UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13


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This mock test of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 13 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) are related to

Solution:

Justification: The APA Scheme was introduced in the Income-tax Act
in 2012 and the “Rollback” provisions were introduced in 2014.
• The scheme endeavours to provide certainty to taxpayers in the
domain of transfer pricing by specifying the methods of pricing
and setting the prices of international transactions in advance.
Learning: Transfer pricing happens when two companies that are part
of the same multinational group trade with each other. For example, if a
subsidiary company sells goods to a parent company, the cost of those
goods paid by the parent to the subsidiary is the transfer price.
• Transfer pricing often complicates tax matters as different entities
of the same company may be taxed at different rates (e.g. service
tax or cess may be different for tobacco or hotels, both in the
domain of ITC).
• Companies often try to evade taxes by showing lower profits in the
high taxation sector, to reduce tax burden.
• APAs avoid this by signing advance agreements regarding the
same.

QUESTION: 2

You are an intelligence officer and have been taken to an unknown location in Australia. The intelligence team back in India knows your longitude due to the time zone in which you have been captivated. You need to communicate only your latitude to the officers in India to help them evacuate you. You can know the latitude of your place by

Solution:

Justification: Options B and C will remain constant irrespective of the
position from where you measure these values. So, you cannot determine
your latitude by these values.
Option A would have been helpful if you had been captivated in the
Northern hemisphere. Pole star is not visible from Southern hemisphere
(Australia), hence it is of no use to you.
None of the given options A, B or C is correct.
Learning: In ancient times, people used to determine directions during
the night with the help of stars.
The North star (Pole star) indicates the north direction. It always
remains in the same position in the sky.
Latitude is basically the angle of your place from the centre of the Earth
(equatorial position).

You can either find out this angle OR find out the angle of your place
with respect to the North Pole. Finding the latter is easier as Pole Star is
always found vertically above the North Pole.
If you can find your place’s angle from the Pole star (North Pole), just
subtract it from 90 degrees to arrive at your place’s latitude.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 223: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements about the IUCN World Conservation Congress.
1. It is the highest decision-making body of IUCN.
2. The IUCN Congress has a bearing on poverty alleviation.
3. It can be attended only by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) working for the environment.
4. This year’s Congress has been organized in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Not the Congress, it is actually the
Members' Assembly which is the highest decision-making body of IUCN.
So, 1 is incorrect.
• It brings together IUCN Members to debate and establish
environmental policy, to approve the IUCN Programme and to
elect the IUCN Council and President.
Statement 2: The IUCN Congress 2016 is expected to set the course for
using nature based solutions to help move millions out of poverty,creating a more sustainable economy and restoring a healthier
relationship with our planet.
• Moreover, an attempt to improve environment can benefit the poor
as many are dependent on ecosystem services like clean water,
timber and non-timber produce from forests etc. So, 2 is clearly
correct.
Statement 3: Held once every four years, the IUCN World Conservation
Congress brings together several thousand leaders and decision-makers
from government, civil society, indigenous peoples, business, and
academia, with the goal of conserving the environment and harnessing
the solutions nature offers to global challenges.
Statement 4: The Congress will take place 1-10 September in the Hawaiʻi
Convention Center, in the Hawaiian capital, Honolulu.
Q Source: IUCN Congress (1-10 Sept, 2016): IUCN Website

QUESTION: 4

The Wood’s Despatch 1854 came to India with which of the following objectives?
1. Deciphering ancient Indian texts to bring out their relevance to the modern society
2. To educate the natives of India so that a class of public servants could be created.
3. To develop practical and vocational skills of the Indians to increase production in India
4. Promote education free of cost in India
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: The Despatch had the following objectives in view:
• To impart Western knowledge, information about the western
culture to the Indians.
• To educate the natives of India so that a class of public servants
could be created.
• To promote intellectual development and also raise the moral
character of the young generation.
• To develop practical and vocational skills of the Indians people so
that more and more articles could be produced and also to create a
good market for consumption of those goods.
So, clearly statement 1 is wrong.
Statement 4: The Wood’s Despatch recommended the sanction of a
grant-in-aid system in the Indian educational system and argued that
schools must charge fees from their students. So, 4 is also incorrect.
Learning: Outlining the educational policy that was to be followed in
India, it emphasised once again the practical benefits of a system of
European learning, as opposed to Oriental One of the practical uses the
Despatch pointed to was economic.
• European learning, it said, would enable Indians to recognise the
advantages that flow from the expansion of trade and commerce,
and make them see the importance of developing the resources of
the country.
• Introducing them to European ways of life, would change their
tastes and desires, and create a demand for British goods, for
Indians would begin to appreciate and buy things that were
produced in Europe.
• Following the 1854 Despatch, several measures were introduced by
the British. Education departments of the government were set up
to extend control over all matters regarding education. Steps were
taken to establish a system of university education Q Source: Improvisation: Page 98: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 5

The Biomolecule Sequencer experiment of NASA intends to demonstrate that
1. Independent genes can be preserved and harvested even in extreme situations where life may not be possible.
2. DNA sequencing is feasible in an orbiting spacecraft.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification & Learning: NASA for the first time has successfully
sequenced DNA in space aboard the International Space Station (ISS).
• The genome sequencing was undertaken for the first time in
microgravity as part of the Biomolecule Sequencer experiment
performed by NASA astronaut Kate Rubins.
• It is not about survival of genes in extreme conditions, so 2 is
wrong.
• This experiment provides a way to sequence DNA in space which
can help astronauts to diagnose an illness.
• Besides, it will also help them identify microbes growing in the ISS
to determine whether or not they represent a health threat.
• The future explorers can potentially use the technology to identify
DNA-based life forms beyond Earth.

QUESTION: 6

Concerns over the use and production of Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET) have been raised because
1. No known species of fungi or bacteria can degrade PET.
2. Manufacturing PET resin generates more toxic emissions of nickel and Benzene than in producing same amount of glass.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: It is the most common thermoplastic polymer resin of
the polyester family and is used in fibres for clothing, containers for
liquids and foods, thermoforming for manufacturing, and in
combination with glass fibre for engineering resins.
Statement 1: At least one species of bacterium in the genus Nocardia can
degrade PET with an esterase enzyme.
Japanese scientists have isolated a bacterium Ideonella sakaiensis that
possesses two enzymes which can break down the PET into smaller
pieces that the bacterium can digest. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: Manufacturing PET resin generates more toxic emissions
(nickel, ethyl benzene, ethylene oxide, benzene) than manufacturing
glass. Producing a 16 oz. PET bottle generates more than 100 times the
toxic emissions to air and water than making the same size bottle out of
glass.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 35: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 7

The Union Cabinet has recently approved the scheme for granting of Permanent Residency Status (PRS) to foreign investors. Under the status
1. Foreign investors will be granted temporary Indian citizenship for the term of their investment in India.
2. Non-repatriable foreign investment will be considered as domestic investment in India.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The Residency scheme is not a citizenship
scheme for the foreign investors. So, 1 is wrong.
Statement 2: The treatment of Non-repatriable foreign investment as
domestic investment applies only to NRIs. Non-repatriable is any
investment that is not made with the intention of taking it back to the
home country. The investment is permanent in a sense.
Learning: The scheme will be applicable only to foreign investors
fulfilling the prescribed eligibility conditions and also his spouse and
dependents.
• The foreign investment should result in generating employment to
at least 20 resident Indians every financial year.
• The scheme is expected to encourage foreign investment in India
and facilitate Make in India Programme.
Benefits of Permanent Residency Status:
• Initially, PRS will be granted for a period of 10 years with multiple
entry facility, which can be renewed for another 10 years.

• It will serve as a multiple entry visa without any stay stipulation
and the PRS holders will be exempted from the registration
requirements.
• For dwelling purpose, PRS holders will be allowed to purchase one
residential property.
• Their spouse and dependents will be also allowed to undertake
studies in India and take up employment in private sector.

QUESTION: 8

The Central government has a constitutional duty to protect states against
1. External aggression and internal disturbance
2. Failure of Constitutional machinery
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: This is a provision under A355 of the
constitution. It says, “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every
State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure
that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the
provisions of this Constitution.”
Statement 2: President’s Rule is applied under this case under Article
A356 of the Constitution.
It can also be applied when the state government has wilfully disobeyed
the directions of the Central government and disturbed the
constitutional distribution of executive power.

Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015

QUESTION: 9

Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) has been designated under the Information Technology (Amendment) Act 2008 to serve as the national agency to perform which of the following functions?
1. Approving the commercial plans of Internet Service providers (ISPs)
2. Forecast and provide alerts of cyber security incidents
3. Regulating the mergers and acquisitions of Internet Service Providers to maintain service quality 
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: It has not role in overseeing the commercial
or the financial aspects of ISPs in India. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 3: Overseeing the mergers of companies in India comes
under the jurisdiction of the Competition Commission of India (CCI). So,
3 is also incorrect.
Learning: It performs the following functions in the domain of cyber
security:
• Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber
incidents
• Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents
• Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents
• Coordination of cyber incident response activities

• Issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes and whitepapers
relating to information security practices, procedures, prevention,
response and reporting of cyber incidents
Q Source: Improvisation: Union Cabinet apprises MoU between CERTIn
and CERT-UK: PIB

QUESTION: 10

How will the SAUNI (Saurastra Narmada Avataran Irrigation) Yojana be beneficial to the corresponding regions?
1. It will increase the water availability in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
2. The huge acrage of land acquired by the developers under the project will be used to establish Central Agricultural Universities.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: SAUNI is a ‘linking’ project where dams in
the Saurashtra region will be filled with excess water from the Sardar
Sarovar dam thus reducing water issues in the Saurashtra region. So, 1 is
correct.
Statement 2: SAUNI project involves making pipe canals instead of the
conventional open canals which has led to no acquisition of land for the
project. Since no land is acquired, statement 2 is incorrect.
This also reduces evaporation and seepage loss of the canal water thus
increasing the availability of water.

QUESTION: 11

As per the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) signed recently between India and the United States 

1. India will form a military alliance with USA and obliged to supply its armed forces for extended operations in the event of a call by USA.
2. United States is obliged to supply cutting-edge technology to India which is presently available only to its closest allies.
3. The agreement explicitly provides for establishment of USA military bases in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: LEMOA does not create any obligations on
either Party to carry out any joint activity, nor does it oblige the parties
to supply troops in case of a requirement by the other party. So, 1 will
clearly be wrong.
Statement 2: USA has already declared India a major defence partner,
but not a “strategic” defence partner status which is enjoyed by its closest
allies obliging the USA to share cutting-edge technology with them. Since
India is not a strategic partner, 2 will be wrong.
Statement 3: It does not provide for the establishment of any bases or
basing arrangements, as clarified by the Minister of Defence. So, 3 is
wrong.

QUESTION: 12

The “Sovereignty” of India means
1. No external power can dictate the government of India.
2. Citizens cannot be discriminated against on any grounds.
3. There is absolute freedom of speech and expression for Indian citizens.
4. All citizens have equal economic rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Sovereignty simply implies that India is a state that takes
its own decisions ultimately guided by the people. No external agency
dictates terms to India. So, 1 is correct.
Statement 2: However, the notion of sovereignty does not seep into the
framework of all democratic rights. For e.g. a sovereign state might very
well discriminate between its citizens, for e.g. as Pakistan does with all
non-Muslims.
Statement 3: Same applies for freedom of speech and expression. A
sovereign state may very well restrict freedom of speech, as it is not an
absolute right, even though it is vital to a democracy.
Statement 4: This is only possible in an economic democracy.
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 3: Democratic Politics - I

QUESTION: 13

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) will be helpful as
1. It eliminates the need to exchange sensitive information about bank account numbers during a financial transaction.
2. It allows sharing of a bill among peers.
3. It allows customers to send and receive money directly from their smartphones.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: UPI is a flagship product of NPCI that will help India to
move towards a cashless economy. It is a set of standard Application
Programming Interface (APIs).
Statement 1 and 3: It facilitates ‘virtual address’ as a single payment
identifier for sending and collecting money and works on single click 2
factor authentication.
So, money can be sent using smartphones using the virtual address
without entering the bank account details. So, 1 and 3 are correct.
Statement 2: It merges several banking features, seamless fund routing
and merchant payments into one hood. Thus, it will be a single app for
accessing different bank accounts. It also provides an option for
scheduling push and pull transactions for various purposes like sharing
bills among peers.

QUESTION: 14

“Patola” is a style of

Solution:

Learning: Patola saris are a double ikat woven sari, usually made from
silk, made in Patan, Gujarat.
They are very expensive, once worn only by royalty and the aristocracy,
they are popular and in demand from the affluent.
They are so unique that they are the geographical indication tags for
Gujarat as Patan Patolas and Andhra Pradesh as Bhoodan Pochampally.

Q Source: Page 80: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements.
1. William Jones was the founder of Asiatic Society of Bengal and started a journal Asiatik Researchers.
2. Henry Thomas Colebrooke was associated with Royal Asiatic Society and Royal Astronomical Society.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Jones and Colebrooke came to represent a particular
attitude towards India. They shared a deep respect for ancient cultures,
both of India and the West.
Statement 1: In 1784 he founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal to
encourage Oriental studies. He himself took up Sanskrit, to equip
himself for the preparation of a vast digest of Hindu and Muslim law.
Statement 2: He has been described as "the first great Sanskrit scholar
in Europe"
• He was a director of the Royal Asiatic Society, and many of the
papers in the society's Transactions were communicated by him. In
1822 he was elected the second president of the Royal
Astronomical Society.
• After eleven years' residence in India, Colebrooke began the study
of the Sanskrit language; and to him was entrusted the translation
of the major Digest of Hindu Laws, a monumental study of Hindu
law which had been left unfinished by Sir William Jones.

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 96: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 16

The Aligarh movement laid great stress on

Solution:

Learning: Sir Syed launched the Aligarh Movement of which Aligarh
was the center.
He had two immediate objectives in mind: to remove the state of
misunderstanding and tension between the Muslims and the new British
government, and to induce them to go after the opportunities available
under the new regime without deviating in any way from the
fundamentals of their faith.
The Aligarh Movement had other objectives also such as:
• To persuade Muslims to learn English education.
• To persuade Muslims to abstain from politics of agitation. So,
option D is incorrect.
• To produce an intellectual class from amongst the Muslim
community.
• To bring a social and cultural reform amongst the Muslim
community.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 120: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 17

Which of the following type of bills can be passed in a joint sitting of the Parliament? 

Solution:

Learning: Any ordinary law needs to be passed by both the Houses. But
if there is a difference between the two Houses, the final decision is taken
in a joint session in which members of both the Houses sit together.
Because of the larger number of members, the view of the Lok Sabha is
likely to prevail in such a meeting.
But, Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once the Lok
Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related
law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it
by 14 days or suggest changes in it. The Lok Sabha may or may not
accept these changes. There is no provision for joint sitting in such cases.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Democratic Politics-I

QUESTION: 18

Consider the following about the Non-Aligned Movement.
1. It was established in 1961 in Belgrade as the Conference of Heads of State or Government of Non-Aligned Countries.
2. The movement ended after the end of Cold War.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The organization was founded in Belgrade
in 1961, and was largely conceived by India's first prime minister,
Jawaharlal Nehru; Indonesia's first president, Sukarno; Egypt's second
president, Gamal Abdel Nasser; Ghana's first president Kwame
Nkrumah; and Yugoslavia's president, Josip Broz Tito.
All five leaders were prominent advocates of a middle course for states in
the Developing World between the Western and Eastern Blocs in the
Cold War.
Statement 2: Because the Non-Aligned Movement was formed as an
attempt to thwart the Cold War, it has struggled to find relevance since
the Cold War ended. Belarus is the only member of the Movement in
Europe.
As the world has become more polarised between USA and China, hardly
any nation has been able to keep itself aloof from involving itself with
these major powers.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 170: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 19

Which of the following correctly show the difference(s) in the views of Tagore and Gandhi with regards to education?
1. Gandhiji was highly critical of Western civilisation, whereas Tagore wanted to borrow the good elements of Western education.
2. Gandhiji was supportive of education via arts and music, whereas Tagore did not consider them crucial in education. 

Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: In many senses Tagore and Mahatma
Gandhi thought about education in similar ways.
There were, however, differences too. Gandhiji was highly critical of
Western civilisation and its worship of machines and technology. Tagore
wanted to combine elements of modern Western civilisation with what
he saw as the best within Indian tradition.
Statement 2: Tagore emphasised the need to teach science and
technology at Santiniketan, along with art, music and dance. Tagore was
of the view that creative learning could be encouraged within a natural
environment. So, clearly 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Page 105: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 20

Which of the following describes “Thuni” most appropriately?

Solution:

Learning: It is one of the major festivals celebrated by the Chakhesang
tribe, predominantly by the Poumai Chakhesang from the Razeba area.
• For the Poumai community in Manipur, Thuni is a premier festival
of new harvest.
• It is celebrated from January 5th every year and continues for
several days.
• Most importantly, Thuni is a festival of equity when both the rich
and the poor; the old and the young share from the same barrel of
rice beer and eat the same food.

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 11: Harvest Festivals: Science 8th
NCERT

QUESTION: 21

Lactobacillus species of bacteria are useful in
1. Antibacterial and antifungal applications
2. Controlled fermentation of some food products
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The antibacterial and antifungal activity of
Lactobacillus species relies on production of bacteriocins and low
molecular weight compounds that inhibits these microorganisms.
For e.g. Lactobacillus species produce hydrogen peroxide which inhibits
the growth and virulence of the fungal pathogen Candida albicans in
vitro and in vivo.
Statement 2: Some Lactobacillus species are used as starter cultures in
industry for controlled fermentation in the production of yogurt, cheese,
sauerkraut, pickles, beer, cider, kimchi, cocoa, kefir, and other fermented
foods, as well as animal feeds.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 19: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 22

The Congress split in 1907 on the issue of

Solution:

Learning: The Congress split in 1907. The Moderates were opposed to
the use of boycott. They felt that it involved the use of force. However,
the extremists insisted on the use of mass boycott movements, protests
and strikes to make a point against the British.
After the split the Congress came to be dominated by the Moderates with
Tilak’s followers functioning from outside.
The two groups reunited in December 1915. Next year the Congress and
the Muslim League signed the historic Lucknow Pact and decided to
work together for representative government in the country
Q Source: Page 146: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 23

Strait of Hormuz lies sandwiched between

Solution:

Learning: It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the
open ocean and is one of the world's most strategically important choke
points (between Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman).
About 20% of the world's petroleum (about 35% of the petroleum traded
by sea) passes through the strait, making it a highly important strategic
location for international trade

Q Source: South Asia and West Asia maps

QUESTION: 24

Consider the following about Blue-Green Algae.
1. They are a group of photosynthetic bacteria.
2. Warm and nutrient rich water promote their growth.
3. They are a “keystone species” throughout the Arabian and Indian Ocean.
4. Excessive growth of Blue-green algae can deplete the amount of oxygen in the water and threaten aquatic life.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Cyanobacteria, formerly called "blue-green
algae" are relatively simple, primitive life forms closely related to
bacteria. Typically much larger than bacteria, they photosynthesize like
algae. Depending upon the species, cyanobacteria can occur as single
cells, filaments of cells, or colonies.
Statement 2: Nutrient-rich bodies of water such as some lakes or ponds
may support rapid growth of cyanobacteria. With the right conditions, a
"clear" body of water can become very turbid with green, blue-green or
reddish-brown colored algae within just a few days. High concentrations
of an alga species in a water body form "blooms."
Statement 3: Blue-green algae, like true algae, make up a portion of the
phytoplankton in many water bodies. However, blue-green algae are
generally not eaten by other aquatic organisms, and thus are not an
important part of the food chain.
“Keystone species” are crucial parts of the food chain; without them
there will be a partial collapse of the food chain. So, 3 is incorrect.
Statement 4: Blue-green algae blooms can alter lake ecosystems by:
• reducing oxygen levels
• preventing the growth of beneficial algae
• producing toxins that are directly harmful to fish and other
organisms
People may become ill after swimming or water skiing in lakes with toxic
blue-green algae.
Q Source: Improvisation: Fig. 2.7 : The Nitrogen fixing blue green
algae: Page 22: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 25

Consider the following statements about the Committee on Agriculture (COAG) of the FAO.
1. It is one of FAO’s Governing Bodies.

2. It is authorized to review and dismantle trade tariffs and quotas imposed by member nations related to agricultural products.
3. It was founded along with the World Trade Organization (WTO).
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The body provides overall policy and
regulatory guidance on issues relating to agriculture, livestock, food
safety, nutrition, rural development and natural resource management
in FAO.
Statement 2: It has no such authority and it does not concern itself with
agricultural trade regulation. It instead reviews major agricultural and
nutritional problems and proposes concerted action by FAO’s Member
Nations.
Statement 3: Established in 1971 (WTO in 1995), the Committee has over
100 Member Nations and generally meets every two years, but may hold
additional sessions if needed.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 26

Which of the following play a role in the Nitrogen cycle on earth?
1. Blue-green algae
2. Lightning
3. Uptake of soil nutrients by plants
4. Terrestrial Food chain

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Nitrogen is one of the essential constituents of all living
organisms as part of proteins, chlorophyll, nucleic acids and vitamins.
• The atmospheric nitrogen cannot be taken directly by plants and
animals.
Statement 1: Certain bacteria and blue green algae present in the soil fix
nitrogen from the atmosphere and convert into compounds of nitrogen
Statement 2: Lightning also fixes atmospheric nitrogen (role shown in
the diagram).
Statement 3 and 4: Nitrogen is one of the essential constituents of all
living organisms as part of proteins, chlorophyll, nucleic acids and
vitamins.
• The atmospheric nitrogen cannot be taken directly by plants and
animals. Once nitrogen is converted into these usable compounds,
it can be utilised by plants from the soil through their root system.
• Nitrogen is then used for the synthesis of plant proteins and other
compounds. Animals feeding on plants get these proteins and
other nitrogen compounds.
• When plants and animals die, bacteria and fungi present in the soil
convert the nitrogenous wastes into nitrogenous compounds to be
used by plants again. Certain other bacteria convert some part of
them to nitrogen gas which goes back into the atmosphere.
• As a result, the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere remains
more or less constant.
Q Source: Page 27: Fig. 2.10: Nitrogen cycle: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 27

Consider the following about Essential Services Maintenance Act (ESMA).
1. The Act can be used to call off worker’s strikes both in public and private sector if it disrupts essential services.
2. Only the Central government can order restoration of essential services in India.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: The Act includes a long list of “essential services” in its
charter - ranging from post and telegraph, through railway, airport and
port operations - and it prohibits the key employees in these services
from striking.
The Act also allows states to enact their own ESMA and choose the
essential services on which to enforce Esma.
Statement 2: Although it is Central law, its execution can be done by the
State governments and UT governments too. For e.g. Delhi government
has invoked the ESMA to declare a nurse’s strike illegal.
Recently the AP government declared IT to be an essential service, which
allows it to call off illegitimate strikes in the IT sector.

QUESTION: 28

Coal gasification is the process of producing syngas which consists of

Solution:

Learning: Gasification is done using a mixture of coal, water, air
and/or oxygen.
Coal gas or Syngas is a mixture consisting primarily of methane (CH4),
carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2) and water
vapor (H2O)–from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
In current practice, large-scale instances of coal gasification are
primarily for electricity generation
The hydrogen obtained from coal gasification can be used for various
purposes such as making ammonia, powering a hydrogen economy, or
upgrading fossil fuels.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 58: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 29

Arrange the following regions/locations in West Asia from West to East.
1. Azerbaijan
2. Ashgabat
3. Tel Aviv
4. Damascus
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Tel Aviv is in Israel, whereas Damascus is in Syria.
Damascus lies to the east of Tel Aviv. So, 4 must come after 3. Rest
should be clear from the map.
All these places have been in news for some or the other reason and
important, for e.g. Ashgabat transport agreement.

Q Source: Map based question: Region: West Asia

QUESTION: 30

One and a half degree channel lies closest to which of the following countries?

Solution:

Justification: You can guess the location of the channel by its latitude
itself, which logically should be closest to Maldives. This is because
Indian Territory starts nearly from 8 degrees north and SL follows close
by. So, A and B can be eliminated.
Myanmar lies much above SL, and so option D can also be eliminated.
Learning: There are broad channels between the Atolls of the Maldives
with varying deepness and broadness.
Huvadhu Kandu or Suvadiva Channel (one and a half degree) is the
broad channel that separates the northern and central Maldives from the
southern atolls and is one of the broadest channels between the atolls of
Maldives.

Q Source: Map based question: Region: South Asia

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): Low lying coastal areas may be permanently submerged under water due to Global warming.
Reason (R): Glaciers melt at higher temperature and heat causes water to expand in volume.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

Solution:

Justification: Global warming is the rise in temperature of the
atmosphere of the earth.
This results, among other things, in the melting of polar glaciers, which
leads to a rise in the sea level, causing floods in the coastal areas (for e.g.
Maldives is a low lying nation and at a threat of being drowned by the sea
level rise).
Global warming has also led to massive glacial retreat in the past 50
years.
Q Source: Page 73: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 32

Which of the following is the most appropriate analogy with regards to the relationship between a “Protected area” and the “Biosphere”?

Solution:

Justification: Biosphere is that part of the earth in which living
organisms exist or which supports life. Please note we are not talking
about the “biosphere reserve”.
Protected areas, just like any large ecosystem, are a significant part of
our biosphere that is established to protect our flora, fauna and their
habitats. So, the most appropriate analogy is option A where a tree is
one among many (species both plant and animals) in a forest.
Option D: This in invalid as biosphere is much larger than any protected
area on earth. Two celestial bodies may be of the same size.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 78: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 33

Muntjacs, Cheetal and Blue-Bull are most likely to be found in

Solution:

Learning: Sal, teak, mango, jamun, silver ferns, arjun, etc are the flora
and chinkara, blue-bull, barking deer, cheetal, leopard, wild dog, wolf,
etc. are examples of the fauna of the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
The biosphere reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh, so the most
appropriate answer is C.
Blue-bull (Nilgai) populations also occur in Terai lowlands in the
foothills of the Himalayas.

Chital: The western limit of its range is eastern Rajasthan and Gujarat.
The northern limit is along the Bhabar-terai belt of the foothills of the
Himalaya and from Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal through to Nepal,
northern West Bengal and Sikkim and then to western Assam and the
forested valleys of Bhutan
Q Source: Page 80: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 34

Consider the following statements.
1. The authors of tawarikh were usually ordinary villagers who took the help of learned men to compile their personal experiences for community’s benefit.
2. Tawarikhs usually argued about maintaining social equality based on the intrinsic worth of human beings.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The authors of Tawarikhs were usually
learned men: secretaries, administrators, poets and courtiers, who both
recounted events and advised rulers on governance, emphasising the
importance of just rule. So, 1 is wrong.
We must also note that:
• the authors of tawarikh lived in cities (mainly Delhi) and hardly
ever in villages.
• They often wrote their histories for Sultans in the hope of rich
rewards.

• These authors advised rulers on the need to preserve an “ideal”
social order based on birthright and gender distinctions. So, 2 is
wrong.
• Their ideas were not shared by everybody.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 35

Indianization of British administration was one of the major demands of the Indian National Congress in the initial years after its establishment. How the demand for Indianization was seen to be beneficial for India?
1. It would reduce drain of wealth from India.
2. It would lead to the gradual separation of the judiciary from the executive.
3. It would have made Legislative councils more representative.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: It has often been said that the Congress in the first
twenty years was “moderate” in its objectives and methods.
Statement 1: During this period it demanded a greater voice for Indians
in the government and in administration.
• It demanded that Indians be placed in high positions in the
government. For this purpose it called for civil service
examinations to be held in India as well, not just in London.

• Since British officers were sending a major part of their large
salaries home, Indianisation, it was hoped, would also reduce the
drain of wealth to England. So, 1 is correct.
• The demand for Indianization of the administration was part of a
movement against racism, since most important jobs at the time
were monopolised by white officials, and the British generally
assumed that Indians could not be given positions of
responsibility.
Statement 2 and 3:
• It wanted the Legislative Councils to be made more representative,
given more power, and introduced in provinces where none
existed. But, this was a separate demand, and is surely not a direct
consequence of the Indianization of administration. So, 3 is
incorrect.
• Other demands included the separation of the judiciary from the
executive, the repeal of the Arms Act and the freedom of speech
and expression. These also were separate demands. So, 2 is
incorrect.
Q Source: Page 144: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 36

The pressure exerted by liquid at the bottom of a circular container will increase with an increase in

Solution:

Justification: The force acting on a unit area of a surface is called
pressure.

Option A: The total pressure exerted by a liquid column at its base is
proportional to the height of the column.
Option B: If the width of the container increases, a) height of liquid
column will reduce, and b) area of the base will increase. So, pressure
will actually reduce.
Option C: Width of the liquid column contributes to the weight, not
pressure, since pressure is calculated on “per unit area”. So, the increase
in width is adjusted with the increase in area.
Q Source: Page 141: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): Men have lower-pitched voices than women.

Reason (R): Men’s vocal cord is shorter than that of women.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

Solution:

Justification: The frequency determines the shrillness or pitch of a
sound. If the frequency of vibration is higher we say that the sound is
shrill and has a higher pitch.
If the frequency of vibration is lower, we say that the sound has a lower
pitch.
The vocal cords in men are about 20mm long. In women these are about
5mm shorter. Children have very short vocal cords.

Just like a shorter elastic band produces a greater pitch when twanged,
similarly women’s shorter vocal cords produce a higher pitch on
vibration.
This is the reason why the voices of men, women and children are
different.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 163: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 38

In the context of Modern Indian History, Patuas and Kumors were

Solution:

Learning: In the nineteenth century a new world of popular art
developed in many of the cities of India.
In Bengal, around the pilgrimage centre of the temple of Kalighat, local
village scroll painters (called patuas) and potters (called kumors in
eastern India and kumhars in north India) began developing a new style
of art.
They moved from the surrounding villages into Calcutta in the early 19th
Century.
Q Source: Page 132: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 39

The fluvial riverine island is formed by the Brahmaputra river system and mostly inhabited by Mishing tribal people. It is the nerve centre of Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture and has been recently declared as a district of India. The island is?

Solution:

Importance: The Guinness World Records has recently given official
designation Assam’s Majuli as the largest river island in the world.
• In June 2016, Assam Government had officially declared the island
as the district making it India’s first island district.
• The island has been nominated for the World Heritage Site status.
It has been included in the tentative list by UNESCO.
Learning: It is surrounded by Subanisri River in the North, main
Brahmaputra River on the South and kherkatia Suli, split channel of
Brahmaputra River in northeast.
• The island had some 65 satras (monasteries adhering) to
Vaishnavism.
• Majuli island is mostly inhabited by Mishing tribal people. Apart
from them, there are inhabitants from the Deori and Sonowal
Kacharis tribes. On the island languages spoken are Mising,
Assamese, and Deori
• It is the nerve centre of Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture initiated
by saint-reformer Srimanta Sankardeva in 15th century.
• The island had some 65 satras (monasteries adhering) to
Vaishnavism. But large numbers of them were relocated to the
mainland after being washed away.
• It is home of many rare and endangered avifauna species including
migratory birds.

QUESTION: 40

Consider the following about the solar system.
1. Mercury, Venus and Mars do not have satellites of their own.
2. Venus can be seen in the sky only during sunset.
3. Density of planet Saturn is less than that of water.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Venus and Mercury have no moon or
satellites of their own. But, Mars has two satellites.
Statement 2: Venus appears in the eastern sky before sunrise.
Sometimes it appears in the western sky just after sunset. Therefore it is
often called a morning or an evening star, although it is not a star.
Statement 3: Saturn has the lowest density (687 kg/m³) of any planet in
our solar system. Its density is so low that it would float if it was placed
in water (density 1000 kg/m3). Saturn is a large gas planet with an
atmosphere composed of hydrogen and helium.
Q Source: Page 229-231: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 41

Potti Sreeramulu is associated with which of the following?

Solution:

Learning: A devout follower of Mahatma Gandhi, he worked for much
of his life for humanitarian causes, including support for the Dalit
community.
• Commenting on Sreeramulu's dedication and fasting ability,
Gandhi once said "If only I have eleven more followers like
Sriramulu I will win freedom [from British rule] in a year.
• Between 1941-1942, he participated in the individual satyagraha
(before than salt satyagraha in 1930) and the Quit India movement
and was imprisoned on three occasions.
• He was involved in the village reconstruction programmes at
Rajkot in Gujarat and Komaravolu in Krishna district, Andhra
Pradesh
• In 1952, a popular freedom fighter, Patti Sriramalu, undertook a
fast unto death over the demand for a separate Andhra and expired
after fifty-eight days.
• His death was followed by three days of rioting, demonstrations,
hartals and violence all over Andhra. The government immediately
gave in and conceded the demand for a separate state of Andhra,
which finally came into existence in October 1953.
• Simultaneously, Tamil Nadu was created as a Tamil-speaking
state.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 165: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 42

The bright steak of a meteor lasts for a very short time because

Solution:

Justification: A meteor is usually a small object that occasionally
enters the earth’s atmosphere. At that time it has a very high speed. The
friction due to the atmosphere heats it up.
It glows and evaporates quickly. That is why the bright steak lasts for a
very short time.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 233: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 43

These places are on the river course of Ganga. Which of these has the northernmost latitude?

Solution:

Justification: Murshidabad lies in West Bengal and option D can be
eliminated. You need to know the locations of important places. Northsouth
order or east-west order can be asked by UPSC.

Q Source: Map-based question: Page 247: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 44

Water is an important mode of transmission for which of the following communicable diseases?
1. Measles
2. Polio
3. Cholera
4. Hepatitis B
5. Tuberculosis
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Measles is caused by a Virus and spreads
through Air.
Statement 2: Polio caused by a Virus spreads through Air/Water.
Statement 3: Cholera and typhoid are caused by Bacteria and spread
through Water. Cholera also spreads through Food.
Statement 4: Hepatitis B is caused by a Virus and spreads through
Water.
Statement 5: Tuberculosis caused by Bacteria is spread through Air.
Patient should be kept in complete isolation in such cases.
Q Source: Page 24: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 45

Why medical practitioners and policymakers often discourage the growing use of anti-biotic for treatment of common diseases?
1. Antibiotics do not fight infections caused by viruses.
2. Some Bacteria are able to resist the effects of an antibiotic and multiply in numbers by way of natural selection.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Infections caused by viruses like colds, flu,
most sore throats, bronchitis, and many sinus and ear infections will not
be helped by anti-biotic, as they mainly target bacteria.

Statement 2: Resistant microorganisms (including bacteria, fungi,
viruses and parasites) are able to withstand attack by antimicrobial
drugs, such as antibacterial drugs (e.g. antibiotics), antifungals,
antivirals, and antimalarials, so that standard treatments become
ineffective and infections persist, increasing the risk of spread to others.
The evolution of resistant strains is a natural phenomenon that occurs
when microorganisms replicate themselves erroneously or when
resistant traits are exchanged between them. The use and misuse of
antimicrobial drugs accelerates the emergence of drug-resistant strains.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 20: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 46

You are in a populated building that has caught fire and you do not have access to a fire extinguisher device or water. In this case, which of the following is the best course of action?

Solution:

Justification: Option B: Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the best extinguisher.
One way to get CO2 is to release a lot of dry powder of chemicals like
sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) or potassium bicarbonate. Near the
fire, these chemicals give off CO2. Hence, B is the most appropriate
option.
Option C: Saltpetre is a material used in making explosives, so clearly C
is incorrect.
Option D: Acetylene is a flammable gas and will only increase the fire
hazard. So, D is wrong.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 69: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 47

Arrange the following Gulfs of South Asia from North to South.
1. Gulf of Martaban
2. Gulf of Khambat
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Gulf of Kutch
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Gulf of Kutch lies northwards to Gulf of Khambat in
Gujarat. So, 2 must come after 4.
Gulf of Martaban is near Myanmar
Gulf of Mannar is near Tamilnadu. So, 3 must come in the end and
correct answer must be B.

Q Source: Map based question: Region: South Asia

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following statements about village administration.
1. Patwari’s main work is the measurement of land and keeping land records.
2. Patwari is responsible for conducting Census and issuing caste and birth certificates in a village.
3. Land disputes in a village are to be officially heard and settled by a Patwari.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The Patwari is known by different names
in different states – in some villages such officers are called Lekhpal, in
others Kanungo or Karamchari or Village Officer etc
Each Patwari is responsible for a group of villages. The Patwari
maintains and updates the records of the village.
Statement 2: These certificates are usually issued at higher levels such as
block or District administration. Patwari comes at the village level, or a
village group level.
Statement 3: The Tehsildar's office is where land disputes are heard.
They supervise the work of Patwaris.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 49

Consider the following about the uses of the various constituents of petroleum.
1. Hydrogen gas obtained from natural gas is used in the production of fertilisers.
2. Ointments are made from paraffin wax which is a petroleum product.
3. Natural gas that is obtained by distillization of petroleum is used as aviation fuel.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification & Learning: Statement 1: Here are some uses of
Hyrdrogen:
• Hydrogen is used for the conversion of heavy petroleum fractions
into lighter ones via the process of hydrocracking.
• It is also used for the production of ammonia via Haber process
• It may be used in fuel cells for local electricity generation
Statement 2: Paraffin wax is also used in making Vaseline and candles.
Statement 3: Natural gas is generally found alongwith petroleum and is
not obtained after its distillation. So, 3 is wrong.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 60: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 50

Generally, a Ponzi scheme should fail if
1. New investments into the scheme are stopped.
2. Old investors are paid profits on their investment.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: A Ponzi scheme is an investment fraud where clients are
promised a large profit in short term at little or no risk at all.
Companies engaged in a Ponzi schemes mainly focus all of their energies
into attracting new clients to make investments.
This new investments (income) are used to pay original investors their
returns, marked as a profit from a legitimate transaction.

Ponzi schemes working mainly rely on a constant flow of new
investments to continue to provide returns to older investors. When this
flow runs out, the scheme falls apart. So, only 1 is correct.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 51

Consider the following about the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) Summit.
1. It was founded along with the Non-alignment movement (NAM).
2. SAARC Secretariat is based in New Delhi to facilitate effective cooperation between members.
3. Sri Lanka and Pakistan joined SAARC in 2008 after the global recession picked up.
4. Afghanistan is not a member of SAARC Summit.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The idea for the SAARC was proposed by
Ziaur Rahman, the then President of Bangladesh on May 2, 1980. The
seven founding countries had met for first time in April 1981 and then in
1985, they created SAARC Charter.
NAM belongs to the 1960s and thus 1 would be wrong.
Statement 2: The first SAARC summit was held in Dhaka (Bangladesh)
in December 1985. The SAARC Secretariat was established in
Kathmandu (Nepal) in 1987.
Statement 3: They are founding member states. Afghanistan joined late
in 2007. So, 3 and 4 both are incorrect.

Learning: Members are: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal,
Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan
Observer states are Australia, China, European Union, Japan, Iran,
Mauritius, Myanmar, South Korea, and United States.

QUESTION: 52

Aurang was a term used in Medieval India for

Solution:

Learning: It was a Persian term for a warehouse – a place where goods
are collected before being sold. The term also refers to a workshop.
Option A: Weavers often belonged to communities that specialised in
weaving. Their skills were passed on from one generation to the next.
The tanti weavers of Bengal, the julahas or momin weavers of north
India, sale and kaikollar and devangs of south India are some of the
communities famous for weaving
Option B: For coloured textiles, the thread was dyed by the dyer, known
as rangrez. For printed cloth the weavers needed the help of specialist
block printers known as chhipigars.
Q Source: Page 85: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 53

“Udaipur Declaration” adopted at the BRICS meet concerns

Solution:

Learning: BRICS nations have made a clear move from relief-centric to
a holistic approach to disasters with a greater emphasis on prevention,
mitigation and preparedness.
• BRICS nations will set up a dedicated Joint Task Force for Disaster
Risk Management for regular dialogue, exchange, mutual support
and collaboration among them.
• The meeting was a new milestone in collaboration and cooperation
among BRICS countries in the field of disaster management.
• ‘Flood Risk Management’ and ‘Forecasting of Extreme Weather
Events in the context of Changing Climate‘were the major themes
discussed in the meet.

QUESTION: 54

Consider the following about Lord Macaulay.
1. He emphasised the need to teach vernacular languages to Indians to promote oriental studies.
2. Following Macaulay’s minute, the English Education Act of 1835 was introduced.
3. He issued the order for Wood’s Despatch to India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Macaulay emphasised the need to teach
the English language.
He felt that knowledge of English would allow Indians to read some of
the finest literature the world had produced; it would make them aware
of the developments in Western science and philosophy.
Teaching of English could thus be a way of civilising people, changing
their tastes, values and culture.
Statement 2: A decision was taken to make English the medium of
instruction for higher education, and to stop the promotion of Oriental
institutions like the Calcutta Madrasa and Benaras Sanskrit College.
Statement 3: The Court of Directors of the East India Company in
London sent an educational despatch to the Governor-General of India,
known as the Wood’s dispatch.
Q Source: Page 98: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 55

The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) measures the performance of a country’s logistics across which of the following components?
1. Volume and economic value of logistics clearance each year
2. International shipments
3. Average number of Corruption cases exposed by the governmental investigative agencies
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statements 1 and 3 are not a part of LPI.
LPI index measures countries across six components— Customs,
infrastructure, international shipments, logistics quality and
competence, tracking and tracing, and timeliness.
It is an interactive benchmarking tool that helps countries to identify
challenges and opportunities in trade logistics and also to improve their
performance.
Learning: LPI is released by World Bank as part of its report every two
years based on a world-wide survey of stakeholders.
It is based on the ground providing feedback on the logistics friendliness
of the countries in which they operate and those with which they trade.

QUESTION: 56

Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India (ECI).
1. ECI is the only authority that can grant National Party or State Party status to a political party in India.
2. Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order is issued by the ECI and can be modified by it.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The Election Commission of India (ECI)
recently granted national party status to All India Trinamool Congress
(TMC) Party.
A party is eligible to get national party status, If it
(i) Secures at least 6% of the valid votes polled in any four or more states,
in the Lok Sabha election or to the State Legislative Assembly and (ii) In
addition, it wins at least 4 seats in the Lok Sabha from any State or
States.
OR
(iii) Wins at least 2% seats in the Lok Sabha (i.e., 11 seats in the existing
Lok Sabha having 543 members) and these members are elected from at
least three different States.
OR
(iv) It is recognised as a State party in at least four States.
Statement 2: Recently in August 2016, the ECI had brought changes in
Paragraph 6C of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment)
Order, 1968 to review the status of political parties every 10 years,
instead of present norm of five years.
• For instance, the status of a party (either national or state party)
that did not perform up to the required criteria in 2014 election
will be reviewed in 2024.
Learning: Recognition as a national or a State party ensures that the
election symbol of that party is not used by any other political entity in
polls across India.
• Other registered but unrecognised political parties have to choose
from a pool of “free symbols” announced by the commission from
time to time.

• Besides, these parties get land or buildings from the government to
set up their party offices. They can have up to 40 ‘star campaigners’
during electioneering. Others can have up to 20 ‘star campaigners’.

QUESTION: 57

Consider the following about Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
1. He was keen to spread the knowledge of Western education in the country.
2. He began a campaign against the practice of sati.
3. He showed that ancient Indian texts were flawed.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: This statement is quoted by NCERT. With
the spread of western education he wanted to bring about greater
freedom and equality for women.
Statement 2: He tried to show through his writings that the practice of
widow burning had no sanction in ancient text.
Statement 3: The strategy adopted by Rammohun was used by later
reformers as well. Whenever they wished to challenge a practice that
seemed harmful, they tried to find a verse or sentence in the ancient
sacred texts that supported their point of view. They then suggested that
the practice as it existed at present was against early tradition.

Q Source: Page 110: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 58

Voting shares in the United Nations General Assembly are distributed between members on the basis of

Solution:

Learning: Voting in the General Assembly on important questions,
namely, recommendations on peace and security, budgetary concerns
and the election, admission, suspension or expulsion of members – is by
a two-thirds majority of those present and voting.
Other questions are decided by a straightforward majority. Each member
country has one vote.
Apart from approval of budgetary matters, including adoption of a scale
of assessment, Assembly resolutions are not binding on the members.
The Assembly may make recommendations on any matters within the
scope of the UN, except matters of peace and security under Security
Council consideration.
The one state, one vote power structure potentially allows states
comprising just five percent of the world population to pass a resolution
by a two-thirds vote.
Q Source: Page 15: Democratic Politics - I

QUESTION: 59

Consider the following about the Veda Samaj.
1. It was established in Maharashtra.
2. It was a splinter group of Brahmo Samaj formed due to differences in core ideologies.
3. Its members believed in one God.
4. The Samaj showed the deeper scientific truth behind simple day to day rituals of orthodox Hinduism.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Established in Madras (Chennai) in 1864, the Veda
Samaj was inspired by the Brahmo Samaj. So, both 1 and 2 are wrong.
It worked to abolish caste distinctions and promote widow remarriage
and women’s education.
Its members believed in one God. They condemned the superstitions and
rituals of orthodox Hinduism. So, 4 is wrong and 3 is correct.
Q Source: Page 120: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following about the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS).
1. It will be implemented jointly by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and Airports Authority of India (AAI).
2. The scheme aims are building a seamless network of roads, ports and airports to connect hinterland to the major economic centres.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The provision of Regional Connectivity
Scheme (RCS) has been mentioned in the National Civil Aviation Policy
(NCAP) 2015.
• It aims to boost civil aviation sector by reviving of un-served or
under-served airstrips/airports.
• So, clearly 2 is incorrect as it doesn’t concern roads.
• Since 2 is incorrect, 1 must be incorrect, as NHAI does not has any
major role in the scheme.
Learning: Central Government will subsidise 80% of the cost for
revival of airports, while the states will meet the rest under the viability
gap fund (VGF).
• In the case of the Northeastern states, the central subsidy will be
90%.
• The RCS also stipulates that the air tickets will be capped at Rs
2,500 under a one-hour flight and the VGF will take care of the rest
of the operational cost.

QUESTION: 61

Blind spot in human eye can be found at

Solution:

Learning: The eye lens focuses light on the back of the eye, on a layer
called retina. Retina contains several nerve cells. Sensations felt by the
nerve cells are then transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve.
At the junction of the optic nerve and the retina, there are no sensory
cells, so no vision is possible at that spot. This is called the blind spot.
Q Source: Page 208: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 62

In 1883, there was a furore over the attempt by the government to introduce the Ilbert Bill. Why was this so?

Solution:

Learning: The bill provided for the trial of British or European persons
by Indians, and sought equality between British and Indian judges in the
country.
But when white opposition forced the government to withdraw the bill,
Indians were enraged.
The event highlighted the racial attitudes of the British in India.

Q Source: Page 142: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 63

IUCN Red List contains a list of

Solution:

Learning: The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species founded in 1964,
is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation
status of biological species.
It does not include Fragile ecosystems and protected areas.
IUCN is coming up with a separate list of such fragile ecosystems in the
IUCN Red List of Ecosystems.

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 83: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 64

Nanotechnology can prove useful in
1. Desalination of water
2. Wastewater treatment
3. Cosmetics and food packaging
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 2: Nanoparticles can be used to convert the contaminating
chemical through a chemical reaction to make it harmless.
Studies have shown that this method can be used successfully to reach
contaminates dispersed in underground ponds and at much lower cost
than methods which require pumping the water out of the ground for
treatment.
Statement 3: Some of the commercial applications of nanoparticles:
Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide nanoparticles in sunscreen, cosmetics
and some food products; silver nanoparticles in food packaging,
clothing, disinfectants and household appliances such as Silver Nano;
carbon nanotubes for stain-resistant textiles; and cerium oxide as a fuel
catalyst.
Q Source: Revision questions: Current Affairs: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 65

Consider the following statements about Protozoa.
1. Protozoa can feed on bacteria and fungi.
2. Protozoa give off nitrogen after digesting their food.
3. Malaria is caused by protozoa.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Protozoa mainly feed on bacteria, but they
also eat other protozoa, and sometimes fungi. Some protozoa absorb
food through their cell tissues.
Statement 2: All protozoa digest their food in stomach-like
compartments. As they digest, they make and give off nitrogen, which is
an element that plants and other higher creatures can use.
Statement 3: Most protozoa do us no harm. But there are a few that
cause diseases. One type of amoeba can live in human intestines. It feeds
on red blood cells and causes a disease known as dysentery.
Another species of protozoa can sicken hundreds of thousands of people
when it gets into the tap water. Perhaps the best-known deadly protozoa
causes malaria.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 17: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 66

Sinai Peninsula lies between

Solution:

Learning: It is situated between the Mediterranean Sea to the north
and the Red Sea to the south, serving as a land bridge between Asia and
Africa. It is the only part of Egyptian territory located in Asia.
Israel invaded and occupied Sinai during the Suez Crisis.

As a result of the Israel-Egypt Peace Treaty of 1979 and subsequent
efforts, Israel withdrew from all of the Sinai Peninsula.

Q Source: Map based question: Region: South Asia

QUESTION: 67

The most remarkable feature of planet Uranus is/are
1. It rotates in a direction that is opposite to the direction of rotation of the earth.
2. It has zero axial tilt.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Like Venus, Uranus also rotates from east
to west, a direction opposite to that of the earth.

Statement 2: It has highly tilted rotational axis. As a result, in its orbital
motion it appears to roll on its side.

Q Source: Page 232: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 68

He was a nationalist and leader of the Salt Satyagraha in south India. He also served as member of the Interim Government of 1946 and as free India’s first Indian Governor-General. He was?

Solution:

Learning: Rajagopalachari was the last Governor-General of India. He
also served as leader of the Indian National Congress, Premier of the
Madras Presidency, Governor of West Bengal, Minister for Home Affairs
of the Indian Union and Chief Minister of Madras state.
Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party and was one of the first
recipients of India's highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna.
He joined the Indian National Congress and participated in the
agitations against the Rowlatt Act, joining the Non-Cooperation

movement, the Vaikom Satyagraha, and the Civil Disobedience
movement. In 1930, Rajagopalachari risked imprisonment when he led
the Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha in response to the Dandi March.
Q Source: Page 156: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 69

Consider the following statements about the views of Subhash Chandra Bose.
1. Bose considered industrialization as a potent factor in making India strong and self-sufficient.
2. Bose did not share Gandhian ideal of “Ahmisa”.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Gandhi was hostile to industrialisation,
while Bose advocated industrialization, perhaps inspired by soviet
progress.
Statement 2: He stated, "I am convinced that if we do desire freedom we
must be prepared to wade through blood", a statement at odds with
Gandhi's philosophy of non-violence.
He thus raised the Azad Hind Fauj or the Indian National Army (INA), to
free India from British control.
Learning: Subhas Chandra Bose's political views were in support of
complete freedom for India at the earliest, whereas most of the Congress
Committee wanted it in phases, through a Dominion status
Even though Bose and Mohandas K. Gandhi had differing ideologies, the
latter called Bose the "Prince among the Patriots" in 1942. Bose admired

Gandhi, recognising his importance as a symbol of Indian nationalism;
he called him "The Father of Our Nation" in a radio broadcast.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 155: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 70

As per the Annual Report of ‘Crime in India – 2015’ published by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
1. The number of crimes against women has increased each passing year.
2. Human Trafficking cases have registered a significant decline in past few years due to better border management.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: The report contains information on police recorded
criminal cases pertaining to the calendar year 2015.
Statement 1: The following data pertains to weaker sections:
• A decrease of 4.7% under crimes against Scheduled Tribes.
• A decrease of 4.4% under crimes against Scheduled castes.
• A decrease of 3.1% under crimes against women.
Statement 2: Other important figures include:
• An increase of 5.3% under crimes against children
• Increase of 25.8% under crimes against Human Trafficking

First edition of the report was published for the year 1953.

QUESTION: 71

Consider the following about the Sufis.
1. They rejected outward religiosity and emphasised love and devotion to God.
2. It rejected idol worship.
3. The Sufis often rejected the elaborate rituals and codes of behaviour demanded by Muslim religious scholars.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Sufis were Muslim mystics. They rejected
outward religiosity and emphasised on compassion towards all fellow
human beings.
Statement 2: Islam propagated strict monotheism or submission to one
God. It also rejected idol worship and considerably simplified rituals of
worship into collective prayers.
Statement 3: At the same time Muslim scholars developed a holy law
called Shariat. The Sufis often rejected the elaborate rituals and codes of
behaviour demanded by Muslim religious scholars.They sought union
with God much as a lover seeks his beloved with a disregard for the
world.
Learning: Like the Nathpanthis, Siddhas and Yogis, the Sufis too
believed that the heart can be trained to look at the world in a different
way.

They developed elaborate methods of training using zikr (chanting of a
name or sacred formula), contemplation, sama (singing), raqs (dancing),
discussion of parables, breath control, etc. under the guidance of a
master or pir.
Thus emerged the silsilas, a genealogy of Sufi teachers, each following a
slightly different method (tariqa) of instruction and ritual practice.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 72

As per the D.K. Basu Guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court
1. The arrest memo should be counter-signed by the person arrested.
2. The person arrested, detained or being interrogated has a right to inform a relative, friend or well-wisher.
3. The Police Officer cannot arrest a person who is diseased or suffering from a body ailment.
4. No agency other than the police will have the rights of interrogating the accused.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Given the present trend of UPSC, you should be
prepared to face such slightly detailed questions on SC guidelines and
judgments, both of the past and in the recent times.
The Supreme Court of India has laid down specific requirements and
procedures that the police and other agencies have to follow for the
arrest, detention and interrogation of any person.

These are known as the D.K. Basu Guidelines and some of these include:
• The police officials who carry out the arrest or interrogation should
wear clear, accurate and visible identification and name tags with
their designations;
• A memo of arrest should be prepared at the time of arrest and
should include the time and date of arrest.
• It should also be attested by at least one witness who could include
a family member of the person arrested. The arrest memo should
be counter-signed by the person arrested.
• When a friend or relative lives outside the district, the time, place
of arrest and venue of custody must be notified by police within 8
to 12 hours after arrest.
• The person arrested must be made aware of his right to have
someone informed of his arrest or detention as soon as he is put
under arrest or is detained.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 73

Thomas Munro gradually extended the Ryotwari system all over south India because

Solution:

Justification & Learning: None of option B, C or D are the reasons,
because these factors varied from farm to farm and region to region in

both parts of India. Moreover, they are not convincing argument for
decentralization of the land revenue system in the South.
• Ryotwari was tried first on a small scale by Captain Alexander
Read in some of the areas that were taken over by the Company
after the wars with Tipu Sultan.
• Subsequently developed by Thomas Munro, this system was
gradually extended all over south India.
• Read and Munro felt that in the south there were no traditional
zamindars. The settlement, they argued, had to be made directly
with the cultivators (ryots) who had tilled the land for generations.
• Their fields had to be carefully and separately surveyed before the
revenue assessment was made. Munro thought that the British
should act as paternal father figures protecting the ryots under
their charge
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 74

The Indian National Congress made the demand for a Constituent Assembly only during

Solution:

Learning: In 1934, the Indian National Congress made the demand for
a Constituent Assembly.
During the Second World War, this assertion for an independent
Constituent Assembly formed only of Indians gained momentum and
this was convened in December 1946.
Between December 1946 and November 1949, the Constituent Assembly
drafted a constitution for independent India.

Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 75

Hot water discharged by industries is considered as a water pollutant because
1. Higher water temperature generally decreases the level of dissolved oxygen of water.
2. High temperature limits oxygen dispersion into deeper waters, contributing to anaerobic conditions in deep water.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Elevated temperature typically decreases
the level of dissolved oxygen of water. This can harm aquatic animals
such as fish, amphibians and other aquatic organisms.
Thermal pollution may also increase the metabolic rate of aquatic
animals, as enzyme activity, resulting in these organisms consuming
more food in a shorter time than if their environment were not changed.
Statement 2: Mixing of nutrients and oxygen in between water layers is
very much dependent on water temperatures. High temperature at the
top layer prevents proper mixing of water.
This can lead to increased bacteria levels when there is ample food
supply. Many aquatic species will fail to reproduce at elevated
temperatures.
Learning: Primary producers (e.g. plants, cyanobacteria) are affected
by warm water because higher water temperature increases plant growth
rates, resulting in a shorter lifespan and species overpopulation. This can
cause an algae bloom which reduces oxygen levels.

Q Source: Improvisation: Page 249: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 76

Endemic species are those that are

Solution:

Justification: These species are not naturally found anywhere else
other than the areas where they are endemic.
A particular type of animal or plant may be endemic to a zone, a state or
a country.
For e.g. Sal and Wild mango are two endemic species of Panchmarhi
biosphere reserve.
Bison, Indian giant squirrel and flying squirrel are endemic fauna of this
area.
You should note that a species can be endemic to more than one area, for
e.g. Olive Ridley Sea Turtles are endemic to Pacific, Atlantic and Indian
oceans all.
Q Source: Page 81: Science 8th NCERT

QUESTION: 77

In the practice of Organic Farming
1. No genetic modification is done to increase the yield of the crop.

2. No manures are used to modify the natural properties of the soil.
3. No pesticides or weedicides are used allowing the food chain to work naturally at the farm level.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Organic farming is a system which avoids or largely
excludes the use of synthetic inputs (such as fertilizers, pesticides,
hormones, feed additives etc) and to the maximum extent feasible rely
upon crop rotations, crop residues, animal manures, off-farm organic
waste, mineral grade rock additives and biological system of nutrient
mobilization and plant protection.
Statement 1: It avoids the use of GM seeds to reduce complications on
the field and uses naturally obtained seeds.
Statement 2: It does not use chemical fertilizers, but uses organic
manures to boost the productivity and nutrient base of the soil. So, 2 is
incorrect. You should read such statements carefully.
Statement 3: Similarly, it uses natural methods of pest control, and
natural weedicides and herbicides, and not chemical ones. So, statement
3 is incorrect.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 78

If you want to increase the cultivation of Coffee, you would recommend cropping coffee plants in which of these conditions?

Solution:

Learning: It is Jute that grows well on alluvial soil and requires high
temperature, heavy rainfall and humid climate. So, option C is incorrect.
This is why Jute is grown in the tropical areas. India and Bangladesh are
the leading producers of jute.
Coffee requires warm and wet climate and well-drained loamy soil. Hill
slopes are more suitable for growth of this crop. So, A is correct.
Brazil is the leading producer followed by Columbia and India.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 79

Mediterranean Sea does NOT touch which of the following nations?

Solution:

Learning:

Q Source: Map based question: Region: West Asia

QUESTION: 80

Which of the following was the reason behind the Khilafat agitation in India?

Solution:

Learning: In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish
Sultan or Khalifa. People were furious about this as they had been about
the Jallianwala massacre.

• Also, Indian Muslims were keen that the Khalifa be allowed to
retain control over Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman
Empire.
• The leaders of the Khilafat agitation, Mohammad Ali and Shaukat
Ali, now wished to initiate a full-fledged Non-Cooperation
Movement.
• Gandhiji supported their call and urged the Congress to campaign
against “Punjab wrongs” (Jallianwala massacre), the Khilafat
wrong and demand swaraj
Q Source: Page 149: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 81

Which of the following statements about the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NCTA) is INCORRECT?

Solution:

Learning: Option A: NTCA is a statutory body under the Union
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change. It was provided
statutory status by the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006
which had amended Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. So, A is incorrect.
Powers and functions of the National Tiger Conservation Authority as
prescribed under section 38O of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as
amended in 2006 are as under:-
• to approve the tiger conservation plan prepared by the State
Government under the Act;

• evaluate and assess various aspects of sustainable ecology and
disallow any ecologically unsustainable land use such as, mining,
industry and other projects within the tiger reserves;
• lay down normative standards for tourism activities and guidelines
for project tiger from time to time for tiger conservation in the
buffer and core area of tiger reserves and ensure their due
compliance;
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 82

The Swadeshi movement encouraged the idea(s) of

Solution:

Learning: It sought to oppose British rule and encourage the ideas of
self-help, Swadeshi enterprise, national education, and use of Indian
languages.
To fight for swaraj, the radicals advocated mass mobilisation and boycott
of British institutions and goods. Some individuals also began to suggest
that “revolutionary violence” would be necessary to overthrow British
rule.
However, Swadeshi movement was not clear about the economic model
based on which these objectives are to be achieved. Socialist model in
India was talked about much later when Nehru engaged in the INM
actively and after the Russian revolution. So, C is incorrect.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 146: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our
pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 83

World Investment Report 2016 was released by

Solution:

Learning: The report shows the Global Investment Trends.
• Recovery in FDI was strong in 2015. Global FDI flows jumped by
38 per cent to $1.76 trillion, their highest level since the global
economic and financial crisis of 2008–2009.
• Looking ahead, FDI flows are expected to decline by 10–15 per cent
in 2016, reflecting the fragility of the global economy, persistent
weakness of aggregate demand and sluggish growth in some
commodities
Q Source: Revision questions: Current Affairs: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 84

The coastline of Atlantic Ocean provides an ideal location for natural harbours and ports because

Solution:

Justification & Learning: A natural harbor is a landform where a
part of a body of water is protected and deep enough to furnish
anchorage.
Irregular and indented coastlines provide the perfect condition for
natural harbours.
Natural harbors have long been of great strategic naval and economic
importance, and many great cities of the world are located on them.
Having a protected harbor reduces or eliminates the need for
breakwaters as it will result in calmer waves inside the harbor.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 85

Which of these are NOT Fold Mountains?
1. Aravali Mountains
2. Himalayas
3. Satpura Range
4. Vindhyan Mountains
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1 and 2: They are fold mountains formed by
warping of the earth’s crust. Aravallis are old, while Himalayas are one of
the youngest.
Statement 3 and 4: Satpura and Vindhya found in the central- western
part of the Indian sub continent are Block Mountains. They have formed
through cracks in the earth’s crust and rose while certain blocks of earth
depressed.

Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 86

High tides in the Ocean are helpful in
1. Navigation
2. Fishing
3. Generation of electricity
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: High tides raise the water level close to the
shores. This helps the ships to arrive at the harbour more easily.
Statement 2: The high tides also help in fishing. Many more fish come
closer to the shore during the high tide. This enables fishermen to get a
plentiful catch.
Statement 3: The rise and fall of water due to tides is being used to
generate electricity in some places.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 87

These are called the monsoon forests of India and harbour hardwood tree species like Sal, Teak and Shisham. These are

Solution:

Learning: Long dry season of summer leads these forests to shed their
leaves in order to prevent evaporation.
Tropical deciduous forests are grown in the areas with annual rainfall of
70-200 cm. Sandal wood, Shisam, Mahua, Sal, Teak and Bamboo are
important species of trees. They are famous for their economic
importance. They supply timber for use in various activities.
Moist deciduous and the dry deciduous forests are two major categories
of these forests.
• The moist deciduous forests are found in Shiwalik foothills,
Bhabar, Tarai, Chhota Nagpur Plateau, the North-eastern Deccan
Plateau and North-south strip to the east of the Western Ghats.
• The dry deciduous forests are grown in the Central India where
rainfall is comparatively less.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 88

With reference to Ancient India, which of these roles was played by Shrenis?
1. Shrenis of merchants organized the trade.
2. Shrenis served as banks and accepted deposits.
3. Some Shrenis supported religious institutions.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Many crafts persons and merchants now formed
associations known as shrenis. These shrenis of crafts persons provided
training, procured raw material, and distributed the finished product.
Then shrenis of merchants organised the trade. Shrenis also served as
banks, where rich men and women deposited money.
This was invested, and part of the interest was returned or used to
support religious institutions such as monasteries.
Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 89

Poles experience about six months day and six months night due to which of the following?
1. Axial Tilt of earth
2. Bulge of Earth on the poles
3. Revolution of Earth around the Sun
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Earth is tilted in such a way that even after
one complete rotation North Pole will remain dark as it is tilted away
from the Sun. See image below. So, A must be an answer.
Statement 3: If the earth did not revolve around the Sun, but only
rotated on its axis, we would see one Pole of the earth permanently
facing day or permanently facing night. It would never change. You can
visualize this.

So, revolution of the earth around the Sun changes the direction of the
tilt that faces the Sun, and hence brings day/night to the other pole. So,
C must also be an answer.
Statement 2 is absurd.

Q Source: Revision questions: Test 1-2 Syllabus

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The Secretary-General's selection is subject to the veto of any of the five permanent members of the Security Council.
Reason (R): The Secretary-General is appointed by the General Assembly only after the recommendation of the Security Council.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

Solution:

Justification & Learning: The Secretary-General is appointed by the
General Assembly only based on the recommendation of the UNSC.
This implies that essentially the P5 choose the Sec. Gen.
There is an informal understanding between the members that Sec. Gen.
should alternatively be from Western and Eastern Bloc.
Although there is technically no limit to number of five-year terms a
Secretary-General may serve, none so far has held office for more than
two terms.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 15: Democratic Politics – I

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements.
1. The Prarthana Samaj adhered to the tradition of Bhakti that believed in spiritual equality of all castes.
2. Paramhans Mandali was founded to work for the abolition of caste.
3. Christian Missionaries of the 19th Century were highly averse to breaking the caste based traditions of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Prarthana Samaj was founded by Atmaram
Panduranga(with the help of Keshav Chandra Sen) in 1867 with an aim
to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. It became
popular after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined. The main reformers were
the intellectuals who advocate reforms of the social system of the
Hindus.
Statement 2: It was founded in Bombay in 1840s by Dadoba Panderung
(1842-82) and Bal Shastri Jambhekar of Maharashtra in 1849.
It said God alone should be worshipped and real religion is based on love
and moral conduct.
Statement 3: During the course of the nineteenth century, Christian
missionaries began setting up schools for tribal groups and “lower”-caste
children. One of the most vocal amongst the “low-caste” leaders was
Jyotirao Phule. He studied in schools set up by Christian missionaries.
So, clearly 3 is wrong.
Q Source: Page 114: History Standard 8th NCERT: Our pasts: Part II

QUESTION: 92

When a country joins the IMF, it is assigned an initial quota, which takes into account which of the following factors?
1. Openness of the economy
2. WTO Compliance
3. Size of GDP
4. International reserves
5. Political Structure
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: The current quota formula is a weighted average of GDP
(weight of 50 percent), openness (30 percent), economic variability (15
percent), and international reserves (5 percent).
For this purpose, GDP is measured through a blend of GDP—based on
market exchange rates (weight of 60 percent)—and on PPP exchange
rates (40 percent).
Quotas are denominated in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), Special
Drawing Rights (SDRs), the IMF’s unit of account. The largest member
of the IMF is the United States,
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 16: Democratic Politics - I

QUESTION: 93

Consider the following about the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
1. He was the founder of Republican Party of India and Swatantra Party.
2. He was the law minister in the first cabinet of postindependence India.
3. He once acted as the President of the Bharatiya Jansangh.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Swantantra party was founded by
Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi. Ambedkar founded the Republican Party
of India.

Statement 2: He also served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
of the Constitution.
Statement 3: It was Shyama Prasad Mukherjee who was Active in Hindu
Mahasabha and later became the founder President of Bharatiya
Jansangh (now BJP).
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 48: Democratic Politics - I

QUESTION: 94

The term “Socialist” in the Preamble of the Constitution implies
1. Wealth should be generated socially and should be shared equitably by the society.
2. Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to achieve desired socio-economic objectives.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification & Learning: The Indian brand of socialism is a
‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic socialism’ (also known as
‘state socialism’) which involves the nationalisation of all means of
production and distribution and the abolition of private property.
Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a ‘mixed
economy’ where both public and private sectors co-exist side by side.
As the Supreme Court says, ‘Democratic socialism aims to end poverty,
ignorance, disease and inequality of opportunity. Indian socialism is a
blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards Gandhian
socialism’.

The new economic policy (1991) of liberalisation, privatisation and
globalisation has, however, diluted the socialist credentials of the Indian
State.
Q Source: Chapter 3: Democratic Politics - I

QUESTION: 95

The Scramjet engine launched by the ISRO will be beneficial for space operations in which of the following ways?

1. It would help in reducing the lift-off mass of the vehicle used in space operations.
2. It will help in increasing the energy efficiency of the rocket system.
3. It will make rocket launching more cost-effective.
4. It will allow atmospheric methane to be used for engine propulsion.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: The scramjet engine works on the Air-breathing
Propulsion System. The system uses natural oxygen present in the
atmosphere to burn the fuel stored in the rocket.
Scramjet reduces the amount of oxidiser to be carried along with the
fuel, bringing down launch costs.
Other engines have to carry their fuel with them thus increasing the
payload, costs and engine efficiency. So, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Moreover, Scramjet does not have rotating parts so the chances of failure
are also measurably reduced.

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements.
1. During the election period, the Election Commission of India (ECI) can order the government to observe election related guidelines.
2. When on election duty, government officers work under the control of the ECI and not the government.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Justification: Very few election commissions in the world have such
wide-ranging powers as the Election Commission of India.
• EC takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of
elections from the announcement of elections to the declaration of
results.
• It implements the Code of Conduct and punishes any candidate or
party that violates it.
• During the election period, the EC can order the government to
follow some guidelines, to prevent use and misuse of governmental
power to enhance its chances to win elections, or to transfer some
government officials.

Q Source: Page 69: Democratic Politics - I

QUESTION: 97

Entanglement is a key principle of quantum physics. It means

Solution:

b) quantum bits can be correlated with each other. Quantum entanglement is a quantum mechanical phenomenon in which the quantum states of two or more objects have to be described with reference to each other, even though the individual objects may be spatially separated. This leads to correlations between observable physical properties of the systems.

QUESTION: 98

Which of these nations are the members of the East Asia Summit?

Solution:

Learning: Membership of the EAS comprises the ten ASEAN countries
(Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Burma, the Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam), Australia, China, India, Japan, New
Zealand, the Republic of Korea, the United States and Russia.
EAS meetings are held after annual ASEAN leaders' meetings.
Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015

QUESTION: 99

Consider the following about Sagarmala Development Company (SDC).
1. It will be under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. The main objective of the company is to identify port-led development projects under the Sagarmala Programme.
3. It would undertake the preparation of the detailed master plans for the Coastal Economic Zones (CEZs) identified as part of the National Perspective Plan (NPP).
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: The incorporation of SDC is part of the ambitious
Sagarmala Programme by the Government of India which aims to
harness India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14,500 km of potentially
navigable waterways and strategic location on key international
maritime trade routes.

Statement 1: It is incorrect, as the SDC is under the control of the
Ministry of Shipping.
Statement 2: It also provides equity support for the project Special
Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) set up by the Ports / State / Central Ministries
and funding window and /or implement only those residual projects
which cannot be funded by any other means / mode.
Statement 3: As part of the Sagarmala programme, a National
Perspective Plan (NPP) for the comprehensive development of the
coastline and maritime sector has been prepared.
The NPP has identified more than 150 projects across the areas of Port
Modernization & New Port Development, Port Connectivity
Enhancement, Port-led Industrialization and Coastal Community
Development.

QUESTION: 100

Convertibility of rupee implies freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa. If India allows full capital account convertibility, it may result in
1. Greater volatility in the exchange rates
2. Attraction of Foreign Direct Investment in India
3. India choosing to maintain very low foreign exchange reserves
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Free capital account convertibility would
mean FDI and FII will be allowed to move in and out of the country
without any restrictions. So, greater FDI is attracted.
But, FII is speculative and highly volatile, and its frequent movement
inwards and outwards will create volatility in exchange rates. So, 1 and 2
both are correct.
Statement 3: Higher FII means higher forex reserves have to be
maintained to handle emergency BoP situations. These forex reserves
can't be invested in India, so effectively desire for a larger FII and a
bigger safety net crowds out domestic savings.
Q Source: Improvisation: CSP 2015