c) is incorrect because passages does not discuss destruction of local cuisines.
Option (d) is incorrect because passage only mentions that Gujarati pickle has registered highest sale in West Bengal but doesn’t claim its reason to be the following- “Gujaratis do not like Gujarati pickle”.
Hence option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 63

In a particular month of a year, it is observed that there are 5 Tuesday and all other days appear less than 5 times.

Q. This particular month referred is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 63

If in any month a day repeats 5 times, and other days repeats only 4 times.
Then it has to be February 5 Tuesdays + (6 other days x 4)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 64

The centerpiece of the bankruptcy process is the Insolvency Resolution Process (IRP). Because a firm after default is like a melting ice-cube, every day of delay destroys value. So the Insolvency Bankruptcy Code (IBC) provides for a limited time of 180 days for the IRP to work out. It is within this time limit that multiple external persons come up with proposals on resolution plans for the defaulted firm. These are evaluated by the Committee of Creditors and the best one is chosen. The chosen one takes control of the company and walks away into the sunset, and all others forever hold their peace.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 64

Option (a) is incorrect since passage does not talk about Indian banking system, non-performing assets or how IBC will solve the problem of non-performing assets.
Option (b) is incorrect because passage does not discuss the case where external persons come up with any proposals.
Option (c) is correct because IBC provides the time limit for submission of proposal on resolution of defaulted firms for Committee of Creditors to choose the best one among multiple proposals. The chosen one takes control of the company permanently as seen from the last line.
Option (d) is incorrect because according to the passage, there is no indication that process is cumbersome. Further, whole process of resolution will take place within 180 days even in case of multiple proposal submission. Hence option (c) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 65

If x \$ y = (x + y + xy –1) (x + y + xy + 1), then the value of (5 \$ 10) is.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 65

As per the definition of \$, (5\$10) would be (5 + 10 + 5 × 10 - 1) (5 + 10 + 5 × 10 + 1) = 4224. So, answer is (a)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 66

In a particular month of a year, it is observed that there are 5 Tuesday and all other days appear less than 5 times.

Q. First day of the next month is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 66

The given month has to start and end with Tuesday so the next month has to start with Wednesday.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 67

In many parts of the world, poor air quality has shaped up as a major health hazard. While air quality is traditionally seen as the source of respiratory ailments, there is mounting evidence that low air quality has far reaching impacts upon human health. As an example, it exacerbates the deteriorative illnesses of old age. Ordinarily, we see clean air as a pure public good. There is little that one person can do about it. However, there is much value for an individual in having a right-now-right-here measure of air quality. Q.

Q. Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 67

Option (a) is correct since the passage warns of the far reaching impacts upon human health that is caused by poor air quality. Since clean is a public good, individuals cannot affect it, however, knowledge about its status holds much value.
Option (b) is incorrect since the passage makes the point that poor air quality has far reaching impact on human health. Moreover, air being a public good increases the value of having a right-now-right-here measure of air quality.
Option (c) is incorrect since the passage warns of the far reaching impacts upon human health that is caused by poor air quality.
Option (d) is incorrect since the passage warns of the far reaching impacts upon human health that is caused by poor air quality and the value derived from a right-now-right-here measure of air quality.
Hence option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 68

The product of four consecutive natural numbers plus one is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 68

A square (1*2*3*4)+1 = 25
(2*3*4*5)+1 = 121

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 69

Typewriters are the epitome of a technology that has been comprehensively rendered obsolete by the digital age. The ink comes off the ribbon, they weigh a ton, and second thoughts are a disaster. But they are also personal, portable and, above all, private. Type a document and lock it away and more or less the only way anyone else can get it is if you give it to them. That is why the Russians have decided to go back to typewriters in some government offices, and why in the US, some departments have never abandoned them. Yet it is not just their resistance to algorithms and secret surveillance that keeps typewriter production lines – well one, at least – in business (the last British one closed a year ago). Nor is it only the nostalgic appeal of the metal body and the stout well-defined keys that make them popular on eBay.
A typewriter demands something particular: attentiveness. By the time the paper is loaded, the ribbon tightened, the carriage returned, the spacing and the margins set, there’s a big premium on hitting the right key. That means sorting out ideas, pulling together a kind of order and organising details before actually striking off. There can be no thinking on screen with a typewriter. Nor are there any easy distractions. No online shopping. No urgent emails. No Twitter. No need even for electricity – perfect for writing in a remote hideaway. The thinking process is accompanied by the encouraging clack of keys, and the ratchet of the carriage return. Ping!

Q. According to the passage, some governments still use typewriters because:

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 70

One Amoeba splits into ten Amoeba to form the next generation, but due to the prevailing ecological conditions, only 50% survive. If the number of surviving amoebas in the 6th generation is 3125, what must have been their number in the first generation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 70

Let there be ‘x’ Amoeba in the first generation, i.e. n1 = x.
So, n2 = 10x, but only 50% survive,
So, n2, survived = 10x/2 = 5x.
n3 = 10(5x), but only 50% survive,
So, n3, survived = 10(5x)/2 = 25x = 52x.
Similarly, n6, survived = 56-1 x = 55x
Now, it’s given that: 55x = 3125
⇒ 3125x = 3125
∴ x = 1.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 71

Find the missing number from the above figure?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 71

The pattern is = (108 -107) = 11, (4 – 1) = 33, (27 – 25) = 22.
So, the missing number = (55 − x)55−x = 256
⇒ (55 − x)55 − x = 44 .
So, (55 – x) = 4, x = 51

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 72

In aid of charity, every soldier in a battalion contributes as many rupees as the number of soldiers in that battalion. With the additional contribution of Rs. 50 by one soldier only, the total collection is Rs. 251051. Then how many soldiers are there in the battalion?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 72

Let the number of Soldiers in Battalion be N
Earlier, each Soldier will give Rs. N
Earlier total collection was
(Number of Soldiers) x (each's contribution) (N) x (N) = N²
Now, one Soldier's contribution is increased by 50,  So, total collection now = N x N + 50= 251051 N² + 50= 251051
N² = 251051 – 50
N² = 251001

So, N2 = 501², N = 501 or -501 But number of Soldiers can’t be negative, so N = 501 Therefore, number of Soldiers = 501

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 73

There are 680 metal balls, each with a diameter of 20 mm, stacked in a pile, with 1 ball on the top, 3 balls in the second layer, 6 in the third layer, 10 in the fourth layer, and so on. What is the number of horizontal layers in the pile?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 73

Let the number of horizontal layers in the pile = n.
Then, the number of balls in a layer = n(n+1)/2 (putting n = 1, 2, 3 etc. will give the number of balls in a layer).
So, ∑ n(n+1)/2 = 680
⇒ 1/2 *∑n2 + ∑n+ = 680
⇒ 1/2 [n(n+1)(2n+1)/6+n(n+1)/2] = 680
⇒ (1/2) n(n+1)/2 [(2n+1)/3+1] = 680
⇒ n(n+1)(n+2)/6 = 680
⇒ n (n+1) (n+2) = 6×680
n (n+1) (n+2) = 15×16×17
∴ n = 15.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 74

Pointing to a girl, Arun said, "Her Father’s wife’s brother is the only son of my mother's father”. How is the girl's mother related to Arun?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 74

Her Father’s wife’s brother = the only son of my mother's father
Her Maternal Uncle = My Maternal Uncle
So the girl is arun’s sister, so girl’s mother is arun’s mother and
Since that is not in the options, none of the above is the answer

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 75

Find the number that should come in the white circle in the figure given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 75

The number in the circles are given by the sum of first n natural numbers.
So, Sn = n(n+1)/2 S1 = 1; S2 = 3; S3 = 6; S4 = 10; S5 = 15; S6 = 21; S7 = 28; S8 = 36; S9 = 45
Note: You may also solve it considering it to be a question of series,
wherein the difference between the terms is continuously increasing by 1.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 76

Sai and Dia started a business investing Rs.185000 and Rs.225000, respectively. If Dia's share in the profit earned by them is Rs. 9000, what is the total profit earned by them together.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 76

The profit ratio for Sai and Dia is
185000*12 : 225000*12
37:45
37:45 = x : 9000
Therefore x = 7400
Total Profit = 7400+9000 = 16400
Directions (50-54)
Total female students = 32
40% of the students is female
40/100 x total = 32
Total students = 80
Since the total is 18 and the female is 32,
Total male is 48
Half of the students is either excellent or good
Since good is 30, Excellent will be 10, the values has to be filled up continuously to fill up the remaining values.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 77

The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 12000. The monthly average salary paid to male and female employees was Rs. 14000 and Rs. 10000 respectively. Then the percentage of males employed in the company is:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 77

Let total no of the male employee be x
Total no of the female be y
Then total salary of all male = 14000 * x
The total salary of all female =10000 * y
But as per question total salary of all the employee = 12000(x + y)
So [(14000 * x) + (10000 * y)] = 12000(x + y)
By equating we will find x/y = 1/1
So the percentage of female employee = 1/2 * 100 = 50%

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 78

Find the missing number in the third triangle:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 78

The number in the centre of the triangle is half of the sum of the numbers on the three sides. (13 + 15 + 12)/2 = 20
(23 + 25 + 22)/2 = 35
(3 + 5 + 2)/2 = 5
So, 3 is the missing number.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 79

A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 64 cm and width 54 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 79

Since, the same tin is used to make the cube, therefore,
The area of the rectangle = The area of the cube
[(length of rectangle) x (breadth of rectangle) = (6 x side2]
(64 x 54) = 6 x side2
side2 = 64 x 9
side = 8 x 3 = 24

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 80

A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student. The data is kept on computer disk, but unfortunately score of it is lost, because of virus. Only following could be recovered.

An expert committee was formed, which decided that following facts were self-evident.

1. 1/3rd of the male students were average.
2. Half the students were either excellent or good
3. 40% of the students were females.

How many students are both male and good?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 9 - Question 80

Male under the category of good is 22

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