UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 2


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 2


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This mock test of UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 2 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 2 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 2 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 2 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC: Indian Polity NCERT Based Test- 2 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Which of the following factors are crucial in deciding the outcome of politics of social divisions.

1. The way people perceive their identities.

2. The way political leaders raise the demands of any community.

3. The way the government reacts to demands of different groups.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Three factors are crucial in deciding the outcome of politics of social divisions.

  1. First of all the outcome depends on how people perceive their identities. If people see their identities in singular and exclusive terms, it becomes very difficult to accommodate. It is much easier if the people see that their identities are multiple and are complementary with the national identity.
  2. Second, it depends on how political leaders raise the demands of any community. It is easier to accommodate demands that are within the constitutional framework and are not at the cost of another community. For example the demand for ‘only Sinhala’ was at the cost of the interest and identity of the Tamil community in Sri Lanka.
  3. Third, it depends on how the government reacts to demands of different groups. if the rulers are willing to share power and accommodate the reasonable demands of minority communities, social divisions become less threatening for the country. But if they try to suppress such a demand in the name of national unity, the end result is often quite the opposite. Such attempts at forced integration often sow the seeds of disintegration.
QUESTION: 2

Regarding the Preamble Of the constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values called the Preamble to the constitution.

2. Preamble contains the philosophy on which the entire Constitution has been built.

3. Preamble provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of government, to find out whether it is good or bad.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:
  • Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle and were in turn nurtured by it, formed the foundation for India’s democracy. These values are embedded in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. This is called the Preamble to the constitution. Taking inspiration from American model, most countries in the contemporary world have chosen to begin their constitutions with a preamble.
  • The Preamble of the Constitution reads like a poem on democracy. It contains the philosophy on which the entire Constitution has been built. It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of government, to find out whether it is good or bad. It is the soul of the Indian Constitution.
QUESTION: 3

The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) brought out a report in 1972 entitled Towards a New Trade Policy for Development. It proposed a reform of the global trading system so as to:

1. Give the LDCs control over the natural resources of developed Western countries

2. Reduce the cost of technology from the Western countries

3. Provide the LDCs with a greater role in international economic institutions

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:

The idea of a New Inter - national Economic Order (NIEO) originated with this realisation. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) brought out a report in 1972 entitled Towards a New Trade Policy for Development. The report proposed a reform of the global trading system so as to:

  • give the LDCs control over their natural resources exploited by the developed Western countries,
  • obtain access to Western markets so that the LDCs could sell their products and, therefore, make trade more beneficial for the poorer countries,
  • reduce the cost of technology from the Western countries, and
  • provide the LDCs with a greater role in international economic institutions.

Gradually, the nature of nonalignment changed to give greater importance to economic issues. In 1961, at the first summit in Belgrade, economic issues had not been very important. By the mid-1970s, they had become the most important issues. As a result, NAM became an economic pressure group. By the late 1980s, however, the NIEO initiative had faded, mainly because of the stiff opposition from the developed countries who acted as a united group while the non-aligned countries struggled to maintain their unity in the face of this opposition.

QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements.

1. People who have fled their homes but remain within national borders are called ‘internally displaced people’.

2. Those who voluntarily leave their home countries are called refugees

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Poverty in the South has also led to large-scale migration to seek a better life, especially better economic opportunities, in the North. This has created international political friction. International law and norms make a distinction between migrants (those who voluntarily leave their home countries) and refugees (those who flee from war, natural disaster or political persecution).
  • States are generally supposed to accept refugees, but they do not have to accept migrants. While refugees leave their country of origin, people who have fled their homes but remain within national borders are called ‘internally displaced people’. Kashmiri Pandits that fled the violence in the Kashmir Valley in the early 1990s are an example of an internally displaced community
QUESTION: 5

Which of the following is/are true:

1. The Supreme Court can review its own judgements.

2. Scope of Judicial review in the USA is broader than that in India.

Solution:

Power of Judicial Review -

1. Judicial review means to check the constitutional validity of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments.

2. It is essential for protecting fundamental rights of the citizens.

3. It is also needed to maintain a balance between Union and States.

4. Judicial review helps in upholding the principle of the supremacy of the Constitution.

5. However, the phrase ‘judicial review’ has not been used anywhere in the Constitution.

One can challenge the constitutionality of a legislative enactment or an executive order in Supreme Court if -

1. Fundamental Rights are infringed by it.

2. It is incompatible with constitutional provisions.

3. It is outside the ambit of the authority which framed it.

a. Scope of Judicial review in the USA is broader than that in India.

b. Our Supreme Court follows procedure established by law.

c. This means that they see only substantive questions i.e., if the law is within the powers of the authority concerned or not.

d. It does not check the reasonableness of the law.

e. American Supreme Court follows due process of law that checks substantive questions as well as reasonableness of the law.

Other Powers of Supreme Court -

1. It is the final authority for disputes regarding the election of the president and the Vice-President.

2. On reference made by the President, it enquires into the conduct of the chairman and members of the UPSC and gives advice which is binding on the President.

3. It can review its own judgement or order.

4. It can withdraw cases pending before the high courts and dispose of them by itself. It can also transfer a case or appeal which is pending before one high court to another high court.

5. Its law is binding on all courts in India and decree or order is enforceable throughout India.

6. It is the ultimate interpreter of the Constitution.

7. It has judicial superintendence and control over all the courts and tribunals in India.

8. Parliament can enlarge the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction and powers with respect to matters in the Union list.

9. Also, a special agreement of the Centre and the states can enlarge its jurisdiction and powers with respect to other matters.

QUESTION: 6

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are not correct:

1. The presiding officer, Nyayadhikari shall be appointed by the Gram Panchayat with the consultation of the State Government.

2. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.

3. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/re-conciliators.

Select the correct answer code:

Solution:
  • The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 has been enacted to provide for the establishment of the Gram Nyayalayas at the grass roots level for the purposes of providing access to justice to the citizens at their doorsteps and to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to social, economic or other disabilities.
  • The presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) shall be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court. The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts.
  • The Gram Nyayalaya shall try to settle the disputes as far as possible by bringing about conciliation between the parties and for this purpose, it shall make use of the conciliators to be appointed for this purpose.
QUESTION: 7

Consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was a member of the Constituent Assembly.

2. He wrote a magazine called 'Young India'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the Constituent Assembly. Yet there were many members who followed his vision. While writing in his magazine Young India in 1931, he had spelt out what he wanted the Constitution to do.

QUESTION: 8

Pahal scheme is related to?

Solution:

PAHAL (DBTL) Scheme: LPG in India is provided at subsidized rates, ensuring that people can afford it. The typical subsidy amount ranges between Rs.160 and Rs.170 per cylinder, helping people save a considerable sum each year.

QUESTION: 9

Consider the following statements.

1. Meerut agitation was seen as a great show of rural power and power of farmer cultivators

2. These agitating farmers were members of the Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU), an organisation of farmers from Western Maharashtra and Rajasthan

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • In January 1988, around twenty thousand farmers had gathered in the city of Meerut, Uttar Pradesh. They were protesting against the government decision to increase electricity rates.
  • The farmers camped for about three weeks outside the district collector’s office until their demands were fulfilled. It was a very disciplined agitation of the farmers and all those days they received regular food supply from the nearby villages.
  • The Meerut agitation was seen as a great show of rural power – power of farmer cultivators. These agitating farmers were members of the Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU), an organisation of farmers from western Uttar Pradesh and Haryana regions.
QUESTION: 10

Consider the following statements:

1. In 1928, Motilal Nehru and other Congress leaders drafted a constitution for India.

2. In 1941, the resolution at the Karachi session of the Indian National Congress dwelt on how independent India’s constitution should look like.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • As far back as in 1928, Motilal Nehru and eight other Congress leaders drafted a constitution for India. In 1931, the resolution at the Karachi session of the Indian National Congress dwelt on how independent India’s constitution should look like.
  • Both these documents were committed to the inclusion of universal adult franchise, right to freedom and equality and to protecting the rights of minorities in the constitution of independent India.
QUESTION: 11

Which of the following is/are correct:

1. To be appointed a Supreme Court Judge, a person has to be a judge of a high court for at least 5 years.

2. Presidential reference needs to be decided by a Bench of at least 7 judges.

Solution:

Appointing Chief Justice of India -

1. Senior-most judge of the Supreme Court used to be the Chief Justice of India from 1950 to 1973.

Qualifications of Judges - A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court unless -

1. he is a citizen of India;

2. has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or

3. has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or

4. is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist. there is no prescribed minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.

QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements with reference to Public facilities:

1. Electricity, public transport, schools are known as public facilities.

2. The important characteristic of a public facility is that once it is provided, its benefits can be shared by many people

3. One of the most important functions of the government is to ensure that public facilities are made available to everyone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • There are essential facilities that need to be provided for everyone, for example healthcare and sanitation.Similarly, there are things like electricity, public transport, schools and colleges that are also necessary.
  • These are known as public facilities. The important characteristic of a public facility is that once it is provided, its benefits can be shared by many people. For instance, a school in the village will enable many children to get educated. One of the most important functions of the government is to ensure that these public facilities are made available to everyone.
QUESTION: 13

Which of the following states have no panchayati raj institution at all?

Solution:

Nagaland, Meghalaya & Mizoram there are no any Panchayati Raj as because they exempted under Article 243M(2) and also enjoying Special Constitutional Provision under Article 371A, 371B, 371C,371F,371G,371H by the Constitution of India.

QUESTION: 14

Which of the following is not matched correctly?

Solution:

Rights against exploitation: Article 20-22

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements.

1. From the late 1950s, people speaking the Punjabi language started agitating for a separate State for themselves

2. This demand was finally accepted and the States of Punjab and Haryana were created in 1966

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:

From the late 1950s, people speaking the Punjabi language started agitating for a separate State for themselves. This demand was finally accepted and the States of Punjab and Haryana were created in 1966. Later, the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were created. Thus the challenge of diversity was met by redrawing the internal boundaries of the country.

QUESTION: 16

Dalit Panthers, a militant organisation of the Dalit youth, was formed in:

Solution:
  • By the early nineteen seventies, the first generation Dalit graduates, especially those living in city slums began to assert themselves from various platforms.
  • Dalit Panthers, a militant organisation of the Dalit youth, was formed in Maharashtra in 1972 as a part of these assertions. In the post-independence period, Dalit groups were mainly fighting against the perpetual caste based inequalities and material injustices that the Dalits faced in spite of constitutional guarantees of equality and justice.
  • Effective implementation of reservations and other such policies of social justice was one of their prominent demands.
QUESTION: 17

Consider the following statements about the Non-alignment as a strategy.

1. It was based on a recognition that decolonised states share a historical affiliation and can become a powerful force if they come together

2. It was based on a resolve to democratise the international system by thinking about an alternative world order to redress existing inequities

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • However, non- alignment contained some core values and enduring ideas. It was based on a recognition that decolonised states share a historical affiliation and can become a powerful force if they come together.
  • It meant that the poor and often very small countries of the world need not become followers of any of the big powers, that they could pursue an independent foreign policy. It was also based on a resolve to democratise the international system by thinking about an alternative world order to redress existing inequities. These core ideas remain relevant even after the Cold War has ended.
QUESTION: 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was constituted for ‘better control’ of the vernacular press and effectively punished and repressed seditious writing. The provisions of the Act are given below:

(A) The district magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer and publisher of any vernacular newspaper to enter into a bond with the Government undertaking not to cause disaffection against the government or antipathy between persons of different religions, caste, race through published material; the printer and publisher could also be required to deposit security which could be seized if the offences reoccurred.

(B) The magistrate’s action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law.

(C) A vernacular newspaper could get an exemption from the operation of the Act by submitting proof to a government censor.

QUESTION: 19

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. Indian constitution provides for a provision of the Supreme Court under Part V

2. Seniority at the apex court is determined by age of the judges

3. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court and authorises the parliament to appoint other places or places as seat of the Supreme Court.

4. The practice to appoint the senior most judge of the Supreme Court as the chief justice of India has been never violated till present 5. Collegium system was born through a First Judges case

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

Solution:

The Indian constitution provides for a provision of the Supreme Court under Part V (The Union) and Chapter 6 (The Union Judiciary). Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, independence, jurisdiction, powers and procedures of the Supreme Court.

  1. 1. Seniority at the apex court is determined not by age
    • The date a judge was appointed to the Supreme Court.
    • If two judges are elevated to the Supreme Court on the same day:
    • The one who was sworn in first as a judge would trump another.
    • If both were sworn in as judges on the same day, the one with more years of high court service would ‘win’ in the seniority stakes.
    • An appointment from the bench would ‘trump’ in seniority an appointee from the bar.
  2. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. It also authorises the CJI to appoint other places (not parliament) or places as seats of the Supreme Court.
  3. Appointment of Chief Justice From 1950 to 1973:
    The practice has been to appoint the senior most judge of the Supreme Court as the chief justice of India. This established convention was violated in 1973 when A N Ray was appointed as the Chief Justice of India by superseding three senior judges. Again in 1977, M U Beg was appointed as the chief justice of India by superseding the then senior-most judge.
  4. Collegium system was born through “three judges case” and it has been in practice since 1998. It is used for appointments and transfers of judges in High courts and Supreme Courts. There is no mention of the Collegium either in the original Constitution of India or in successive amendments.
QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements.

1. An alliance is a coalition of states that coordinate their actions to deter or defend against military attack

2. Alliances are formalised only in written treaties and are based on a fairly clear identification of who constitutes the threat

3. Countries form alliances to increase their effective power relative to another country or alliance

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • An alliance is a coalition of states that coordinate their actions to deter or defend against military attack.
  • Most alliances are formalised in written treaties and are based on a fairly clear identification of who constitutes the threat. Countries form alliances to increase their effective power relative to another country or alliance. Alliances are based on national interests and can change when national interests change.
QUESTION: 21

How many members are elected indirectly in State Legislative Councils?

Solution:
  • Article 171 of the constitution of India defines the composition of the councils. The strength of any council shall not exceed 1/3rd of the strength of the state assembly. But for smaller states, the minimum strength of the council can be forty (40).
  • The members of the Legislative Councils comprise people elected through five different constituencies.
  • One third (1/3rd) of the members are elected by representatives of the Local Authorities (like Municipalities, Zilla Parishads, Block Parishads etc) One third (1/3rd) of the members are elected by members of the Legislative Assembly (the same person can’t be a member of both the houses) One-twelfth (1/12th) of the members are elected by the Graduates in the state One-twelfth (1/12th) of the members are elected by the Teachers in the state The remaining members are nominated by the Governor.
  • Those nominated by the Governor should have special knowledge or practical experience in Literature, science, art, co-operative movement and social service.
QUESTION: 22

With reference to making of the constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives called the Constituent Assembly.

2. The Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1947 but it came into effect on 26 January 1950.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives called the Constituent Assembly. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946.
  • Its first meeting was held in December 1946.Soon after, the country was divided into India and Pakistan. The Constituent Assembly was also divided into the Constituent Assembly of India and that of Pakistan.The Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian constitution had 299 members.
  • The Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949 but it came into effect on 26 January 1950. To mark this day we celebrate January 26 as Republic Day every year.
QUESTION: 23

Consider the following assertions:

1. A law was made in 2006 to give women, who face physical and mental violence within their homes (also called domestic violence) some legal protection.

2. The Supreme Court formulated guidelines in 1997 to protect women against sexual harassment at the workplace and within educational institutions.

3. March 8 is celebrated as International Women's Day.

Which of the above assertion(s) is/are true?

Solution:
  • In 1997, the Supreme Court passed a landmark judgment in the same Vishaka case laying down guidelines to be followed by establishments in dealing with complaints about sexual harassment.
  • "Vishaka Guidelines" were stipulated by the Supreme Court of India, in Vishaka and others v State of Rajasthan case in 1997, regarding sexual harassment at workplace. The court stated that these guidelines were to be implemented until legislation is passed to deal with the issue.
  • The court decided that the consideration of "International Conventions and norms are significant for the purpose of interpretation of the guarantee of gender equality, right to work with human dignity in Articles 14, 15 19(1)(g) and 21 of the Constitution and the safeguards against sexual harassment implicit therein."
QUESTION: 24

Which of the following is/are true regarding effects of National Emergency on Centre-State relations?

1. During normal times the President has power to give directions to the states on all the matters.

2. During an emergency,the legislative power of the state legislature is suspended.

3. During an emergency, the President can issue ordinances on state subjects.

4. During an emergency, the President may modify the distribution of financial resources between the center and the state.

Solution:

While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of the Centre–state relations undergoes a basic change. This can be studied under three sections, executive, legislative and financial.

A. Executive -

1. During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised.

2. In normal times, the Centre can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters.

3. However, during a national emergency, the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter.

4. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre, though they are not suspended.

B. Legislative -

1. During a national emergency, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the State List.

2. Although the legislative power of a state legislature is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding power of the Parliament.

3. Thus, the normal distribution of the legislative powers between the Centre and states is suspended, though the state Legislatures are not suspended.

C. Financial -

1. While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states.

2. This means that the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states.

3. Such modification continues till the end of the financial year in which the Emergency ceases to operate.

4. Also, every such order of the President has to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament.

QUESTION: 25

In the context of Khabar Lahariya Newspaper, consider the following assertions:

1. A fortnightly newspaper called Khabar Lahriya is run by eight dalit women in chitrakoot district of Uttar Pradesh.

2. This eight-page newspaper reports on Dalit issues and cases of violence against women and political corruption.

3. This newspaper is written in the local language, Bundeli.

Which of the above assertion(s) is/are true?

Solution:

Khabar Lahriya is a fortnightly that is run by eight Dalit women in Chitrakoot district in Uttar Pradesh. Written in the local language, Bundeli, this eight-page newspaper reports on Dalit issues and cases of violence against women and political corruption. This newspaper was also selected for the 2009 UNESCO Literacy Award.

QUESTION: 26

In the Federal Government:

Solution:

A federal government is a system of government that divides the power between a larger central government, and the local and regional governments beneath it.

QUESTION: 27

Consider the following statements:

1. Every social difference leads to social division.

2. People belonging to different social groups share only differences and no similarities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Every social difference does not lead to social division. Social differences divide similar people from one another, but they also unite very different people.
  • People belonging to different social groups share differences and similarities cutting across the boundaries of their groups.
  • It is fairly common for people belonging to the same religion to feel that they do not belong to the same community, because their caste or sect is very different.
  • It is also possible for people from different religions to have the same caste and feel close to each other.
  • Rich and poor persons from the same family often do not keep close relations with each other because they feel they are very different. Thus, we all have more than one identity and can belong to more than one social group.
QUESTION: 28

Which of the following federal features of the Indian constitution?

1. Rigid constitution

2. Appointment of Governor

3. Integrated judiciary

4. Bicameral legislature

Solution:

Rigid constitution and Bicameral legislature are among the federal features of the Indian constitution.

QUESTION: 29

Consider the following statements regarding Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

1. This Act recognises forest dwellers' right to homestead, cultivable and grazing land and to timber forest produce.

2. The Act points out that the rights of forest dwellers includes conservation of forests and biodiversity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The central government passed the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
  • The introduction to the final Act states that this Act is meant to undo the historical injustices meted out to forest dwelling populations in not recognising their rights to land and resources.
  • This Act recognises their right to homestead, cultivable and grazing land and to non-timber forest produce. The Act also points out that the rights of forest dwellers includes conservation of forests and biodiversity.
QUESTION: 30

How the security challenges facing the newly-independent countries of Asia and Africa were different from the challenges in Europe?

1. The new countries faced the prospect of military conflict with neighbouring countries

2. Many newly- independent countries came to fear their neighbours even more than they feared the US or Soviet Union or the former colonial powers

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:
  • The security challenges facing the newly-independent countries of Asia and Africa were different from the challenges in Europe in two ways. For one thing, the new countries faced the prospect of military conflict with neighbouring countries. For another, they had to worry about internal military conflict.
  • These countries faced threats not only from outside their borders, mostly from neighbours, but also from within. Many newly independent countries came to fear their neighbours even more than they feared the US or Soviet Union or the former colonial powers. They quarrelled over borders and territories or control of people and populations or all of these simultaneously.
QUESTION: 31

Regarding the system of Apartheid, consider the following statements:

1. Apartheid was the name of a system of racial discrimination unique to South Africa.

2. Nelson Mandela, was tried for treason by the white South African government for daring to oppose the apartheid regime in his country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Apartheid was the name of a system of racial discrimination unique to South Africa. The white Europeans imposed this system on South Africa.
  • The system of apartheid divided the people and labelled them on the basis of their skin colour. The native people of South Africa are black in colour. They made up about three-fourth of the population and were called ‘blacks’.
  • Besides these two groups, there were people of mixed races who were called ‘coloured’ and people who migrated from India. The white rulers treated all nonwhites as inferiors. The non-whites did not have voting rights.
  • The apartheid system was particularly oppressive for the blacks. They were forbidden from living in white areas. They could work in white areas only if they had a permit.
  • Nelson Mandela, was tried for treason by the white South African government for daring to oppose the apartheid regime in his country. He and seven other leaders were sentenced to life imprisonment in 1964. He spent the next 28 years in South Africa’s most dreaded prison, Robben Island.
QUESTION: 32

Which of the following are the features of the constitution?

1. It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kinds of people to live together.

2. It does not specify how the government will be constituted.

3. It is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. The Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the relationship between the people and government. A constitution does many things
1. It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kinds of people to live together.

2. It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions.

3. It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are.

4. It expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.

QUESTION: 33

In India the system of democracy followed is

Solution:

Representative democracy is a system of government in which all eligible citizens vote on representatives to pass laws for them.

QUESTION: 34

Name the online platform launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to support women entrepreneurs?

Solution:

Mahila E-haat scheme was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development on 7 March, 2016 to support women entrepreneurs. It is basically a direct online marketing platform.

QUESTION: 35

Consider the following statements.

1. Disarmament requires all states to give up certain kinds of weapons

2. The 1972 Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) and the 1992 Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) banned only the production of certain weapons

3. The US and Soviet union gave up the all kinds of weapons banned under the convention

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The 1972 Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) and the 1992 Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) banned the production and possession of these weapons. More than 155nstates acceded to the BWC and 181 states acceded to the CWC.
  • Both conventions included all the great powers. But the superpowers — the US and Soviet Union — did not want to give up the third type of weapons of mass destruction, namely, nuclear weapons, so they pursued arms control.
QUESTION: 36

What can be the minimum strength of members in the State Legislature?

Solution:

Article 170 of the indian constitution reads: Subject to the provision of article 333, The maximum strength of the members of legislative assembly must be 500 while the minimum must be 60. In maximum strength there is no exception ,but there is an exception in minimum strength like 1. Sikkim :-32 members 2. Mizoram:-40 members 3. Goa:-40 members

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following statements about the The Chinese invasion, 1962.

1. China annexed Tibet in 1950 and thus removed a historical buffer between the two countries.

2. As more information came in about the suppression of Tibetan culture, the Indian government grew uneasy

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The Chinese invasion, 1962: Two developments strained this relationship. China annexed Tibet in 1950 and thus removed a historical buffer between the two countries. Initially, the government of India did not oppose this openly.
  • But as more information came in about the suppression of Tibetan culture, the Indian government grew uneasy. The Tibetan spiritual leader, the Dalai Lama, sought and obtained political asylum in India in 1959. China alleged that the government of India was allowing anti-China activities to take place from within India.
QUESTION: 38

Which of the following subjects are included in the Concurrent List?

1. Electricity.
2. Marriage and Divorce, adoption, wills, etc.
3. Weights and measures and establishment of its standards.
4. Trade unions.

Solution:

Electricity, Trade unions and Marriage and Divorce, adoption, wills, etc. come under Concurrent List.

42nd amendment Act 1976 shifted below mentioned five subjects from State list to Concurrent List:

  1. Education
  2. Forests
  3. Protection of wild animals and birds
  4. Weights and measures and
  5. Administration of justice, constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the High Courts
QUESTION: 39

Consider the following statements.

1. A significant component of his industrialisation plans was the nuclear programme initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J.

Bhabha

2. India wanted to generate atomic energy for peaceful purposes

3. So he pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:

Nehru had always put his faith in science and technology for rapidly building a modern India. A significant component of his industrialisation plans was the nuclear programme initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha. India wanted to generate atomic energy for peaceful purposes. Nehru was against nuclear weapons. So he pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament. However, the nuclear arsenal kept rising.

QUESTION: 40

Which of the following gas was responsible bhopal gas tragedy:

Solution:
  • The world’s worst industrial tragedy took place in Bhopal 24 years ago. Union Carbide (UC) an American company had a factory in the city in which it produced Pesticides.At midnight on 2 December 1984 methyl-isocyanate (MIC) - a highly poisonous gas – started leaking from this UC plant within three days, more than 8,000 people were dead.
  • Hundreds of thousands were maimed. Most of those exposed to the poison gas came from poor, working-class families, of which nearly 50,000 people are today too sick to work. Among those who survived, many developed severe respiratory disorders, eye problems and other disorders.
  • The disaster was not an accident. UC had deliberately ignored the essential safety measures in order to cut costs.
QUESTION: 41

Consider the following statement:

1. Right to a healthy environment is intrinsic to the Fundamental Right to Life.

2. In Subhash Kumar vs. State of Bihar (1991), the Supreme Court held that the Right to Life is a Fundamental Right under Article 21 of the Constitution and it includes the right to the enjoyment of pollution-free water and air for full enjoyment of life.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Higher courts in India have given a number of judgments upholding the right to a healthy environment as intrinsic to the Fundamental Right to Life.
  • In Subhash Kumar vs. State of Bihar (1991), the Supreme Court held that the Right to Life is a Fundamental Right under Article 21 of the Constitution and it includes the right to the enjoyment of pollution-free water and air for full enjoyment of life.
  • The government is responsible for setting up laws and procedures that can check pollution, clean rivers and introduce heavy fines for those who pollute.
QUESTION: 42

Consider the following statements.

1. Confidence building is a process in which countries share ideas and information with their rivals

2. This is a way of demonstrating that they are not planning a surprise attack

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Traditional security also accepts confidence building as a means of avoiding violence. Confidence building is a process in which countries share ideas and information with their rivals. They tell each other about their military intentions and, up to a point, their military plans.
  • This is a way of demonstrating that they are not planning a surprise attack. They also tell each other about the kind of forces they possess, and they may share information on where those forces are deployed. In short, confidence building is a process designed to ensure that rivals do not go to war through misunderstanding or misperception.
QUESTION: 43

Consider the following statements.

1. Internal wars now make up the majority of all armed conflicts fought anywhere in the world

2. Between 1946 and 1991, there was a sudden decrease in the number of civil wars

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Internal wars now make up more than 95 per cent of all armed conflicts fought anywhere in the world.
  • Between 1946 and 1991, there was a twelve-fold rise in the number of civil wars—the greatest jump in 200 years. So, for the new states, external wars with neighbours and internal wars posed a serious challenge to their security.
QUESTION: 44

Which of the following is/are correct?

1. Article 312 deals with creating new All-India Service

2. Centre can give directions to States for provision of adequate facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage.

3. A law on concurrent subjects has to be implemented by the state even if it is enacted by Parliament.

Solution:

Administrative relations between Centre and States are dealt in Articles 256 to 263 in Part 11 of the Constitution.

Executive Power distribution -

1. The executive power division is on similar lines as the legislative power distribution.

2. A law on concurrent subjects has to be implemented by the state even if it is enacted by Parliament.

Obligation of States and the Centre –

  1. The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State.
  2. The executive power of every State shall be exercised in manner so as not to impede the exercise of the executive power of the Union.
  3. Article 365 - Where any State has failed to comply with, or to give effect to, any directions given in the exercise of the executive power of the Union under any of the provisions of this Constitution, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
  4. After this, the President’s rule can be imposed in the state under Article 356. Directions to the States by Union –
    • The executive power of the Union shall also extend to giving directions to a State for measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the State.
    • The executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication which are of national and military importance.
    • Centre can give directions to States for provision of adequate facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage.
    • The Centre can also direct states to draw and execute specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state.

Mutual Delegation of Functions -

  1. With the consent of the state government, the President may entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the Centre.
  2. Also with the consent of the Union government, the governor of a state may entrust to the Union government any of the executive functions of the state.
  3. The Centre can entrust its executive functions to a state without the consent of that state.
  4. But here it is the Parliament that is delegating and not the President.
  5. But, the state cannot entrust executive functions to the Union government without Union government’s consent.
QUESTION: 45

Which of the following subjects are included in the State List?

1. Corporation tax

2. Agriculture

3. Industries

Solution:

Agriculture and Industries come under State List.

QUESTION: 46

Consider the following statements.

1. Thus both as the Prime Minister and the Foreign Minister, he exercised profound influence in the formulation and implementation of India’s foreign policy from 1946 to 1964

2. The three major objectives of Nehru’s foreign policy were to preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity, and promote rapid economic development

3. Nehru wished to achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-alignment

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru played a crucial role in setting the national agenda. He was his own foreign minister. Thus both the Prime Minister and the Foreign Minister, he exercised profound influence in the formulation and implementation of India’s foreign policy from 1946 to 1964.
  • The three major objectives of Nehru’s foreign policy were to preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity, and promote rapid economic development. Nehru wished to achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-alignment.
  • There were, of course, parties and groups in the country that believed that India should be friendlier with the bloc led by the US because that bloc claimed to be pro-democracy. Among those who thought on these lines were leaders like Dr Ambedkar.
QUESTION: 47

Consider the following statements.

1. In the traditional conception of security, the greatest danger to a country is from military threats

2. Security policy is concerned with preventing war, which is called defence, and with limiting or ending war, which is called deterrence

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • In the traditional conception of security, the greatest danger to a country is from military threats. The source of this danger is another country which by threatening military action endangers the core values of sovereignty, independence and territorial integrity. Military action also endangers the lives of ordinary citizens.
  • It is unlikely that in a war only soldiers will be hurt or killed. Quite often, ordinary men and women are made targets of war, to break their support of the war. In responding to the threat of war, a government has three basic choices: to surrender; to prevent the other side from attacking by promising to raise the costs of warn to an unacceptable level; and to defend itself when war actually breaks out so as to deny the attacking country its objectives and to turn back or defeat the attacking forces altogether.
  • Governments may choose to surrender when actually confronted by war, but they will not advertise this as the policy of the country. Therefore, security policy is concerned with preventing war, which is called deterrence, and with limiting or ending war, which is called defence.
QUESTION: 48

Consider the following statements about the The Anti-ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty.

1. It tried to stop the United States and Soviet Union from using ballistic missiles as a defensive shield to launch a nuclear attack

2. It stopped both countries to deploy large-scale production of defense systems

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Arms control regulates the acquisition or development of weapons. The Anti-ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty in 1972 tried to stop the United States and Soviet Union from using ballistic missiles as a defensive shield to launch a nuclear attack.
  • While it did allow both countries to deploy a very limited number of defensive systems, it stopped them from large-scale production of those systems.
QUESTION: 49

Consider the following statements.

1. The scarce resources were diverted to the defence sector until 1962, as India had to embark on a military modernisation drive

2. The Department of Defence Production was established in 1962 and the Department of Defence Supplies in 1965

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • India, with its limited resources, had initiated development planning. However, conflicts with neighbours derailed the five-year plans. The scarce resources were diverted to the defence sector especially after 1962, as India had to embark on a military modernisation drive.
  • The Department of Defence Production was established in November 1962 and the Department of Defence Supplies in November 1965. The Third Plan (1961-66) was affected and it was followed by three Annual Plans and the Fourth Plan could be initiated only in 1969. India’s defence expenditure increased enormously after the wars.
QUESTION: 50

Who among the following published the first newspaper in India?

Solution:

Hickey's Bengal Gazette was an English newspaper published from Kolkata (then Calcutta), India. It was the first major newspaper in India, starting in 1780. It was published for two years. Founded by James Augustus Hicky, a highly eccentric Irishman who had previously spent two years in Jail for debt.

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following fall under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme court:

1. Dispute between Union and States.

2. Disputes amongst states.

3. Inter-State water disputes.

4. Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other.

5. Dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant etc.

Solution:

Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court - Supreme Court decides the disputes between -
1. the Centre and one or more states; or

2. between two or more states; or

3. the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other.

a. For these, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.

b. No other court can decide such disputes.

c. Original means to hear such disputes at the first instance and not by way of appeal.

d. But, the dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.

e. Questions of political nature are not included.

f. Also, any suit against the Centre or a state,brought before the Supreme Court, by a private citizen cannot be entertained under this.

Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:

(a) Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.

(b) Matters referred to the Finance Commission.

(c) Dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant etc.

(d) Dispute arising out of any treaty, etc., which specifically mentions that the court's original jurisdiction will not be applicable to it.

(e) Inter-state water disputes.

(f) Adjustment of some expenses and pensions between the Centre and states.

(g) Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and states. The first suit, under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, was brought by West Bengal against the Centre in 1961.

QUESTION: 52

Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the three lists that divide powers between the Union and the states?

Solution:

The Constitution provides a scheme for demarcation of powers through three ‘lists’ in the seventh schedule.
1. The union list details the subjects on which Parliament may make laws e.g. defence, foreign affairs, railways, banking, among others.

2. The state list details those under the purview of state legislatures e.g.

Public order, police, public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries, betting and gambling etc.

3.The concurrent list has subjects in which both Parliament and state legislatures have jurisdiction e.g.

Education including technical education, medical education and universities, population control and family planning, criminal law, prevention of cruelty to animals, protection of wildlife and animals, forests etc.

4. The Constitution also provides federal supremacy to Parliament on concurrent list items i.e. in case of a conflict; a central law will override a state law.

QUESTION: 53

Which of the following are the basis of social differences?

1. Birth

2. Religion

3. Occupation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
  • Social differences are mostly based on accidents of birth. Normally we don’t choose to belong to our community. We belong to it simply because we were born into it. We all experience social differences based on accidents of birth in our everyday lives.
  • But all kinds of social differences are not based on accidents of birth. Some of the differences are based on our choices.
  • For example, some people are atheists. They don’t believe in God or any religion. Most of us choose what to study, which occupation to take up and which games or cultural activities to take part in. All these lead to formation of social groups that are based on our choices.
QUESTION: 54

Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against:

1. A private individual

2. President of India

3. A Tribunal

4. An inferior court

5. Chief justice of high court acting in judicial capacity

Select the correct answer code

Solution:

Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued

  1. against a private individual or body
  2. to enforce departmental instruction that does  not possess statutory force;
  3. when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory
  4. to enforce a contractual obligation
  5. against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.
QUESTION: 55

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

1. Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi (1887-1971): He was born in Gujarat. He was an Advocate, historian and linguist. He was Congress leader and Gandhian. Later he became Minister in the Union Cabinet. He was Founder of the Swatantra Party.

2. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar (1891-1956): He was born in Madhya Pradesh. He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. He was a Social revolutionary thinker and agitator against caste divisions and caste based inequalities. Later he became Law minister in the first cabinet of post-independence India. He was the Founder of Republican Party of India.

3. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (1901-1953): He was born in West Bengal. He became Minister for Industry and Supply in the Interim Government. He was an Educationist and lawyer and was active in Hindu Mahasabha. He was the Founder President of Bharatiya Jan Sangh.

QUESTION: 56

Consider the following statements about the Indus water treaty.

1. It was signed by Defence Minister, V. Krishna Menon and General Ayub Khan in 1960

2. A long-term dispute about the sharing of river waters was resolved through mediation by the United Nations

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:
  • The Kashmir conflict did not prevent cooperation between the governments of India and Pakistan. Both the governments worked together to restore the women abducted during partition to their original families.
  • A long-term dispute about the sharing of river waters was resolved through mediation by the World Bank. The India-Pakistan Indus Waters Treaty was signed by Nehru and General Ayub Khan in 1960. Despite all ups and downs in the Indo-Pak relations, this treaty has worked well.
QUESTION: 57

With reference to Civil Rights Movements in the USA, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to a set of events and reform movements aimed at abolishing legal racial discrimination against African-Americans.

2. It was led by Abraham Lincoln.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Civil Rights Movement in the USA (1954-1968) refers to a set of events and reform movements aimed at abolishing legal racial discrimination against AfricanAmericans. It was led by Martin Luther King Jr.
  • This movement practiced non-violent methods of civil disobedience against racially discriminatory laws and practices. African-American, Afro-American, Black American, or Black are the terms used to refer mainly to the descendants of Africans who were brought into America as slaves between the 17th century and early 19th century.
QUESTION: 58

Consider the following assertion and reason:

Assertion: When the government prevents either a news item, or scenes from a movie, or the lyrics of a song from being shared with the larger public, this is referred to as censorship.

Reason: There have been periods in Indian history when the government censored the media. The worst of these was the Emergency between 1975-1977.

Select the correct answer using the following options:

Solution:

When the government prevents either a news item, or scenes from a movie, or the lyrics of a song from being shared with the larger public, this is referred to as censorship. There have been periods in Indian history when the government censored the media. The worst of these was the Emergency between 1975-1977. Both the statements are correct, but the reason does not confirm the statement.

QUESTION: 59

Consider the following statements about neutrality.

1. It refers principally to a policy of staying out of war

2. It means remaining aloof from world affairs

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The policy of staying away from alliances should not be considered isolationism or neutrality. Non-alignment is not isolationism since isolation means remaining aloof from world affairs. Isolationism sums up the foreign policy of the US from the American War of Independence in 1787 up to the beginning of the First World War.
  • In comparison, the non-aligned countries, including India, played an active role in mediating between the two rival alliances in the cause of peace and stability. Their strength was based on their unity and their resolve to remain non-aligned despite the attempt by the two superpowers to bring them into their alliances.
  • Non-alignment is also not neutrality. Neutrality refers principally to a policy of staying out of war. States practising neutrality are not required to help end a war. They do not get involved in wars and do not take any position on the appropriateness or morality of a war. Non-aligned states, including India, were actually involved in wars for various reasons. They also worked to prevent war between others and tried to end wars that had broken out.
QUESTION: 60

Consider the following statements.

1. Security of a State is associated with the external threats only

2. The reason internal security is not given so much importance is that after the Second World War because for the most powerful countries on earth, internal security was more or less assured

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Traditional security must also concern itself with internal security. The reason it is not given so much importance is that after the Second World War it seemed that, for the most powerful countries on earth, internal security was more or less assured.
  • We said earlier that it is important to pay attention to contexts and situations. While internal security was certainly a part of the concerns of governments historically, after the Second World War there was a context and situation in which internal security did not seem to matter as much as it had in the past.
  • After 1945, the US and the Soviet Union appeared to be united and could expect peace within their borders. Most of the European countries, particularly the powerful Western European countries, faced no serious threats from groups or communities living within those borders. Therefore, these countries focused primarily on threats from outside their borders.
QUESTION: 61

Consider the following statements regarding the advantages of non-alignments for India.

1. Non-alignment allowed India to take international decisions and stances that served its interests

2. India was often able to balance one superpower against the other

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • A non-aligned posture also served India’s interests very directly, in at least two ways: First, non-alignment allowed India to take international decisions and stances that served its interests rather than the interests of the superpowers and their allies.
  • Second, India was often able to balance one superpower against the other. If India felt ignored or unduly pressurised by one superpower, it could tilt towards the other. Neither alliance system could take India for granted or bully it.
QUESTION: 62

Which of the following states was the first to establish Panchayati raj institutions?

Solution:

The Panchayat Raj system was first adopted by the state of Rajasthan in Nagaur district on 2 Oct 1959. During the 1950s and 60s, other state governments adopted this system as laws were passed to establish panchayats in various states. The second state was Andhra Pradesh, while Maharashtra was the ninth state.

QUESTION: 63

Consider the following statements.

1. The Akalis discovered that despite the redrawing of the boundaries, their political position remained precarious

2. The Congress got more support among the Akalis than the dalits

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • After the reorganisation, the Akalis came to power in 1967 and then in 1977. On both the occasions it was a coalition government. The Akalis discovered that despite the redrawing of the boundaries, their political position remained precarious.
  • Firstly, their government was dismissed by the Centre mid-way through its term.
  • Secondly, they did not enjoy strong support among the Hindus. Thirdly, the Sikh community, like all other religious communities, was internally differentiated on caste and class lines. The Congress got more support among the dalits, whether Hindu or Sikh, than the Akalis.
QUESTION: 64

Consider the following statements.

1. International terrorism involves the citizens or territory of more than one country

2. Terrorist groups seek to change a political context or condition that they do not like by force or threat of force

Which of these statements are not correct?

Solution:

Terrorism refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately. International terrorism involves the citizens or territory of morenthan one country. Terrorist groups seek to change a political context or condition that they do not like by force or threat of force. Civilian targets are usually chosen to terrorise the public and to use the unhappiness of the public as a weapon against national governments or other parties in conflict.

QUESTION: 65

The panchayat system was adopted to:

Solution:

The prime objectives of the three tier Panchayati Raj System are to curb poverty, uplift standard of living of people in the rural areas, and enhance a healthy and wealthy society by creating awareness among them about hygiene, sanitation and eradication of illiteracy.

QUESTION: 66

Consider the following statements about the Narmada Bachao Aandolan (NBA)

1. Initially the movement demanded proper and just rehabilitation of all those who were directly or indirectly affected by the project.

2. The movement also questioned the nature of decision-making processes that go in the making of mega scale developmental projects

3. The NBA insisted that local communities must have a say in such decisions and they should also have effective control over natural resources

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Initially the movement demanded proper and just rehabilitation of all those who were directly or indirectly affected by the project. The movement also questioned the nature of decision-making processes that go in the making of mega scale developmental projects.
  • The NBA insisted that local communities must have a say in such decisions and they should also have effective control over natural resources like water, land and forests. The movement also asked why, in a democracy, should some people be made to sacrifice for benefiting others. All these considerations led the NBA to shift from its initial demand for rehabilitation to its position of total opposition to the dam.
QUESTION: 67

Regarding the constituent assembly, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly represented the people of India.

2. The Constituent Assembly was chosen directly by all the people of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Constituent Assembly represented the people of India. There was no universal adult franchise at that time. So the Constituent Assembly could not have been chosen directly by all the people of India.
  • It was elected mainly by the members of the existing Provincial Legislatures. This ensured a fair geographical share of members from all the regions of the country.The Assembly was dominated by the Indian National Congress, the party that led India’s freedom struggle.
  • But the Congress itself included a variety of political groups and opinions.The Assembly had many members who did not agree with the Congress. In social terms too, the Assembly represented members from different language groups, castes, classes, religions and occupations.
  • Even if the Constituent Assembly was elected by universal adult franchise, its composition would not have been very different.Finally, the manner in which the Constituent Assembly worked gives sanctity to the Constitution.
QUESTION: 68

The Constitution of India is federal in character because:

Solution:

The Constitution of India is federal in character because there is a distribution of powers between the Union and the States.

QUESTION: 69

How many posts are reserved for women at all levels in the Panchayati raj system?

Solution:
  • One-third posts (for both the member and the chief) are reserved for women. As per provisions contained in Article 243 D of the Constitution, 1/3rd of the Seats of Panchayati Raj Institutions and 1/3rd offices of the Chairperson at all levels of Panchayati Raj Institutions covered by Part IX of the Constitution are reserved for women.
  • The following states have made legal provision for 50% reservation for women among members and Sarpanches: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Kerala, Maharashtra, Orissa, Rajasthan, Tripura and Uttarakhand.
  • A statement giving the position about the Elected Women Representatives in all States and UTs as per the State of Panchayat Report 2007-08 commissioned by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj is given in Annexure.
QUESTION: 70

Consider the following statements:

1. If political parties start competing in terms of some existing social divisions, it can lead to conflict or violence in the country.

2. Social divisions affect voting patterns in most countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Democracy involves competition among various political parties. Their competition tends to divide any society. If they start competing in terms of some existing social divisions, it can make social divisions into political divisions and lead to conflict, violence or even disintegration of a country.
  • This has happened in many countries. For example Northern Ireland, this region of the United Kingdom has been for many years the site of a violent and bitter ethnopolitical conflict.
  • Such examples lead some people to conclude that politics and social divisions must not be allowed to mix. They think that it would be best if there are no social divisions in any country. If social divisions do exist in a country, they must never be expressed in politics. At the same time every expression of social divisions in politics does not lead to such disasters. In a democracy it is only natural that political parties would talk about social divisions.
QUESTION: 71

Which statement is true about Panchayati Raj?

Solution:

Election of the Panchayati Raj institutions is conducted under the guidance of the State Election Commission.

QUESTION: 72

Consider the following statements about the Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU).

1. The organisation used traditional caste panchayats of these communities in bringing them together over economic issues

2. It was a formal organisation because it was based on clan networks among its members

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Activities conducted by the BKU to pressurise the state for accepting its demands included rallies, demonstrations, sit-ins, and jail bharo (courting imprisonment) agitations. These protests involved tens of thousands of farmers – sometimes over a lakh – from various villages in western Uttar Pradesh and adjoining regions.
  • Throughout the decade of the eighties, the BKU organised massive rallies of these farmers in many district headquarters of the State and also at the national capital. Another novel aspect of these mobilisations was the use of caste linkages of farmers. Most of the BKU members belonged to a single community.
  • The organisation used traditional caste panchayats of these communities in bringing them together over economic issues. In spite of lack of any formal organisation, the BKU could sustain itself for a long time because it was based on clan networks among its members. Funds, resources and activities of BKU were mobilised through these networks.
QUESTION: 73

Which of the following subjects are included in the Union List?

1. Foreign affairs

2. Taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers

3. Taxes on services

4. Major ports

Solution:
  • The Union List or List-I is a list of 100 items (the last item is numbered 97) given in Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India on which Parliament has exclusive power to legislate.
  • The legislative section is divided into three lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. Unlike the federal governments of the United States, Switzerland or Australia, residual powers remain with the Union Government, as with the Canadian federal government. There are 100 items on the list, of which one is no longer in force.
QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements about the E.V. Ramasami Naicker.

1. Initially a worker of the Congress party

2. Started the self-respect movement (1925); led the anti-Brahmin movement

3. Worked for the Justice party and later founded Dravidar Kazhagam

4. Opposed to Hindi and domination of north India

Which of these statements are correct about the E.V. Ramasami Naicker?

Solution:

E.V. Ramasami Naicker (1879-1973): Known as Periyar (the respected); strong supporter of atheism; famous for his anti-caste struggle and rediscovery of Dravidian identity; initially a worker of the Congress party; started the self-respect movement (1925); led the anti-Brahmin movement; worked for the Justice party and later founded Dravidar Kazhagam; opposed to Hindi and domination of north India; propounded the thesis that north Indians and Brahmins are Aryans.

QUESTION: 75

With reference to Minimum Wages Act, consider the following statements:

1. Minimum Wages Act specifies that wages should not be below a specified minimum.

2. This law is meant to protect the interests of all workers; particularly farm labourers, construction workers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Minimum Wages Act specifies that wages should not be below a specified minimum. Many workers are denied fair wages by their employers since they badly need work, workers have no bargaining power and are paid low wages.This law is meant to protect the interests of all workers; particularly farm labourers, construction workers, factory workers, domestic workers, etc.

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following schemes provide education to girls and their welfare?

Solution:

Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Yojana is a campaign under the Government of India that was established for generating awareness and improving the efficiency of the welfare services intended for girls in India. This scheme was launched by PM Narendra Modi on 22 January 2015 which is run jointly by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Human Resource Development.

QUESTION: 77

Consider the following statements about Public Account Committee:

1. This committee was first set up in 1911 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1909.

2. The members are elected according to the principle of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

3. It is vested with the power of disallowance of expenditures by the departments.

4. Only the Parliament can take a final decision on its findings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

This committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence It is not vested with the power of disallowance of expenditures by the departments.

QUESTION: 78

With reference to Child Labour (Prohibition And Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016, consider the following statements:

1. It bans the employment of children below the age of 14 years in all occupations.

2. It bans the employment of adolescents (14-18 years) in hazardous occupations and processes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • According to the 2011 census, over 4 million children in India aged between 5 and 14 work in various occupations including hazardous ones.
  • In 2016, Parliament amended the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, banning the employment of children below the age of 14 years in all occupations except where the child helps his family after school hours and of adolescents (14-18 years) in hazardous occupations and processesIt made employing these children or adolescents a cognizable offence.
  • Anyone found violating the ban must be penalized with a punishment ranging from a jail term of six months to two years and/or fine of Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 50,000. The central government had asked state governments to develop plans to rescue and rehabilitate children who are working.
QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements:

1. The assertion of social diversities in a country needs to be seen as a source of danger for the country.

2. Expression of various kinds of social divisions in politics often results in weakening of democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The assertion of social diversities in a country need not be seen as a source of danger. In a democracy, political expression of social divisions is very normal and can be healthy. This allows various disadvantaged and marginal social groups to express their grievances and get the government to attend to these.
  • Expression of various kinds of social divisions in politics often results in their cancelling one another out and thus reducing their intensity. This leads to strengthening of a democracy.
QUESTION: 80

Which provisions guarantee independence of Supreme Court:

1. Appoint its own staff.

2. Ban on practice after retirement.

3. Conduct of judges cannot be discussed in Parliament.

Solution:

Provisions for Independence of Supreme Court -

  1. Mode of Appointment - The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President in consultation with the members of the judiciary itself (i.e., judges of the Supreme Court and the high Courts).
  2. This limits the discretion of the executive in judicial appointments.
  3. Security of Tenure - They can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution.
  4. Fixed Service Conditions - The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court cannot be changed to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency.
  5. Expenses Charged on Consolidated Fund - The salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff and the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India which is not subject to vote in the Parliament.
  6. Conduct of Judges cannot be discussed - Parliament or State Legislature cannot discuss conduct of the judges of the Supreme Court in the discharge of their duties, except when an impeachment motion is under consideration of the Parliament.
  7. Ban on Practice after retirement Retired judges of the Supreme Court cannot plead or act in any Court or before any authority within the territory of India.
  8. Punishment for its contempt - The Supreme Court can punish any person for its contempt.
  9. This is to maintain its authority, dignity and honor.
  10. Appointing its staff - The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the Supreme Court, prescribe their conditions of service, etc. without any interference from the executive.
  11. Jurisdiction cannot be limited - The Parliament can only extend but cannot curtail jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court as they are guaranteed by the Constitution.
  12. Separation of Judiciary and Executive -As per the Constitution, executive authorities should not possess judicial powers.
  13. Criminal procedure Code (1973) separated judiciary from executive.
QUESTION: 81

When can Parliament make laws on State List subjects?

1. When states make requests.

2. To implement international agreements.

3. During National Emergency in case of armed rebellion.

Solution:

Parliament makes laws on subjects in State List in the following scenarios -

  1. When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect –
    • Parliament can make laws on a matter in state list, if the Rajya Sabha says that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on that matter.
    • This resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members of Rajya Sabha, present and voting.
    • The resolution remains in force only for one year.
    • It can be renewed again and again but not exceeding one year at a time.
    • The laws made under the resolution too cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
    • The state legislature toocan make laws on the same matter, but, in case of conflict parliamentary law prevails.
  2. During a National Emergency
    • When a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, parliament can legislate on subjects of the state list.
    • Here too the laws become ineffective on the expiry of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
    • Here again, states can make laws but in case of conflict parliamentary law prevails. C. When States make a request for it.
    • Parliament can also make laws on subjects in the state list when the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact laws on that matter.
    • This law enacted by the Parliament will apply only to the concerned states i.e., states who have passed such a resolution.
    • But even other states are allowed to adopt the law by passing a resolution in their legislatures.
    • However only Parliament can amend or repeal such a law.
    • The state legislature loses the power to make a law with respect to that subject. Some examples are -Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994; Prize Competition Act, 1955; Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972; Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, etc.

D. For implementing International Agreements -

  • For implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions, the Parliament is authorized to make laws on any subject in the State List. Examples -Legislations related to TRIPS; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982; etc.

E. During President’s Rule -

  • Parliament can make laws with respect to any subject in the State List in relation to that state, when the President's rule is in force in that state.
  • Even if the President’s Rule ends, the law remains in force in the state.
  • However, the State legislature can repeal or alter or re-enact that law.
QUESTION: 82

Which of the following committees recommended the Panchayati Raj System in India?

Solution:

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was a committee originally appointed by the Government of India on January 16, 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952,Oct 2nd) and the National Extension Service (1953 Oct 2nd) and to suggest measures for their better working.

QUESTION: 83

Which one of the following best describes/defines PENCIL portal?

Solution:
  • An online portal, Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour (PENCIL) has become functional in 2017.
  • It is meant for filing of complaint, child tracking, implementation and monitoring of National Child Labour Project (NCLP).The PENCIL is an electronic platform that aims at involving Centre, State, District, Governments, civil society and the general public in achieving the target of child labour free society.
QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements:

1. The judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office by writing to the Chief Justice of India.

2. The judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India.

3. The Removal of a Supreme Court judge is based on two grounds - proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Solution:

The Constitution provides that a judge can be removed only by an order of the President, based on a motion passed by both Houses of Parliament. The procedure for removal of judges is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968. The Act sets out the following steps for removal from office

  1. Under the Act, an impeachment motion may originate in either House of Parliament. To initiate proceedings: (i) at least 100 members of Lok Sabha may give a signed notice to the Speaker, or (ii) at least 50 members of Rajya Sabha may give a signed notice to the Chairman. The Speaker or Chairman may consult individuals and examine relevant material related to the notice. Based on this, he or she may decide to either admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
  2. If the motion is admitted, the Speaker or Chairman (who receives it) will constitute a three-member committee to investigate the complaint. It will comprise: (i) a Supreme Court judge; (ii) Chief Justice of a High Court; and (iii) a distinguished jurist. The committee will frame charges based on which the investigation will be conducted. A copy of the charges will be forwarded to the judge who can present a written defence.
  3. After concluding its investigation, the Committee will submit its report to the Speaker or Chairman, who will then lay the report before the relevant House of Parliament. If the report records a finding of misbehaviour or incapacity, the motion for removal will be taken up for consideration and debated.
  4. The motion for removal is required to be adopted by each House of Parliament by: (i) a majority of the total membership of that House; and (ii) a majority of at least two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. If the motion is adopted by this majority, the motion will be sent to the other House for adoption. Once the motion is adopted in both Houses, it is sent to the President, who will issue an order for the removal of the judge.
QUESTION: 85

Among the following, which country suffered disintegration due to political fights on the basis of religious and ethnic identities?

Solution:

In Yugoslavia, Political competition along religious and ethnic lines led to the disintegration of Yugoslavia into six independent countries.

QUESTION: 86

What is the minimum age for becoming a member of the State Legislative Council?

Solution:
  • The qualifications to become a member of the Legislative Assembly are largely similar to the qualifications to be a member of Parliament.
  • i) The person should be a citizen of India ii) not less than 25 years of age to be a member of the Legislative Assembly and not less than 30 years as per Article 173 of Indian Constitution to be a member of the Legislative Council.
  • No person can become a member of the Legislative Assembly or the Legislative Council of any state, unless the individual is a voter from any constituency of the state. Those who cannot become members of Parliament also cannot become members of the state legislature.
  • The member is elected by the people of that particular constituency and represents those people in the legislative assembly and debates on issues related to his or her constituency.
  • The MLA's position is like an MP, but the difference is only that MLA is in the state level and the MP is in the national level.
QUESTION: 87

Which of the following federal principles are not found in Indian federation?

1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the Federal and State Governments

2. Equality of representation of the states in the upper house of the Federal Legislature

3. The Union cannot be destroyed by any state seceding from the Union at its will

4. Federal Government can redraw the map of the Indian Union by forming new States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:
  1. The constitutional law consists both of legal in the strict sense and of usages, commonly called as conventions, which without being enacted are accepted as binding by all who are concerned in government.
  2. Many rules and practices are not part of the law in the sense that their violation may lead to proceeding in a court of law. Indian Constitution is said to be a federal structure only because it is said that it has clear demarcation of boundaries between the central & the state government similar to that of the U.S. India having legislative and executive authority divided between the centre and the state. Chief essentials for a constitution to be federal are:
    • Dispersion of powers between the center and the united states forming federation among a number of coordinate bodies, controlled by constitution.
    • Rigidity – neither the center nor the state has power to amend the provision of constitution relating separation of powers.
    • A written constitution.
    • Domination of the constitution – neither the center or state have power to nullify the constitution.
    • An independent body and unprejudiced authority (Eg. Judiciary) India is often also claimed to be non- federal in matters such as the Center can impinge upon the areas earmarked only for the states in some cases. Therefore, it infringes the principle of federalism as it makes the state hyponym to the center.
QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements:

1. Homogeneous society is a society that has significant ethnic differences.

2. Migrant is anybody who shifts from one region or country to another region within a country or to another country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Homogeneous society is a society that has similar kinds of people, especially where there are no significant ethnic differences. Migrant is anybody who shifts from one region or country to another region within a country or to another country, usually for work or other economic opportunities.
  • Nowadays , Even those countries such as Germany and Sweden, that were once highly HOMOGENEOUS, are undergoing rapid change with an influx of people from other parts of the world.MIGRANTS bring with them their own culture and tend to form a different social community. In this sense most countries of the world are multi-culture.
QUESTION: 89

Consider the following Pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

1. Rajendra Prasad (1884-1963): He was born in Bihar.He was President of the Constituent Assembly.He was Lawyer, known for his role in the Champaran Satyagraha.He was the president of Congress thrice. He became the first President of India.

2. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar (1891-1956): He was born in Madhya Pradesh. He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. He was a Social revolutionary thinker and agitator against caste divisions and caste based inequalities. Later he became Law minister in the first cabinet of post-independence India.

3. Motilal Nehru: He was born in Uttar Pradesh. He was a lawyer and an activist of the Indian Independence Movement. He was an important leader of the Indian National Congress, who also served as the Congress President twice, 1919–1920 and 1928–1929.He along with other congress leaders prepared a Constitution for India in 1928.

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following fall under the appellate jurisdiction of Supreme court:

1. Appeals in constitutional matters.

2. The High Court on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death.

3. The High Court has taken before itself any case from any subordinate court and sentenced accused to death.

Solution:

Appellate jurisdiction –
1. The Supreme Court replaced the British Privy Council as the highest court of appeal.

2. The Supreme Court is mainly a court of appeal.

3. It hears appeals against the judgements of the lower courts. Its wide appellate jurisdiction can be understood under the following sections - Appeals in constitutional matters - If the high court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law that requires the interpretation of the Constitution, an appeal can be made to the Supreme Court. Appeals in civil matters -If the high court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance and the question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court, an appeal can be made to the Supreme Court against any judgement of a High Court. Presently there is no monetary limit for civil cases. Appeals in criminal matters -The Supreme Court hears appeals against the judgement in a criminal proceeding of a high court.

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements about the Chipko Andolan.

1. The movement began in villages of Uttar Pradesh when the forest department refused permission to the villagers to fell ash trees for making agricultural tools

2. The movement achieved a victory when the government issued a ban on felling of trees in the Himalayan regions for fifteen years, until the green cover was fully restored

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The movement began in two or three villages of Uttarakhand when the forest department refused permission to the villagers to fell ash trees for making agricultural tools. However, the forest department allotted the same patch of land to a sports manufacturer for commercial use.
  • This enraged the villagers and they protested against the move of the government. The struggle soon spread across many parts of the Uttarakhand region. Women’s active participation in the Chipko agitation was a very novel aspect of the movement. The forest contractors of the region usually doubled up as suppliers of alcohol to men.
  • Women held sustained agitations against the habit of alcoholism and broadened the agenda of the movement to cover other social issues. The movement achieved a victory when the government issued a ban on felling of trees in the Himalayan regions for fifteen years, until the green cover was fully restored.
QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements.

1. Activities of Dalit Panthers mostly centred around fighting increasing atrocities on Dalits in various parts of the State

2. The government passed a comprehensive law in 1989 that provided for rigorous punishment for atrocities against Dalits

3. The larger ideological agenda of the Panthers was not to destroy the caste system but to build an organisation of all oppressed sections

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Activities of Dalit Panthers mostly centred around fighting increasing atrocities on Dalits in various parts of the State. As a result of sustained agitations on the part of Dalit Panthers along with other like minded organisations over the issue of atrocities against Dalits, the government passed a comprehensive law in 1989 that provided for rigorous punishment for such acts.
  • The larger ideological agenda of the Panthers was to destroy the caste system and to build an organisation of all oppressed sections like the landless poor peasants and urban industrial workers along with Dalits.
QUESTION: 93

Consider the following statements:

1. Social divisions take place when social differences overlap.

2. Social divisions exist in only big countries like India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  1. Overlapping and cross-cutting differences Social division takes place when some social difference overlaps with other differences. The difference between the Blacks and Whites becomes a social division in the US because the Blacks tend to be poor, homeless and discriminated against.
  2. Situations of this kind produce social divisions, when one kind of social difference becomes more important than the other and people start feeling that they belong to different communities. If social differences cross cut one another, it is difficult to pit one group of people against the other. It means that groups that share a common interest on one issue are likely to be on different sides on a different issue. Overlapping social differences create possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions.
  3. Social divisions of one kind or another exist in most countries. It does not matter whether the country is small or big. India is a vast country with many communities. Belgium is a small country with many communities.
QUESTION: 94

Which of the following characteristics is not related to the Presidential System?

Solution:
  1. The presidential system is a form of government in which the president is the chief executive and is elected directly by the people. In this system all three branches – executive, legislative, and judiciary – are constitutionally independent of each other, and no branch can dismiss or dissolve any other.
  2. The president is responsible for enforcing laws, the legislature for making them, and the courts for judging. Each is given specific powers to check and balance the others. This system was invented by America’s founders to provide an alternative to the parliamentary form of government.
  3. It became known as ‘presidential’ because a directly elected president was its most salient difference. This doesn’t mean that the president holds supremacy like the prime minister or parliament. In fact, power in the presidential system is divided among many, so no individual or institution can ever become supreme. In principle, the characteristics of the presidential system are the following:
    • The Executive Power is undivided. It is deposited in a president who is both the head of State and the head of government.
    • The president is elected by the people and not by the Legislative Branch, which gives him independence before this branch.
    • The president freely appoints and removes the secretaries of State.
    • Neither the president nor the secretaries of State are politically responsible before Congress.
    • Neither the president nor the secretaries of State, as a general rule, can be members of congress.
    • The president can be affiliated to a political party different to that of the congress majority.
    • The president cannot dissolve the congress, but the congress can give him a vote of censure.
QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements:

1. The right to safe drinking water is a Fundamental Right.

2. The Constitution of India recognises the right to water as being a part of the Right to Life under Article 21.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Constitution of India recognises the right to water as being a part of the Right to Life under Article 21. This means that it is the right of every person, whether rich or poor, to have sufficient amounts of water to fulfil his/her daily needs at a price that he/she can afford. In other words, there should be universal access to water.
  • There have been several court cases in which both the High Courts and the Supreme Court have held that the right to safe drinking water is a Fundamental Right.
QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements.

1. The slogan of the anti-arrack movement was simple — prohibition on the sale of arrack

2. But this simple demand touched upon larger social, economic and political issues of the region that affected women’s life

3. A close nexus between crime and politics was established around the business of arrack

Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
  • The slogan of the anti-arrack movement was simple - prohibition on the sale of arrack. But this simple demand touched upon larger social, economic and political issues of the region that affected women’s life.
  • A close nexus between crime and politics was established around the business of arrack. The State government collected huge revenues by way of taxes imposed on the sale of arrack and was therefore not willing to impose a ban.
  • Groups of local women tried to address these complex issues in their agitation against arrack. They also openly discussed the issue of domestic violence. Their movement, for the first time, provided a platform to discuss private issues of domestic violence.
QUESTION: 97

Assertion: The Non Alignment Movement become less homogeneous and also it became difficult to define very neat and precise terms

Reason: As it grew into a popular international movement, countries of various different political systems and interests joined it

Select the correct code:

Solution:
  • Over the years, the membership of NAM has expanded. The latest meeting, the 17th summit, was held in Venezuela in 2016. It included 120 member states and 17 observer countries.
  • As non-alignment grew into a popular international movement, countries of various different political systems and interests joined it. This made the movement less homogeneous and also made it more difficult to define in very neat and precise terms: what did it really stand for? Increasingly, NAM was easier to define in terms of what it was not. It was not about being a member of an alliance.
QUESTION: 98

Consider the following statements:

1. Sanitation is a must in prevention of water-borne diseases.

2. Sulabh, a government organisation, has been working to address the problems of sanitation facing low-caste, low-income people in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Sanitation is a must in prevention of water-borne diseases. The poor both in the rural and urban areas lack access to sanitation.
  • Sulabh, a non-government organisation, has been working for three decades to address the problems of sanitation facing low-caste, low-income people in India. It has constructed more than 7,500 public toilet blocks and 1.2 million private toilets, giving access to sanitation to 10 million people. The majority of the users of Sulabh facilities are from the poor working class.
QUESTION: 99

The Black Power Movement emerged in which of the following countries?

Solution:

The Black Power movement emerged in 1966 in the United States of America. It lasted till 1975, which was a more militant anti-racist movement, advocating even violence if necessary to end racism in the US.

QUESTION: 100

Consider the following with reference to the meaning of various terms which feature in Preamble to the Indian constitution.

1. Term Socialist means wealth is generated socially and should be shared equally by society.

2. Term Secular means all of us should behave as if we are members of the same family.

3. Term Liberty means there are no unreasonable restrictions on the citizens in what they think, how they wish to express their thoughts.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:
  1. Socialist: Wealth is generated socially and should be shared equally by society. Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socio-economic inequalities.
  2. Secular: Citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion. But there is no official religion. Government treats all religious beliefs and practices with equal respect.
  3. Fraternity: All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.
  4. Liberty: There are no unreasonable restrictions on the citizens in what they think, how they wish to express their thoughts and the way they wish to follow up their thoughts in action.