UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 29


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 29


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QUESTION: 1

The duties envisaged by the Constitution for the Inter-state Council are to
    I.    Inquire into and advise on disputes between states
    II.    investigate matters of common interest for two or more states
    III.    make recommendations for coordination of policy and action relating to any subject
    IV.    enforce provisions relating to the freedom of trade and commerce    

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

I. Some of the fundamental rights are not available to the armed forces.
II. The President alone can decide upon modifying the application of the fundamental rights to the armed forces.

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

Which of the following fundamental rights is available to citizens as well as aliens?
    I.    Equality before the law
    II.    Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular region
    III.    Freedom of speech and expression
    IV.    Cultural and educational rights of minorities    

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

    The Constitution of India
    I.     forbids the practice of untouchability
    II.    prescribes penalties for practising untouchability
    III.    defines untouchability as a vicious historical practice

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

(A) : "Preventive detention' is included in the chapter on Fundamental Rights of the Indian Cosntitution.
(B) : Preventive Detention is a Fundamental Right of the State against individuals.

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

    Which of the following are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV?
    I.    Equal pay for equal work
    II.    Uniform civil code
    III.    Small family norm
    IV.    Education through mother tongue at primary level

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

    Which of the following were added to the Directive Principles by amendments to the Constitution?
    I.    To protect and improve the environment and safeguard wild life
    II.    Right of workers to participate in management of industires
    III.    Right to work
    IV.    To protect and maintain places of historical interest

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

If the State enacts a law to implement a Directive Principle calling for equitable distribution of the material resources of the community, it

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

Each member of Parliament who participates in the presidential election in India is entitled to cast as many votes as are obtained by dividing the total number of votes of the Legislative Assemblies of all the states by the total number of elected members of the two Houses of Parliament. This ensures  

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

   The President's legislative functions are
    I.    summoning and proroguing the two Houses of ​Parliament
    II.    convening a joint sitting to resolve deadlocks
    III.    dissolving the two House of Parliament
    IV.    addressing either House at the commencement of each session 

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

The judicial powers of the President donot include    

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

    Which of the following is/are correct with regard to the office of Attorney-General of India?
    I.    He is a member of the Cabinet
    II.    He can speak in either House of Parliament and vote on any issue
    III.    He must be qualified to become a judge of the Supreme Court
    IV.    His remuneration is fixed by Parliament

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

If an unqualified or disqualified person sits and votes in Indian Parliament    

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

       When a resolution for his removal is under consideration, the Speaker
    I.     does not take  part in the proceedings of the House
    II.    has no right to vote
    III.    has the right to speak in the House even though he shall not preside 

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

Which of the following is/are true?
    I.    A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha
    II.    If the President has notified about his intention to summon a joint sitting on a bill, the bill not lapse even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the notification        

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

    Which of the follwoing are dissimilarities between Indian and Australian federalism?
    (i)    Australia has no written constitution while India has a written constitution
    (ii)    In Australia, unlike India, the states possess separate constitution
    (iii)    In Australia, unlike India, all amendments to the constitution are submitted for the approval of the people and the states
    (iv)    In Australia all the states are given equal representation in the Senate

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Regarding division of powers between the centre and units, the Canadian Constitution differs from its Indian counterpart    

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

    Which of the following features make the US federalism different from the Indian federal system?
    (i)    The States in USA have their own constitutions
    (ii)    There is a double judicial system in India
    (iii)    The US Constitution can be amended only with the consent of three-fourths of the States
    (iv)    The US Constitution stipulates the powers of the centre and states but remains silent about the residuary powers    

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

The Rajya Sabha has the exclusive authority    

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements:
    A: The Constitution of India is one of the largest in the world.
    R: Indian Constitution contains not only broad principles but also the details of administration

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Consider the following statements:
    A: Citizenship defines those who are and those who are not members of a common society.
    R: A political system of equal citizenship in reality less than equal if it is part of a society divided by unequal conditions.

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

Consider the following statements:
A: Every society in which the warranty of rights is not assured, nor the separation of powers determined, has no constitution.    R: The Constitution of France is not only most administrative constitution in the world, but the only one

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

The British Parliament 'legitimates' but does not 'legislate'. This means that

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

    The  term  "Nostro  Account" recently seen in the news is related to:
    (i)    It  is  an  account  that  one  bank  holds in another bank 
    (ii)     It  is  used  to   facilitate international transactions
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Which of the following statements are  true  regarding  "Serious  Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)":
    (i)    (i)  It  is  under  Dept.  of  Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
    (ii)  It is under Ministry of Corporate Affairs
    (iii) It  is  an  executive  body established through government resolution
    (iv)  It  has  been  established  under an Act
Select the  correct answer using the code given below

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

    Which of the following statements are  true  regarding  "Domestic Systemically  Important  Banks (DSIB)":
    (i)  These are also called "too big to fail" 
    (ii)  They  need  to  meet  additional capital requirement
    (iii) The  list  of  DSIB  should  be declared annually by RBI
    (iv)  The  list  of  DSIB  is  declared  by the Ministry of Finance
    Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

Which  category of banks have the highest share in agricultural credit:

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

The  recent  changes  in  the  Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act 2015 allows:

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

 'Demographic  Dividend'  is estimated/calculated  in  terms  of which of the following:

Solution:
QUESTION: 30


Consider  the  following statements:
(i)  Real per capita GDP is steadily increasing in the last five years
(ii)  Real  per  capita  income  is steadily  increasing  in  the  last five years
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

    Consider the following:
    I.    Actual data are of the preceding year's economic activity (expenditure and  receipts).  For  instance,  the  budget  presented  on  1  February  2018  would  contain actual figures for the financial year 2016–17. 
    II.      Provisional  estimates  are  the  estimates  of  revenue  and expenditure of the current year. These are called provisional estimates as the budget is presented on 1 February. Thus, the actual data are available of 9 months. Based on these actual figures, estimates are made for the remaining period of the year. 
        For  instance,  the  budget  presented  on  1  February  2018  would  contain  provisional estimates for the financial year 2017–18.
    III.  Budgetary  estimates  are  the  estimates  of  revenue  and expenditure of the coming year. For instance, the budget presented on 1 February 2018 would contain budgetary estimates for the financial year 2018–19.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Consider the following:
I. The budget is made through a consultative process involving the Ministry of Finance, NITI  Aayog,  and  spending  ministries.  
II. The  Budget  Division  of  the  Department  of Economic  Affairs  in  the  Ministry  of  Finance  is  the  nodal  body  responsible  for producing the budget. 
III. The  Finance  Ministry  issues  guidelines  on  spending  by  various  ministries.  On  the basis of these guidelines, various ministries present their demands. 
IV. In December, the Budget  Division  issues  a  circular  to  all  union  ministries,  states,  union  territories, autonomous bodies, departments, and the defence forces for preparing the estimates for the next year. 
Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Consider the following statements:
I. In economic terms, budget is divided into two types: revenue budget and capital budget.  The revenue  budget  consists  of  transactions  that  have  implications  up  to  1  year.  
II. The capital budget consists of transactions that have implications of more than 1 year. 
III. Both revenue  and  capital  budgets  consist  of  receipts  as  well  as  expenditure.  
IV. The  Union budget figure for the financial year 2018-19 is about 15% higher than 2017-18.The size of budget is Rs.23.62 lakh crore. 
Which of the above statement is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

What are the benefit of advancing the budget?
I. The idea behind bringing forward the budget date, according to the government, is that the ministries and state governments can begin disbursing funds from the beginning of  the  financial  year.  
II. Advancing  the  budget  date  will  allow  funds  to  be  released  to  the states by April. 
III. Earlier,  the  budget  was  used  to  be  passed  till  the  end  of  May  and  funds  used  to  be assigned  to  the  states  by  June.  Thereafter,  the  development  works  are  affected  on account  of  rainy  season.  Thus,  actual  utilisation  of  funds  for  development  purposes begin in September.
IV. Due to advancement in expenditure, the fiscal deficit of the government rises during the middle of the year. 

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Where will money come from in 2018-19 budget?
I. 19 paise will come from market borrowing and other liabilities in 2018-19. 
II. 70 paise will come from direct and indirect taxes for every rupee earned. Direct taxes will  contribute  35  paise.  Tax  mobilisation  from  corporation  tax  has  been  fixed  at  19 paise. Income tax mobilisation for the next fiscal has been kept at 16 paise. 
III.  Indirect  taxes  will  contribute  another  35  paise.  As  the  single  largest  source  of revenue, the collection from Goods and Services Tax (GST) has been pegged at 23 paise as a percentage of every rupee earned. Similarly, the government will earn 4 paise from custom in the next fiscal. 
IV.  The  government  intends  to  earn  10  paise  from  non-tax  revenue  like  disinvestment, while it plans to mobilise 3 paise from non-debt capital receipts.

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

For the first time, a  new  initiative titled  ?Operation  Green? has been  taken  so  that  farmers  can  get  right price  and  products  are  also  available  to  the  consumers  at  suitable  prices.  For which agricultural product this initiative is launched?

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Which of the following is true?
I. The  Union  Government  has  exempted  bamboo  grown  in  non-forest  areas  from definition of tree, thereby dispensing with the  requirement  of felling/transit  permit for its economic use. 
II. Bamboo, though, taxonomically a grass, was legally defined as a tree  under  the  Indian  Forest  Act,  1935.    
III. Bamboo  grown  in  the  forest  areas  shall continue to be governed by the provisions of Indian Forest Act. 

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Consider the following statements:
I. Government  announced  setting  up  of  Ekalavya  Model  Residential  School  on  par  with Navodaya Vidyalayas to provide the best quality education to the tribal children in their own  environment  by  2022  in  every  block  with  more  than  50%  ST  population  and  at least  20,000  tribal  persons  with  special  facilities  for  preserving  local  art  and  culture besides providing training in sports and skill development. 
II. To  step  up  investments  in  research  and  related  infrastructure  in  premier  educational institutions,  including  health  institutions,  a  major  initiative  named  ??Revitalising Infrastructure  and  Systems  in  Education  (RISE)  by  2022?? with  a  total  investment  of  Rs.1,00,000 crore in next four years was announced.
Which of the above statement is true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Consider the following statements:
I. Ayushman Bharat is National Health Protection Scheme, which will cover over 10 crore poor  and  vulnerable  families  (approximately  50  crore  beficiaries)  providing  coverage upto 5 lakh rupees per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. 
II. This will be the world's largest government funded health care programme. Adequate funds will be provided for smooth implementation of this 
​programme. 
III. Ayushman  Bharat  Programme  will  build  a  New  India  2022  and  ensure  enhanced productivity, well being and avert wage loss and impoverishment. These Schemes will also generate lakhs of jobs, particularly for women. 
Which of the above statements is are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

Consider the following statements:
I.Budget 2018-19  proposed  to  abolish  the  Education  Cess  and  Secondary  and  Higher  Education Cess on imported goods.  In its place it is proposed to impose a Social Welfare Surcharge at  the  rate  of  10  percent  of  the  aggregate  duties  of  Customs,  on  imported  goods,  to provide for social welfare schemes of the government.
II. The name of Central Board of Excise and Customs  [CBEC]  will be changed to Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).
Which of the above statements is true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

With reference to the Government of India Act 1935, consider the following statements : 
The Federal Legislature was to consist of 
1. The King, represented by the Governor-General. 2. The Council of State having 150 representatives of British India and another 150 representatives of the Indian States. 
3. The Legislative Assembly having not more than 125 representatives of the Indian States and 250 representatives of Britiih India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

Which one of the following was the purpose for which a high-level committee chaired by Balwantrai Mehta was constituted during the time of Jawaharlal Nehru as Prime Minister ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

Consider the following statements : 
1. When J.B. Kriplani left the Congress Party, he founded the Jana Sangh. 
2. When Shyama Prasad Mukherji resigned from the Nehru Ministry, he founded the Kisan Majdoor Praja Party. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

With reference to the British rule in India, consider the following statements : 
1. The Censorship of Press Act, 1799 required the publisher to submit all material for pre-censorship to the Secretary to the Government. 
2. Raja Rammohan Roy's Mirat-ul-Akbar had to stop being published as a consequence of John Adams' Licensing Regulations, 1823. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

With reference to the Act of 1858 and the Secretary of State for India, consider the following statements: 
1. In laying the policy respecting the Indian States and in making war or peace, it was obligatory for the Secretary of State for India to obtain the concurrence of his Council of India.
2. Before any expenditure out of Indian revenues was incurred or loans could be raised on their security, the concurrence of the Council of India was not necessary for the Secretary of State for India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

Consider the following statements : 
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru and Sir Mohammad Shafi attended the first Round Table Conference as representatives of Indian National Congress. 
2. Mahatma Gandhi attended the second Round Table Conference as the sole representative of Indian National Congress. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

A series of articles by Aurobindo Ghosh known as 'Doctrine of Passive Resistance' are associated with which one of the following movements ? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

In the context of Indian freedom struggle, the organisation of an army called "Vidyut Vithini" was associated with which one of the following ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

    Who among the following translated Atharva Veda into Persian during the Mughal period ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

    Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below Lists:
        List I        List II
        (Text)        (Subject)
    A. Astanga of Vagbhata    1.Poetics
    B.Bhagavritti of    2.Grammar
        Vimalmati
    C.Lilavati of     3.Mathematics
        Bhaskaracharya
    D.Dhvanyaloka of    4. Medicine
        Anandavardhana
    Code:
        A    B    C    D

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Regarding Ajanta paintings, which one of the following statements is not correct ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

During whose reign was the Indian classical work 'Ragadarpan' translated into Persian?

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

The transhumance is still an important component of the socio-economic life of the people in regions at 

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

Ganga is navigable between

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

Kanha National Park belongs to which one of the following biogeographical provinces?

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

There is now a tendency to set up more sugar factories in South India because of 
1. Longer crushing season
2. Higher productivity of sugarcane
3. Scarcity of other cash crops
4. Efficient transport system
Which of the above answers are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

The Sten-de-Geer’s diagram is used to represent 
    (a)    sex ratio
    (b)    urban population
    (c)    industrial population 
    (d)    rural & urban population

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

Assertion (A) : Basalt is a fine-grained and dark coloured igneous rock which is formed below the earth’s surface. 
Reason (R) : The rate of cooling and solidification of magma inside the earth is very slow.

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

Assertion (A) : The structure of the interior of the earth is deduced with the help os seismic waves. 
Reason (R) : The ‘S’ waves travel in solid, liquid and gas while the ‘P’ waves travel only in solid.

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

Assertion (A)  : Tropical seas in India are rich in fish species but there are few important fishing grounds around the country. 
Reason (R)    :  The quantity of fish of a particular species is lacking and hence not commercially exploitable.

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

Assertion (A) : Aksai Chin is desolate and the driest part of the Ladakh region. 
Reason (R) : The whole area bears a stamp of excessive aeolian erosion. 

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Consider the following statements in relation to Earth’s topmost layer : 
1. Transverse earthquake waves move at a speed of 3.5 km/second in that layer. 
2. The specific gravity is 2.7
3. It is shallowest under Continents and deepest under Oceans
    ​4. Abundance of magnesium. .
Which of the above statements are correct

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Consider the following statements : 
1. A tectonic scarp is a steel slope that results from differential movement of the Earth’s surface. 
2. The typical angle of repose for scarps of all origins is between 25� and 40�.
3. A scarp produced by structurally controlled erosion at an ancient fault is known as fault-line scarp.
4. A capable fault is one that shows movement at or near the ground surface at least once within the past 35,000 years. 
Which of the above statements are correct

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

The percentage of radiant energy reflected back by a surface is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer.
List-I List-II
(Layers of Atmo- (Characteristics r
sphere) related with the layers)
A. Stratosphere 1. Temperature decreases with increasing height
B. Exosphere 2. Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis are produced
C. Troposphere 3. Contains much of the total atmospheric ozone
D. Ionosphere 4. No etilucent clouds are observed over high latitude in summer
5. Atoms of oxygen, hydrogen and helium form the tenuous atmosphere
Codes : 
A B C D

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

Consider the following conditions for the formation of temperature inversions : 
1. Cloudy sky
2. Strong winds
3. Long winter nights
4. Cold dry air
Which of the above conditions are ideal?

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

Consider the following statements : 
1. In the high latitudes, east-coast regions are wetter than west-coasts. 
2. Precipitation is abundant on the windward slopes but sparse on the leeward slopes. 
3. In the subtropics, west-coasts are wetter than the east-coast.
4. Precipitation is abundant in the middle latitudes. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Identify the correct sequence of the given processes regarding rainfall : 

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

Consider the following statements : 
1. Continental shelves are wider where high mountains are very close and parallel to the coast. 
2. Continental shelves are formed by prolonged deposition of detritus under sea water in those areas where sea conditions are clam. 
3. Extensive continental shelves are formed by marine erosion of the continental margins during the time of negative change of the sea level. 
4. Continental shelves are formed by the submergence of continental margins due to tilting of land towards sea. 
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Consider the following statements:
I. According to study conducted by researchers from University of Southampton, UK, extreme global warming event 56 million years ago was driven by massive carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from volcanoes, during formation of North Atlantic Ocean. 
II. They had used combination of new geochemical measurements and novel global climate modelling to show that Palaeocene-Eocene Thermal Maximum (PETM) was associated with rapid doubling of atmospheric CO2 in less than 25 thousand years because of CO2 emissions from volcanoes.  
III. The PETM was most rapid and extreme natural
​global warming event of last 66 million years. 
IV. It had lasted for around 250 thousand years and increased global temperatures by at least 5 degrees Celsius.
Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

  Consider the following statements:
    I.Scientists from CSIR's National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology (CSIR-NIIST), Thiruvananth-apuram have developed new technique to produce bioethanol from discarded cotton-stalks. 
    II.The technique uses combination of chemical and biological techniques. 
    III. India has about 9.4 million hectares under cotton cultivation and every hectare generates 2 million tonnes of cotton stalk wastes.
    IV.     It converts fractose into final product bioethanol by the process of fermentation using a novel yeast strain.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?  

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

Consider the following statements:
I. Each year globally, more than 600,000 infants die of sepsis most of them in developing countries. 
II. In India, more than a quarter of neonatal deaths are due to sepsis. 
III. In a significant number of these cases, the infection probably begins in the gut. 
IV. In the new oral prevention technique, infants are fed with good bacteria (probiotic bacteria) that populates in his/her gut and block harmful bacteria. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct:

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

    Which of the following is not correct regarding UN Habitat Data?
    I.    Mumbai has a population density of 31,700 people per square kilometre. 
    II.    Dhaka, the capital of Bangladesh has a population density of 44,500 people per square kilometre.  
    III.    Indian city Kota in Rajasthan with 12,100 people per square kilometre has been ranked seventh in the list. 
    IV.    Medellin in Columbia with a population density of 19,700 people per square kilometre has been ranked third.
    IV. Manila, Philippines at 4th place with a density of 14,800;
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Consider the following:
I.Petya Ransomware is part of a new wave of cyber-attacks and has infected computer servers across the world. 
II.In India, the ransomware has crippled the operations at one of the terminals of the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust. 
III.The affected terminal was being operated by AP Moller-Maersk. The company operates the Gateway Terminals India (GTI) which has a capacity to handle 1.8 million standard container units.
IV. Ukraine and Phillipines are the worst affected countries.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Consider the following statements:
I. India has been ranked 75th out of 102 countries in a list that ranks the countries in terms of the human impact on environment per person.
​II. The ranking has been done by MoneySuperMarket, a UK-based financial services website. The ranking has been made based on the impact the citizens have on the environment by taking into account energy consumption, air pollution, waste production, reliance on non-renewable energy, the carbon dioxide emissions per capita, wastewater treatment capacity, municipal solid waste generated and tree cover loss etc. 
III. Of all the parameters, the most weight has been given to Carbon dioxide emissions, municipal solid waste and energy consumption.
IV. Ethiopia (Ist), Mozambique (2nd),  Zambia (3rd), Latvia (4th), Kenya (5th).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

Consider the following statements regarding Global Peace Index 2017:
I.India has been ranked 137th in the Global Peace Index 2017, which ranks 163 independent states and territories according to their level of peacefulness. 
II.GPI is considered as one of the most comprehensive analysis that captures trends in peace, its economic value and how to develop peaceful society.
III.Various parameters like the homicide rate, the ease of access to weapons, the impact of terrorism and the number of armed services personnel in the population were analyzed in preparing the multifaceted index of peace indicators. 
III.The rankings are: Iceland (1), New Zealand (2), Portugal (3), Austria (4), Denmark (5), Czech Republic 
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

Which is not true of BRICS?

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

What is not true of Iran-Iraq Pact on Military Cooperation?

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

What is true of Okinoshima Island?

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Which of the following is not true of G-20 meeting?

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements:
I. As per the official figures published by the UK's Department for International Trade, India has become the fourth largest foreign investor into the UK in 2016-17.
II. India is sharing the fourth spot with Australia and New Zeland, which had also set up 127 projects collectively. 
III. The US remains the top most investor in the UK by setting up of 577 projects in 2016-17. China (including Hong Kong) with 160 projects 
IV. France with 131 projects have been placed in the second and third positions respectively. 
Which of the following aove is are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statements:
I. India is a founder-member of BIMSTEC.
II. The other advantage is that it would give impetus to India's domestic goal of developing the northeastern region, which is the country's geographical gateway to the East and South-East Asia.
III. The ongoing India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway and the India-Myanmar Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project are expected to further augment connectivity and economic cooperation in the sub-region and beyond.
IV. In 1998, the regional group proposed entering a free trade agreement (FTA) with India and Thailand, two main partners, pushing for ‘Look East’ and ‘Look West’ programmes, respectively. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements:
  I.  The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Summit took place in Kazakhstan’s Astana on June 8-9, 2017.
  II.  India and Pakistan inducted as full members of the SCO at the summit.
  III.  With the expansion of the grouping, the SCO will now represent over 40% of humanity and nearly 25% of the global GDP.
  IV.  India, as the largest economy in southern Asia, has much more to offer for the economic development of Central Asian countries.
  Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

Which of the following is not true of 1st Petersburg Declaration?

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

Which of the following is not correct regarding Indo-France relationship?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

The marriage of persons having one of the following blood groups should be avoided

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

A characteristic feature of virus is that

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

Which of the following pair is incorrect?
Editor    Paper    

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

Which of the following pair is correctly matched?

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

Which one of the following is not a legal form of marriage?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

Match List I with List II and choose the correct answers from the codes given below.
List I
A.Lepchas B.Baigos
C. Gaddis D.Oroans
List II
1.Bihar
II. Sikkim
III.Madhya pradesh
IV. Himachal pradesh
Codes:
A B C D

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

Which pair is not correctly matched?

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

Which one of the following southwest Asian countries has the shortest coastline?

Solution:

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