UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 27


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 27


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This mock test of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 27 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 27 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 27 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 27 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 27 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Which of the following is not a Constitutional prerogative of the President of India?

Solution:

President of India has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha in accordance with the Article 85 (2)(b) of the Constitution of India. In this matter, the President acts on the advice of the outgoing Union Cabinet. Article 85 of the Constitution relates to the Sessions of Parliament, prorogation and dissolution.

QUESTION: 2

Which of the annual reports the President is not dutybound to ensure that they are placed before Parliament?

Solution:

The Atomic Energy Commission is the governing body of the Department of Atomic Energy , Government of India. The DAE is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.

The Indian Atomic Energy Commission was set up on 10 August 1948 under the late Department of Scientific Research. A resolution passed by the Government of India later replaced the commission by "Atomic Energy Commission of India" on 1 March 1958 under the Department of Atomic Energy with more financial and executive powers.

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements:
A bill is reserved by the Governor of a State for theconsideration of the President. The President may
1. give his assent to the Bill
2. withhold his assent to the Bill
3. veto the bill
4. direct the Governor of the State to return it to theHouse for reconsideration

Q. Which of these are correct?

Solution:

Governors power with regard to ordinary bills-

Every ordinary bill, after it is passed by the state legislative assembly in case of a unicameral legislature or by both the houses in case of a bicameral legislature either in the first instance or in the second instance, is presented to the governor for his assent. He has 4 alternatives:

  1. He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then becomes an act.
  2. He may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an act.
  3. He may return the bill for reconsideration of the house or houses. If the bill is passed by the house or houses again with or without amendments and presented to the governor for his assent, the governor must give his assent to the bill. Thus , the governor enjoys only a “suspensive veto”.
  4. He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. ( After choosing 4th option , governor will not have further role and president can give his assent to bill , or president can return the bill for reconsideration of house and if passed again by house / houses , the bill must be presented again for presidential assent only. If president gives his assent, the bill becones act. Means assent of governor is no longer required.
QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements

1. All decisions of the Councils of Ministers relatingto the administration of the Union must becommunicated to the President.
2. The President can call for information relating toproposals for legislation.
3. The President can direct that any matter on whichdecision has been taken by a Minister should beplaced before the Council of Ministers.
4. The President has the right to address and sendmessage to the Council of Ministers to elicitspecific information.

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

Solution:

Article 78-Duties of Prime Minister
a. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation
b. If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.

QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements

1. The President cannot function without the Union Council of the Ministers.
2. The Solicitor-General is the highest legal authority of the Union Government.
3. The Union Council of Ministers can function for sometimes even after death or resignation of the Prime Ministers.
4. In the absence of the Prime Minister, only the Home Minister can preside over emergency meetings of the union Council of Ministers.

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements
1. The President has the right to address and send message to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information.
2. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
3. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.

Q. Which of these statements are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

Consider the following statements:
If the financial emergency has been declared by the President under the Article 360, then its proclamation
1. May be revoked or varied by a subsequent order
2. Shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both Houses of Parliament

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Any such Proclamation may be revoked or varied by a subsequent Proclamation

Every Proclamation issued under this article except where it is a Proclamation revoking a previous Proclamation, cease to operate at the expiration of two months unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament Provided that if any such Proclamation (not being a Proclamation revoking a previous Proclamation) is issued at a time when the House of the People is dissolved or the dissolution of the House of the People takes place during the period of two months referred to in this clause, and if a resolution approving the Proclamation has been passed by the Council of States, but no resolution with respect to such Proclamation has been passed by the House of the People before the expiration of that period, the Proclamation Shall cease to operate at the expiration of thirty days from the date on which the House of the People first sits after its reconstitution unless before the expiration of the said period of thirty days a resolution approving the Proclamation has been also passed by the House of the People.

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements in respect of provisions as to financial emergency.
1. A proclamation of financial emergency has to be laid before each House of Parliament.
2. A Proclaimation of financial emergency ceases to operate at the expiration of six months, unlessbefore the expiration of that period it has been approved by resolution of both House of Parliament.

Q. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

Solution: When the financial stability of the country is threatened, president can declare a state of financial emergency
QUESTION: 9

In India, the Vice-President is elected by an electroal college consisting of

Solution:

The Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (both elected and nominated members).

QUESTION: 10

The Vice-President of India can be removed from the office

Solution:

The resignation becomes effective from the day it is accepted. The Vice-President can be removed from office by a resolution of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), passed by a majority of its members at that time and agreed to by the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

QUESTION: 11

Consider the following statements
1. The Vice President of India may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People.
2. An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of Vice-President shall be before the expiration of the term.
3. The Vice-President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements with regard to the Vice-President of India
1. He acts as President during the absence of the President.
2. He acts as the President for the remaining period of the tenure of the President in case the President resigns.
3. While acting as President, the Vice-President does not get the salary and other allowances of the President.

Q. Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

(1) In the event of the occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the President by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise, the Vice-President shall act as President until the date on which a new President elected in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter to fill such vacancy enters upon his office.

(2) When the President is unable to discharge his functions owing to absence, illness or any other cause, the Vice-President shall discharge his functions until the date on which the President resumes his duties.  

(3) The Vice-President shall, during, and in respect of, the period while he is so acting as, or discharging the functions of, President, have all the powers and immunities of the President and be entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such emoluments, allowances and privileges as are specified in the Second Schedule.

QUESTION: 13

Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which the Parliamentary system of Government in India operates?
1. Normal Executive Head
2. Vice-President as the Chairman of the Upper House
3. Real Executive authority with the Council of Ministers
4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

Which of the statements with regard to the Advocate General is/are correct?
1. He has the qualifications to be qualified as the judge of the High Court of the state.
2. The President of India appoints the Advocate General.

Solution:

Every state in India has a High Court which operates within its territorial jurisdiction.  Every High Court is a court of record which has all the powers of such as court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.

A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should be a citizen of India. Further,

  • He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years or
  • should have been an advocate of high court(s) for ten years.

There is no minimum age fixed for high Court judges, and unlike in Supreme Court, there is no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.

QUESTION: 15

The term 'Primus inter pare' in relation to the Prime Minister implies

Solution:

The Constitution of India does not describe the office of the Prime Minister in detail. It is, therefore, difficult to State what is the exact position of the Prime Minister. The general accepted theory is that the Prime Minister is just like “primus inter pares” or “first among equals”. This is the phrase, which is used to describe the office of the Prime Minister ship in a parliamentary system.

The Prime Minister is to take the support of his Cabinet colleagues and thus among the Cabinet colleagues the Prime Minister is first among equals.
However, this phrase is too modest to describe a great office of a parliamentary system.

QUESTION: 16

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha

Solution:

Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are co-partners in the functioning of the government. Thus, except in financial matters they enjoy equal power and status in all matters/ subjects. These matters involve impeachment of the President, removal of Vice-President, Constitutional amendments, removal of Judges of Supreme Court or High Courts.

QUESTION: 17

Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers of legislation is correct in the context of India?
1. The Lok Sabha has exclusive power to make law on any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List.
2. Residuary power of legislation is laid down in Article 248 of the Constitution.
3. Residuary powers include the power of imposing taxes not mentionned in any of the three lists.
4. Article 248 of the constitution provides for, among other things, the power to establish additional courts.

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

Which of the following are matters on which the Indian Parliament has the power to modify provisions of the constitutions by a simple majority?
1. Alteration of names, boundaries and areas of states.
2. Appointment of additional judges.
3. Abolition of the second chamber of a State legislature.
4. Administration of Scheduled Areas.

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Disqualification on grounds of defection for a member of Parliament will not apply

Solution:

Disqualification on Ground of Defection

Apart from article 102, the Tenth Schedule to Constitution provides for disqualification of the members on ground of defection. Defection refers to desertion of one’s party in favor of an opposing one. As per the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, a member may be disqualified if he:

  • Voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party which gave him ticket to contest and win
  • Votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction issued by the political party to which he belongs, unless such voting or abstention has been condoned by the political party within fifteen days.
  • member elected as an independent candidate shall be disqualified if he joins any political party after his election.
  • However, a nominated member is allowed to join a political party provided he joins such political party of his choices within a period of six months. After that period, joining a political party would lead to defection and disqualification.
QUESTION: 20

The Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in

Solution:

Rajya Sabha in India’s Parliament has certain exclusive powers with respect to the following:

  • Enable the parliament to make law on a matter of state list
  • Creation of new All India Services
  • Enforcing proclamation of emergency when Lok Sabha is dissolved

Rajya Sabha being a federal chamber enjoys certain special powers under the Constitution. All the subjects/areas regarding legislation have been divided into three Lists – Union List, State List and concurrent List. Union and State Lists are mutually exclusive – one cannot legislate on a matter placed in the sphere of the other. However, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting saying that it is “necessary or expedient in the national interest” that Parliament should make a law on a matter enumerated in the State List, Parliament becomes empowered to make a law on the subject specified in the resolution, for the whole or any part of the territory of India. Such a resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one year but this period can be extended by one year at a time by passing a similar resolution further.

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following Parliamentary Committees in India act as a 'Watchdog' on department expenditures and irregularities?

Solution:

Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the standing parliamentary committees, which was first established in 1921 under the Government of India Act 1919 provisions. This committee examines the manners and results of spending the public funds.

QUESTION: 22

The method of election of the members of the Rajya Sabha on the basis of proportional representation by the State legislature was borrowed from the

Solution:

The Constitution of South Africa is the supreme law of the Republic of South Africa.It was promulgated by President Nelson Mandela on 18 December 1996 and came into effect on 4 February 1997, replacing the Interim Constitution of 1993. Since 1996, the Constitution has been amended by seventeen amendment acts.Members of a state's Legislative Assembly vote in the Rajya Sabha elections in what is called proportional representation with the single transferable vote (STV) system. The political party that has a majority in the state Assembly normally gets to send the maximum number of MPs to the Rajya Sabha.

QUESTION: 23

The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by

Solution:

The Vice President of India is the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament. Rajya Sabha also elects one of its members to be the Deputy Chairman.

QUESTION: 24

The Joint Session of the two Houses of the Parliament is chaired by the

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

What is correct regarding the Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance Bill 2017?
I. The broad aim of the bill is to enure early recognition of a financial firm, regulated by RBI, SEBI, IRDA or PFRDA, which could potentially be in trouble so as to lower the impact on the economy.
II. This Bill deals only with the companies that are in the financial sector such as banks and insurancecompanies.
III. The Bill will results in the repelling of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1881.

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Which of the following is correct?

Solution:

In South Asia, FDI inflows increased by 6% to USD 54 billion and outflows declined by 29% to USD 6 billion.

FDI inflows into India remained stagnant at USD 44 billion. India’s outward foreign flows declined by about one third. Cross-border merger and acquisition deals have become important tools in the hands of the foreign multinational enterprises to foray into the rapidly-growing Indian market. The report has also noted that signing of tax treaty with Mauritius would have contributed to decline in instances of round tripping of FDI.

QUESTION: 27

What is true of RBI's direction on 'Customer Protection — Limiting Liability of Customer's in unauthorised electronic Banking Transactions?
I. If the customers report to the banks regarding the loss they suffer through online banking transactions within three days then the amount involved will be credited to their accounts within a time period of 10 days.
II. There will be 'zero liability of a customer' in case of third party breach where the deficiency lies neither with the bank nor with the customer but elsewhere in the system.
III. In cases of customer reporting the third party fraud with a delay of four to seven working days, then the liability of customer in such cases would be upto Rs. 50,000.

Solution:

Liability of customer in such cases would be upto Rs. 25,000/

QUESTION: 28

Consider the following:
I. SBI Realty Portal is a one step integrated webside for home buyers.
II. It will help customers to choose their dream home from 3,000 SBI approved projects, which are spread across 13 states/UTs covering 30 cities.
III. The SBI realty portal has been developed by SBI CAP Securities in association with Prop Equity in terms of data support projected information etc.

Solution:

India’s largest commercial bank State Bank of India (SBI) launched SBI Realty, a dedicated portal that will help home buyers to choose flats from its 3,000 approved projects across the country.
SBI Realty will be a one stop integrated website for home buyers. It will help customers to choose their dream home from 3,000 SBI approved projects, which are spread across 13 states/UTs covering 30 cities.
The SBI Realty portal has been developed by SBICAP Securities in association with PropEquity in terms of data support, project information, etc. At present, the website has 9.5 lakh home units available on it.
Using the portal, customers can compare current and past trends of prices for properties in various localities in the city. It will also assist customers in calculating appropriate loan amount a customer should borrow based on income and credit profile.

QUESTION: 29

Which of the following is not true about Global Retail Development Index 2017?
I. Titled 'The Age of Focus' has placed India at the top positon among 30 countries on ease of doing business in retail sector.
II. Indians rapidly expanding economy relaxation of FDI rules and the consumption boom are said to tbe the key drives for India's top ranking.
III. India's retail sector is witnessing a growth at an annual rate of 25%.
IV. The retail sector would grow 30 per cent annually and reach USD 48 billion by 2020.

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

Which is incorrectly matched according to the 'One Family at a time' study conducted by the UN International Fund for Agricultural Development on top remittance, receiving country in 2016?

Solution:

According to the ‘One Family at a Time’ study conducted by the UN International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD), Indians working across the world had sent home USD 62.7 billion in 2016 making India the top remittance-receiving country surpassing China.
Around 200 million migrants across the world have sent more than USD 445 million in 2016 as remittances to their families.
Top Remittance Receiving Countries: India (USD 62.7 billion), China (USD 61 billion), the Philippines (USD 30 billion) and Pakistan (USD 20 billion).
Around 80% of the remittances across the world are received by 23 countries such as India, China, the Philippines, Mexico and Pakistan.

QUESTION: 31

According to a new study in the proceedings of the National Academy of Science (PNAS) volume of increase of antibiotics in the world during 2000- 2015 is not correct?

Solution:

It is 0.8 to 1.3 DDD in Pakistan. 

QUESTION: 32

Which of the following has got Geographical Indication tag recently?

Solution:

Kadaknath is a black feathered chicken known for its flavourful meat and found mainly in the tribal district of Jhabua in MP.

QUESTION: 33

Consider the following Statements:
I. The use of the State emblem of India, as the official seal of the Government of India, is regulated by the State of India (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, 2005.
II. No individual or private organisation is permitted to use the emblem for official correspondence.
III. The National anthem was frist sung on December 27, 1911 at Kolkata Session of the Indian National Congress.
IV. National song Vande mataram has an equal status with Jana-gana-mana and was first sung in 1898 session of Indian National Congress

Solution:

It was first sung in 1896 Session of the Indian National Congress. 

QUESTION: 34

Consider the following :
I. In Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme actuarial premium rate are changed with a provision of subsidy upto 75%, which is shared by the Central and State Governments on 75 : 25 basis.
II. Weather based crop insurance scheme provide coverage against weather deviation from the notified standard on the basis of weather data received from the notified Automatic weather stations and Automatic Rain-guage.
III. Under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, a uniform maximum premium of only 2 per cent will be paid by fArmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5 per cent for all rabi crops. Balance premium will be paid by the Government.

Solution:

Shared by the central and state Governments on 50 : 50 basis. 

QUESTION: 35

How did the commission for 'Agricultural costs and Prices determine Minimum Support Prices?
I. Cost of production is one of the important factors in the determination of MSP mandated crops.
II. Demand and supply price trend in the domestic and international markets, and inter crop price parity
III. Terms of trade between agricultural and nonagricultural sectors and the like impact of MSPs on consumers.
IV. It is to ensuring rational utilization of natural resources like land and water.

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Global Warming Potential depends on which one of the following factors?
I. The absorption of infrared radiation by a given species.
II. The spectral location of its absorpting wavelengths.
III. The atmospheric lifetime of the species.

Solution:

The global warming potential of a given gas depends on its absorption capability over range of IR wavelengths and how long it stays in the atmosphere.

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following statements:
I. 54.6 per cent of the population is engaged in agricultural and allied activities (census 2011).
II. Agriculture contributes 17 per cent to the country's Gross Value Added.
III. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana was launched for implementation from Kharif 2016.

Q. Which of the above is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

The Kisan Credit Card Scheme is in operation throughout the country and is implemented by

Solution:

Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in 1998-99 to enable the farmers to purchase agricultural inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, etc. The Kisan Credit Card Scheme is in operation throughout the country and is implemented by Commercial Banks, Coop. Banks and RRBs. The scope of the KCC has been broad-based to include term credit and consumption needs. All farmers including Small farmers, Marginal farmers, Share croppers, oral lessee and tenant farmers are eligible to be covered under the Scheme. The card holders are covered under Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) against accidental death/permanent disability.

QUESTION: 39

Consider the following statements:
I. Merchandise Exports from India Scheme is a major export promotion scheme that seeks to promote export of notified goods manufactured/ produced in India.
II. Service Exports from India Scheme, an incentive scheme for eligible service exports, was introduced in Foreign Trade Policy (2015-20) replacing the served from India scheme.
III. Under EPCG Scheme imports of capital goods at zero customs duty is allowed for technology upgradation and better service to enhance India's export competitiveness.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

'Tithi Bhojan' is a concept design to ensure greater public participation under the Mid Day Meal Programme being followed in Gujarat. The concept has been adopted by different states with local nomenclatures.

Q.Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Solution:

It is in Rajasthan and in Punjab it is Priti Bhoj. It is Anna Dhanam in Puducherry and 'Shalegagi Naavu Naeevu' in Karnataka. 

QUESTION: 41

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Solution:

A scheme of AICTE for advancement of girls participation in technical education.

QUESTION: 42

Consider the following:
I. These were people who dwelt, on the eve of Alexander's invasion, in the north-western part of India, on the Chinab abvoe its confluence withthe Indus.
II. Their name is the Greek form of the Sanskrit Ambastha who are mentioned in the Aitereya Brahman, the Mahabharata and the Brahaspatya Arthasastra. Above statements refer to

Solution:

 Abhisaras were a tribal people who dwelt in the Punch and some adjoininng district of Kashmir and some poart of the Hazara district of the  then North West Frontier  Province on the eve of the invasion by Alexander the Great. Parihars were Rajputs. Agalassoi were the tribal people who lived in the lower Indus Valley next to the Siboi. Alexander met them on his retreat down the Indus. 

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following about Ajanta paintings not correct?
I. The art is mainly decorative and is superior to the contemporary art of Italy and Southern Europe.
II. The human figures and the scenery depicted in the frescos at Ajanta are typically Abysimian and show little connection with north Indian architecture and fresco painting.
III. The lines of the drawings are very vigorous, the knowledge of the pigments, and of the standard of mixture show very great skill. Which of the above statements is/are true?

Solution:

The human figures and the scenery depicted in the frescos of Ajanta are typically southern

QUESTION: 44

Which of the following regarding Al-Masudi is correct?
I. He was the early Arab traveller who visited India in 712 A.D.
II. He visited Pratihara Kingdom which was ruled by King Mahipalay.
III. He wrote about the horses and camels of Mahipala.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are

Solution:

Al-Masudi visited India in 915 A.D. 

QUESTION: 45

Which of the following regarding the Asiatic Society of Bengal is not correct?

Solution:

 It was interested in Oriental studies. 

QUESTION: 46

Consider the following:
I. Assam was administered as an appendage of the province of Bengal till 1784 when for improving its administration Assam was separated from Bengal province and placed under a Chief Commissioner.
II. In 1905, Assam was amalgamated with the districts of Dacca, Chittagong and Raj Shahi Divisions of Bengal, formed into a new province known as Eastern Bengal and Assam.
III. In 1912 Assam was constituted into a Governor province with the Executive Council and a Legislature but after independence the district of Sylhet except the sub-division of Karimganj has been retained by Assam to the then Pakistan.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The partition of Bengal was undone later. Eastern Bengal was re-united with Western Bengal, and Assam again becamse a Chief Commissionership but was allowed  to retain only the Khasi and Jantia Hill districts but also the Bengal, districts of Sylhet, Cachar, Garo Hills and Goalpara. But during partition Sylhet except Karimganj subdivision was lost to the then Pakistan. 

QUESTION: 47

What is true of the mutiny of the 47th Nativ Infantry?
I. In 1824 an expeditionary force of the Indian army was to be sent to Afghanistan to fight the Anglo Afghan war.
II. The sepoys of the Indian army that was to constitute the expeditionary force were required under the rules then in force to provide themselves with land transport which was extremely difficult to secure, but nothing was done to remedy it.
III. A sea-voyage was then dreaded by the Hindu Ssepoys as it was believed to involve the loss of the caste.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

"The Indian sepoys could not keep stand in front of the British army, because British army was well-equipped with weapons to fight with sepoys which sepoys didn’t have.

Additionally, the leaders of the rebellion started by sepoys were either imprisoned or killed by the British Government in India. 

The East India led company government applied the phrase ‘divide and rule’ and they separated the sepoys on the basis of their castes. 

Sikhs and some soldiers from Bengal supported British.

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following:
I. Buddhist arhats who have qualified themselves to attain Buddhahood in this life, voluntarily fore go Bodhisattava state in order to help all their fellowmen to attain that happy state.
II. They receive same kind of co-operation, respect and worship as the Buddha himself.
III. Buddhisattava is a conception of the Hinayana school of Buddhists.

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

Which of the following is not true about Subhas Chandra Bose?

Solution:

These lines by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose contain the essence of his life’s philosophy, a philosophy which permeated his actions and ensured a place of pre-eminence for him in the history of India’s struggle for freedom.
Born on January 23, 1897, Subhas Chandra Bose was deeply influenced by the philosophy of Swami Vivekananda. He appeared for the Indian Civil Service competitive examination in 1920, and came out fourth in order of merit. He however resigned, responding to Mahatma Gandhi’s call to the nation, for sacrifice, in the wake of Jalianwala Bagh massacre.

QUESTION: 50

Consider the following:
I. The communal Award, made by Ramsay Macdonald, was passed in 1935.
II. By the Act of 1919 six special Muslim landholders constituencies were created in Bengal for the Imperial Legislative council.
III. The communal Award not only recognised the divisons amongst the Indians on a religious basis but also the divisions amongst th Hindus on the basis of castes and gave separate representation to the depressed classes amongst the Hindus.
IV. It was modified by the Poona Pact, 1932, which ekpt the depressed classes as an integral part the Hindu population of India and yet give them general as well as special representation in the legislative, bodies.

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Which of the following regarding the Indian Civil Services is not correct?

Solution:

Satyendranath was selected for the Indian Civil Service in June, 1863. He completed his probationary training and returned to India in November 1864. Monomohun Ghose did not succeed in the examination for the ICS but was called to the bar.

QUESTION: 52

Which of the following is true regarding the Act of 1919?

Solution:

The Council remains subordinate to the Secretary of State. 

QUESTION: 53

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer

List-I (Old Names)        List-II (New Names)
A. Azrak                        1. Azov
B. Ister                           2. Blue Nile
C. Paulus Meotus          3. Danube
D. Raha                         4. Volga

Codes :
     A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 3 4 2

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Consider the following statements :
Low soil fertility in Rainy Tropics can be caused by
1. high temperature and heavy rainfall.
2. eluviation and leaching.
3. the existence of an extremely active bacterial life on the forest floor.

Of these Statements

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Which of the following leaf modifications occur in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Drip-tip leaves
4. Thorn instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

Desert plants have acquired special adaptations that help them reduce water loss. Here are some of their adaptations:

1.Smaller, fewer, and deeper pores — Many desert plants have smaller, fewer, and deeper pores than other plants. With such pores, hot and dry winds are prevented from blowing directly across the pores and evaporating so much of the plants' water.

2. Waxy cover — Plants not only lose water through their pores, they also lose it through the cell walls on their leaves. The leaves and stems of many desert plants have a thick covering that is coated with a waxy substance, allowing them to seal in and protect what moisture they already have.

3. Nocturnal — Plants typically lose a large amount of water through transpiration, especially on hot, sunny days when they are doing photosynthesis like crazy. So if transpiration occurs during daytime hours, high temperatures can cause water to evaporate quickly. But if the process occurs at night, less water is lost. Often times, desert plants do not open their pores until the sun goes down and temperatures fall.

4.Little leaves — Most desert plants have small leaves, spikes for leaves, or no leaves at all. The smaller or fewer leaves a plant has, the less water is lost during transpiration since it has less surface area open to the sun and wind. For desert plants with small leaves or none at all, the twigs and stems help to carry out photosynthesis.

5. Hide and rest — During the hottest part of the day many desert grasses and other plants “roll up” their leaves (hide and rest) to reduce the amount of surface area exposed to sun and wind. Some plants simply position themselves so they have less exposure to the climatic elements on a hot, sunny day.

QUESTION: 56

A region with summer temperature of 20- C, winter temperature of —15- C, annual rainfall of about 50cm, mainly in spring and early summer and coniferous vegetation would lie in the

Solution:

A cold environment is defined by conditions that cause greater than normal body heat losses. In this context “normal” refers to what people experience in everyday life under comfortable, often indoor conditions, but this may vary due to social, economic or natural climatic conditions. For the purpose of this article environments with an air temperature below 18 to 20ºC would be considered cold.

Cold work comprises a variety of industrial and occupational activities under different climatic conditions. In most countries the food industry requires work under cold conditions—normally 2 to 8ºC for fresh food and below –25ºC for frozen food. In such artificial cold environments, conditions are relatively well defined and the exposure is about the same from day to day.

QUESTION: 57

Consider the following statements :
1. The distribution of population in the southern continent is peripheral.
2. Among the continents, Europe has the highest density of population.
3. The most densely populated region of the USAis its Californian coast.
4. Equatorial regions generally have low density of population due to dense forest.

Of these statements

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

The most important type of forest in terms of economic value and easy exploitation is

Solution:

Tropical rain forests are of great importance from an economic as well as an ecological viewpoint. These forests encompass over half of the world’s standing timber, and could potentially produce as much as 75% of the world’s future wood products.Tropical forests are subdivided on the basis of elevation and soil type, and corresponding differences in forest structure. The distinguishing structural characteristics include canopy height, crown layering and the presence (or absence) of different climbers and epiphytes. Tree buttressing, crown shape, leaf structure, and position of flower/fruit formation are other important physiognomic descriptors of tropical forests. On a global basis the most important types of tropical moist forest include lowland evergreen rain forests, upper and lower montane rain forests, heath forests, peat swamp forests, freshwater swamp forests and mangroves.

QUESTION: 59

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.

List-I (Location)       List-II (Industry)
A. Osaka                1. Aircraft
B. Sheffield             2. Cuttery
C. Seattle               3. Steel
D. Magnitogorsk     4. Cotton textiles

Codes :
    A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 1 2 3

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Consider the following principal group crops of India:
1. Pulses
2. Fibre crops
3. Oil seeds
4. Plantation crops

The correct sequence in descending order principal groups of crops with respect to the share in the total cropped area is

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

List-I (Minerals)          List-II (Places of occurrences)
A. Gondwana Coal     1. Neyveli
B. Lignite                    2. Lahardaga
C. Mineral Oil             3. Talcher
D. Bauxite                  4. Kalol

Codes :
    A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 1 4 2

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Consider the following statements : Japan is one of the leading industrial countries in the world because it has
1. developed hydel power
2. large deposits of metallic mineral
3. high technological capability
4. insular location.

Of these statements

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Consider the following statements :
1. Rice is predominantly cultivated in the tropical areas
2. USA is one of the exporters of rice.
3. Thailand is an important importer of rice.
4. In Italy, rice is cultivated in the Po-Valley.

Of these statements

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

Consider the following statements regarding equatorial forests:
1. They consist mostly of hardwood trees.
2. In very dense areas, under growth is absent.
3. There is segregation of the same species of trees.
4. Lumbering is well developed in these forests.

Of these statements

Solution: Due to high biodiversity in equatorial forest segregation of same trees is not easy.
QUESTION: 66

In Iran during the ancient period, the system of utilizing the under ground water label was known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

The Amarkantaka Hill is the source of two rivers flowing in the different direction (west and east). They are

Solution:

1. Mahanadi rivers flows through the state of Chattisgarh whereas narmada flows through Madhya Pradesh

2. Mahanadi drains into bay of bengal whereas Narmada drains into Arabian Sea.

3. Mahanadi forms delta whereas Narmada flows through ridges and doesn't carry enough sediments to form deltaic basins.

QUESTION: 68

Bandland topography is characteristic of the

Solution:

 The Vindhyan upland, the adjoining Chambal valley and the Indo-Gangetic alluvial tract (older alluvium) are of Pleistocene to Sub-recent age. Badland topography is a characteristic feature of the Chambal valley, whereas kankar has extensively developed in the older alluvium.

QUESTION: 69

Which one of the following sets of types actions occurs in a topography?

Solution:

The term desert peneplain to describe the erosional topography of Africa produced by the action of wind. J.H. Maxson and G.H. Anderson (1935) and A.D. Howard (1942) proposed the term pedeplain to describe coalescing pediments. A sudden break of slope exists at the contact zone of a pediment and its adjoining mountain front. L.C. King attributes it to the change in the nature of water flow, i.e., extremely erosive turbulent linear flow as compared to less erosive laminar flow on the pediment zone. The wind or aeolian erosion takes place in the following three ways, viz. (1) deflation, (2) abrasion or sandblasting, and (3) attrition. 

QUESTION: 70

Following relief zones are the characteristic of ocean basins:
1. Continental slope
2. Continental Shell
3. Deep sea plain
4. Oceanic trench

The correct sequence of their seaward appearance from the coasts is

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

What is not one of the feature of 5G technology?
I. It was started in 2010 and deployment year is 2015.
II. Data Bandwith of 5G is one GbPs and higher.
III. It is of single unified standards.
IV. Its technology is unified IP and seamless combination of broadband

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

India is planning to adopt 5G in the country by 2020. What are the challenges ahead for India?
I. India lacks a strong backhaul to transition to 5G.
II. As of now 80% of cell sites are connected through microwave backward and 20% sites are connected through fiber.
III. The Indian market is yet to adopt to 4G completely.

Solution:

Backhaul is a network that connects cell sites to central exchange. 

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following statements regarding Quantum computing.
I. In a classical computer information is stored using binary units or bits. A bit is either a 0 or 1. A quantum computer instead takes advantage of quantum mechanical properties to process information using quantum bits or qbits.
II. A qubit can be both 0 or 1 at the same time or any range of numbers between 0 and 1.
III. They function according to two key principles of quantum physics: superposition and entanglement.

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Which of the following is not correct regarding phytopharma plant mission?

Solution:

Captive cultivation of selected medical plants of North Eastern Region

QUESTION: 75

What is true of cryo-electron microscopy?
I. It is a method for imaging frozenhydrated specimens at cryogenic temperatures by electron microscopy
II. This method helps in better imaging 3D structure of biomolecules.
III. It has been used to image the elusive Zika Virus and its medicine associated research.

Solution:
  • Cryo-electron microscopy is a method for imaging frozenhydrated specimens at cryogenic temperatures by electron microscopy.
  • Specimens that are to be analysed would remain in their native state without the need for dyes or fixatives, which would allow the study of fine cellular structures, viruses and protein complexes at molecular resolution.
  • Contrary to earlier electron micro-scoping, cryo-electron miscroscopy can view solutions (as water would not evaporate under microscope’s vacuum).
  • This method helps in better imaging 3D structures of biomolecules.
  • It helps researchers to freeze biomolecules mid-movement and visualise the processes they have never previously seen.
  • It has been used to image the elusive Zika virus and its medicine associated research.
QUESTION: 76

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Solution:

INDRA– It is India Russia naval exercise held in the Bay of Bengal with the aim to increase interoperability between the both the naval forces. The exercise was conducted in two phases; sea and harbor phase.

QUESTION: 77

Which of the followijng is not correctly matched?

Solution:

KONKAN– Indian Navy and Royal Navy’s (UK Navy) joint maritime exercise took place in Mumbai, Maharashtra to increase compatibility and interoperability between both the navies.

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Solution:

CORPAT– It is Indonesia coordinate patrol bilateral maritime exercise was conducted at Andaman and Nicobar.

QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements:
I. The World Post Day is celebrated to mark the anniversary of the establishment of the Universal Postal Union (UPU) in 1874 in the Swiss Capital, Bern.
II. It was declared World Post Day by the UPU Congress held in Tokyo, Japan in 1969.
III. India is ranked the eighth most valuable nation brand while the United States retained its top position and China took the second spot in the league of nations according to Brand Finance's Nation Brands 2017.
IV. The Top 10 Valuable Nation brands are: United States, China, Germany, Japan, United Kingdom, France, Spaina, India, Italy, South Korea.

Solution:

It is not Spain, it is Canada. 

QUESTION: 80

Which of the following is correct?
I. In a first, Europe-based Astronomers have discovered a ring encircling an egg-shaped dwarf planet Haumea that has an orbit beyond Neptune.
II. Haumea has a diameter three times smaller thanthe Moon and has a ring width of 70 km.
III. The Black Swan in England has been named the World's best Restaurant by the TripAdvisor Travellers Choice Awards, which are based on Millions of Customer reviews over a 12-month period.

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

Which of the following is correct?
I. An Asteroid estimated to be 45-100 feet wide flew past Earth, making its Closest approach at 42,000 km over Antarctica.
II. The Asteroid '2012 TC4' flew little over one-tenth the Earth-Moon distance and above the Orbital Altitude of Communications Satellites.
III. Scientists believe the underground Supervolcano at USA's Yellowstone National Park is capable of sending the Earth into a "volcanic Winter".

Solution:

An asteroid estimated to be 45-100 feet wide flew past Earth, making its closest approach at 42,000 km over Antarctica. The asteroid '2012 TC4' flew little over one-tenth the Earth-Moon distance and above the orbital altitude of communications satellites. The flyby was used by NASA to test its asteroid detection and tracking network, to prepare for a real asteroid-impact threat.

QUESTION: 82

Which of the following is correct
I. In order to meet the Paris climate deal goals of preventing average global temperature going 1.5- C above pre-industrial times, carbon-sucking Technologies would be needed.
II. Google pays Smartphone makers to have its apps like Gmail, YouTube and Google Drive preinstalled on the Smartphones, and reportedly spent $7.2 billion for the same last year. Further, it paid around $3 billion to Apple, to be the default search engine on Safari, Apple's internet browser.
III. According to Air pollution causes over 8 lakh premature deaths across Europe each year despite the "slowly" improving air quality over the continent, European Environment Agency

Solution:
  • Air pollution is the leading environmental cause of premature death in Europe
  • 520,400 premature deaths in 41 European countries were caused by pollutants
  • Four out of five deaths (428,000) were directly linked to fine particulate matter.

Air pollution causes more than 500,000 premature deaths across Europe each year despite 'slowly' improving air quality on the continent, the EU's environment authority.

Although data from the Copenhagen-based European Environment Agency (EEA) reveals some encouraging signs, in large part the result of new technologies, air pollution remains the leading environmental cause of premature death in the region.

In its latest report, the EAA said 520,400 premature deaths in 41 European countries were caused by air pollutants generated by the burning of fossil fuels in 2014, compared with 550,000 in 2013.

QUESTION: 83

Supreme Court has ordered a number of safeguards to prohibit the misuse of the antidowry provisions, under section 498a of IPC. Which of the following is one of them?
I. It called for involvement of civil society and sensitisation of investigation officers.
II. The court ordered setting up of Family Welfare Committees (to be set up by District Legal Services Authorities)in every district to look into complaints related to Section 498a of IPC.
III. No arrest should normally be affected until the committee submits its report on the matter.
IV. The court also made it clear that these directions will not apply in offenses in which there is tangible physical injury or death.

Solution:

• It prohibits the giving and taking of dowry.

• It had consolidated the anti-dowry laws which had been passed in certain states.

• It defined dowry as any property or valuable security given or agreed to be given in connection with the marriage.

• It does not apply for the presents given at the time of wedding.
Changes by Supreme Court • It called for involvement of civil society and sensitisation of investigation officers.

• The court ordered setting up of Family Welfare Committees (to be set up by District Legal Services Authorities) in every district to look into complaints related to Section 498a of IPC.

• No arrest should normally be affected until the committee submits its report on the matter.

• There must be a designated officer to investigate such complaints who should be cautious in matters of bail. • The court also made it clear that these directions will not apply in offenses in which there is tangible physical injury or death.
Related Provisions of IPC

QUESTION: 84

Considered the following statements regarding the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bills 2017:
I. It makes all declaration of talaq, including in written or electronic form, to be void and illegal.
II. It makes declaration of talaq a cognizable and non-bailable offence. A husband declaring talaq can be imprisoned for up to three years along with a fine
III. A Muslim woman, against whom talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek subsistence allowancefrom her husband for herself and for her dependent children.
IV. Custody of minor childrenwill be with the mother.

Solution:
  • The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2017 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Law and Justice, Mr. Ravi Shankar Prasad on December 28, 2017.
     
  • The Bill makes all declaration of talaq, including in written or electronic form, to be void (i.e. not enforceable in law) and illegal. It defines talaq as talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaqpronounced by a Muslim man resulting in instant and irrevocable divorce.  Talaq-e-biddat refers to the practice under Muslim personal laws where pronouncement of the word ‘talaq’ thrice in one sitting by a Muslim man to his wife results in an instant and irrevocable divorce.
     
  • Offence and penalty: The Bill makes declaration of talaq a cognizable and non-bailable offence.  (A cognizable offence is one for which a police officer may arrest an accused person without warrant.)  A husband declaring talaq can be imprisoned for up to three years along with a fine.
     
  • Allowance: A Muslim woman against whom talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children.  The amount of the allowance will be decided by a First Class Magistrate. 
     
  • Custody of minor children: A Muslim woman against whom such talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek custody of her minor children.  The determination of custody will be made by the Magistrate.
QUESTION: 85

Conisder the following statements:
I. Recently government launched an online platform, SHe-Box, which enables women employees to file complaints related to sexual harassment at the workplace
II. Once a complaint is submitted to the portal, it will be directly sent to the ICC/LCC of the concerned authority having jurisdiction to take action into the matter.
III. Both, Ministry of Women & Child Development Ministry as well as complainant,can monitor the progress of inquiry.
IV. Users of SHe-Box also have the option of interacting with Prime Minister through this portal, with an assured time-bound response.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statement regarding Global Gender Gap Report 2017:
I. According to the latest report, about 32% of the gender gap still remains to be closed as compared to 31.7% in 2016.
II. Switzerland was ranked 1st in the list of 144 countries.
III. It found that men were distinctively underrepresented in Education and Health sector where as women in Engineering, Manufacturing Construction and IT etc.
IV. India has closed its gender gap by 2 per cent in a year but slipped 21 ranks to 108.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements:
I. The Territorial Army (TA) is a voluntary force of civilians donning the uniform for a few months every year without joining the regular Army.
II. The TA was raised by the British is 1930 with two wings, one for Europeans and Agno-Indians, the other for Indian volunteers.
III. As per the rules, TA recruited only gainfully employed men and thus barring women’s entry in infantry units in army.
IV. The two judge High Court bench held that policy of restriction on enrolment of women ultra vires Articles 14, 15, 16 and 19(1)(g) of the Constitution of India.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

What is true of Kanyashree Prakalpa Scheme?

Solution:

Components of Scheme

Annual Scholarship of Rs. 500: It is for unmarried girls aged 13-18 years enrolled in classes VIII-XII in government recognized regular or equivalent open school or equivalent vocational or technical training course.

One time Grant of Rs. 25,000: It is for girls turned 18 at time of application, enrolled in government recognized regular or open school and colleges or pursuing vocational or technical training or sports activity or is inmate of Home registered under JJ Act.

Progress: So far around 50 lakh girls from the state have been benefited by scheme and removal of ceiling will help another three lakh more girls annually. Since its launch, it has helped to reduce number of school drop out of girls by nearly 11.5%.The scheme was awarded United Nations Public Service Award in June 2017.
 

West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee has received the highest prize in United Nations Public Service Award for the state government’s Kanyashree Prakalpa (Girl Child) scheme in The Hague, Netherlands. Kanyashree Prakalpa scheme of West Bengal came first among the 552 project nominations received by the UN from 62 countries.

West Bengal has been awarded in the Asia-Pacific group for the category: ‘Reaching the Poorest and Most Vulnerable through Inclusive Services and Participation‘.

Argentina was the winner in the Latin America-Caribbean Group for its programme for early childhood education. In the Western Group, the UK was the winner for its programme to prevent senior citizens from being defrauded.

QUESTION: 89

Consider the statements regarding SheMeansBusiness Programme:
I. Recently Odisha Government launched She Means Business program to train women entrepreneur and Self Help Groups (SHGs).
II. Under the Scheme, 25,000 women entrepreneurs and Self Help Groups will be provided training on Digital Marking skills within next one year free of cost.
III. Facebook will also develop a database of entrepreneurs and track their growth, turnover and profitafter one year.
IV. This is a joint venture between MSME Department, Directorate of Mission Shakti and United Nations.

Solution:

Directorate of Missin Shakti and facebook.

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following not correct matched?
I. ‘Sukanya Samriddhi Account: is a smalldeposit scheme for the girl child with a higher interest rate of 9.1 per cent and income-tax benefit. It is also a part of BBBP.
II. Selfie with daughter: An initiative with the aim to motivate society to feel proud to be parents of a girl child.
III. Balika Manch- under Prakalpa Scheme to encourage girl students’ participation and improve awareness related to gender issues.

Solution:

It is under Beti Bachao Beti Pradhao Scheme. 

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements?
I. Project Streee Swabhiman aims to create a sustainable model for providing adolescent girls and women affordable sanitary products in rural areas.
II. According to health ministry data, only 12% of India’s 355 million women use sanitary napkins while remaining resort to unsanitary alternatives due to which 70% of these women suffers from the incidents of reproductive tract infection
III. Each facility will employ 8-10 womento educatewomen of their society to overcome this social taboo.
IV. It also has a menstrual hygiene related awareness generation componentand is also expected reduce drop out rates in girls on reaching puberty.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:

About the Project Streee Swabhiman​

• It aims to create a sustainable model for providing adolescent girls and women an access to affordable sanitary products in rural areas.
• According to health ministry data, only 12% of India’s 355 million women use sanitary napkins while remaining resort to unsanitary alternatives due to which 70% of these women suffers from the incidents of reproductive tract infection.
• Under this project, sanitary napkin micro manufacturing units (semi-automatic and manual process production unit) are being set up at CSCs across India, particularly those operated by women entrepreneurs.
• The product will be sold under local brand name and marketed by village level entrepreneurs.
• Each facility will employ 8-10 women and educate women of their society to overcome this social taboo.
• It also has a menstrual hygiene related awareness generation component and is also expected reduce dropped out rates in girls on reaching puberty.

QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements regarding VatsalyaMaatri Amrit Kosh:
I. Flagship programme to ensure that adequate awareness is generated among masses, especially mothers and related family of newly born child, about the benefits of breastfeeding.
II. To enhance optimal breast feeding practices. Programme will focus on initiation of breast feeding within an hour of birth, exclusive breast feeding for the first six months, and continued breast feeding for at least two years
III. Mothers Absolute Affection (MAA) secretariat and a steering committee will be created in all states and at the district level.
IV. The programme will be monitored by World Bank and other partners.

Solution:

 Monitored by UNICEF 

QUESTION: 93

Consider the following statements:
I. Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 has increased the duration of paid maternity leave available for women employees to 26 weeks from 12 weeks. However, the increased Maternity Benefit is only available for the first two children.
II. It has extended the benefits applicable to the adoptive and commissioning mothers and provides that woman who adopts a child will be given 12 weeks of maternity leave.
III. It has introduced an enabling provision relating to “work from home” that can be exercised after the expiry of 26 weeks’ leave period.
IV. It has mandated crèche facility for every establishment employing 60 or more employees.

Q. Which of the above statement is correct?

Solution:

 It 50 or more employees. 

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements:
I. Due to scattered information on various women centric schemes/legislations there is a lack of awareness among people regarding the same. To address this problem government launched NARI portal as a single window access to information and services.
II. It is a Mission Mode Project under the National E-Governance Plan (designed and developed by National Informatics Centre (NIC), Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology).
III. It is a platform for NGOs and civil societyto interact with the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) by providing their feedback, suggestions, put up grievances, share best practices etc.

Q. Which of the above is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements:
I. India’s First Transgender Sports meet was organized by the Kerala State Sports Council at Thiruvananthapuram.
II. Kerala was the first state which formulated the Transgender Policy to enforce the constitutional rights of transgenders.
III. West Bengal is the first state in the country to give transgender people social welfare benefits - such as a pension, housing and food grains.
IV. Andhra Pradesh, also, recently announced pension scheme for transgender community.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:

Odisha is the first state. 96(c). Has identified 8 conventions. 

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:

Fundamental Conventions

The ILO's Governing Body has identified eight conventions as "fundamental", covering subjects that are considered as fundamental principles and rights at work: freedom of association and the effective recognition of the right to collective bargaining; the elimination of all forms of forced or compulsory labour; the effective abolition of child labour; and the elimination of discrimination in respect of employment and occupation. These principles are also covered in the ILO's Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work  (1998). There are currently over 1,367 ratifications of these conventions, representing 91,4% of the possible number of ratifications. A further 129 ratifications are still required to meet the objective of universal ratification of all the fundamental.

The eight fundamental Conventions are:

1. Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organise Convention, 1948 (No. 87) 

2. Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention, 1949 (No. 98) 

3. Forced Labour Convention, 1930 (No. 29) 

4. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention, 1957 (No. 105) 

5. Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138) 

6. Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 (No. 182) 

7. Equal Remuneration Convention, 1951 (No. 100) 

8. Discrimination (Employment and Occupation) Convention, 1958 (No. 111)

QUESTION: 97

Global Hunger Index has been released by Washington-based International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) in association with Concern Worldwide of Ireland and Welthungerhilfe (German non-profit organization) In the light of that which of the following is correct?
I. UNDERNOURISHMENT: the share of the population whose caloric intake is insufficient
II. CHILD WASTING: the share of children under the age of seven who have low weight for their height.
III. CHILD STUNTING: the share of children under the age of seven who have low height for their age.
IV. CHILD MORTALITY: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (a reflection of the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments).

Q. Which of the above is not matched?

Solution:

 Both the under the age of five. 

QUESTION: 98

Consider the following statements:
I. The level of hunger across the Globe has declined by 27% since 2000.
II. South Asia and Africa South of the Sahara have the highest levels of hunger, at 30.9 and 29.4, respectively.
III. The Central African Republic has the worst score and is the only country in extremely ‘Alarming’ hunger level category in 2017.
IV. With a score of 31.4, India is at the high end of “serious” hunger problem category.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:

Global hunger index scores
At the regional level, South Asia and Africa south of the Sahara have the highest 2017 GHI scores—30.9 and 29.4, respectively, indicating serious levels of hunger. At the country level, seven countries suffer from alarming levels of hunger, and one country, the Central African Republic (CAR), suffers from a level that is extremely alarming. Seven of these eight countries are in Africa south of the Sahara: CAR, Chad, Liberia, Madagascar, Sierra Leone, Sudan, and Zambia. The exception is Yemen, located at the tip of the Arabian Peninsula, says the report.The developing nations that have fared the best GHI score of less than five are Chile, Cuba and Turkey. Most of the countries that are collectively ranked 1 to 14 are in Europe, with the exception of Kuwait and Turkey in the Middle East and Uruguay in South America.
Since 2000, global GHI scores have improved by 27%, yet one in nine people still go hungry around the world, as per the report.

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following targetS of National Nutrition Mission is not correct?

Solution:

Low birth rate by 2 percent and anemia by 3 per cent.

QUESTION: 100

Percentage share in the 14th Finance Commission Transfer to Southern States are given. which of the following is not correctly matched?

Solution:

Related tests