UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 26


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 26


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This mock test of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 26 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 26 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 26 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 26 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 26 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The team 'procedure established by law' relates to which of the following Supreme Courts?

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

The first Lok Adalat was held in which year?

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

Consider the following:
1. District Board
2. Municipal Corporation
3. Notif ied Area Authori t y and Town Area Committee
4. Township Committee and Port Trust

Q. Which of these is/are urban local body/bodies in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements
1. The legislature of the state, by law, endows the panchayats with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of selfgovernment.
2. The above reflects the essence of Article 39 of the Constitution.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements.
1. Special Officer's post under Article 338 was substituted by the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India procures and markets the nontimber forest products (NTFP).
3. T he first Backward Classes Comm iss ion formulated 11 indicators based on social backwardness, educational backwardness and economic backwardness.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements:
1. There was a special provision for the Anglo-Indiancommunity in certain services under Article 336 of the Constitution of India. However, all such reservations were to cease at the end of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution of India.
2. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed in 1955.
3. The Untouchability (Offences) Act was renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

Which of the following is the correct chronological order of setting up of the given Commissions concerning weaker sections of the Indian society?

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

National Commission for Women was created by

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

The provision of providing identity cards to voters has been made in

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

Which of the following statements is correct?The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office before expiry of his term

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?\
1. The members of the State Election Commission are appointed by the President
2. These members can be removed in like manner and on grounds similar to that of the High Court Judge

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

 Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. The tenure of the Panchayat is five years
2. If it dissolved in the second year, its election need to be held within 6 months of the dissolution.

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

Arrange the Chairmen of the Election Commission in the chronological order
1. T.S. Krishna Murthy
2. T.N. Seshan
3. Sukumar Sen
4. Smt. V.S. Rama Devi

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

In which year was the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Schedule Tribes began to be constituted in two different commissions — one for the Scheduled Castes and another for the Scheduled Tribes?

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

 The decision of the Central Administrative Tribunals can be challenged in the Surpeme Court of India under the Article

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Constitutent Assembly:
1. The representatives were to be elected from the four constituents: Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs and Christians.
2. T he Cha irm an of t he Union Const it uent Commitee was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
3. The total strength of the Constitutent Assemblywas 389.
4. The Drafting Com mitt ee un der the chairmnanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar consisted of eight members.

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

The doctrine of 'prospective overruling' was adopted by the Supreme Court of India in the case of

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

 In which one of the following cases has the Supreme Court of India laid down that citizen can be compensated for loss or injury caused by arbitrary or capricious action by a public authority?

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Consider the following statements will regard to Judicial System in India:
1. Panchayat Courts functions in some of the states
2. The Supreme Court of India consists of 26 judges including the Chief Justice of India
3. Union Territories of Delhi and Chandigarh both have High Courts
4. The National Judicial Academy has been set up by the Government of India

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements with regard to the Advocate-General of the State in India;
1. He/she is appointed by the President of India
2. He/she can taken part in the proceedings of the State Legislative Assembly
3. His/her salary is paid from the Consolidated Fund of India
4. He/she advises the State Government on legal matters

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Consider the following statements:
A. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution does not lay down that all laws must be of universal application.
B. State has power to classify persons for legitimate purpose and on reasonable grounds.

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

Consider hthe following statements:
A. Judicial Review is a process to restrain the executive or the legislature from exercising power which may not be sanctioned by the Constitution.
B. The source of the power of judicial review in India is Article 13 (2) of the Constitution.

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

Consider hthe following statements:
A. Judicial activisim emerged in India as an extraconstitutional development through judicial pronouncements and judgements.
B. Judicial activism fills the gap, since the existing law is not clear or pronounced.

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Match List I (Development Approach) with List II (Features)
List-I                                 List-II
(Development                (Features)
Approach)
A. Blue print                    1. Utilisation of capital approach resources over human resources
B. Learning process        2. Cybernetic process approach with latitude for change according to needs
C. Production centred     3. Planning in advance approach for development
D. People centred           4. Individual as an actor approach who defines the goal
Code
    AB C D
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 4 3 2

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Consider  the  following  statements  regarding Securitization  and  Reconstruction  of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security  Interest(SARFAESI) Act 2002:
(i) It allows the banks and financial institutions  to sell  the  security once it becomes non performing
(ii) It allows the banks and financial institutions to sell the security in case of secured and unsecured debt
(iii) It allows only RBI to classify any  asset as non performing
(iv) It  allows  RBI  or  any  other authority  or  body as  applicable  to  classify  any  asset  as  non performing

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

NABARD  provides  refinance  to  which  of  the following  types  of  financial institutions:
(i) State Cooperative Banks & Land Development Banks
(ii)  Non  Banking  Financial Companies (NBFCs)
(iii)  Commercial Banks
(iv)  Regional Rural Banks

Q.Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

Consider  the  following statements  regarding "Sovereign Gold  Bonds"  scheme  launched recently:
(i)  If  the  market  price  of  gold declines,  investors will  be protected against capital loss
(ii)  These are government securities denominated in grams of gold
(iii)  Issued by RBI on behalf of Govt. of India
(iv) Investors  will  receive  fixed interest rate

Q.Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

Which  of  the  following  are components  of  India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves?
(i)  SDR: Special Drawing Rights
(ii)  FCA: Foreign Currency Assets
(iii) RTP: Reserve Tranche Position
(iv)  Gold
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

Consider  the  following statements  regarding  the transactions  happening  at  the international  levelfor  trade  and financial flows.
(i) Currencies  which  maintain  a stable  purchasing power  are generally accepted
(ii)  Freely convertible  currencies  are generally accepted
(iii)  There  is  an  international authority with the power to force the use of a particular currency
(iv)  There  is  a  basket  of  currencies which can only be used to settle international transactions

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

 Consider  the  following statements:
(i)  Bank notes are legal tenders
(ii)  Bank  notes  are  unlimited  legal tenders
(iii) Bank  notes  are  guaranteed  by the Central Government
(iv) Bank  notes  are  guaranteed  by the RBI

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Consider  the  following statements  regarding  the "Benami Transactions Act 2016":
(i)  Unaccounted  cash deposited  in others'  account is  benami transaction
(ii) Property  transactions  among the  family members  is  not benami transaction
(iii)  A  transaction  where  a  property is  held  by  a person,  but  has  been paid by another person  is called a benami transaction

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Consider the following statements regarding "Merchant  Discount  Rate (MDR)":

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

With respect to the Budget of the Central  Government, Capital Receipts  are  those  receipts  which either:
(i)  Causes  reduction  in  assets  of the government
(ii)  Create  a  liability  for  the government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

The  Grants-in-aid  given  by  the Central  Government to  the  State Governments  and  local  bodies  for creation  of  capital  assets  are classified  in  the Union  budget under?

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Which  of  the  following  are  Non Tax  Receipts  of the  Central Government?
(i)  Registration of Companies
(ii) Royalty from on shore oilfields
(iii)  Royalty from offshore oilfields
(iv)  Issue of Passport and Visa

Select  the  correct  answer  using  the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Which  of  the  following  are  Nondebt  capital receipts  of  Govt.  of India
(i) Public Account receipts
(ii)  Treasury Bills
(iii)  Disinvestment
(iv)  Recovery of loans

Select  the  correct  answer  using  the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

The Public Debt of Government of India  includes which  of  the following:
(A) Treasury Bills
(ii)  External  Commercial  Borrowing (ECB)
(iii) NRI deposits (iv) Foreign  Direct  Investment  in India (FDI)

Select  the  correct  answer  using  the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Which of the following are part of India’s External Debt?
(i) Investments made by Portfolio Investors in debt securities
(ii) Portfolio Investors purchasing government securities
(iii) External  Commercial  Borrowing (ECB)
(iv) NRI Deposits

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

 Match the following type of taxes and examples:
(i)  Progressive Tax
(ii)  Proportional Tax
(iii) Regressive Tax
1.  Personal Income Tax
2.  Goods and Services Tax
3.  Corporate Income Tax

Select  the  correct  answer  using  the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

What does "Revenue Neutral Tax Rate"  means  in reference  to  the Goods and Services Tax":

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

Consider the following statements regarding the duties of "National Anti-Profiteering Authority" in GST: (i) It may order imposition of penalty on businesses who are not passing on the GST tax rate benefits to consumers
(ii) It will determine whether any reduction in tax rates or the benefit of input tax credit has been passed to the recipient
(iii) It will identify registered person who has not passed on the benefit of reduction in taxes to the recipients

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

Consider the following:
I. The striking features of the Act of 1935 federalprinciple.
II. The Unit was to be with a bicameral legislature under a Governor-General with a dyarchical Executive Council consisting of two Concillors nominated of Governor-General to be in charge of the reserved department.
III. The Act abolished dyarchy in the provinces where popular governments were established.
IV. The provincial part of the Act was enforced in 1938.

Solution:

The implementation of the Federal portion of the Act depended on the co-operation of the Indian princes, and it was not readily received, only the provincial part of the Act was enforced in 1937.

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following is not true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

Consider the following regarding Cripps Offer of 1942:
I. To set up an Indian Union with the status of Dominion of the British Commonwealth.
II. India should not have the opinion of succession from the Commonwealth.
III. The Indian states should have the opinion of joining the Indian Union and any of the existing Indian provinces.
IV. Indian National Congress reject it as it did not promise immediate grant of full dominion status to India.

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

Which of the following is correct about the Parliamentary declaration in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Which of the following is not true of the Delhi Pact concluded on the 5th March, 1931, between Lord Irwin and Mahatma Gandhi?

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:

It was first enunciated in 1834.

QUESTION: 48

Regarding Dominion Status which of the following is correct?
I. It was first demanded by the Indian National Congress in 1905.
II. On October 31, 1929, Lord Irwin announced that the natural issue of the constitutional progress in India was the attainment of dominion status.

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Which of the following is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

Consider the following:
I. Lord William Bentinck was the last GovernorGeneral of Fort William in Bengal and the first Governor-General of India as per the Charter Act of 1833.
II. Lord Mayo was the first Viceroy as per the Government of India Act, 1858.
III. Lord Linlithgow was the last Viceroy and the first Crown Representative as per the Act of 1935.
IV. C. Rajagopalachari was the last Governor-General of India.

Solution:

It was Lord Canning

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following regarding Jainism is not true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

Which act of his Gandhi regarded as the 'Himalayan miscalculation'?

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

Which of the following is not correct about Gopal Krishna Gokhale?

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Reserved Forest is a forest

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

The correct sequence in decreasing order in terms of total production of the given non-ferrous metals in India is

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

Which one of following of lakes is to tectonic origin?

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

Which of the following statement are true?
1. Moderate earthquakes are caused along constructive plate boundaries.
2. Disastrous earthquakes are caused along destructive plate boundaries.
3. Disastrous earthquakes are caused along destructive plate boundaries.
4. Severe earthquakes are caused along the conservative plate boundaries with the creation of transform faults.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

The main difference between paternoster lake and tarn is that paternoster lake is

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

Soils, which have undergone gullying and are associated with marshes, swamps or poorly drained upland are called

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Which one of the following places is located at the confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Which one of the following is the correct sequenceof landforms developed under fluvial cycle of erosion?

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Chemical weathering is most predominant in

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Which one of the following pairs is correct?
1. The Peninsular India has not undergone marine submergence since Archaean times.
2. The Aravalli mountains were one of the oldest geosynclines of the world.
3. Dharwar system is rich in minerals.
4. The Peninsular block of India is regarded as an earth-quake-free zone.

Q.Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

During the passage of a tropical cyclone at sea coast, the following atmospheric conditions are observed :
1. Torrential rainfall with gusty winds.
2. Barometric fall with dark clouds.
3. Total clam and clear skies
The correct sequence of the occurrence of these conditions is

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

In India, the tropical moist deciduous forests form the natural cover in nearly all the places where the annual rainfall is between

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of cloud forms in ascending order of their heights from the ground

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

The correct sequence of the given states in descending order with respect to production of Bajra is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Which of the following statements regarding a Pjordsare correct?
1. Most of the Pjords were formed due to a rise in sea level after the melting of Pleistocene icesheets. 2. It is an emergent coast which originally was a submerged glaciated valley.
3. It is a long, narrow inlet of the sea bounded by steep mountains slopes extending to considerable depths.
4. It is glaciered valley that has been inundated by the sea and forms a deep steep-sided coastal inlet.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Which one of the following statements regarding El Nino is NOT true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Which one of the following regions is culturally closer the India but ethnically related to China?

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Which one of the following commercially important groups of trees belongs to cool temperate hardwood species?

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

Which of the following is true?
I. Halo orbit is a periodic, three dimensional orbit the L1, L2 and L3 lagrange point in a three body system.
II. Lagrange point is the point where the combined gravitational force of two large bodies is equal to the centifugal force that is felt by a third body which is reatively smaller.
III. There are about 10 such points in a two body system.

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

What is true about the discovery of most ancient spiral galaxy in the universe that existed 11 billionyears ago?
I. The discovery was made by Australian National University and Swinburne University of Technology using a technique that cmbines gravitational lensing with the Near-infrared integral field spectrograph. II. The galaxy known as A1689B11, existed just 2.6 billion years after the Big Bang, when the universe was only one fifth of its present age.
III. Gravitational Lenses is a phenomenon in which the gravity of a massive object bends and amplifies the light from an object that lies beyond it.
IV. This discovery opens the door to investigating how galaxies transition from highly chaotic, turbulant disc to tranquil, thin discs like those of our own Milky way galaxy.

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements regarding Gleadovia Kongakianorum:
I. Scientists have discovered a new species of parasitic plant in Nagaland forest and named it after Naga tribe Konyak.
II. It is a holoparasite which does not ahve chlorophyll but has a well developed vascular system.
III. The International Union of Conservation has described its status as 'data deficient' as the species have not been reported else where.
IV. The other three species of Gleadsvia genus are found in Assam and Himachal

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

What is true of Free Space Optical (FSO) Communication?
I. It is an optical communication technology in which data is transmitted by propagation of light in a free space allowing optical connectivity.
II. Working of FSO is similar to optical fibre cable networks but the only difference is that the optical beams are sent through free air or vacuum in stead of glass fibre.
III. It is capable of sending upto 2.5 Gbps of data, voice and video communication simultaneously through the air.

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Which of the following is not true of Ecitonium?

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Consider the following statements regarding All India Survey on Higher Education:
I. There exists a regional disparity in college density (number of colleges per lakh eligible population) which varies from 7 in Bihar to 59 in Telangana as compared to All India average of 28.
II. Total enrolment in higher education has been estimated to be 35.7million with an overall increase of 18.3% as compared with 2012-13.
III. A high percentage of the eligible population is still outside college as shown by the GER in Higher Education in India of 25.2% (calculated for 18-23 years of age group).
IV. There is a marginal increase in the Gender Parity Index (GPI) (a ratio of proportional representation of female and male) for all categories from 0.89 in 2012-13 to 0.94 in 2016-17.

Q.Which of the above statement is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

Consider the following statements regarding National Testing Agency:
I. NTA was recommended in the national education policy 1986 but it was never implemented by previous governments.
II. It is created as a Society registered under the Indian Societies Registration Act, 1880, and as an autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for higher educational institutions.
III. It would be an independent body dedicated on the lines of the Educational Testing Service (ETS) in the United States.
IV. It will conduct entrance tests entrusted to it by any department or ministry.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements:
I. Swayam is a Web portal where Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) will be available free of cost on all kinds of subjects with a provision of cert ficate / credit-transfer.
II. It is designed to take the best teaching learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged. III. Swayam Prabha a group of 33 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high-quality educationalprogrammes on 24×7 basis using the GSAT-1S satellite.
IV. National Academic Depository (NAD) is 24X7 online store house of all academic awards viz. certificates, diplomas, degrees, marks sheets etc. duly digitised and lodged by academic institutions / boards / eligibility assessment bodies.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

Which of the following is correct regarding Health Index in India ?
I. Health Outcomes – 10 indicators weighing 70% of the total index.
II. Governance and Information- 3 indicators which weigh 12%.
III. Key Inputs and Processes –10 indicators weighing 18%.

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements regarding Health Index in India:
I. Neonatal mortalityincludes deaths in the first 28 days of life.
II. Child mortalityrefers to death of children below 5 years per 1000 live births (50 per 1000 live births in 2015-16).
III. Maternal mortality Rate refers to number of women who die as a result of pregnancy and childbirth complications per 100,000 live births in a given year (174 per 100, 000 live births in 2015).

Q. Which of the above statement is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements:
I. Arunachal Pradesh emerged as the second State in the Northeast, after Sikkim, to be declared Open Defecation Free.
II. Arunachal has 21 districts and the State attained the feat much before the national deadline of October 2, 2018.
III. The project undertaken under Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) SBM (G) saw the light of day only after the State government extended an incentive of Rs 8,000 per toilet. This is in addition to the Centre's support of Rs 12,000, raising the grant for constructing a toilet to Rs 20,000.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct.

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements:
I. In 1968, corporate funding was banned.
II. In 1979, political parties were exempted from income- and wealth tax, provided they filed annual returns including audited accounts, listed donations of Rs 10,000 and above, and disclosed the identities of such donors.
III. An amendment to the Companies Act in 1985 restored corporate funding. Companies could donate up to 5% of their average net profit over the previous three years.
IV. In 2003, the NDA government made individual and company donations fully tax-deductible. However, the cap on how much companies could contribute remained.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

What are Electoral Bonds?
I. These are interest-free bearer instruments (like Promissory Notes) that will be available for purchase from the State Bank of India within a designated window of 10 days in every quarter of the financial year.
II. An additional period of a month will be notified in the year of elections to Lok Sabha.
III. "The life of the bond would be only 30 days. (It) can only be encashed in a predeclared account of a political party (which) will have to disclose the amount to the Election Commission.
IV. After purchasing the bonds, these entities can hand them to political parties of their choice, which must redeem them within the prescribed time.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

Which of the following is true?
I. The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal to amend Section 4(1) and Section 5(1) of the National Trust for the Welfare of Person with Autism, Cerebral Plasy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities Act, 1999 to fix the term of the Chairperson and Members of the Board of National Trust for three years.
II. Section 4(1) of the National Trust Act, 1999 provides that the Chairperson or a Member of the Board of National Trust would continue in office beyond the prescribed term of three years until his successor shall have been duly appointed.
III. In case of resignation of the Chairperson, section 5(1) of the Act provides for him to continue in office until his successor is duly appointed by the Government.

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

What is true of Mahadayi river?
I. The river rises in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Western Ghats, in Khanapur taluk of Karnataka's Belagavi district, and flows in a general westerly direction, entering Goa in the Sattari taluk of North Goa district.
II. It is joined by a number of streams along the way, growing in volume to become the Mandovi, one of Goa's two major rivers, before emptying itself into the Arabian Sea at Vasco-da-gama.
III. Mahadayi also depends that of at least three protected habitats — the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Mahadayi Wildlife Sanctuary, and the Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements:
I. In a historic decision, the Supreme Court Collegium recommended the name of senior advocate Indu Malhotra for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
II. This is the first time in history that a woman lawyer has been recommended for direct elevation from the Bar to a Supreme Court judgeship. a reputed senior advocate practising in the apex court.
III. Ms. Malhotra would be only the tenth woman judge in the Supreme Court's 68-year-old history.
IV. Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first women Supreme Court judge, appoint 39 years after the apex court was established in 1950.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements:
I. With several recent complaints that the two existing biometric authentications for Aadhaar — fingerprints and iris scans — haven't worked, the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has decided to enable face authentication as an additional mode starting from July 1.
II. This facility is to help those unable to use the existing biometrics for authentication because their fingerprints are worn out (from old age or hard work) or their iris is affected by injury or disease. There have been reports that people with these issues weren't able to get Aadhaar-related benefits.
III. This mode will be used with "one more authentication factor", which means it will be in combination with a fingerprint, an iris scan or aone-time password (OTP).
IV. The UIDAI has also clarified that face authentication shall be on a temporary basis.

Q. Which of the above statement is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

Consider the following statements:
I. Citizens who fall under the Emigration Check Required (ECR) category will soon have passports with orange jackets, instead of the dark blue that has so far been the colour of all passports under the ECR and non-ECR categories.
II. ECR passports are mainly given to non-matriculate workers who wish to work in the Gulf countries and in Southeast Asia.
III. ECR passport holders are being serviced by the Protector General of Emigrants so that their human rights are safeguarded abroad.
IV. White Passport is issued for government officials and maroon for diplomats.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements:
I. In October, 2017 got approval by Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs on the "Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP)" and "Skills Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement (STRIVE)" which are all set to boost the Skill India Mission in the country.
II. SANKALP is Its 4455 Crore centrally sponsored project including Rs. 3300 Crore support from World Bank whereas STRIVE is a Rs. 2200 crore - central sector project, with twenty five percent of the project outlay as World Bank assistance.
III. SANKALP and STRIVE are outcome focused projects marking a shift in government's implementation strategy in vocational education and training from inputs to results building in a strong shift to an outcome based skill ecosystem.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

Which of the following is not correct?
I. Takshashila National Portal for Trainers and Assessors is an initiative by NSDC under Skill Indian Mission.
II. The portal is a dedicated platform towards the management of trainers and assessors training lifecycle and would function as the central repository of information concerning the development ofquality Trainers and Assessors in the Indian skill ecosystem.
III. It is built in with a feature to search trainers and assessors trained by SSCs across states, sectors and job roles for access to a pool of qualified and skilled professionals.

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

What is correct of Bengaluru Water supply and Sewerage Project
I. The Government of Japan has committed JICA Official Development Assistance loan fa an amount of Yen 45 billion (=Rs.2587 crore approx.) for the project?
II. India and Japan have had a long and fruitful history of bilateral developmen cooperation since 1958. III. In the last few years, the economic cooperation between India and Japan has steadily progressed and consolidates and strengthens the Strategic and Global Partnership between India and Japan.
IV. This Project will provide residents of Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagar Palike (BBMP) are especially in 110 villages with safe and stable water supply and sewerage services b: carrying-out construction of water treatment plant and sewage treatment plant.

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

The Narasimham Committee for Financing sector Reforms has suggested reduction in

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

"The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam took place in 1970,..... areas have begun to bloom again. But 19 years after the war's end, it seems plain that Agent Orange is killing and maiming human being, something it never intended to do. The apparent toxic fallout from those clouds... is a crop of human miseries including cancers, miscarriages and birth defects- that may persist for decades." The offensive substance referred to in this quotation is

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

"It begins as a single cell and grow into a merciless that claims millions of lives year after year. But scientists are steadily unlocking its mysteries, and the fight against it may now have reached a dramatic turning point. Now discoveries promise better therapies and hope in the war against... "The disease referred to in the above quotation is

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

Cryogenic engines find application in

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

Which of the following companies has become the first provate Internet Service Provider (ISP) to start Internet services in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

The 'Modi script' was employed in the documents of the

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

'Yellow cake' , an item of smuggling across borders is

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer to the tribal people by

Solution: