UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 25


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 25


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This mock test of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 25 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 25 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 25 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 25 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 25 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Which of the following is correct with regard to the Speaker?

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

Which one of the following statements related to Money Bills is not correct?

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QUESTION: 3

The Finance Bill has to be considered and passed by the Parliament and assented to by the President within

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QUESTION: 4

Which of the following are described as the starred questions?

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Questions hour refers to

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QUESTION: 6

Censure motion is a

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QUESTION: 7

The quorum to hold a meeting of a House of the State Legislature shall be

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QUESTION: 8

The Upper Chamber of the State Legislature, besides other members, consists of

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QUESTION: 9

Which of the following is exclusively Lok Sabha committee?

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QUESTION: 10

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

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QUESTION: 11

Which of the following expenditures shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditures relating to this office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister and other expenditure relating to his office.
3. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of State.
4. The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the Deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

Match List I with List II

List-I                                    List-II
A. Vote on account          1. Lumpsum money granted without detailed estimates
B. Vote on credit              2. Additional expendutire not covered in the approved budget
C. Supplementary            3. Amount spent in grants excess demand for grants
D. Excess demand           4. Grants in advance for grants pending budgetary approval

Code:
    A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 1 3 2

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

Which of the following statements regarding Judiciary in India are correct?
1. In India Judiciary is not part of the State.
2. In India pattern and designation of sub-ordinate courts in the States are not uniform.
3. Munsiff's courts have both civil and criminial jurisdiction
4. The pattern of subordinate courts in metropolitan area is the same as that in districts.

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

Which of the following statements regarding 'the advisor jurisdiction' of the Supreme Court are correct?
1. The opinion of the Supreme Court may be sought by the President on any question of law or fact.
2. In case the opinion of the Supreme Court is sought it is bound to give it.
3. The advice given by the Supreme Court on a matter referred to it is binding on the President since the 42nd amendment.
4. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can also be exercised over disputes arising out of reference made over pre-constitutional treaties.

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

Which of the following statements regarding the exercise of judicial review in India is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

In which of the following categories of cases the Supreme Court of India has the power to decide?
1. A reference made by the President on a question of law or fact.
2. A case involving interpretation of the Constitution.
3. A case involving a substantial questions of law of general importance.
4. A case where the constitutionality of any law has been challenged.

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

A writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Court which

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

Which of the following statements regarding Supreme Court of India are correct?
1. It has the power of entertain appeal from any court or tribunal within India.
2. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on question of fact or law referred to it by the President
3. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court subject to vote by the Parliament.
4. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within India.

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Consider the following statements regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
1. The reference for advice may be made to the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact by the President of India.
2. Disputes arising out of pre-constitution treaties and agreements excluded from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may also be referred to it.
3. The advice given by the Supreme Court is binding on the Government
4. One of the cases referred to the Supreme Court for its advice was the constitutionality of theKerala Education Bill.

Q. Which of these are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

Restriction of the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts under Articel 226 of the Constitution is only possible through

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

The doctrine of the basic structure

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QUESTION: 22

Which of the following statements is correct?

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QUESTION: 23

Arrange the following Chief Justices of India in the chronological order and select the corrcet code
1. Ranganath Mishra
2. Mehr Chand Mahajan
3. H.J. Kania
4. B.N. Kirpal

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Which of the following does not match?

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QUESTION: 25

Which of the following is correct regarding 'Deendayal Upadhya Gram Jyotic Yojana'?

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QUESTION: 26

Which of the following is not correct?
I. The idea of 'Biosphere Reserves' was initiated by UNESCO in 1970-71.
II. Man and Biosphere Programme of UNESCO was launched in 1970.
III. The Government identified 38 mangrove and 4 croral reef sites throughout the country for intensive conservation and management of mangroves and coral reefs.
IV. The scheme on Biodiversity Conservation in India was initiated during 1991-92 to ensure coordination among various agencies dealing with the issues.

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

Consider the following statements:
(i) Sterilization is a monetary policy tool
(ii) Sterilization is a Market Stabilization Scheme
(ii) Open Market Operation is a monetary policy tool
(iv) Open Market Operations take place in secondary market

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

Which of the following agencies conducts ‘inflation expectation survey’ of households in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):
(i) FDI investment happens through secondary market
(ii) FDI investment is about equity securities
(iii)FDI investment is about debt securities

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI):
(i) FPI investment happens only in equity shares
(ii) FPI investment happens only in debt securities
(iii) FPI is mainly into primary market
(iv) FPI investment may happen through primary market

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Consider the following statements:
(i) Foreign Portfolio investment is sector specific
(ii) FDI investment in general target the capital market
(iii) Foreign Portfolio investments are more volatile than FDI
(iv) FDI investors can easily sell their holdings and quit the market

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Foreign Direct Investment in India under "Government Route" is approved by which of the following agency/body

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

The decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) requirement by RBI will impact the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) of banks in which of the following manner:

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Which of the following statements are true regarding the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR):
(i) MCLR will help in better transmission of policy rate into lending rate
(ii) Banks shall review the MCLR every month
(iii) Banks will do lending at or above MCLR

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Consider the following two statements:
(i) Headline inflation measures price inflation arising due to all types of commodities in the economy
(ii) Core inflation measures the headline inflation excluding volatile components i.e. food and fuel items

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

If the supply of money is increased in the economy, then which of the following statements are true:

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Which of the following scenarios can support sustainable economic growth:
(i) Galloping inflation
(ii) Hyperinflation
(iii) Deflation
(iv) Low and moderate inflation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Consider the following statements:
(i) Disinflation is declining rate of inflation but the rate of inflation remains positive
(ii) Deflation is general decrease in price level and the inflation rate is negative

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Which of the following constitute Capital Account in Balance of Payment (BoP)?
(i) Global Depository Receipts(GDRs)
(ii) International Trade Credit
(iii) Government securities purchased by foreign Investors
(iv) Securities purchased by foreign portfolio investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

Which of the following functions are part of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acting as Banker to Banks.
(i) RBI provides short term loans and advances to banks
(ii) Acting as lender of last resort
(iii) Enabling banks to maintain their accounts with RBI for statutory reserve requirements
(iv) Enabling settlement of interbank transfer of funds

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

Mergers and Acquisitions of commercial banks requires approval of which of the following agency/ies ?
(i) Competition Commission of India (CCI)
(ii) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

When did Congress declared independence as the goal of India for the first time?

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

Which of the following is correctly matched?
A. Sutta Pitaka           I. It contains stories and parables related to Buddha during his preaching tours.
B. Vinaya Pitaka        II. It lays down the laws and rules of discipline
C. Abhidhamma        III. Contains the Pitaka doctrines and meta physical views of Buddha.

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

Consider the Government of India Act 1909?
I. The Act provided for the association of lawyers with the Government to a greater extent and laid to the appointment of one Indian to the Viceroy's Executive Council.
II. In the Central Legislature the number of members was raised to sixty and in the provincial legislature to fifty.
III. The legislatures were allowed to discuss the Budget and to move resolutions on it as well as on other matters of general interest except in matters concerning the Army, Foreign Affairs and Indian States.
IV. The resolutions were of the character ofrecommendations and were not binding on the Goverment.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Not only lawyers but qualified Indians like Sir Satyendra Prasanna Sinha and Lord Sinha of Raipur etc. 

QUESTION: 45

Which of the following regarding Mahayana and Hinayana Buddhism is not correct?

Solution:

 Actually it is vice-versa. 

QUESTION: 46

Consider the following:
I. Caves used for the purposes of worship were called Chaityas.
II. A Chaitya had a rectangular hall with an apsidal end. Two long rows of pillars divided the hall into a nave and two side aisels.
III. The Nasik cave is considered the finest of them all which were built in the period between 200 B.C; and 320 A.D.

Solution:

The Karle cave is considered the finest. 

QUESTION: 47

Which of the following is not correct?
I. Dr Fany Butler was the first english female physician to come to India and practised medicine.
II. Sir Harcout Butler was appointed Chairman in 1927 of the Indian States Committee that was set up by the Secretary of State for investigating the relationship between the paramount power and the Indian states.
III. Butler Committee submitted its report in 1930.

Solution:

Butler Committee submitted its report in 1929. 

QUESTION: 48

Which of the following is not true of Chola art?

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:

 It was 1 : 16, other information are correct. 

QUESTION: 50

Consider the following:
I. By the Indian Council Act 1861 Canning, who was then the viceroy, introduced the portfolio system by which each member of the executive Council was placed in charge of Certain Departments.
II. Viceroy's Council was to be enlarged by the addition of six to twelve members of whom at least one half must be non-officials.
III. The Act restored to the Governments of Bombay and Madras the right to legislate, with certain limitations, for the peace and good government of the Presidencies.
IV. The Act authorised the Governor-General-inCouncil to create similar Legislative Councils.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

"By weaving threads of physics, chemistry and biology into a rich tapestry, this remarkable scientist provided a unifying molecular view of the word... He touted the wonderful properties of Vitamin C first as a cure of common cold and later as a preventive agent against cancer.' One of science 's major figures of all time referred to above is

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:

 It was during Lord Cornwallis. 

QUESTION: 53

The normal lapse rate of temperature in the troposphere is 1- C for every

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Winter rain in North West India : Western disturbances
2. Summer rain in Malabar cost : Retreating monsoon
3. Summer rain in Bengal basin : North westerly
4. Winter rain in Tamil Nadu coast : N.E. Monsoon

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Which one of the following is the correct sequence in terms of descending values of Albedo?

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

Consider the following:
A. Corals are not found near the shores where rivers meet the sea.
B. Corals do not thrive in regions where waters contain a lot of silt.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

Consider the following:
A. The temperature recorded at the surface of enclosed seas of high latitudes is lower than the temperature recorded at relatively greater depth.
B. The surface of the ocean directly receives insolation and heat is transmitted to the lower part of the ocean through the process of conduction.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Consider the following:
A. the Tropical Cyclones are thermal in origin.
B. The Tropical Cyclones develop due to Coriolis force.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

Consider the following:
A. Human Geography is the synthetic study of the relationship between human societies and the Earth’s surface.
B. It includes all those parts of Geography which are not solely concerned either with the physical environment or Cartography.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Consider the following:
A. The Homo Sapiens are generally divided into Cauc-asoid, Mongoloid, Negroid and Australoid races.
B. Such a classification leads to racism.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Consider the following:
A. The origin of Himalayas is due to the collision of Indian subcontinent with European landmass.
B. The convergence of crustalplates is often associated with mountain building.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Consider the following:
A. Considering the world’s wind systems, the westerlies normally blow between 40- to 60- latitudes.
B. The flow of air from sub-tropical high pressure cells to the temperature zone of pressure leads to the formation of mid-latitudinal plane wind system.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Consider the following:
A. The first major group of migrants from the United Kingdom to North-eastern U.S.A. were the “Pilgrim Fathers.”
B. Roman Catholics were not allowed to practice the religion fully in the U.K. at that time.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Consider the following:
A. In most of the tropical mainland of southeast Asia, rainfall is low in central areas.
B. The north-south mountain ranges cause rain shadow effect in the interior areas.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

Consider the following:
A. In spite of a fairly long coastline China has not been able to develop coastal fishery to a large extent.
B. Most of the China’s population lives away from the coast.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

Consider the following statements :
1. Mathogany is a native of the Equatorial forests.
2. Cactus plants are natives of areas of heavy precipitation.
3. Fir trees are found widely in the Amzon basin.
4. Tea is a plant of cool-dry climates.

Of these statements

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

Consider the following statements :
1. As per the optimum theory of population per capita income will increase with population growth in under populated areas.
2. According to Malthus, population doubles once in every 20 years.
3. Celibacy, self-control and late marriages are the preventive checks postulated by Malthus.
4. According to Malthus, wars, earthquake and floods are some of the positive checks on population growth.

Of these statements

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Consider the following statements :
1. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide
2. Fishing activity is well developed in warm tropical waters
3. Mixing of warm and cold currents bring plant nutrients for fish
4. Inland fisheries are more significant than other types in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Which of the following statements are correct regarding S.W. Asia?
1. This region produces almost 35% crude oil of the world
2. The crude oil is mostly refined at Abadan and Kirkuk
3. It is mostly exported to East Asia
4. Pipelines are the main mode of transport

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Shillong Plateau is also known as ‘Meghalaya’ meaning ‘abode of clouds’. It was so named by

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

What is not true of SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2015 and 2016?
I. The establishment of exclusive special courts for the speedy trial offences of atrocities against the members of SCs and STs and Specification of Exclusive Special Public Prosecutors are provided.
II. A new chapter relating to 'Rights Victims and Witness is inserted.
III. Certain duties and responsibilities are impsoeed upon the state for making necessary arrrangement for protection of victims, their defendants and witness.
IV. Relief amount is enhanced between Rs. 85,000 to Rs. 8,25,000.

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

Consider the following regarding Carcadian rhythm.
I. It is a pattern that guide our bodies when to sleep, rise eat and regulating psychological process.
II. Biological clocks produce it and regulate their timing.
III. The biological clock is generated by about 20,000 neurons that form a structure called the suprachiasmic nucleus, which is found in the hypothalamus in the brain.

Solution:

That turns cells in the patient's body into a 'living drug' that targets and kills cancer cells. 

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following statements:
I. Genetically modified cells that are infased back into patients in CAR T-cell therapy, continue multiplaying to fight disease for months or years. That is why these immunotherapy, treatments are called 'living drug'.
II. Orphan drug is a biological product or medicine that is intended to treat diseases so rare that sponsors are reluctant to develop them under usual marketing conditions.
III. Yescarta therapy is type of gene therapy that turns cells in the patient's body into a 'orphan drug' that targets and kill cancer cells.

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements:
I. Department of Animal Husbandary has launched Embryo Transfer Technology to increase the livestock productivity.
II. Indigeneous Cow Beeds cuh as sahinwal, Gir, Red, Sindhi, Ongole, Deoni and vechur will be the receipient surrogates.
III. It is a technique in which the embryo zygote iscollected from a donor animal with higher genetic merit and transferred to a receipient animal.
IV. Farmers may get 5-6 times increased number of off springs.

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

Consider the following statements:
I. India is set launch its first solar mission AdityaL1 in 2019.
II. The point L1 has the major advantage of viewing the sun without any occultation/eclipses.
III. Aditya L1 is to be the first satellite to study the magnetic field of the sun's corona.
IV. It is expected to study that why the photosphere, the deeper layer of the sun is at a much lower temperature than the corona, the origin of solar windions, the space around the sun upto pluto.

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Consider the following statements:
I. Three districts --Banaras (Uttar Pradesh), Koraput (Odisha) and Thane (Maharashtra)- have been chosen for the launch of India's ambitious 'Zero Hunger' programmethrough interventions in farm sector on October 16 (World Food Day).
II. It will be initiated by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in association with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), the M S Swaminathan Research Foundation and the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
III. It will focus on agriculture, health and nutrition in a symbiotic manner to develop an in egrated approach to deal with hunger & malnutrition.
IV. It will work in addition to the government's other plans to make India malnutrition free by 2022 and attaining the SDG (No. 2) for ‘Zero Hunger’.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:

 It is Gorakhpur Koraput and Thane. 

QUESTION: 77

What is not correct of Ready-to-use Therapeutic Food (RUTF)?

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

Consider the following statements:
I. Total fertility rate declined in India from 2.7 in 2005-06 (NFHS-3) to 2.2 in 2015-16 (NFHS-4).
II. Bihar has the highest rate at 3.41, followed by Meghalaya at 3.04 and Uttar Pradesh and Nagaland at 2.74.
III. Total fertility rate in rural areas was 3.2 while in urban areas it was 1.8.
IV. Women with 12 years or more of schooling have a fertility rate of 1.7, while women with no schooling have an average rate of 3.1.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

Which of the following is correct?
I. As compared to 1990s the life expectancy at birth improved from 58.3 years among men and 59.7 years among women to 66.9 years for males and 70.3 years for females.
II. Disparity among states is also visible with a range of 66.8 years in Uttar Pradesh to 78.7 years in Kerala for females, and from 63.6 years in Assam to 73.8 years in Kerala for males in 2016.
III. The disease burden due to Child and Maternal malnutrition has dropped to 20% but it still remains single largest risk factor in India.

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

Consider the following statements:
I. According to Cigarettes and other Tobacco Products (Packaging and Labelling Rules) amendment rule 2017 Sixty per cent (60%) shall cover pictorial health warning and twenty-five per cent (25%) shall cover textual health warning.
II. India had ratified WHO the Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (WHO FCTC) in 2006.
III. The Cable Television Networks (Amendment) Act 2000 prohibited tobacco advertising in state controlled electronic media and publications including cable television
IV. Under GST, there will be an additional cess charged on the tobacco-related products, overand above the GST charged at the rate of 28%.

Q. Which of the above statements

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

Which of the following is correct regarding India Health Fund?
I. The India Health Fund (IHF), an initiative by Tata Trusts, in collaboration with the Global Fund has come forward to financially support innovations and technologies designed to combat tuberculosis and malaria.
II. TB and malaria pose long-standing health challenges for India. The two diseases account for over 4.23 lakh deaths and around 15 million lab-confirmed cases every year.
III. It is aligned with the country’s goal of eliminating TB by 2025 and malaria by 2030.
IV. The Global Fundis designed to accelerate the end of AIDS, tuberculosis and malariaas epidemics. Founded in 2002, it is a partnership between governments, civil society, the private sector and people affected by the diseases.

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

Which of the following is correct?
I. Under this 1.5 lakh centres will bring health care system closer to the homes of people.
II. These centres will provide comprehensive health care, including for non-communicable diseases and maternal and child health services.
III. Contribution of private sector through CSR and philanthropic institutions in adopting these centres is also envisaged.

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements regarding Mission Indradhanush:
I. Union Health Ministry launched Intensified Mission Indradhanush to achieve full immunization.
II. PMO will review the mission through multimodal platform PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation) platform. III. It is a strategic endeavour under Universal Immunisation Programme 1990.
IV. Immunisation against seven vaccine preventable diseases namely; Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Childhood Tuberculosis, Polio, Hepatitis B and Measles.

Q. Which of the above statements:

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Consider the statements regarding Mental HealthcareAct?
I. It has decriminalized suicide by ‘reading down’ the power of section 309 of the Indian Penal Code.
II. The law takes a rights-based approachto all aspects of mental healthcare. It provides persons with mental illness protection from cruel, inhuman and degrading treatment, right to information about their illness and treatment, right to confidentiality of their medical condition and right to access their medical records
III. It makes provision for writing an advance directive through which which people can state their preferences for treatment, including how they would like to be treated for mental illness.
IV. It requires the government to meet internationally accepted norms for the number of mental health professionals within 5 years of passing this law

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements:
I. AMRIT Outlet was launched in 2015 by Ministry of Health and Family Weflare (MoHFW) as an Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment (AMRIT) programme with an aim to Reduce the expenditure incurred by patients on treatment of cancer and heart diseases.
II. AMRIT medicine outlet will be opened across India to cater medicines at very low costs. It is being implemented through Mini-Ratna PSU, HLL Lifecare Ltd. The country’s 1st AMRIT outlet was opened at AIIMS.
III. AMRIT will be launched in all Central Govt hospitals. The AMRIT pharmacy would be selling 202 cancer and 186 cardio-vascular drugs, and 148 types of cardiac implants at very affordable prices (60 to 90 percent discounted price than Market).

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Consider the following regarding Janaushadhi Pariyojana:
I. The railway ministry has given an in-principle approval to opening up of Jan Aushadhi Kendras at railway stations and other railway establishments under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana.
II. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana is a campaign launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, to provide quality medicines ataffordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra (PMBJK).
III. Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India (BPPI), established under the Department of Pharmaceuticals with the support of all the Central PSUs, coordinates procures, supplies and markets generic drugsthrough PMBJK.
IV. All drugs procured under this scheme are tested for quality assurance at NABL (National Accreditation Board Laboratories) accredited laboratories and is compliant with WHO GMP (Good Manufacturing Practices) benchmarks.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Which is one correct?
I. Generic Medicine is a low-cost version of a formulation that is equivalent to branded product in quality, dosage, strength, route of administration and efficacy.
II. Due to patency issues generic drugs are not sold in the market unless the patent of the branded drug expires.
III. Even after the patency, generic drugs are available under brands and are called Branded generics.
IV. The Medical Council of India's ethics code for doctors made generic prescription mandatory in October 2017, though it was not enforced.

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

Consider the statements regarding the Social Progress Index (SPI):
I. It measures the progress of a societyacross different states, beyond the traditional economic measurement tools (Income GDP, GVA etc.)
II. India ranked 93rd out of 128 th countries and scored 58.39 out of 100.
III. Sweden ranks 1st with a score of 90.57.
IV. State wise Social Progress (Highest to Lowest); Kerala (68.09), Himachal Pradesh (65.39), Tamil Nadu (65.34), Mizoram (62.89) Delhi (60.17), Haryana (44.89).

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

In 1986, government launched the first nationwide sanitation program under Central Rural Sanitation Program (CRSP). How different Swatch Bharat Abhiyan from earlier initiatives?
I. SBM had moved from outputs (number oftoilets built) to outcomes (ODF villages).
II. It emphasizes on sustainability by giving verification mechanism (90-day) on Post ODFdeclaration, because it is possible that the village may witness some ‘slip back’ into open defecation due to old habits.
III. Behaviour change campaigns through effective information, education and communication (IEC) such as ; “Darwaza Bandh” (on open defecation) campaign and Incentive based trained grass roots level motivators, or swachhagrahis, to stimulating community-level demand for toilets

Q. Which of the above correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements:
I. The government recently asked companies to contribute 7 percent of their CSR (Corporate Social Responsibility) funds to Swacchta Hi Seva Campaign.
II. Swacchta Hi Seva Campaign is a 15 day campaign undertaken by the government under the Swacch Bharat Mission (SBM).The campaign was co-ordinated by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
III. Under this campaign, people from all walks of life were encouraged to undertake shramdaan (voluntary labour) to make SBM a janandolan (mass movement).
IV. The campaign targeted the cleaning of public and tourist places. It mobilised the masses for cleanliness and toilet construction.

Q. Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

How a state is declared as Open Defecation free?
I. The Ministry of Drinking Water and Social Weflare has given different criteria for granting of ODF status to a Gram Panchayat or village.
II. No visible faeces should be found in the environment/village; and
III. Every household as well as public/community institutions must use safe technology options for the disposal of faeces.
IV. Quality Council of India has been tasked to substantiate Open Defecation Free (ODF) claims of Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) while in case of rural areas State may choose through whom to verify - it can be through own teams or through third party

Q. Which of the abvoe is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements:
I. India has 65% of the population less than the age of 35 years and 50% below 25 years of age and it is expected to be youngest in the world by 2020 with median age of 29 years.
II. The National Youth Development Index (YDI) value is 0.569 with wide range of variations between states e.g. Bihar (0.466) and Himachal Pradesh (0.689).
III. YDI score for male 0.5 and female 4.5.
IV. Youth Education Index stands at 0.513 and Youth Health Index score is 0.632

Q. Which of the above is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

Which of the following correct?
I. United States Agency for International Development (USAID) has launched a Rajasthan Development Impact Bond (Utkrisht Impact Bond) at the Global Entrepreneurship Summit in Hyderabad.
II. It is a world's first Development Impact Bond (DIB) in healthcare and has been developed in a public-private partnership and will provide financial assistance to 440 small healthcare organisations.
III. Target is to reach up to 5 lacs pregnant women with improved care during delivery and save lives of up to 10,000 women and newborns by the next five years.
IV. They are outcome based bond, under which donor pay back private investors investment with interest, if the service providers achieve predetermined targets.

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

Conisdert he following statements regarding World Inequality Report:
I. Recently World Inequality Report was released by World Inequality Lab at the Paris School of Economics and University of California.
II. The report shows that among nations inequality has been decreasing as traditionally poor countries are catching up with other developed countries however inequality has been deepening steadily within every nation.
III. The report points that income inequality in India has risen very highwith top 2% earners grossing 10% of the national income and top 10% was 56% (2014).
IV. Since deregulation policiesin 1980s, the top 0.1%earner have captured more than bottom 50% and middle 40% have seen relatively little growth in income.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

Conisder the following statements:
I. UN Convention on Rights of Child came into force in 1990. It prescribed a set of standards to be followed by all State parties in securing the best interests of the child. India ratified it in 1992.
II. It protects children from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography and provides for establishment of Special Courts for trial of such offences and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
III. For the more heinous offences of Penetrative Sexual Assault, Aggravated Penetrative Sexual Assault, Sexual Assault and Aggravated Sexual Assault, the burden of proof is shifted on the accused.
IV. The media has been barred from disclosing the identity of the child without the permission of the Special Court

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

Which of the following is correct about National Council of Senior Citizens?
I. It was originally known as National Council for Older Persons (NPOP) and was renamed in 2012.
II. It provides Physical Aids and Assisted-living Devices for Senior citizens belonging to BPL category’ with 50% of the beneficiaries in each district to be women.
III. It is a Central Sector Scheme which is being implemented with the expenditure being met from "Senior Citizens' Welfare Fund". IV. Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation (ALIMCO) is the sole implementing agency, a PSU under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements:
I. The Government of India recently launched a mobile app named “Divyang Sarathi” for easy information dissemination to Divyanjans (Persons with disabilities
II. It is also an integral part of the ICT (Information and Communication Technology) component of the Accessible India Campaign.
III. One of the unique features of the app is its audio notes. This is so because the app comesembedded with (text-to-voice conversion software)which converts the written information into an audio file as well as the adjustable font size which can be altered as per the user’s requirement.

Q. Which of the above is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

Which of the following is not a skill development scheme for minorities ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

Consider the following Statements regarding Rastriya Madhyamik Siksha Abiyan:
I. Shaala Sidhi: It is a portal for School Standards and Evaluation Framework launhed in 2015.
II. Shaala Darpan: It was launched in 2015 to provide services based on school management systems to students, parents and communities vis a vis Kendriya Vidyalyas.
III. Kala Utsavis an initiative of MHRD to promote Arts (Music, Theatre, Dance, Visual Arts and Crafts) in education by nurturing and showcasing the artistic talent of school students.
IV. Focus on Science and Maths as part of Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan launched in 2017.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

Consider the following:
I. Cabinet Mission was sent out to India in 1946 by the Ministry of Attlee and Pethick Lawrence as the Chairman with Sir Stafford Cripps and Mr. A.V. Alexander (later on Viscount) as members.
II. It was for the formation of a Federal Union of the British Indian Provinces with powers to control defence, foreign affairs and communications.
III. It includes the inclusion of princely states with the federal union with some allotment of seats
IV. The Mission proposals fell through over the communal allotment of seats in the Interim Government.

Solution: