UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 1


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 1


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This mock test of UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 1 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 1 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 1 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 1 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 1 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Consider the following statement:
1. Referendum is an Indirect vote in which an entire electorate is asked to either accept or reject a particular proposal.
2. Veto is the right which gives unlimited power to stop a decision.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Referendum: A direct vote in which an entire electorate is asked to either accept or reject a particular proposal. This may be adoption of a new constitution, a law or a specific governmental policy.
  • Veto: The right of a person, party or nation to stop a certain decision or law. The word comes from Latin, which means ‘I forbid’. A veto gives unlimited power to stop a decision, but not to adopt one.
QUESTION: 2

What term is applied to the affective component of how we feel about a certain group?

Solution:
  • Prejudice is a negative attitude that one has based mostly on opinions and stereotypes rather than facts/evidence.
  • Although prejudice is a noun and not a verb, the behavior is often influenced by bias. Once the switch is made from "thought/feeling" to "action," discrimination has occurred.
  • Psychology definition experts hold that prejudice involved three main things: 1. Negative feelings 2. Stereotyped beliefs 3. A tendency to discriminate against a stereotyped group.
QUESTION: 3

With reference to Fundamental rights, consider the following statements:
1. They are referred to as the ‘conscience’ of the Indian Constitution.
2. They protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State.
3. These rights are binding upon every authority that has got the power to make laws.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:
  • Fundamental Rights has often been referred to as the ‘conscience’ of the Indian Constitution. Fundamental Rights protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the State.
  • The Constitution guarantees the rights of individuals against the State as well as against other individuals. Dr. Ambedkar has said about these Fundamental Rights, their object is two-fold. The first objective is that every citizen must be in a position to claim those rights.
  • And secondly, these rights must be binding upon every authority that has got the power to make laws.
QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Constitution grants the right to religious minorities communities to set up their own schools and colleges.
2. Indian governments can give financial aid to these religious communities on a preferential basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Indian State is secular and works in order to prevent religious domination. The Indian Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights that are based on these secular principles. Article 30 mandates that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
  • The Indian Constitution grants the right to religious communities to set up their own schools and colleges. Indian governments can give financial aid to these religious communities on a non-preferential basis.
QUESTION: 5

Consider the following assertions —
1. According to our constitution, it is the primary duty of the government to ensure the welfare of the people and provide healthcare facilities to all.
2. The government cannot use the money, received from the public as taxes, to provide public facilities.
Which of the above assertion(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

According to our Constitution, it is the primary duty of the government to ensure the welfare of the people and provide healthcare facilities to all. Government utilises the taxes paid by the public to provide public facilities like, healthcare services, defence services, judicial services, etc.

QUESTION: 6

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Midday meal scheme?
1. In drought affected areas, midday meals shall be supplied even during summer vacations
2. In appointment of cooks and helpers, preference shall be given to Dalits, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
3. The state Government shall make provisions for construction of kitchen sheds

Solution:
  • The Central Government shall make provisions for construction of kitchen sheds. The Midday Meal Scheme is a school meal program of the government of India designed to improve the nutritional status of school-age children nationwide.
  • The program supplies free lunches on working days for children in primary and upper primary classes in government, government aided, local body, Education Guarantee Scheme, and alternate innovative education centres, Madarsa and Maqtabs supported under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, and National Child Labour Project schools run by the ministry of labour.
QUESTION: 7

Some States were created not on the basis of language but to recognize differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography. These include States like:
1. Nagaland
2. Uttarakhand
3. Jharkhand
Choose correct one:

Solution:
  • Some States were created not on the basis of language but to recognise differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography.
  • These include States like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand. The advantage of creating linguistic states has actually made the country more united. It has also made administration easier.
QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements:
1. The assertion of social diversities in a country needs to be seen as a source of danger for the country.
2. Expression of various kinds of social divisions in politics often results in weakening of democracy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The assertion of social diversities in a country need not be seen as a source of danger. In a democracy, political expression of social divisions is very normal and can be healthy. This allows various disadvantaged and marginal social groups to express their grievances and get the government to attend to these.
  • Expression of various kinds of social divisions in politics often results in their cancelling one another out and thus reducing their intensity. This leads to strengthening of a democracy.
QUESTION: 9

Consider the following statements:
1. Bolivia is a country in East Europe.
2. Bolivia’s water war is its people’s successful struggle against privatisation of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

People’s successful struggle against privatisation of water in Bolivia reminds that popular struggles are integral to the working of democracy. Bolivia is a poor country in Latin America. The World Bank pressured the government to give up its control of municipal water supply.

QUESTION: 10

Consider the following assertions:
1. The midday meal scheme was first introduced in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
2. In 2001, the Supreme Court asked all the State Governments to begin midday meal programmes in their schools within six months.
Which of the above assertion(s) is/are correct

Solution:
  • One of the steps taken by the government includes the midday meal scheme. This refers to the programme introduced in all government elementary schools to provide children with cooked lunch.
  • Tamil Nadu was the first state in India to introduce this scheme, and in 2001, the Supreme Court asked all state governments to begin this programme in their schools within six months. This programme has had many positive effects.
  • These include the fact that more poor children have begun enrolling and regularly attending school.
  • This programme has also helped reduce caste prejudices because both lower and upper caste children in the school eat this meal together, and in quite a few places, Dalit women have been employed to cook the meal.
  • The midday meal programme also helps reduce the hunger of poor students who often come to school and cannot concentrate because their stomachs are empty.
QUESTION: 11

Consider the following statements:
1. A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government.
2. Political parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government.
  • They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good.
  • Since there can be different views on what is good for all, parties try to persuade people why their policies are better than others.They seek to implement these policies by winning popular support through elections. Thus, parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society.
QUESTION: 12

Which of the following are features of Indian Constitution?
1. Federalism
2. Parliamentary Form of Government
3. Fusion of Powers
4. Secularism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
  • All of the statements are correct.
QUESTION: 13

Consider the following assertions:
1. Housework is invisible and unpaid work.
2. Term Double-burden is commonly used to describe the women’s work situation.
Which of the above assertions above is/are correct.

Solution:

The term 'invisible' means the work that women generally do inside the home and is not given due recognition ,they are not paid for it. Example - looking after the family members and cooking food for them. Double-burden literally literally means a double load. This term is commonly used to describe the women’s work situation. It has emerged from a recognition that women typically labour both inside the home (housework) and outside.

QUESTION: 14

Consider the following statements:
1. In India, government spaces like law courts, police stations are not supposed to display or promote any one religion.
2. Government and private schools cannot promote any one religion either in their morning prayers or through religious celebrations.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Solution:
  • The Indian State is not ruled by a religious group and nor does it support any one religion.In India, government spaces like law courts, police stations, government schools and offices are not supposed to display or promote any one religion.
  • Government schools cannot promote any one religion either in their morning prayers or through religious celebrations because the celebration of the religious festival within the school would have been a violation of the government’s policy of treating all religions equally.However, this rule does not apply to private schools.
QUESTION: 15

Which of the following statements is true about today’s world?

Solution:
  • Democracy has been expanding to more and more regions and countries all over the world. Thus, more and more countries are becoming democratic. By 2020 about 167 countries were holding multi-party elections. This number was higher than ever before.
  • More than 80 previously non-democratic countries have made significant advances towards democracy since 1980.But, even today, there are many countries where people cannot express their opinion freely.They still cannot elect their leaders. They cannot make big decisions about their present and future life.
QUESTION: 16

With reference to International Monetary Fund (IMF), consider the following statements:
1. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest moneylenders for any country in the world.
2. Its member states have equal voting rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest moneylenders for any country in the world. Its 189 member states (as on 12 April 2016) do not have equal voting rights.
  • The vote of each country is weighed by how much money it has contributed to the IMF.
  • More than 40% of the voting power in the IMF is in the hands of only seven countries (US, Japan, Germany, France, UK, Italy and Canada).The remaining 182 countries have very little say in how these international organisations take Decisions.
QUESTION: 17

Consider the following assertions:
1. The rebellious refusal of Rosa Parks, started a huge agitation against the unequal ways in which African-Americans were treated. This came to be known as the Civil Rights Movement.
2. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin. It also stated that all schools would be open to African–American children and that they would no longer have to attend separate schools specially set up for them.
Which of the above assertion(s) is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Rosa Parks was an African–American woman. Tired from a long day at work she refused to give up her seat on a bus to a white man on 1 December 1955.
  • Her refusal that day started a huge agitation against the unequal ways in which African–Americans were treated and which came to be known as the Civil Rights Movement.
  • The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin. It also stated that all schools would be open to African–American children and that they would no longer have to attend separate schools specially set up for them.
QUESTION: 18

A voter will not vote for a politician because he is old and all older people are slower and less competent. How could this voter’s actions be categorized?

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Consider the following assertions:
1. According to the Right to Equality as mentioned in the Constitution, every person is equal before the law i.e. every person, from the President of the country to a domestic worker, has to obey the same laws.
2. No person can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, race, caste, place of birth or gender.
Which of the above assertion(s) is /are true?

Solution:

According to the Right to Equality as mentioned in the Constitution, every person is equal before the law i.e. every person, from the President of the country to a domestic worker, has to obey the same laws. No person can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, race, caste, place of birth or gender.

QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements:
1. Pressure groups are organisations that attempt to influence government policies.
2. Pressure groups aim to directly control or share political power.

Solution:
  • In a democracy several different kinds of organisations work behind any big struggle. These organisations play their role in two ways.
  • One obvious way of influencing the decisions in a democracy is direct participation in competitive politics.
  • This is done by creating parties, contesting elections and forming governments. There are many indirect ways in which people can get governments to listen to their demands or their point of view.
  • They could do so by forming an organisation and undertaking activities to promote their interest or their viewpoint. These are called interest groups or pressure groups. Pressure groups are organisations that attempt to influence government policies.
  • But unlike political parties, pressure groups do not aim to directly control or share political power. These organisations are formed when people with common occupation, interest, aspirations or opinions come together in order to achieve a common objective.
QUESTION: 21

Consider the following assertions:
1. All democratic countries are likely to have a constitution.
2. All countries that have a constitution are necessarily democratic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Most countries in the world have a Constitution.All democratic countries are likely to have a Constitution but it is not necessary that all countries that have a Constitution are democratic.
  • A Constitution helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed.This includes not only the type of government but also an agreement on certain ideals that they all believe the country should uphold.
QUESTION: 22

Consider the following assertions:
1. Right to health is not a part of the fundamental rights; hence the health facilities are not available to all equally.
2. More people are afflicted with waterborne communicable diseases due to lack of supply of clean drinking water.
Which of the above assertion(s) is/are incorrect ?

Solution:
  • While the Constitution states that the right to health is an aspect of our fundamental rights, its provisioning is rather unequal. Right to health is considered to be included under the Right to life (Article 21). Due to non-availability of clean drinking water, more people suffer from waterborne communicable diseases.
  • Communicable diseases, such as cholera, diarrhoea, hepatitis etc., occur due to the consumption of unclean water.
QUESTION: 23

Consider the following statements
1. Fundamental rights are absolute.
2. Articles 15 and 16 have been amended by parliament in pursuit of social justice.
Select the correct answer using following codes:

Solution:
  • There are limitations imposed on the enjoyment of fundamental rights. Fundamental rights are conditional and subject to reasonable restrictions.
  • Article 15 and 16 ensures equality of opportunity in public employment and prevents discrimination which in turn ensures social justice.
QUESTION: 24

In the context of India, consider the following assertions:
1. India has the largest number of medical colleges in the world and is among the largest producers of doctors.
2. India is the fourth largest producer of medicines in the world and is also a major exporter of medicines.
Which of the above assertion(s) is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Despite having the highest number of hospitals and doctors, the level of healthcare is poor in India.
  • The main reason for this is that most doctors settle in urban areas. People in rural areas have to travel long distances to reach a doctor.
  • The number of doctors with respect to the population is much less in the rural areas. Despite being a big producer and exporter of drugs, the cost of medicines is high here, thus medicines are not adequately accessible to every citizen.
  • Several deaths are caused because of it.
QUESTION: 25

Consider the following statements about the Constitution.

1. The Constitution ensures that good people come to power.

2. The Constitution is the locus of People’s hopes and aspirations.

3. The Constitution gives its citizens only a political identity.

Which of the above is/are Correct?

Solution:
  • The Constitution itself cannot ensure that the good people come to power .For example, Indian Constitution has authorized the Parliament to determine the procedure for election to the Loksabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislative chambers of States & UTs.
  • Since the existing provisions of Representation of Peoples Act are not foolproof, a significant percentage of legislators of the present day are with criminal records. Constitutional norms provide the overarching framework within which one pursues individual aspirations, goals and freedoms.
  • For instance, the Preamble of Indian constitution broadly reflects this framework. One may have many identities prior to the Constitution.
  • But by agreeing to certain basic norms and principles prescribed by the Constitution, one constitutes one's basic political identity. However, the Constitution also sets authoritative Constraints upon what one may or may not do. It defines the fundamental values that one may not trespass. So the Constitution also gives MORAL Identity.
QUESTION: 26

The Constituent Assembly was setup under the:

Solution:

The Cabinet Mission of 1946 to India aimed to discuss and plan for the transfer of power from the British Government to Indian leadership, providing India with independence.

QUESTION: 27

The Constitution of India, was drafted and enacted in which language:

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

Which Indian artist decorated the handwritten Copy of the Constitution

Solution:
  • Nandalal Bose (1882-1966) was one of the pioneers of modern Indian art and a key figure of Contextual Modernism.
  • A pupil of Abanindranath Tagore, Bose was known for his “Indian style” of painting. He was influenced by the Tagore family and the murals of Ajanta; his classic works include paintings of scenes from Indian mythologies, women, and village life.
  • He was also famously asked by Jawaharlal Nehru to sketch the emblems for the Government of India’s awards, including the Bharat Ratna and the Padma Shri. Along with his students, Nandala Bose took up the historic task of beautifying /decorating the original manuscript of the Constitution of India.
QUESTION: 29

Democracy in the international organisations requires that:

Solution:
  • There are many institutions at the world level that perform some of the functions in a democratic way.
  • The yardstick here is whether each of the countries has free and equal say in the decisions that affect them.
  • For example: Every one of the 193 member states of the United Nation has one vote in the UN General Assembly. It meets in regular yearly sessions under a president elected from among the representatives of the member countries.General Assembly is like the parliament where all the discussion takes place. In that sense the UN appears to be a very democratic organisation.
QUESTION: 30

The Indian Constituent Assembly, after the partition, had the following number :

Solution:
  • The Constituent Assembly (elected for an undivided India) met for the first time on 9 December 1946, reassembling on 14 August 1947 as a sovereign body and successor to the British parliament’s authority in India. As a result of the partition, under the Mountbatten plan a separate constituent assembly was established in Pakistan on 3 June 1947.
  • The representatives of the areas incorporated into Pakistan ceased to be members of the Constituent Assembly of India. New elections were held for West Punjab and East Bengal; the membership of the Constituent Assembly was 299 after the reorganization, and it met on 31 December 1947.
QUESTION: 31

Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?

Solution:
  • Urge towards global democracy comes from people who get more opportunities to come in touch with one another. Over the last few years the people of different countries have come together without their governments’ support.
  • As in the case of democracy within the nations, the initiative for democracy among nations has come from the struggles of the people.
  • For a very long time most countries in Asia and Africa were colonies under the control of European nations. End of colonialism made democracy flourish in these counties. Foreign countries invaded these countries and them their coloniesPeople of the colonised countries had to wage struggles to achieve independence.
QUESTION: 32

In what ways does the Indian State work to prevent religious domination?
1. Through a strategy of distancing itself from religion.
2. Through a strategy of intervention.
3. Through a strategy of Non-interference.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
  • The Indian State works in various ways to prevent religious Domination.

1. First, it uses a strategy of distancing itself from religion. The Indian State is not ruled by a religious group and nor does it support any one religion.
2. The second way in which Indian secularism works to prevent the above domination is through a strategy of non-interference.
3. The third way in which Indian secularism works to prevent the domination listed earlier is through a strategy of intervention.

  • For example when members of the same religion (‘upper-caste’ Hindus) dominate other members (some ‘lower castes’) within it, then to prevent this religion-based exclusion and discrimination of ‘lower castes’, the Indian Constitution bans untouchability. In this instance, the State is intervening in religion in order to end a social practice that it believes discriminates and excludes, and that violates the Fundamental Rights of ‘lower castes’ who are citizens of this country.
QUESTION: 33

Elections to the Constituent Assembly was held in the year:

Solution:
  • The Constituent Assembly was established while India was under British rule, following negotiations between Indian leaders and members of the 1946 Cabinet Mission to India from the United Kingdom.
  • Provincial assembly elections were held early in 1946. Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by members of the newly elected provincial assemblies, and initially included representatives for those provinces which formed part of Pakistan . The Constituent Assembly had 299 representatives, including nine women.
QUESTION: 34

The objective resolution was moved in the Constituent Assembly on:

Solution:

On 13 December, 1946, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru moved the objectives Resolution.

QUESTION: 35

Which is/are CORRECT statement:
1. Ladakh is also called Little Tibet
2. Local versions of the Tibetan national epic the Kesar Saga are performed and sung by both Muslims and Buddhists in Ladakh

Solution:
  • Ladakh – literally ‘The Land of Many Passes’ and also known as ‘Little Tibet’ – is situated in the northern-most part of India and shares borders with Tibet, Pakistan and the Indian states of Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.
  • Kesar Saga is sung by both Buddhist and local muslims. This epic is not just sung locally but also sung throughout Central Asia right from Mongolia to Ladakh. Kesar Saga is a Tibetian epic about a king called Kesar who ruled Ling
QUESTION: 36

Who boycotted the Indian Constituent Assembly :

Muslim League boycotted the Indian Constituent Assembly.

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

In the final form of the Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly, how many Articles and Schedules were there:

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Consider the following statements:
1. Both Interest groups and movement groups attempt to influence politics rather than directly take part in electoral competition.
2. Both Interest groups and movement groups have strong organisations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Like an interest group, a movement attempts to influence politics rather than directly take part in electoral competition. But unlike the interest groups, movements have a loose organisation.
  • Their decision making is more informal and flexible. They depend much more on spontaneous mass participation than an interest group. The groups involved with movements also include a very wide variety.
  • Most of the movements are issue specific movements that seek to achieve a single objective within a limited time frame.
  • Others are more general or generic movements that seek to achieve a broad goal in the very long term. The Nepalese movement for democracy arose with the specific objective of reversing the king’s orders that led to suspension of democracy.
QUESTION: 39

The idea of Rule of Law has been taken by the Indian Constitution from:

Solution:

The concept of rule of law further requires that no person should be subjected to harsh or arbitrary treatment. The word 'law' in rule of law means that whether he is a man or a society, he must not be governed by a man or ruler but by law.

QUESTION: 40

Which of the following are correct regarding the Parliamentary System?

1. It is governed by experts.

2. It is an unstable government.

3. It is against separation of powers.

4. It can lead to despotism.

5. It is a responsible government.

Solution:

A. Unstable Government -

  1. There is no guarantee that a government can survive its tenure.
  2. The ministers depend on the mercy of the majority legislators.
  3. A no-confidence motion or political defection or multi-party coalition can make the government unstable.

B. No Continuity of Policies -

  1. Uncertainty of the tenure is not conductive for the formulation and implementation of long-term policies.
  2. Change in the ruling party is usually followed by changes in the policies of the government.

C. Dictatorship of the Cabinet -

When the ruling party enjoys an absolute majority in the Parliament, the cabinet becomes autocratic and exercises nearly unlimited powers.

D. Against Separation of Powers -

  • In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable.
  • Thus it goes against the theory of separation of powers. In fact, there is a fusion of powers.
QUESTION: 41

Due to which of the following reasons the founding fathers preferred the British parliamentary system?

1. Familiarity with the system.

2. More responsibility.

3. Separation of power.

4. Heterogeneous Indian Society.

Solution:

The founding fathers preferred the British parliamentary system because
A. Familiarity with the System -

  1. The parliamentary system had been in operation in India during the British rule.
  2. After this experience, it was questioned why we should go back and buy a novel experience.

B. Preference to More Responsibility -

  1. Dr B R ambedkar pointed out in the Constituent Assembly that ‘a democratic executive must satisfy two conditions: stability and responsibility.
  2. Unfortunately, it has not been possible so far to devise a system which can ensure both in equal degree.
  3. The American system gives more stability but less responsibility.
  4. The British system, on the other hand, gives more responsibility but less stability.’
  5. We have preferred more responsibility to more stability.

C. Necessity to Avoid Legislative - Executive Conflicts -

  1. Presidential government has conflicts between the legislature and the executive.
  2. Also an infant democracy could not afford to take the risk of a continuous conflict or threatened conflict between these two organs of the government.
QUESTION: 42

Which of the following is/are correct?

1. Both India and Britain allow only members of Parliament to be appointed as minister.

2. Both India and Britain can have a PM from the lower or upper house.

Solution:

The parliamentary system of government in India though largely based on the British parliamentary system has following differences -

  1. India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system.
  2. The Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain(that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position.
  3. The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament. The Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights.
  4. In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House (House of Commons)of the Parliament.
  5. In India, the prime minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament. (Indira Gandhi (1966), Deve Gowda (1996), and Manmohan Singh (2004), were members of the Rajya Sabha).
QUESTION: 43

Which of the following are the features on the basis of which the parliamentary system of government in India operates?

Solution:

The features are -
A. Nominal and Real Executives -

  1. The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) - head of the State.
  2. The Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive) - head of the government.

B. Majority Party Rule -

  1. The political party with majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government.
  2. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President.
  3. However, when no single party gets the majority, a coalition of parties may be invited by the President to form the government.

C. Collective Responsibility –

  1. This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government.
  2. Article 75 - the ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular.
  3. The principle implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the council of ministers headed by the prime minister) by passing a vote of no confidence.

D. Political Homogeneity -

  1. Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and thus they share the same political ideology.
  2. In coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus.

E. Double Membership -

  1. The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.
  2. The minister has to be a member of the Parliament. If not, he must get elected within 6 months else he cannot remain minister.

F. Leadership of the Prime Minister - The Prime Minister is the leader of the council of ministers, leader of the Parliament and leader of the party in power.Fusion of powers can be seen as opposed to separation of powers.

QUESTION: 44

The Ayushman Bharat scheme will subsume which among the following central schemes?
1. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY)
2. Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS)
3. Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS)

Solution:

The scheme will subsume the centrally sponsored schemes-Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) and the Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS).

QUESTION: 45

Which of the following are judicial and electoral powers and functions of the Parliament?

1. It can impeach the President.

2. The Parliament is authorized to make laws to regulate the elections.

3. It can amend the constitution.

4. It can punish its members for the breach of its privileges or its contempt.

Solution:

Judicial Powers and Functions -
1. It can impeach the President for the violation of the Constitution.

2. It can remove the Vice-President from his office.

3. It can recommend the removal of judges (including chief justice) of the Supreme Court and the high courts, chief election commissioner, comptroller and auditor general to the president.

4. It can punish its members or outsiders for the breach of its privileges or its contempt.

Electoral Powers and Functions -

1. The Parliament participates in the election of the President (along with the state legislative assemblies) and elects the Vice-President.

2. The Lok Sabha elects its Speaker and Deputy Speaker, while the Rajya Sabha elects its Deputy Chairman.

3. The Parliament is also authorized to make laws to regulate the elections to the offices of President and Vice-President, to both the Houses of Parliament and to both the Houses of state legislature.

4. Accordingly, Parliament enacted the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Election Act (1952), the Representation of People Act (1950), the Representation of People Act (1951), etc.

Other Powers and Functions -

1. It serves as the highest deliberative body in the country.

2. It discusses various issues of national and international significance.

3. It approves all the three types of emergencies (national, state and financial) proclaimed by the President.

4. It can create or abolish the state legislative councils on the recommendation of the concerned state legislative assemblies.

5. It can increase or decrease the area, alter the boundaries and change the names of states of the Indian Union.

6. It can regulate the organization and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts and can establish a common high court for two or more states.

QUESTION: 46

Which of the following are legislative and executive powers and functions of the Parliament?

1. Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List.

2. Parliament exercises control over the Executive through question-hour.

3. Lok Sabha can express lack of confidence in the government by no confidence motion.

4. It can recommend removal of judges.

Solution:

A. Legislative Powers and Functions -

  1. The primary function of Parliament is to make laws for the governance of the country.
  2. It has exclusive power to make laws on the subjects in the Union List (which at present has 100 subjects, originally 97 subjects) and on the residuary subjects (that is, subjects not enumerated in any of the 3 lists).
  3. With regard to Concurrent List (which has at present 52 subjects, originally 47 subjects), the Parliament has overriding powers, i.e. the law of Parliament prevails over the law of the state legislature in case of a conflict between the two.
  4. The Constitution also empowers the Parliament to make laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List under the following 5 abnormal circumstances - When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect. When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation. When two or more states make a joint request to the Parliament. When necessary to give effect to international agreements, treaties and conventions. When the President's Rule is in operation in the state.
  5. All the ordinances issued by the president (during the recess of the Parliament) must be approved by the Parliament within six weeks after its reassembly.
  6. An ordinance becomes inoperative if it is not approved by the parliament within that period.
  7. The Parliament makes laws in a skeleton form and authorises the Executive to make detailed rules and regulations within the framework of the parent law. This is known as delegated legislation or executive legislation or subordinate legislation. Such rules and regulations are placed before the Parliament for its examination.

B. Executive Powers and Functions -

  1. The Executive is responsible to the Parliament for its policies and acts.
  2. The Parliament exercises control over the Executive through question-hour, zero hour, half-an-hour discussion, short duration discussion, calling attention motion, adjournment motion, no-confidence motion, censure motion and other discussions.
  3. It also supervises the activities of the Executive with the help of its committees.
  4. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular.
  5. As a part of collective responsibility, there is individual responsibility, that is, each minister is individually responsible for the efficient administration of the ministry under his charge.
  6. The council of ministers can be removed from office by the Lok Sabha by passing a no-confidence motion.

The Lok Sabha can also express lack of confidence in the government in the following ways -

  1. By not passing a motion of thanks on the President’s inaugural address.
  2. By rejecting a money bill.
  3. By passing a censure motion or an adjournment motion.
  4. By defeating the government on a vital issue.
  5. By passing a cut motion. Therefore, “the first function of Parliament can be said to be to select the group which is to form the government, support and sustain it in power so long as it enjoys its confidence, and to expel it when it ceases to do so, and leave it to the people to decide at the next general election.”
QUESTION: 47

The budget is also known as:

Solution:

Article 112 of the Indian constitution “Annual Financial Statement”

QUESTION: 48

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

In the Presidential election, elected members of both houses of parliament, elected members of the state legislature and only elected members of Delhi and Puducherry Legislatures participate.

  1. Both elected and nominated members of the State legislative council
  2. Along with elected and nominated members of the State Legislative Council, other members who do NOT participate directly in the election of the President are: nominated members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, nominated members of legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
  3. Following members directly participate in the election:
    • The elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
    • The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the state
    • The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
QUESTION: 49

With reference to features of “Democracy”, consider the following statements:
1. Only leaders elected by people should rule the country.
2. People have the freedom to express views, freedom to organise and freedom to protest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers.In a democracy only leaders elected by people should rule the country. People have the freedom to express views, freedom to organise and freedom to protest.

QUESTION: 50

Who participates in the Presidential election?

Solution:

 In the Presidential election, elected members of both houses of parliament, elected members of the state legislature and only elected members of Delhi and Puducherry Legislatures participate.

  1. Both elected and nominated members of the State legislative council
  2. Along with elected and nominated members of the State Legislative Council, other members who do NOT participate directly in the election of the President are: nominated members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, nominated members of legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
  3. Following members directly participate in the election: a. the elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha b. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the state c. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
QUESTION: 51

Which of the following is true regarding vacating a seat of Member of Parliament?

1. If elected to both Parliament and state legislature, the member’s seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.

2. If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 14 days in which House he desires to serve.

3. The Constitution has no provision to declare the election void, if a disqualified candidate gets elected.

Solution:

Disqualification on Grounds of Defection - The Constitution says that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament if he/she is so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.
 

A. Under the defection law a member incurs disqualification -

  1. 1. If he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House.
  2. 2. If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party.
  3. 3. If any independently elected member joins any political party.
  4. 4. If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months. The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha. It is not decided by the President. In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review. Vacating Seats - A Member of Parliament vacates his seat in following scenarios.

B. Double Membership -

  1. A person cannot be a member of both Houses of Parliament at the same time.
  2. As per the Representation of People Act (1951) if a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve.
  3. If not intimated, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
  4. If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
  5. If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one. Else, both seats become vacant. Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time.The person’s seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.

C. Disqualification - If a Member of Parliament becomes subject to any of the disqualifications specified in the Constitution, his seat becomes vacant. It also includes disqualification on the grounds of defection.

D. Resignation - A member may resign his seat by writing to the Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha, as the case may be. The seat falls vacant when the resignation is accepted. But, the Chairman/Speaker may not accept the resignation if he is satisfied that it is not voluntary or genuine.

E. Absence - A House can declare the seat of a member vacant if he is absent from all its meetings for a period of 60 days without its permission. In computing the period of 60 days, no account shall be taken of any period during which the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days. Other cases - A member has to vacate his seat in the Parliament -

  1. if his election is declared void by the court;
  2. if he is expelled by the House;
  3. if he is elected to the office of President or Vice-President; and
  4. if he is appointed to the office of governor of a state.

Representation of the People Act (1951) enables the high court to declare an election void if a disqualified candidate is elected. There is no provision in the Constitution.The aggrieved party can appeal to the Supreme Court against the order of the high court in this regard.

QUESTION: 52

Consider the following statements about the First Gulf War.

1. It revealed the vast technological gap that had opened up between the US military capability and that of other states

2. It is also called the computer war

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The First Gulf War revealed the vast technological gap that had opened up between the US military capability and that of other states.
  • The highly publicised use of so- called ‘smart bombs’ by the US led some observers to call this a ‘computer war’. Widespread television coverage also made it a ‘video game war’, with viewers around the world watching the destruction of Iraqi forces live on TV in the comfort of their living rooms. Incredibly, the US may actually have made a profit from the war.
  • According to many reports, the US received more money from countries like Germany, Japan and Saudi Arabia than it had spent on the war.
QUESTION: 53

Consider the following statements:
1. Martial law is a system of rules that takes effect when a military authority takes control of the normal administration of justice.
2. A coup d’état is the sudden overthrow of a government illegally.
3. In communist system, the state controls all the big property and industry.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:
  • A. Coup: A coup d’état or simply a coup, is the sudden overthrow of a government illegally. It may or may not be violent in nature. The term is French for 'a sudden blow or strike to a state'.
  • B. Martial law: A system of rules that takes effect when a military authority takes control of the normal administration of justice.
  • C. Communist state: A state governed by a communist party without allowing other parties to compete for power. The state controls all the big property and industry.
QUESTION: 54

Consider the following statements about the operation Infinite Reach.

1. It was a series of cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda terrorist targets in Sudan and Afghanistan

2. It was ordered during the presidency of George W Bush

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Another significant US military action during the Clinton years was in response to the bombing of the US embassies in Nairobi, Kenya and Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania in 1998. These bombings were attributed to AlQaeda, a terrorist organisation strongly influenced by extremist Islamist ideas.
  • Within a few days of this bombing, President Clinton ordered Operation Infinite Reach, a series of cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda terrorist targets in Sudan and Afghanistan.
  • The US did not bother about the UN sanction or provisions of international law in this regard. It alleged that some of the targets were civilian facilities unconnected to terrorism.
QUESTION: 55

Consider the following statements regarding the Operation Iraqi Freedom.

1. The ostensible purpose of the invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of mass destruction

2. More than forty other countries joined in the operation

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • On 19 March 2003, the US launched its invasion of Iraq under the codename ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’.
  • More than forty other countries joined in the US-led ‘coalition of the willing’ after the UN refused to give its mandate to the invasion. The ostensible purpose of the invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of mass destruction (WMD).
  • Since no evidence of WMD has been unearthed in Iraq, it is speculated that the invasion was motivated by other objectives, such as controlling Iraqi oil fields and installing a regime friendly to the US. Although the government of Saddam Hussein fell swiftly, the US has not been able to ‘pacify Iraq. Instead, a full-fledged insurgency against US occupation was ignited in Iraq.
  • While the US has lost over 3,000 military personnel in the war, Iraqi casualties are very much higher It is conservatively estimated that 50,000 Iraqi civilians have been killed since the US-led invasion.
QUESTION: 56

Consider the following statements.

1. Hegemony arises when the dominant class or country can win the consent of dominant classes, by persuading the dominated classes to view the world in a manner favourable to the ascendancy of the dominant class

2. The notion of hegemony suggests that a dominant power deploys only military power to shape the behaviour of competing and lesser powers

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Hegemony as Soft Power: It would however be a mistake to see US hegemony in purely military and economic terms without considering the ideological or the cultural dimension of US hegemony.
  • This third sense of hegemony is about the capacity to ‘manufacture consent’. Here, hegemony implies class ascendancy in the social, political and particularly ideological spheres. Hegemony arises when the dominant class or country can win the consent of dominated classes, by persuading the dominated classes to view the world in a manner favourable to the ascendancy of the dominant class.
  • Adapted to the field of world politics, this notion of hegemony suggests that a dominant power deploys not only military power but also ideological resources to shape the behaviour of competing and lesser powers. The behaviour of the weaker countries is influenced in ways that favour the interests of the most powerful country, in particular its desire to remain pre-eminent. Consent, in other words, goes hand-in-hand with, and is often more effective than, coercion.
QUESTION: 57

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In 1934, the Indian National Congress made the demand for a Constituent Assembly
2. Between December 1945 and November 1949, the Constituent Assembly drafted a constitution for independent India.
3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was not a member of the Constituent Assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
  • In 1934, the Indian National Congress made the demand for a Constituent Assembly. During the Second World War, this assertion for an independent Constituent Assembly formed only of Indians gained momentum and this was convened in December 1946.
  • Between December 1946 and November 1949, the Constituent Assembly drafted a constitution for independent India. The members of the Constituent Assembly approached this task with the great idealism that the freedom struggle had helped to produce. There was an extraordinary sense of unity amongst the members of the Constituent Assembly.
  • Each of the provisions of the future constitution was discussed in great detail and there was a sincere effort to compromise and reach an agreement through consensus. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly.
QUESTION: 58

Consider the following statements regarding the strategy to hide in context of US hegemony.

1. This implies staying as far removed from the dominant power as possible

2. It may be an attractive, viable policy for small states

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Some people argue that it is strategically more prudent to take advantage of the opportunities that hegemony creates. For instance, raising economic growth rates requires increased trade, technology transfers, and investment, which are best acquired by working with rather than against the hegemon.
  • Thus, it is suggested that instead of engaging in activities opposed to the hegemonic power, it may be advisable to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic system. This is called the ‘bandwagon’ strategy. Another strategy open to states is to ‘hide’. This implies staying as far removed from the dominant power as possible.
  • There are many examples of this behaviour. China, Russia, the European Union—all of them, in different ways, are seeking to stay below the radar, as it were, and not overly and unduly antagonise the US.
  • However, this would not seem to be viable for the big, second-rank powers for very long. While it may be an attractive, viable policy for small states, it is hard to imagine mega-states like China, India, and Russia or huge agglomerations such as the EU being able to hide for any substantial length of time.
QUESTION: 59

Consider the following statements:
1. Democracy evolves through popular struggles.
2. Democratic conflict can be resolved through mass mobilisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Solution:
  • Democracy evolves through popular struggles. It is possible that some significant decisions may take place through consensus and may not involve any conflict at all. But that would be an exception.
  • Defining moments of democracy usually involve conflict between those groups who have exercised power and those who aspire for a share in power. These moments come when the country is going through transition to democracy, expansion of democracy or deepening of democracy.
  • Democratic conflict is resolved through mass mobilisation. Sometimes it is possible that the conflict is resolved by using the existing institutions like the parliament or the judiciary. But when there is a deep dispute, very often these institutions themselves get involved in the dispute. The resolution has to come from outside, from the people.
QUESTION: 60

Consider the following statements about the 'Marshall Plan'.

1. Under this, the USA extended massive financial help to revive European economy

2. Under the Marshall Plan, the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was established in 1948 to channel aid to the west European states

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:
  • European integration after 1945 was aided by the Cold War. America extended massive financial help for reviving Europe’s economy under what was called the ‘Marshall Plan’. The US also created a new collective security structure under NATO.
  • Under the Marshall Plan, the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was established in 1948 to channel aid to the west European states. It became a forum where the western European states began to cooperate on trade and economic issues.
  • The Council of Europe, established in 1949, was another step forward in political cooperation. The process of economic integration of European capitalist countries proceeded step by step (see Timeline of European Integration) leading to the formation of the European Economic Community in 1957.
QUESTION: 61

Consider the following statements regarding the European Union.

1. It has its own flag, anthem, founding date, and currency

2. It also has some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations

3. It is the world’s second biggest economy

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The European Union has evolved over time from an economic union to an increasingly political one. The EU has started to act more as a nation state. While the attempts to have a Constitution for the EU have failed, it has its own flag, anthem, founding date, and currency. It also has some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations.
  • The European Union has tried to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members, especially from the erstwhile Soviet bloc. The process has not proved easy, for people in many countries are not very enthusiastic in giving the EU powers that were exercised by the government of their country. There are also reservations about including some new countries within the EU.
  • The EU has economic, political and diplomatic, and military influence. The EU is the world’s second biggest economy with a GDP of more than $17 trillion in 2016, next to that of the United States of America. Its currency, the euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar. Its share of world trade is much larger than that of the United States allowing it to be more assertive in trade disputes with the US and China. Its economic power gives it influence over its closest neighbours as well as in Asia and Africa.
QUESTION: 62

Arrange the following events chronologically.

1. Treaty of Paris establishing the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC)

2. The EU is awarded the Nobel Peace Prize

3. Denmark, Ireland and the United Kingdom join the European Community (EC)

4. Unification of Germany

Choose from the following options.

Solution:

Timeline of European Integration:

  • 1951 April: Six west European countries, France, West Germany, Italy, Belgium, the Netherlands and Luxembourg signed the Treaty of Paris establishing the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC).
  • 1957 March 25: These six countries sign the Treaties of Rome establishing the European Economic Community (EEC) and the European Atomic Energy Community (Euratom).
  • 1973 January: Denmark, Ireland and the United Kingdom join the European Community (EC).
  • 1979 June: First direct elections to the European Parliament 1981 January: Greece joins the EC.
  • 1985 June: The Schengen Agreement abolishes border controls among the EC members.
  • 1986 January: Spain and Portugal join the EC.
  • 1990 October: Unification of Germany.
  • 1992 February 7: The Treaty of Maastricht was signed establishing the European Union (EU).
  • 1993 January: The single market was created.
  • 1995 January: Austria, Finland and Sweden join the EU.
  • 2002 January: Euro, the new currency, was introduced in the 12 EU members.
  • 2004 May: Ten new members, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Estonia, Hungary, Latvia, Lithuania, Malta, Poland, Slovakia and Slovenia join the EU.
  • 2007 January: Bulgaria and Romania join the EU. Slovenia adopts the Euro.
  • 2009 December: The Lisbon Treaty came into force.
  • 2012 : The EU is awarded the Nobel Peace Prize.
  • 2013: Croatia becomes the 28th member of the EU.
  • 2016: Referendum in Britain, 51.9 percent voters decide that Britain exit (Brexit) from the EU.
QUESTION: 63

With reference to International Monetary Fund (IMF), consider the following statements:
1. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest moneylenders for any country in the world.
2. Its member states have equal voting rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest moneylenders for any country in the world.
  • Its 189 member states (as on 12 April 2016) do not have equal voting rights. The vote of each country is weighed by how much money it has contributed to the IMF.
  • More than 40% of the voting power in the IMF is in the hands of only seven countries (US, Japan, Germany, France, UK, Italy and Canada). The remaining 182 countries have very little say in how these international organisations take Decisions.
QUESTION: 64

Consider the following statements.

1. The ASEAN security community was based on the conviction that outstanding territorial disputes should be solved only by armed confrontation

2. The objectives of the ASEAN Economic Community are to create a common market and production base within ASEAN states and to aid social and economic development in the region

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • With some of the fastest growing economies in the world, ASEAN broadened its objectives beyond the economic and social spheres.
  • In 2003, ASEAN moved along the path of the EU by agreeing to establish an ASEAN Community comprising three pillars, namely, the ASEAN Security Community, the ASEAN Economic Community and the ASEAN Socio-Cultural Community.
  • The ASEAN security community was based on the conviction that outstanding territorial disputes should not escalate into armed confrontation.
QUESTION: 65

Consider the following statements.

1. After the inception of the People’s Republic of China in 1949, its economy was based on the Soviet model

2. This model allowed China to use its resources to establish the foundations of an industrial economy on a scale that did not exist before

3. This model neglected issues like employment and social welfare of the citizens

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • After the inception of the People’s Republic of China in 1949, following the communist revolution under the leadership of Mao, its economy was based on the Soviet model.
  • The economically backward communist China chose to sever its links with the capitalist world. It had little choice but to fall back on its own resources and, for a brief period, on Soviet aid and advice.
  • The model was to create a state-owned heavy industries sector from the capital accumulated from agriculture. As it was short of foreign exchange that it needed in order to buy technology and goods on the world market, China decided to substitute imports by domestic goods.
  • This model allowed China to use its resources to establish the foundations of an industrial economy on a scale that did not exist before. Employment and social welfare was assured to all citizens, and China moved ahead of most developing countries in educating its citizens and ensuring better health for them. The economy also grew at a respectable rate of 5-6 per cent.
QUESTION: 66

Which of the following are the examples of sectional interest groups?
1. Trade unions
2. Business associations
3. Teachers association
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

All are examples of Sectional interest groups.

QUESTION: 67

Which of the following is not a ground for claiming discrimination?

Solution:
  • The Constitution of India guarantees certain fundamental rights to the citizens of India, including protection to individuals from discrimination only on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. ... These fundamental rights are available only against the State.
QUESTION: 68

Consider the following statements regarding the Cold War.

1. The Cold War referred to the competition, the tensions and a series of confrontations between the United States and Soviet Union, backed by their respective allies

2. The eastern alliance, headed by the US, represented the ideology of liberal democracy and capitalism while the western alliance, headed by the Soviet Union, was committed to the ideology of socialism and communism

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The Cuban Missile Crisis was a high point of what came to be known as the Cold War. The Cold War referred to the competition, the tensions and a series of confrontations between the United States and Soviet Union, backed by their respective allies.
  • Fortunately, however, it never escalated into a ‘hot war’, that is, a full-scale war between these two powers. There were wars in various regions, with the two powers and their allies involved in warfare and in supporting regional allies, but at least the world avoided another global war.
  • The Cold War was not simply a matter of power rivalries, of military alliances, and of the balance of power. These were accompanied by a real ideological conflict as well, a difference over the best and the most appropriate way of organising political, economic, and social life all over the world.
  • The western alliance, headed by the US, represented the ideology of liberal democracy and capitalism while the eastern alliance, headed by the Soviet Union, was committed to the ideology of socialism and communism.
QUESTION: 69

Consider the following statements:
1. Equality is an important principle of our Constitution.
2. The government has set up anganwadis in several villages in the country to reduce the inequality between the sexes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Equality is an important principle of our Constitution. The Constitution says that being male or female should not become a reason for discrimination.
  • To fulfill this , the government takes positive steps to reduce the inequality between both the sexes. For example, government recognises that burden of childcare and housework falls on women and girls.
  • This naturally has an impact on whether girls can attend school or whether women can work outside the house and what kind of jobs and careers they can have.To tackle this one of the steps that government has taken is to set up anganwadis or child-care centres in several villages in the country.
QUESTION: 70

Consider the following statements regarding the concept of ‘deterrence’:

1. If one country tries to attack and disable the nuclear weapons of its rival, the other would not be left with enough nuclear weapons to inflict unacceptable destruction

2. Both sides have the capacity to retaliate against an attack and to cause so much destruction that neither can afford to initiate war

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • In the event of a nuclear war, both sides will be so badly harmed that it will be impossible to declare one side or the other as the winner.
  • Even if one of them tries to attack and disable the nuclear weapons of its rival, the other would still be left with enough nuclear weapons to inflict unacceptable destruction.
  • This is called the logic of ‘deterrence’: both sides have the capacity to retaliate against an attack and to cause so much destruction that neither can afford to initiate war. Thus, the Cold War — in spite of being an intense form of rivalry between great powers remained a ‘cold’ and not hot or shooting war. The deterrence relationship prevents war but not the rivalry between powers.
QUESTION: 71

In which of the following states of India the Kittiko-Hachchiko movement took place during the 1980s?

Solution:
  • In 1984, the Karnataka government set up a company called Karnataka Pulpwood Limited.
  • About 30,000 hectares of land was given virtually free to this company for 40 years. Much of this land was used by local farmers as grazing land for their cattle.
  • However the company began to plant eucalyptus trees on this land, which could be used for making paper pulp.
  • In 1987, a movement called Kittiko-Hachchiko (meaning, pluck and plant) started a non-violent protest, where people plucked the eucalyptus plants and planted saplings of trees that were useful to the people.
QUESTION: 72

Consider the following statements

1. NATO was an association of twelve states which declared that an armed attack on any one of them in Europe or North America would be regarded as an attack on all of them

2. Warsaw Pact was created in 1945 and its principal function was to counter NATO’s forces in Europe

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The western alliance was formalised into an organisation, the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation(NATO), which came into existence in April 1949.
  • It was an association of twelve states which declared that an armed attack on any one of them in Europe or North America would be regarded as an attack on all of them. Each of these states would be obliged to help the other.
  • The eastern alliance, known as the Warsaw Pact, was led by the Soviet Union. It was created in 1955 and its principal function was to counter NATO’s forces in Europe. International alliances during the Cold War era were determined by the requirements of the superpowers and the calculations of the smaller states.
  • As noted above, Europe became the main arena of conflict between the superpowers. In some cases, the superpowers used their military power to bring countries into their respective alliances.
QUESTION: 73

The ideas of justice, equality and fraternity are found in the of the Indian Constitution:

Solution:
  • The preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out guidelines, which guide the people of the nation, and to present the principles of the Constitution, and to indicate the source from which the document derives its authority, and meaning.
  • The hopes and aspirations of the people are described in it. The preamble can be referred to as the preface which highlights the entire Constitution. It was adopted on 26 November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly and came into effect on 26 January 1950, celebrated as the Republic day in India.
QUESTION: 74

Arrange the following events Chronologically.

1. Signing of the Baghdad Pact, later CENTO

2. Cuban Missile Crisis

3. Fall of the Berlin Wall

4. Unification of Germany

Choose from the following options.

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

Consider the following statements regarding non alignment movement.

1. The first non-aligned summit was held in Belgrade in 1961

2. The first summit was attended by more than 100 member states

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The roots of NAM went back to the friendship between three leaders — Yugoslavia’s Josip Broz Tito, India’s Jawaharlal Nehru, and Egypt’s leader Gamal Abdel Nasser — who held a meeting in 1956. Indonesia’s Sukarno and Ghana’s Kwame Nkrumah strongly supported them.
  • These five leaders came to be known as the five founders of NAM. The first non-aligned summit was held in Belgrade in 1961.
  • This was the culmination of at least three factors: (i) cooperation among these five countries, (ii) growing Cold War tensions and its widening arenas, and (iii) the dramatic entry of many newly decolonised African countries into the inter - national arena. By 1960, there were 16 new African members in the UN. The first summit was attended by 25 member states. Over the years, the membership of NAM has expanded. The latest meeting, the 17th summit, was held in Venezuela in 2016. It included 120 member states and 17 observer countries.
QUESTION: 76

With reference to Soviet Union, consider the following statements:
1. The disintegration of the Soviet Union accelerated the process of democracy.
2. Soviet Union broke down in 1991.
3. All the constituent Republics of Soviet Union emerged as independent countries after its breakup.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The disintegration of the Soviet Union accelerated the process of democracy in the 1990s. The Soviet Union controlled many of its neighbouring communist countries in Eastern Europe.
  • Poland and several other countries became free from the control of the Soviet Union during 1989-90. They chose to become democracies.Finally the Soviet Union itself broke down in 1991.
  • The Soviet Union comprised 15 Republics. All the constituent Republics emerged as independent countries. Most of them became democracies. Thus the end of Soviet control on East Europe and the break up of the Soviet Union led to a big change in the political map of the world.
QUESTION: 77

Consider the following statements.

1. According to the ‘two-nation theory’ advanced by the Muslim League, India consisted of not one but two ‘people’, Hindus and Muslims

2. The Congress opposed the demand for Pakistan but supported this theory

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:
  • The drawing of the border demarcating the territory of each country marked the culmination of political developments that you have read about in the history textbooks. According to the ‘two nation theory’ advanced by the Muslim League, India consisted of not one but two ‘people’, Hindus and Muslims.
  • That is why it demanded Pakistan, a separate country for the Muslims. The Congress opposed this theory and the demand for Pakistan. But several political developments in 1940s, the political competition between the Congress and the Muslim League and the British role led to the decision for the creation of Pakistan.
QUESTION: 78

Consider the following statements:
1. Maoists are those communists who believe in the ideology of Mao, the leader of the Chinese revolution.
2. Maoists seek to overthrow the government through an armed revolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Maoists are those communists who believe in the ideology of Mao, the leader of the Chinese revolution. They seek to overthrow the government through an armed revolution so as to establish the rule of the peasants and workers.

QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements about the Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

1. He was the leader of the North Western Frontier Province and known as ‘Frontier Gandhi'

2. He opposed to the two-nation theory

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:

Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, the undisputed leader of the North Western Frontier Province and known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’, was staunchly opposed to the two nation theory. Eventually, his voice was simply ignored and the NWFP was made to merge with Pakistan.

QUESTION: 80

B. R. Ambedkar described the right as the 'Heart and Soul of the Constitution of India'?

Solution:
  • Article 32 of the Indian constitution provides for constitutional remedies against the violation or transgression of fundamental rights.
  • The fundamental rights are of highest importance to the individuals.
  • They are basic conditions for the fullest development of personality. Article 32, which was referred to “as the very soul of the constitution” by Dr. Ambedkar, provides for constitutional remedies.
QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements.

1. The British Indian Provinces were directly under the control of the British government

2. The Princely States, enjoyed some form of control over their internal affairs as long as they opposed British supremacy

3. Princely States covered one-third of the land area of the British Indian Empire

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • British India was divided into what were called the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. The British Indian Provinces were directly under the control of the British government.
  • On the other hand, several large and small states ruled by princes, called the Princely States, enjoyed some form of control over their internal affairs as long as they accepted British supremacy.
  • This was called paramountcy or suzerainty of the British crown. Princely States covered one-third of the land area of the British Indian Empire and one out of four Indians lived under princely rule.
QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements.

1. Just before Independence it was announced by the British that with the end of their rule over India, paramountcy of the British crown over Princely States would also lapse

2. The decision to become was left not to the people but to the princely rulers of these states

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Just before Independence it was announced by the British that with the end of their rule over India, paramountcy of the British crown over Princely States would also lapse. This meant that all these states, as many as 565 in all, would become legally independent.
  • The British government took the view that all these states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished. This decision was left not to the people but to the princely rulers of these states. This was a very serious problem and could threaten the very existence of a united India.
QUESTION: 83

Which of the following are the purpose of the constitution?
1. It lays out certain ideals that form the basis of the kind of country.
2. It defines the nature of a country’s political system.
3. It prevents tyranny or domination by the majority over the minority.
4. It helps to save us from ourselves.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The Constitution serves the following purposes.
1.
The Constitution lays out certain ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that we as citizens aspire to live in i.e constitution tells us about the fundamental nature of our society.
2. The Constitution defines the nature of a country’s political system. For example countries that have adopted a democratic form of government or polity, the Constitution plays a crucial role in laying out certain important guidelines that govern decision making within these societies.
3. The Constitution ensures that a dominant group does not use its power against less powerful people or groups i.e it prevent tyranny or domination by the majority over minority.
4. The Constitution helps to save us from ourselves. This may sound strange but what is meant by this is that we might at times feel strongly about an issue that might go against our larger interests and the Constitution helps us guard against this. In other words, the Constitution helps to protect us against certain decisions that we might take that could have an adverse effect on the larger principles that the country believes in.

QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements.

1. The people of most of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian union.

2. The government was prepared to be flexible in giving autonomy to some regions.

3. The idea was to accommodate plurality and adopt a flexible approach in dealing with the demands of the regions

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into small principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked.
  • Sardar Patel was India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period immediately following Independence. He played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states firmly but diplomatically and bringing most of them into the Indian Union. It may look easy now.
  • But it was a very complicated task which required skilful persuasion. For instance, there were 26 small states in today’s Orissa. Saurashtra region of Gujarat had 14 big states, 119 small states and numerous other different administrations.
QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Secularism.
1. The essence of secularism is that no one should be discriminated against on grounds of their religious practices and beliefs.
2. Secularism refers to the separation of religion from the State.
3. The Indian Constitution allows individuals the freedom to live by their religious beliefs and practices as they interpret these.
Which of the statements given above are NOT correct?

Solution:
  • The most important aspect of secularism is its separation of religion from State power. This is important for a country to function democratically.
  • The essence of secularism is that no one should be discriminated against on grounds of their religious practices and beliefs. This statement rests on the assumption that all forms of domination related to religion should end.
  • The Indian Constitution allows individuals the freedom to live by their religious beliefs and practices as they interpret these. In keeping with this idea of religious freedom for all, India also adopted a strategy of separating the power of religion and the power of the State.
QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statements.

1. The rulers of most of the states signed a document called the ‘Instrument of Accession’ which meant that their state agreed to become a part of the Union of India

2. The issue of Junagarh was resolved after a plebiscite confirmed people’s desire to join India

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Before 15 August 1947, peaceful negotiations had brought almost all states whose territories were contiguous to the new boundaries of India, into the Indian Union.
  • The rulers of most of the states signed a document called the ‘Instrument of Accession’ which meant that their state agreed to become a part of the Union of India. Accession of the Princely States of Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur proved more difficult than the rest.
  • The issue of Junagarh was resolved after a plebiscite confirmed people’s desire to join India. You will read about Kashmir in Chapter Eight. Here, let us look at the cases of Hyderabad and Manipur.
QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements

1. The Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad

2. He entered into what was called the Standstill Agreement with India in November 1947 for a year while negotiations with the Indian government were going on

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:
  • Hyderabad, the largest of the Princely States was surrounded entirely by Indian territory. Some parts of the old Hyderabad state are today parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Its ruler carried the title, ‘Nizam’, and he was one of the world’s richest men.
  • The Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad. He entered into what was called the Standstill Agreement with India in November 1947 for a year while negotiations with the Indian government were going on.
QUESTION: 88

Green belt movement happened in which of the following country:

Solution:
  • The Green Belt Movement (GBM) is an indigenous, grassroots, non-governmental organization based in Nairobi, Kenya that takes a holistic approach to a development by focusing on environmental conservation, community development and capacity building The Green Belt Movement has planted 30 million trees across Kenya.
  • It was founded by Wangari Maathai, a Kenyan environmental political activist and Nobel laureate.
QUESTION: 89

Consider the following statements regarding the merger of Manipur with India.

1. While the state Congress opposed the merger, other political parties were wanted to this

2. The Government of India succeeded in pressurising the Maharaja into signing a Merger Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:

In the Legislative Assembly of Manipur there were sharp differences over the question of merger of Manipur with India. While the state Congress wanted the merger, other political parties were opposed to this. The Government of India succeeded in pressurising the Maharaja into signing a Merger Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur. This caused a lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements.

1. The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and it came into effect on 26 January 1950

2. The Election Commission of India was set up in January 1950

3. Sukumar Sen became the first Chief Election Commissioner

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and signed on 24 January 1950 and it came into effect on 26 January 1950. At that time the country was being ruled by an interim government.
  • It was now necessary to install the first democratically elected government of the country. The Constitution had laid down the rules, now the machine had to be put in place. Initially it was thought that this was only a matter of a few months. The Election Commission of India was set up in January 1950.
  • Sukumar Sen became the first Chief Election Commissioner. The country’s first general elections were expected sometime in 1950 itself.
QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements.

1. In the second and the third general elections, held in 1957 and 1962 respectively, the Congress maintained the same position in the Lok Sabha by winning three-fourth of the seats

2. None of the opposition parties could win even one-tenth of the number of seats won by the Congress

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:
  • It means both are Correct. A look at the electoral map would give you a sense of the dominance of the Congress during the period 1952-1962.
  • In the second and the third general elections, held in 1957 and 1962 respectively, the Congress maintained the same position in the Lok Sabha by winning three-fourth of the seats. None of the opposition parties could win even one-tenth of the number of seats won by the Congress. In the state assembly elections, the Congress did not get a majority in a few cases. The most significant of these cases was in Kerala in 1957.
QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements:
1. Ghana used to be a British colony called Diamond Coast.
2. It was among the first countries in Africa to gain independence.
3. Kwame Nkrumah became the first prime minister and then the president of Ghana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Ghana used to be a British colony named Gold Coast. It became independent in 1957. It was among the first countries in Africa to gain independence. It inspired other African countries to struggle for freedom.
  • Kwame Nkrumah (pronounced Enkruma), son of a goldsmith and himself a teacher, was active in the independence struggle of his country. After independence, Nkrumah became the first prime minister and then the president of Ghana.
  • He was a friend of Jawaharlal Nehru and an inspiration for democrats in AfricaBut unlike Nehru, he got himself elected president for life. Soon after in 1966, he was overthrown by the military.
QUESTION: 93

Consider the following statements.

1. On the eve of independence, India had before it, two models of modern development: the liberal-capitalist model as in the US and the socialist model as in the Europe

2. Communist Party of India opposed the Soviet model but those of the Socialist Party and leaders like Nehru within the Congress supported the Soviet Model

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • On the eve of independence, India had before it, two models of modern development: the liberal-capitalist model as in much of Europe and the US and the socialist model as in the USSR. You have already studied these two ideologies and read about the ‘cold war’ between the two superpowers.
  • There were many in India then who were deeply impressed by the Soviet model of development. These included not just the leaders of the Communist Party of India, but also those of the Socialist Party and leaders like Nehru within the Congress. There were very few supporters of the American style capitalist development.
QUESTION: 94

Which of the following articles guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law for all individuals residing within the territory of India?

Solution:
  • Article 14 of the Constitution of India reads as under: “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.”
QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements about the Bombay Plan.

1. A section of the big industrialists got together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal for setting up a planned economy in the country

2. It wanted the state to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investments

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Thus the Planning Commission was not a sudden invention. In fact, it has a very interesting history. We commonly assume that private investors, such as industrialists and big business entrepreneurs, are averse to ideas of planning: they seek an open economy without any state control in the flow of capital.
  • That was not what happened here. Rather, a section of the big industrialists got together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal for setting up a planned economy in the country. It was called the Bombay Plan. The Bombay Plan wanted the state to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investments.
  • Thus, from left to right, planning for development was the most obvious choice for the country after independence. Soon after India became independent, the Planning Commission came into being. The Prime Minister was its Chairperson. It became the most influential and central machinery for deciding what path and strategy India would adopt for its development.
QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements.

1. Plan budget that is spent on routine items on a yearly basis

2. A five year plan has the advantage of permitting the government to focus on the larger picture and make long-term intervention in the economy

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:

Accordingly the budget of the central and all the State governments is divided into two parts: ‘non-plan’ budget that is spent on routine items on a yearly basis and ‘plan’ budget that is spent on a five year basis as per the priorities fixed by the plan. A five year plan has the advantage of permitting the government to focus on the larger picture and make long-term intervention in the economy.

QUESTION: 97

With respect to Movement of April 2006 in Nepal, consider the following statements:
1. This struggle came to be known as Nepal’s second movement for democracy.
2. It was against King Birendra of Nepal who was not prepared to accept democratic rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Nepal witnessed an extraordinary popular movement in April 2006. The movement was aimed at restoring democracy.Nepal, was one of the ‘third wave’ countries that had won democracy in 1990. King Birendra, who has accepted this transition from absolute monarchy to constitutional monarchy, was killed in a mysterious massacre of the royal family in 2001.
  • King Gyanendra, the new king of Nepal, was not prepared to accept democratic rule. He took advantage of the weakness and unpopularity of the democratically elected government.
QUESTION: 98

Which of the following models were adopted by India in five year plans?

Solution:
  • India did not follow any of the two known paths to development – it did not accept the capitalist model of development in which development was left entirely to the private sector, nor did it follow the socialist model in which private property was abolished and all the production was controlled by the state.
  • Elements from both these models were taken and mixed together in India. That is why it was described as a ‘mixed economy’. Much of the agriculture, trade and industry were left in private hands. The state controlled key heavy industries, provided industrial infrastructure, regulated trade and made some crucial interventions in agriculture.
QUESTION: 99

Consider the following statements about the Green Revolution.

1. It was decided to put more resources into those areas which already had irrigation and those farmers who were already well-off

2. Thus the government offered high-yielding variety seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and better irrigation at highly subsidised prices

3. The government also gave a guarantee to buy the produce of the farmers at a given price

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The Green Revolution: In the face of the prevailing food-crisis, the country was clearly vulnerable to external pressures and dependent on food aid, mainly from the United States. The United States, in turn, pushed India to change its economic policies.
  • The government adopted a new strategy for agriculture in order to ensure food sufficiency. Instead of the earlier policy of giving more support to the areas and farmers that were lagging behind, now it was decided to put more resources into those areas which already had irrigation and those farmers who were already well-off.
  • The argument was that those who already had the capacity could help increase production rapidly in the short run. Thus the government offered high-yielding variety seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and better irrigation at highly subsidised prices.
  • The government also gave a guarantee to buy the produce of the farmers at a given price. This was the beginning of what was called the ‘green revolution’.
QUESTION: 100

Consider the following assertions:
1. There is the strict separation between religion and the State in American secularism.
2. In Indian secularism the State can intervene in religious affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • There is one significant way in which Indian secularism differs from secularism as practised in the United States of America.Unlike the strict separation between religion and the State in American secularism, in Indian secularism the State can intervene in religious affairs.
  • Indian Constitution intervened in Hindu religious practices in order to abolish untouchability.
  • In Indian secularism, though the State is not strictly separate from religion it does maintain a principled distance vis-à-vis religion.This means that any interference in religion by the State has to be based on the ideals laid out in the Constitution.
  • These ideals serve as the standard through which we can judge whether the State is or is not behaving according to secular principles.