UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 10


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 10


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This mock test of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding social audit in India?
1. Any citizen belonging to panchayat can do social audit.
2. CAG is empowered to conduct accounting audit of PRIs in the whole country by the 73rd amendment of the
constitution.
3. 73rd amendment makes accounting audit and social audit mandatory for the PRIs.
4. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) has undertaken e-Panchayat Mission Mode Project with a view to
introduce and strengthen e-Governance in panchayat.

Solution:

CAG is not empowered to conduct Accounting Audit of PRIs in the whole country. No central policy or regulation
making accounting audit and social audit mandatory.

QUESTION: 2

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Soaps are made of materials found in nature whereas detergents are generally made of synthetic materials.
2. Detergents are less effective in case of hard water.

Solution:

Detergents are more effective in case of hard water since unlike soaps, detergents react less to minerals than soaps.

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements with regard to PURA (Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas) Model of
Ruban Governance in India.
1. It envisages the uses of PPP for Rural Development.
2. It is being run by both the Ministry of Rural Development & Urban Development to have linkages &
coordination for providing urban like facilities in the rural areas.
3. Recently Rurban Mission has been launched which has replaced PURA .
Which of these is/are correct?

Solution:

MoRD, with support from Department of Economic Affairs and the Asian Development Bank (which provided the
technical assistance), intends to implement the PURA scheme under a Public Private Partnership (PPP) between
Local executive bodies like the Gram Panchayat(s) and private sector partners.
It was launched in 2003 – brainchild of Abdul Kalam

QUESTION: 4

Over three decades, National Police Commission and various committees including Padmanabhaiah, Rebeiro
and Malimath have urged radical reorganization of police force. Which of the following forms the major reforms
required to establish democratic accountability of its police force?
1. Mitigating political interference
2. Merging investigation wing with law and order functions

3. Registering all offences and recording of statements
4. Preventing police torture and dealing with the weaker section
5. Targeting recruitment of women in police organizations.
Which of the following is/are correct in this case?

Solution:

The investigating wing should be separated from Law and Order function and officers should be specially trained
in modern investigative technique

QUESTION: 5

Which of the following is offered as an incentive to Public Private Partnership (PPP) projects?

Solution:

Question on PPP
Option ‘a’ is India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF ) and ‘b’ is correct. So answer is c

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements regarding Civil society:
1. They are non state autonomous institutions, hence outside the authority of the state.
2. They oppose authoritarianism and totalitarianism.
3. They formulate public opinion and set the demand thereof.
4. They advocate pluralism to increase the domination of state.

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

Consider the following statements regarding RTI Act 2005:
1. The information seeker is required to give his name and complete address, though there is no prescribed
format of application for seeking information.
2. The information seeker is required to give reasons for seeking information.
3. If the applicant belongs to below poverty line (BPL) category, he is not required to pay any fee.
Which of the above statements are true?

Solution:

There is no prescribed format of application for seeking information. The application can be made on plain
paper. The application should, however, have the name and complete postal address of the applicant. Even in
cases where the information is sought electronically, the application should contain name and postal address of
the applicant.
The information seeker is not required to give reasons for seeking information.
If the applicant belongs to below poverty line (BPL) category, he is not required to pay any fee. However, he
should submit a proof in support of his claim to belong to the below poverty line. The application not
accompanied by the prescribed fee of Rs. 10/- or proof of the applicant’s belonging to below poverty line, as the
case may be, shall not be a valid application under the Act. It may be pointed out that there is no bar on the
public authority to supply information in response to such applications. However, provisions of Act would not
apply to such cases.

Hence, only statement 2 is incorrect.

QUESTION: 8

Consider following statements about local bodies.
1. The subject ‘Local Bodies’ is mentioned in Concurrent list of seventh schedule.
2. The subjects allocated to rural local bodies are mentioned in 11th Schedule of the Constitution.
3. The subjects allocated to Urban local bodies are mentioned in 12th Schedule.
Which of the following is/are true

Solution:

Local bodies’ is mentioned in state list of 7th schedule of the constitution.
73 and 74 amendment act inserted 11th and 12th Schedule in Constitution for Rural and Urban local bodies
respectively.

QUESTION: 9

Consider the following statements regarding the immunities conferred by the constitution.
1. Ministers are not liable in the courts for the official acts done by the President and the Governor on their
advice.
2. The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts.
3. The civil servants enjoy immunity from legal liability for their tortious acts in respect of the sovereign
functions of the government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

Consider following statements regarding the Supreme Court ruling on Co-operative Societies in October 2013.
1. Supreme Court ruled that co-operative societies are not public authority under section 2 of RTI Act.
2. The registrar of cooperatives (RoC) is duty bound to provide the information irrespective of whether cooperative
society is substantially financed out of government money or not.
Which of the given statements is /are true?

Solution:

Question on RTI act
According to the supreme court ruling both statements are true Section 2 defines what is meant by public
authority and ruling made clear that ROC is duty bound to provide information under RTI about co-operative
societies.

QUESTION: 11

"The right of citizens for time bound delivery of goods and services bill 2011" provides for the appointment of
both central and state public grievance redressal commission. Which of the following statements is/are correct
in respect of these commissions?
1. A person may file a complaint regarding any grievance related to citizen charter, functioning of public
authority or violation of law.

2. It enables both citizens as well as foreign nationals to seek redressal of grievances.
3. The Commissions may also initiate suo motu inquiry if they believe that there are reasonable grounds to
inquire into the matter.
4. The commissioners can be removed only after a judicial inquiry on an allegation of misbehaviour or
incapacity.
choose the correct option.

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

Which of the following are amongst the existing legal & institutional framework to check corruption & redress
citizen's grievances?
1. Commission for SCs & STs
2. Public servants (Inquiries) act, 1850
3. Railway services Conduct rules, 1956
4. Parliament & its committees

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements with respect to PESA (Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act 1996.
1. Every village should have a Gram Sabha, consisting of all residents of village.
2. The Gram Sabha is responsible for the identification or selection of persons as beneficiaries under the poverty
alleviation and other programmes
3. The chairperson of Panchayats in scheduled areas must belong to Schedule Tribe.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

According to PESA every village shall have a Gram Sabha consisting of persons whose names are included in the
electoral rolls for the Panchayat at the village level;
So option 1 is incorrect.
According to PESA every Gram Sabha shall be responsible for the identification or selection of persons as
beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other programmes; So option 2 is correct
According to PESA all seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes
So option 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 14

Consider the following statements with regard to The Panchayat Empowerment & Accountability Incentive
Scheme (PEAIS).
1. It seeks to empower Panchayats and put in place accountability systems to make their functioning
transparent and efficient.
2. It has been launched from the 11th Plan Onwards by the Ministry of Rural Development.

3. Incentivize States to empower Panchayats through devolution of 3Fs (functions, funds and functionaries) in
accordance with Article 243G read with Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
Which of the following is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme (PEAIS) is a Central Sector plan Scheme being
implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) since 2005-06. The scheme aims at encouraging States
to adequately empower Panchayats and put in place systems for bringing about accountability to PRIs. Incentive
grants are provided to States under the scheme for undertaking legislative and administrative measures for
effective devolution of 3Fs (Function, Fund and Functionaries) to PRIs.

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements regarding Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
1. The superintendence of CBI related to investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
2. In other matters superintendence is exercised by the Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the
Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Grievances of the Government of India.
3. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate a crime in a State without the consent of the
concerned State Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Question on anti-corruption.
First two statements are correct regarding jurisdiction and superintendence over the CBI. Last statement is
incorrect, according to section 2 of DPSE act central government has to take consent of the state in case of
crimes under jurisdiction of the state government.

QUESTION: 16

Arrange the following stages of Public Policy in correct order-
1. Agenda setting
2. Decision Making
3. Policy Formulation
4. Policy Implementation
5. Policy Evaluation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Which of the following were recommended by second ARC to address the problem of corruption in India?
1. Creating the institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta, and giving them constitutional status.
2. Amending Prevention of Corruption Act 1988.
3. Reducing discretionary powers of civil servants.

4. All development schemes and citizen centric programme should provide for social audit.
5. Creating local body ombudsman for group of districts to investigate cases against the functionaries of local
bodies.

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

The Gram Sabhas under Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, have:
1. Power to manage village markets and control the lending to Scheduled Tribes (ST).
2. Ownership of the minor forest produce.
3. Right to mandatory consultation in matters of land acquisition, resettlement and rehabilitation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

All the Statements are correct regarding powers of Gram Sabha under PESA. Gram sabha has special powers visà-
vis welfare of the scheduled tribes and forest land.
Question on PRI

QUESTION: 19

Consider the following statements regarding the National PPP Capacity Building Programme.
1. Its implementation is under Ministry of Urban Development.
2. Under the programme, training is given to officials of state governments, urban local bodies and select
Central government departments.
3. This is expected to result in improved capacities among government officials in preparing and managing PPP
projects across various infrastructure sectors.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

IDFC Foundation is the executing agency of the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance,
Government of India as for implementing the national capacity building programme. So option 1 is wrong.
National capacity building programme trains officials of state governments, urban local bodies and select Central
government departments, through existing institutes of public administration (ATIs) across fifteen states and
two central training institutes, including the LalBahadurShastri National Academy of administration (LBSNAA).
So option 2 is correct.
This is expected to result in improved capacities among government officials in preparing and managing PPP
projects across various infrastructure sectors in these States. So option 3 is also correct.

QUESTION: 20

With reference to Consumer rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
4. To strengthen consumer rights, there is a system of National Consumer helpline to record consumer
complaints.
5. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

A consumer is not required to pay any court fee but depending on the type of court and the claim amount there
is a provision of a nominal fee.

QUESTION: 21

Among various commissions and committees listed below some of them were constituted to give
recommendations regarding the police reform –
1. National Police Commission (NPC), 1980
2. Ribeiro committee, 1999
3. Padmanabhaiah Committee, 2000
4. Soli Sorabjee Committee, 2005
5. M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission, 2000
Choose the best option among given –

Solution:

M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission, 2000 was for Working of the Constitution.

QUESTION: 22

Which of the following is true about NEP 1991.
1. Licenses were removed from cigarettes industry.
2. Aerospace was reserved for public sector.
Choose correct answer.

Solution:

Licenses abolished for ind, other than alcohol, cigarettes, hazardous chemical, industrial explosives,electronic,
aerospace, drug & pharma.
Reserved for public : defence equipment, atomic energy, railway transport

QUESTION: 23

E-Stamping is a computer based application and a secured electronic way of stamping documents. It’s an
electronic way of paying stamp duty to the Government.Which of the following statements is/are true about EStamping:-
1. On-line Stamp Duty Certificate can be generated within minutes.
2. Once generated cancellation of the Stamp Certificate is not possible.
3. Stamp Certificate generated has a Unique Identification Number (UIN).
4. Specific denomination is required for E-Stamping.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Citizen’s Charter?
1. Citizen’s Charter is a document which represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the
Organisation towards its Citizens.
2. The term ‘Citizen’ in the Citizen’s Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are
addressed by the Citizen’s Charter.
3. The term ‘Citizen’ in the Citizen’s Charter includes not only the citizens but also all the stakeholders, i.e.,
citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/Departments/Organisations, State
Governments, UT Administrations etc.
4. Citizen’s Charter initiative not only covers the Central Government Ministries/ Departments/Organisations but also the Departments/ Agencies of State Governments and UT Administrations.

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) does not entertain complaints if:
1. The complaint is filed regarding an event that happened two years before.
2. Complaint pertains to service matters.
3. Complaint is made for the matter which is under consideration of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Question on rights issue.
1st statement is incorrect the term of expiry is one year. Remaining two statements are true regarding the
acceptance of complaint by NHRC.

QUESTION: 26

The mission of the National Cyber Security Policy launched in 2013 is?
1. To protect information infrastructure in cyber-space
2. To build capabilities to prevent and respond to cyber threats
3. Minimizing damage from cyber incidences
4. Reducing vulnerabilities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Question on e-Governance.
All the tasks form the part of the mission under the National Cyber Security Policy 2013.

QUESTION: 27

Which of the following does not have responsibility for the formulation of public policy?
1. The President
2. The common man
3. The Supreme Court
4. The Parliament
5. Independent Constitutional Bodies
Choose the best option among given –

Solution:

Independent Constitutional bodies (EC, UPSC etc)are expected to work independently as per mandate given in
the constitution but they does not have to form any public policy.

QUESTION: 28

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the NIF (National Investment Fund) usage?
1. NIF can be used to buy shares of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
2. NIF can be used to recapitalise Public Sector Banks & State-owned Insurance companies
3. NIF can be used to fund select Social Sector Programmes which promote health, education & employment
4. NIF can be used to meet capital requirements of profitable & revivable CPSEs (Public Sector Enterprises)
Options:

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

With respect to social audit, which of the following is/are correct?
1. Increases citizen participation.
2. Increases transparency.
3. Increases accountability.

Solution:

In a social audit, measures taken by the Gram Panchayat are discussed and approved by the Gram Sabha. Since
panchayat is elected by gram sabha it ensures accountability.

QUESTION: 30

Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Digital India Programme?
1. It aims at transforming the country into digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.

2. It aims at providing universal mobile connectivity.
3. It will pull together many existing schemes which would be restructured and re-focused.
4. In this programme there is no focus on Public Private Partnerships.
Choose from the codes given below.

Solution:

The vision of Digital India aims to transform the country into a digitally empowered society and knowledge
economy.It aims at providing universal mobile connectivity to increase the reach of govt. services. The Digital
India Programme will pull together many existing schemes which would be restructured and re-focused and
implemented in a synchronized manner. In this programme, Public Private Partnerships would be preferred
wherever feasible. So option d is incorrect.

QUESTION: 31

Among the following options, which is not a method by which Interest groups affect the formulation of public
policy?

Solution:

Interest groups uses various techniques and strategies to influence the formulation of public policy like
1. Informational strategies
2. Enhancing their power through extra-constitutional means like lobbying etc.
3. By going to judiciary, international organizations.
Though they can support a political party but they can’t form their political party. If one forms a political party
than it won’t remain a interest group any more.

QUESTION: 32

A radioactive compound is kept in a secret lab. Following experimental observations are noted down for three
rays/particles P, Q and R.
1. “P”, “Q” are deflected in magnetic field while “R” remains unchanged.
2. “P” is deflected towards negatively charged pole while “R” remains unaffected.
3. “Q” is repealed by negatively charged pole.

Solution:

Alpha particles are positively charged particles with mass equal to Helium nucleus. They are deflected in
magnetic and electric field.
Beta particles are negatively charged particles with mass equal to that of electron. They are again deflected in
magnetic and electric field.
Gamma ray doesn’t deflect in any field.

QUESTION: 33

Which of the following activities is/are not related to Panchayati Raj?
1. Backward regions grant fund.
2. E-panchayat.
3. Capacity building through training and need analysis.
4. Implementation of PESA (panchayat extension to scheduled areas).
5. Ombudsman and social audit.

6. Decentralized governance in north eastern region.
7. Gender Responsive Panchayats.
Select the correct answer using codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Consider the following statements with regard to the poverty alleviation programme MGNREGA:
1. All the BPL card holders in the rural areas will get up to 100 days of wage employment .
2. Those tribals who have received land rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, will be eligible for additional
50 days of wage employment under the rural job scheme.
3. About half of the beneficiaries are women.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

It does not need a BPL card and is universalistic by design, promising up to one hundred days of employment to
any rural household that requests it.
The scheme, in which half of the beneficiaries are women, roughly reaches every fifth household in the rural
areas and provides employment to more than 4.8 crore households .

QUESTION: 35

Consider the following statements regarding Second Administrative Reform Commission report-
1. It suggested partial state funding of elections and tightening of anti-detection law.
2. It proposed the establishment of National Judicial Council.
3. It recommended abolition of schemes under which MPs and MLAs are allocated funds for their local Area
development.
Select the correct code-

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Consider the following statements with reference to the City Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) in Delhi Mumbai
Industrial corridor project.
1. The city SPVs has been given the power to levy user fees
2. The city SPVs are to be companies under the Companies Act
3. The city SPVs will be vested with the responsibilities of planning and development of city.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The city SPVs will be vested with the responsibilities of planning and development and the power to levy user
fees. These SPVs are to be companies under the Companies Act. The valuation increases from urbanization and
development will accrue to the city-level SPVs, and will be reinvested in the cities. The initial construction of the cities will be done through project managers with global experience, who will control, monitor, review, and
supervise the detailed engineering.
So all options are correct.

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following statements with respect to State Election Commission.
1. It has responsibility for the conduct of elections of panchayats and state legislative council.
2. State election commissioner can be removed from office by the Governor of the state.
3. State legislature may make provisions with respect to all matters relating to elections of the panchayats.
Which of these is/are true?

Solution:

State election commission doesn’t have the responsibility to conduct the election of state legislative councils. So
option (1) is wrong.
State election commissioner can be removed from office as in manner prescribed for HC judges, so he can be
removed by President on the recommendation of Parliament. So option (2) is wrong.
Constitution has given the power to state legislature that it may make provisions with respect to all matters
relating to elections of the panchayats. So option 3 is correct. (article 243K)

QUESTION: 38

Consider following statements:
1. In Dec 2013 Supreme Court asked the Parliament to enact Civil Service Act under Art 309 to constitute Civil Service Board. 
2. Civil Services Board (CSB) will manage transfers, postings, and enquiries, process of promotion, reward,
punishment and disciplinary matters of civil servants.
Which of the given statements is/are true?

Solution:

Question Administrative reforms
Both statements are correct.

QUESTION: 39

According to the UN, good governance has eight characteristics, which of the following is not one of the
characteristics mentioned by UN-

Solution:

According to the UN, good governance has eight characteristics-
· Consensus Oriented
· Participatory
· following the Rule of Law
· Effective and Efficient
· Accountable
· Transparent
· Responsive
· Equitable and Inclusive

QUESTION: 40

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted by United Nations General Assembly. Select an option
which is not mentioned in the Declaration.

Solution:

All the three mentioned rights are there in the declaration. It consists of 30 articles.
Question on rights issue.

QUESTION: 41

Which of the following are the basic parts of all the cells-
1. Cell membrance
2. DNA
3. Cytoplasm
4. Nucleus
Codes:

Solution:

All cells have three basic parts-
1. Cell membrance which limits the cell and gives it shape.
2. DNA which may be contained in a nucleus.
3. Fluid called cytoplasm filling in the space within the cell.
All cells do not have nucleus like-prokaryotic.

QUESTION: 42

Though the Constitution of India does not define the word ‘Minority’ and only refers to ‘Minorities’ and speaks of those ‘based on religion or language’, the rights of the minorities have been spelt out in the Constitution in
detail. Which of the following options are correct with reference to Minorities as per the constitution?
1. The Constitutional Provision for rights of minorities are included in Article 25, 29 and 30
2. National Commission for Minorities Act 1992 created National Commission for Minorities as a statutory body.
3. Composition of Commission 1+1+5, but five members including Chairman should be from minority
community and tenure is of four years.
4. Powers of Commission is that of a civil court.
Option:

Solution:

· Tenure is of three years.
· The Commission shall consist of a Chairperson, a Vice Chairperson and five Members to be nominated by
the Central Government from amongst persons of eminence, ability and integrity; provided that five
Members including the Chairperson shall be from amongst the minority communities.

QUESTION: 43

Consider following statements regarding Panchayat Devolution Index formulated by Indian Institute of Public
Administration every year.
1. It consists of Funds, Functions, functionaries, accountability, capacity building and framework as dimensions for ranking states.
2. Incentives under the Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Scheme are given to States and Union
Territories, in accordance with their performance as measured in the index.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Solution:

Question on local governance.
Both statements are true regarding Devolution index. It is an important instrument to push for greater
devolution of powers to PRI from states.

QUESTION: 44

Which of the following are published by Transparency International (TI)?
1. Corruption Perception Index
2. Global Corruption Barometer
3. Bribe Payers Index
4. Graft Index
Codes:

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

A high tension wires produce a humming sound usually.which of the following statements is/are true about this
:-
1. Due to extra high voltages conductor tends to breakdown.Vibration inside the wire creates this specific
sound.
2. Air in close proximity to the wire creates this specific sound.
3. This event is known as corona effect.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

Due to extra high voltages conductor tends to breakdown.But its air tends to break down.so the Air in close
proximity to the wire creates this specific sound.
This event is known as corona effect.

QUESTION: 46

Section 8(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 includes some exemptions. Which of the following has/have
been granted exemption from disclosure under the act, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger
public interest warrants the disclosure of the relevant information?
1. Information in respect of intellectual property, the disclosure of which could harm the competitive position of
a third party.
2. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.
Choose from the codes given below:

Solution:

The right to information is not absolute. Not all information that the Government generates will or should be
given out to the public. There are some pieces of information, which are so sensitive that if they were released
to the public, they might actually cause serious harm to more important interests.

QUESTION: 47

Consider the following statements with regard to MPLAD Scheme in India. Which of them is incorrect?

Solution:

ALL THE STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT EXCEPT THE LAST as the Fund allocation for MPLADS was revised from Rs. 2
Crore to Rs. 5Crore

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following statement regarding Consumer Protection Act-
1. Consumer Protection Act excludes commercial transaction from its purview.
2. The consumer can seek redressal against only individual and Private enterprises and not public enterprises.
3. The act provides for establishment of 2-tier consumer dispute redressal machinery at the national and state
level.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Solution:

Consumer can seek redressal against any individual/private or public enterprises.
There are III tier consumer dispute redressal machinery at the national, state and district level.

QUESTION: 49

Rights based approaches to development, like RTE Act, 2009, can be located in which of the following provisions of constitution?

Solution:

Part III of the constitution contains the Fundamental Rights.

QUESTION: 50

Radon differs from other naturally radioactive elements in which of the following ways :-
1. It is a noble gas.
2. It is as chemically active as fluorine.
3. It decays into the element radium.
4. It is extremely radioactive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

Radonis a radioactive, colorless, odorless, tasteless noble gas, occurring naturally as an indirect decay product of
uranium or thorium.
It is formed as one intermediate step in the normal radioactive decay chains, through which thorium and
uranium slowly decay into lead.
Radon is a highly radioactive element
Radon is a unreactive inert gas

QUESTION: 51

What comes under the purview of Corporate Governance?

Solution:

Corporate governance is a concept, rather than an individual instrument. It includes debate on the appropriate
management and control structures of a company. It includes the rules relating to the power relations between
owners, the board of directors, management and the stakeholders such as employees, suppliers, customers as
well as the public at large.
In India, corporate governance initiatives have been undertaken by the Ministry of of Corporate Affairs (MCA)
and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

QUESTION: 52

The Indian Parliamentary system is different from the United States Presidential system because:
1. India has a real and a nominal executive while U.S has a real executive only.
2. In India the Council of Ministers is responsible to the House of Commons which is not so in the U.S

Solution:

The COM headed by the P.M in India is the real executive while the President is the nominal executive. In U.S the
President is the real executive. In India the Council of Ministers is responsible to the House of Commons which is
not so in the U.S.

QUESTION: 53

Consider following statements regarding The United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities
(UNCPRD):
1. Right to have consideration of special needs at all stages of economic and social planning.
2. Right to respect for human dignity.
3. Right to same civil and political rights as other human beings.
Which of the proclamations given above is/are mentioned in UNCPRD?

Solution:

Question on rights issue.
All the three proclamations are there in the thirteen proclamations made under the UNCPRD which was adopted
in 2007

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following is/are constitutional bodies meant to secure co-operation between Centre and states?
1. Inter-state council
2. NDC
3. Chief Secretaries conference
4. Zonal councils
Choose from the codes given below.

Solution:

NDC, Chief Secretaries conference and Zonal councils are extra-constitutional devices. Article 263 of the
constitution empowers the Parliament to create Inter-state council by law.

QUESTION: 55

Consider the following statements
1. Government or institutional audits are those that are conducted in-house or through external, professional,
auditing institutions, and are ordinarily conducted without the significant involvement of the affected people
and/or the intended beneficiaries.
2. Social audits are those that are conducted solely by the people, especially by those people who are affected by, or are the intended beneficiaries of, the activity being audited.

3. MGNREGA has inbuilt provisions for social audit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Broadly speaking, there are at least three types of audits. These are :
a. Government or institutional audits,
b. Social audits, and
c. People’s audits.
Government or institutional audits are those that are conducted in-house or through external, professional,
auditing institutions, and are ordinarily conducted without the significant involvement of the affected people
and/or the intended beneficiaries.
Social audits are those that are conducted jointly by the government and the people, especially by those people
who are affected by, or are the intended beneficiaries of, the activity being audited.
People’s audits are those that are conducted by the people themselves, including those who are directly affected
or are the intended beneficiaries, sometimes with the assistance of movements and NGOs, but invariably with
the sincere effort to involve the concerned department or institution.

QUESTION: 56

Through e-governance, government services will be made available to citizens in a convenient, efficient and
transparent manner. The challenges to e-governance initiatives in India include:
1. Tendency to resist the change in work culture
2. Assessment of local needs and customizing e-Governance solutions to meet those needs
3. Connectivity
4. Content (local content based on local language)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

All the four options, in addition to many others, represent challenges to e-governance initiatives in India.

QUESTION: 57

As per the Sevottam model, a citizen charter must display-
1. Vision and mission statement of the organisation.
2. Define a grievance and mechanism to resolve it.
3. Organisational structure for better understanding of public.
4. List of key service(s) being offered by the organisation.
5. Annual expenditure for improving service delivery in the particular organisation.
Which of the above is/are correct. Choose the best option among given –

Solution:

Statement 1, 2, 4 are correct only.
Sevottam19 is a Service Delivery Excellence Model which provides an assessment-improvement framework to
bring about excellence in public service delivery. The need for a tool like Sevottam arose from the fact that
Citizens’ Charters by themselves could not achieve the desired results in improving quality of public services. The
Second Adminstrative Reform Commission has studied the Sevottam model and is of the view that it is a step in
the right direction. However, it would require further strengthening and refinement. Second ARC recommended
IS 15700:2005. The IS 15700:2005 of the Bureau of Indian Standards is an Indian Standard for Quality
Management Systems.
Some Stipulations in IS 15700:2005 regarding citizen charter

The Citizens’ Charter shall contain:
1. Vision and mission statement of the organisation.
2. List of key service(s) being offered by the organisation, and
3. Measurable service standards for the service(s) provided and remedies available to the customer for noncompliance
to the standards. The Citizens Charter shall:
1. Represent a systematic effort of the organisation to focus on its commitment towards its customers.
2. Be simple and easily understandable and also printed in local languages, as required.
3. Be non-discriminatory.
4. Describe or refer to complaint handling process.
5. Include the name, address, telephone number and other contact details of the public grievance officer.
6. Be periodically reviewed for up-dates and continual improvement.
7. Highlight expectations of the organisation from its customers where required.
8. Provide information on the date of issue of the Citizens Charter and persons who were consulted during its
preparation.

QUESTION: 58

Initially, HIV was considered to be one single virus type. However, it was soon revealed, that there were
basically two strains of the HIV virus- HIV1 and HIV2.Which of the following is/are differences between the two
strains :-
1. HIV1 can be found across all the places of the world while HIV2 is mainly concentrated to areas of Western
Africa.
2. HIV1 has been found to weaken the immune system at a much slower rate, than the HIV2 strain.

3. In the later stages HIV2 has been found to be more infectious and does more damage than HIV1 strain.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

The following are some of the major differences between the two strains:
1. The first major difference between the two strains lies in the number of cases reported under each strain.
While HIV1 is the most common strain and is found in the majority of HIV infection cases, HIV2 is the less
common strain and is not found very often.
2. Another major difference between HIV1 and HIV2 is in relation to the areas of prevalence. While HIV1 can be
found across all the places of the world, the less common HIV2 is mainly concentrated to areas of Western
Africa. HIV2 cases are mainly found in countries like, Senegal, Nigeria, as well as the Ivory Coast. Apart from this,
it has also spread into countries like France and Portugal, as a result of economic relationships with these
countries.
3. Apart from that, another important difference lies in terms of clinical research, as well as medical facilities
available for each strain. Although, we may have a number of antiretroviral therapies, which are there for the
treatment of HIV; these antiretroviral therapies mainly focus on the HIV1 strain, since it is most common. HIV2,
being less common had less scope for clinical research. Due to this reason, there has not been much medical
development, as far as HIV2 is concerned.
4. Also, HIV2 has been found to be slow in progress and has been found to weaken the immune system at a
much slower rate, than the HIV1 strain. It has also been said that, HIV2 is less infectious in the earlier stages and
is also said to be less easily transmitted.
5. However, in the later stages, it is HIV2 which does more damage. It has been found to be more infectious in
the later stages, causing a number of ailments in a very short span of time.

QUESTION: 59

Consider the following statements-
1. Blood cells are manufactured in the bone marrow.
2. No nucleus is present in RBC.
3. RBC carry oxygen to tissues and bring back CO2 from tissues.
4. Platelets also have no nuclei.
Which one of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Consider the following statements-
1. Prokaryotic cells have a well-organized nucleus.
2. Eukaryotic cells do not have a well-organized nucleus.
3. Genetic material in prokaryotic cell is a single molecule of DNA laying in the cytoplasm.
4. Eukaryotic cell is made of two or more DNA molecules.
Which one of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Prokaryotic cells do not have a well organized nucleus.
Eukaryotic cells have a well organized nucleus.

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following is/are true about National Commission for Protection of Child Rights?
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. It submits its report to Central Government.
3. It has power of a civil court.

Solution:

It is only a statutory body.

QUESTION: 62

Consider the following statements about cooperatives
1. Part IX B in the Constitution deals with cooperatives.
2. Forming cooperative societies is a fundamental right under the constitution.
3. As per Directive Principles of State Policy the “State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation,
autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies.”
Which of the above statements are correct

Solution:

· 97th Constitution Amendment( to Encourage Economic Activities of Cooperatives) received the assent of
president on 12 Jan 2012.
· The amendment adds a new Directive Principles of State Policy stating that the “State shall endeavour to
promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional
management of co-operative societies.” It further inserts a new part IX B in the Constitution (adding
Articles 243ZH through 243ZT), which outlines certain guidelines for running co-operative societies.
· It makes the right to form cooperative societies a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c)
· The state legislature shall specify the number of members of the Board of Directors of a co-operative
society. The number is limited to 21. The term of the Board is for a period of five years. On every Board
of a co-operative society, one seat shall be reserved for a person who is a Scheduled Caste or Schedule
Tribe and two seats shall be reserved for women.
· The election of members to the Board must be conducted before the expiry of the previous one. The
state legislature would outline the guidelines for conducting such elections.
· The state legislature shall make provisions for co-opting any person having experience in the field of
banking, management, finance or specialization in a field related to a particular co-operative society as
members of the Board. A maximum of two people can be co-opted to the Board. The co-opted member
would not have the right to vote in any election of the co-operative society or be eligible for election as
Chairman, President, Vice-Chairman or Vice-President.
· The Board of a co-operative society can be superseded in case of (a) persistent default; (b) negligence in
the performance of its duties; (c) commission of any act prejudicial to the interest of the co-operative
society or its members; (d) there is a stalemate in the constitution or function of the Board; or (e) the
general body has failed to conduct the elections as per the required procedure.
· A Board cannot be superseded or suspended for more than six months. In case a Board has been
superseded, the administrator appointed to manage the affairs of such a co-operative society shall
arrange for conducting elections within the specified time period.
· The Board of a co-operative society which does not have any shareholding or guarantee or loan or
financial assistance from the government cannot be superseded.
· The provisions of the Banking Regulations Act, 1949 will be applicable to banking co-operative societies.
· The state legislature may define the offences and penalties related to co-operative societies. An offence
would be committed if (a) a co-operative society files a false return, (b) wilfully disobeys any summon or
requisition issued under the state Act, (c) any employer who, without sufficient cause, does not pay to
the co-operative society the amount deducted from an employee within a period of 14 days, (d) any
officer who wilfully does not hand over custody of books, accounts or cash of a co-operative society to
an authorized person, and (e) any person who adopts corrupt practices before, during or after the
election of Board members or office bearers.

QUESTION: 63

The passage of Right to Information Act in 2005 by Government of India marked a paradigm shift in the citizengovernment relationship in India. Consider the following statements:
1. Only a public authority can disclose even exempted information, if it is in public interest( human rights
violation, corruption)
2. Right to Information includes the right to inspect works, documents, records.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

Solution:

Right to Information includes the right to -
i. inspect works, documents, records – Normal charge for inspecting documents is Rs 10/- for the first hour
and Rs 5/- for every hour afterwords

QUESTION: 64

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The ‘national political parties’ come under the ambit of RTI Act.
2. The ‘co-operative societies’ do not come under the ambit of RTI Act

Solution:

The power exercised by the Registrar over the societies is merely supervisory and regulatory. “The mere
supervision or regulation as such by a statute or otherwise of a body would not make that body a public
authority within the meaning of Section 2(h)(d)(i) of the Act.

QUESTION: 65

Recently the Second National Lok Adalat held across the country amicably settled about 1.25 crore pending and pre-litigation cases and brought financial relief to ordinary litigants in a single day. Which of the following
statements regarding Lok Adalats is/are correct?
1. The first Lok Adalat in India was held at Junagarh, Gujarat, the land of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The Lok Adalat is presided over by a sitting or retired judicial officer or other person of respect and legal
knowledge.
3. No appeal lies against the order of the Lok Adalat.

4. The procedural laws and the Evidence Act are strictly followed during litigation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Solution:

The procedural laws and the Evidence Act are not strictly followed during litigation.

QUESTION: 66

What are the factors which have led to delegation/devolution of legislative authority to the Executive ?
1. The incoming of MPLAD Scheme
2. The rise of Delegated legislation
3. Increasing occurrences of Guillotine.
4. Growing complexity & volume of work coupled with the limited time with legislators.
Select the correct code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

The reason for the cricket fielders pulling their hands backwards while catching is attributed to

Solution:

The 2nd law of motion talks about the rate of change of momentum which is equal to the force. The fielder
gradually pulls his hands backwards so that the rate of change of momentum which practically equals the impact
he feels on his hands is decreased. This saves his palms from getting hurt.

QUESTION: 68

Consider the following statements with regard to PPP Policy of GOI.
1. Build-own-operate (BOO) model is normally not supported form of PPP.
2. Govt. does not recognise service contracts, Engineering-Procurement-Construction (EPC) contracts and
divestiture of assets as forms of PPP.
3. The final decision on the form of PPP is a determinant of the Value for Money analysis.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Solution:

ALL ARE CORRECT STATEMENTS. Build-own-operate (BOO) model is normally not the supported form of Public
Private Partnership in view of the finite resources of the Government and complexities in imposing penalties in
the event of non-performance and estimation of value of underlying assets in the event of early termination.
Government of India does not recognise service contracts, Engineering-Procurement-Construction (EPC)
contracts and divestiture of assets as forms of PPP.

QUESTION: 69

Nitrous oxide, commonly called laughing gas, has been a matter of concern to environmentalists recently
because:

Solution:

Nitrous oxide gives rise to NO (nitric oxide) on reaction with oxygen atoms, and this NO in turn reacts with
ozone. As a result, it is the main naturally occurring regulator of stratospheric ozone. It is also a major
greenhouse gas and air pollutant.It has 310 times more impact 'per unit weight' (Global warming potential) than
carbon dioxide according to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

QUESTION: 70

Consider the following statements:
1. The Official Language Act (1963) says down that English should be used for purposes of communication
between the Union and the non-Hind states (states that have not adopted Hindi as their official
language).
2. A state legislature can prescribe the use of only any language mentioned in eights schedule of the
constitution with respect to bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, bye-laws or regulations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

A state legislature can prescribe the use of any language with respect to bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules,
bye-laws or regulations

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following is NOT a differcence between LED tv and LCD tv ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

Consider the following statements regarding 3P India:
1. It is an institution to provide support to mainstream PPPs with sum of 500 crore.
2. This institution will provide funding to PPP projects.
3. This will facilitate the development of quick grievance redressal system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

In budget 2014 Government has proposed to set-up an institution to provide support to mainstreaming PPPs
called 3P India with a sum of Rs. 500 crore. The institution will facilitate nuanced and sophisticated models of
contracting and developing quick dispute redressal mechanism of PPPs but 3P india will not provide funding to
any PPP project.
So option 1 and 3 are correct and option 2 is wrong.

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the citizen’s ombudsman (Lok Prahari)
1. It will have a small committee which would be attached to every department, for which a citizen’s charter has
been issued.
2. This committee will also consist of a social activist representing any NGO interested in the work of citizen’s
charter implementation.

3. The citizen should report the matter of corruption like bribery directly to the citizen’s ombudsman, thereafter
it will go to the vigilance department.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

All are correct

QUESTION: 74

Which of the following are features of the SMART police station and the SMART police as proposed by
government?
1. It would meet the operational and welfare needs of the police personnel posted at police station.
2. SMART police station would be citizen-friendly and clean.
3. In the word SMART, the letters stand for Simple and Sensitive, Modern and Mobile, Alert and Accountable,
Reliable and Responsive, Techno savvy and Trained.
Choose from the codes given below:

Solution:

The SMART police station would become the foundation for SMART policing. A SMART police station should be
citizen-friendly and clean. It should also meet the operational and welfare needs of the police personnel posted
there
So option 1 and 2 are correct.
SMART force means Strict and Sensitive, Modern and Mobile, Alert and accountable, Reliable and Responsive,
Techno savvy and Trained.
So option 3 is incorrect

QUESTION: 75

Consider the following statements:
1. Malnourishment is both preventable and treatable and can lead to complications that include mental and
physical disabilities.
2. Malnourishment can cause infections.
3. Malnourishment can be caused by both Micro and Macro nutrients.
Which of the above statements is or are correct?

Solution:

Malnourishment doesn’t cause infections; it just makes the body more prone to it.

QUESTION: 76

Consider the following with respect to RTI Act 2005-
1. RTI comes under fundamental right under article 19(1).
2. RTI Act made it obligatory on the part of public official to furnish the information sought under RTI Act.
3. Intelligence agencies (IB & RAW) and security agencies (BSF, CISF, and NSG Etc) are completely out of
purview of the Act. Therefore no information can be sought with respect to these agencies under the Act.
Which of the above is true?

Solution:

Intelligence and security agencies are not completely out of purview of Act, information on charges under
corruption, violation of human rights etc can be sought under the Act. RTI comes under article 19(1) which is
emphasized by many of the rulings of the courts.

QUESTION: 77

The actions taken by the Reserve Bank of India are best characterized as:

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

Consider the following statements
1. The atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the air on us per unit area
2. It is small in magnitude
3. It is balanced by the pressure inside our bodies
Choose the correct option

Solution:

The atmospheric pressure is very huge in magnitude. It is 101325 Pascal but the pressure from inside our bodies
balances this pressure from outside.

QUESTION: 79

Viability Gap Funding (VGF) scheme supports infrastructure PPP projects that are economically beneficial but fall short of financial viability. Which of the following are true:
1. Support under this scheme is only available for infrastructure projects where private sector sponsors are
chosen through a competitive bidding process
2. The Union Government meets upto 20% of the Total Project Cost as Capital Grant (either one-time or
deferred)
3. VGF scheme is administered by the Ministry of Finance
Options:

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

The upward force experienced by a body fully immersed in a fluid depends on
1. the mass of the body
2. the density of the fluid
3. the volume of the body
Choose the correct option

Solution:

The Archimedes Principle says that the upward force or the buoyant force equals the weight of the fluid
displaced. This is equal to the volume of the submersed body multiplied by the density of the fluid multiplied by
the value of g.

QUESTION: 81

Consider following statements about Digital India programme to “transform India into digital empowered society
and knowledge economy.
1. Digital India conceived and implemented by Prime Minister’s Offce(PMO).
2. It will be implemented in phases from 2014 to 2018.
3. The programme aims at providing digital infrastructure as a utility to every citizen as well as high-speed
internet as a core utility in all gram panchayats.
Which of the following is/are true?

Solution:

Statement 1 is wrong.
Digital India was envisaged by the Department of Electronics and Information Technology (Deity), Digital India
will be implemented in phases from the current year till 2018.
It aims at ensuring that government services are available to citizens electronically.and “to become an umbrella
programme covering many departments.

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements with regard to appeal procedure for RTI
1. The first appeal has to be filed with the senior officer of concerned Public Information Officer within 90 days
2. Failing the first appeal, the second appeal can be filed with the state information commission only
3. Anybody can seek any information
4. There is a need to give reasons for seeking information.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Solution:

Failing the first appeal, the second appeal can be filed with both Central Information commission as well as the
State Information commission.
Anybody can seek any information which is not sensitive and having no security implications.
There is no need to give reasons for seeking information.

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements:
1. RTI includes information relating to any private body which can be accessed by the public authority under
any law for the time being in force.
2. Non-Government organizations substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government also fall within the definition of public authority under RTI.
Which of the above statements are true?

Solution:

RTI includes information relating to any private body which can be accessed by the public authority under any
law for the time being in force.
A “public authority” is any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted by or
under the Constitution; or by any other law made by the Parliament or a State Legislature; or by notification
issued or order made by the Central Government or a State Government. The bodies owned, controlled or
substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government and non-Government organisations
substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government also fall within the definition of public
authority. The financing of the body or the NGO by the Government may be direct or indirect.
Hence, both statements hold water.

QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements regarding Central Bureau Of Investigation (CBI):
1. The CBI is a statutory body.
2. It has been conferred powers of Tribunal under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Which of the statements are true?

Solution:

The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption
(1962 -1964). The CBI is not a statutory body.
It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. It also provides assistance to the
Central Vigilance Commission. Hence, does not enjoy any powers of Tribunal or civil court.
Hence, none of the given statements are true.

QUESTION: 85

When a lighted matchstick is shown before another light source, the shadow of the matchstick is formed on a
screen but not the shadow of the flame.Which of the following statements is true about this :-
1. Because the flame throws its own light to fall on the region beyond it.
2. Because It cannot prevent the light from the other source.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Which of the following are the limitations of Policy evaluation?
1. Ambiguity of the Goals of Public Policy
2. Evaluators are not detached and impartial individuals
3. Policy evaluation process is not always designed to reveal the effects of a Policy due to political pressure.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Aadhaar Scheme ?
1. Unique Identification numbers and Aadhaar cards are being given to all residents of India, including noncitizens.
2. Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique number issued by UIDAI.
3. UIDAI was established by a law passed by the Parliament.
4. Aadhaar will be issued on a mandatory basis.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

1. Unique Identification numbers and Aadhaar cards are being given to all residents of India, including noncitizens.
2. Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique number issued by UIDAI.
3. UIDAI was established by an executive order. The National Identification Authority of India Bill, 2010 is
pending in Rajya Sabha.
4. Aadhaar will be issued on a voluntary basis.

QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements regarding Central Information Commission established under the provisions
of the Right to Information Act (2005) -
1. While inquiring, Commission has the powers of tribunal under matters like receiving evidence on affidavit.
2. The Commission can act suo-moto.
3. The Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the
provisions of RTI Act.
Which of the above statements are true-

Solution:

While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of the following matters:
(a) summoning and enforcing attendance of persons and compelling them to give oral or written evidence on
oath and to produce documents or things
(b) requiring the discovery and inspection of documents
(c) receiving evidence on affidavit
(d) requisitioning any public record from any court or office
(e) issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents
The Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power).

The Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions
of this Act. The Central Government places this report before each House of
Parliament.
Here statement 1 holds untrue. Hence, b should be the answer.

QUESTION: 89

Consider the Following statement and choose the correct statement(s):
1. The National Commission for Schedule Castes and the National Commission for Minorities are the
constitutional body.
2. The National Commission for SC while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaints has all the
powers of a Civil Court.
Select the correct answer using the Codes given below:

Solution:

National Commission for Minorities is not a constitutional body

QUESTION: 90

-With reference to State Finance Commission, consider the following statements.
1. It is constituted by the President to make Panchayati Raj Institutions financially less dependent on state
government.
2. The recommendations of state finance commission include the principles that should govern the
determination of taxes, duties that may be assigned to Panchayats.
3. It has constitutional status.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

According to article 243, State finance commission is constituted by Governor of state. So option (1) is incorrect.
The functions of state finance commission are:
1. The distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and
fees levied by the State, which may be divided between them under this Part and the allocation between
the Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of such proceeds;
2. The determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned as, or appropriated by, the
Panchayats;
3. The grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State;
So option (2) is correct.
Article 243I of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one
year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, constitute the SFC.
Thus it has constitutional status.

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Information Commission:
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions etc. under the Central
government and the Union territories under provisions of RTI Act, 2005.
3. The members of the commission are appointed by the president on the recommendation of a committee
consisting of the Prime Minister, the leader of opposition in Lok Sabha, and union cabinet minister nominated by the prime minister .
4. The members are not eligible for re-appointment.
Which of the following are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements regarding Gram Nyayalayas .
1. Gram Nyayalayas are presided by an official called Nyayadhikari who is appointed by State Govt. in
consultation with High Court.
2. Gram Nyayalayas can try both Civil & Criminal Cases.
3. Appeals from its judgements lie directly to the High Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Gram Nyayalayas Act 2008 had come into force on October 2, 2009 to provide for the establishment of the Gram
Nyayalayas at the grass roots level . Some important points-
Each Gram Nyayalaya is a court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) is
appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court.; A Gram Nyayalaya is established for
every Panchayat at intermediate level or a group of contiguous Panchayats at intermediate level in a district; it
is a mobile court and exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts; An appeal against a judgement of
the Gram Nyayalaya is taken forward as follows: Session Courts in case of criminal case
District courts in case of civil cases.

QUESTION: 93

Consider the following statements:
1. The LARR Act 2013 requires that a Social Impact Assessment be conducted to identify affected families and calculate the social impact when land is acquired.
2. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement
(Amendment) Ordinance, 2014 exempts five categories of projects from this provision of Social Impact
Assessment .
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Ordinance creates five special categories of and use:
· defence,
· rural infrastructure,
· affordable housing,
· industrial corridors,

· infrastructure projects including Public Private Partnership (PPP) projects where the central government owns the land.
These five categories of land use are exempted from certain provisions of the act.

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements regarding Rights of Disabled Persons:

1. DPSP and 7th schedule contain provisions to secure the rights of disabled persons
2. Legal Provision include Persons with Disability (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full
Participation) Act, 1995.
3. India is a signatory to Proclamation on the full participation and equality of people with disability in the Asian
and Pacific Region.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?

Solution:

All statements are correct

QUESTION: 95

Choose the correct statement:

Solution:

The commission to review the working of the constitution was headed by M. N. Venkatachaliah.
There is no fixed time limit to setup ARC

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following the statements with regard to initiatives taken for ‘Urban Governance’ under JNNURM in
India.
1. "Peer Experience and Reflective Learning" (PEARL) programme was launched to foster cross learning and
knowledge by formation of groups among JNNURM cities having similar socio-economic profile and urban issues.
2. City Volunteer Technical Corps (CVTC's) are voluntary groups professionals of urban planning, urban
governance. Their role is to advice in city governance, poverty reduction programmes, ensuring accountability,
transparency, people’s participation.
3. National Urban Transport Policy launched in 2006 has now been linked with JNNURM with aim of establishing clean, public-centric transport.
Which of the following statements is/are true?

Solution:

“Peer Experience and Reflective Learning” (PEARL) is an initiative under JNNURM launched in 2007 to support
cities to actively pursue activities in implementation of the projects and reforms. The objective of PEARL is to
create manageable networks between JNNURM cities for cross learning and knowledge sharing.
CVTCs were set up by Ministry of Urban Development in 2009 under JNUURM & have been envisaged as an
integral part of programme Implementation at city level with the objective of offering advice to JNNURM related
activities
The CVTC's are formed in the 7 areas of urban engineering, urban planning, urban poverty, urban governance,
heritage, urban environment and urban financial services.

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following are the constitutional rights of the citizen?
1. No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
2. No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.
3. The elections to the state legislative assembly shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
4. Trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.

Choose the correct option.

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

Consider the following statements regarding National Judicial Appointment Commission bill-
1. Such a bill needs to be ratified by two-third of the state legislatures.
2. The assent of the Union territories is not required to make such a bill an act. However, Delhi and Puducherry can participate in ratification process.
Which of the above statements are true?

Solution:

A bill which seeks to change the federal structure needs to be ratified by half of the state legislatures. Some of
the bills of such kind may be-
1. Appointment or removal of judges of Union judiciary
2. Appointment or removal of judges of State judiciary
Union territories have no say in Constitutional amendment. Even Delhi and Puducherry enjoy partial statehood
powers but none of the territories can participate in ratification process because they are not states, as defined
by the Constitution.
Hence, none of the statements are true.

QUESTION: 99

As per the Forest Rights Act, who has the responsibilty for recognition and vesting of forest rights of tribes?

Solution:

As per the Act, The responsibility for recognition and vesting of forest rights and distribution of land rights rests
with the State Govt.

QUESTION: 100

Consider the following statements regarding Central Vigilance commission.
1. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam committee on Prevention of Corruption.
2. It is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body.
3. It is multi-member body consisting of central vigilance commissioner and not more than 2 vigilance
commissioners.
4. They are appointed by president on the recommendation of council of ministers.
Which of the above are incorrect?

Solution:

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