UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 4


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 4


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This mock test of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Western classical elements can be seen in the Gandhara School of Art as reflected in the Buddha’s

1. usina, urna and elongated ears.
2. head
3. heavy folds of the robe.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Usina is a top knot of hair. Urna refers to mole. They along with elongated ears were indigenous style. The depiction of head like the Greek God and heavy folds of the robe are western element.

QUESTION: 2

One could attain salvation by performing the Vedic sacrifices with all their rituals which needed the services of the priests. This was the belief of which school of Indian philosophy

Solution:

The aim of Mimamsa is to give rules for the interpretation of the Vedas, the earliest scriptures of Hinduism, and to provide a philosophical justification for the observance of Vedic ritual. The goal of Mimamsa is to provide enlightenment on dharma, which in this school is understood as the set of ritual obligations and prerogatives that, if properly performed, maintains the harmony of the world and furthers the personal goals of the performer. Since dharma cannot be known through either perception or reasoning, one must depend on revelation in the Vedas, which are considered eternal, authorless, and absolutely infallible.

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements about Arya Samaj:

1. It repudiated caste system and the fourfold Varna division.
2. It started a Shudhi movement to reconvert people to Hinduism.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

While Arya Samaj repudiated the caste system, it upheld the fourfold Varna division of society. It started a Shudhi movement to reconvert people to Hinduism.

QUESTION: 4

Which of the following Bhakti saints were contemporaries?

1. Kabir
2. Guru Nanak
3. Dadu Dayal
4. Tukaram

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Kabir and Guru nanak were contemporaries. Kabir (1440-1518) ; Guru Nanak (1469-1539) ; Dadu Dayal (1544-1603) ; Tukaram (1608-1649)

QUESTION: 5

With reference to Barabar caves, consider the following statements:

1. They were built during the reign of Ashoka.
2. They were dedicated to ajivikas.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Barabar Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, mostly dating from the Maurya Empire (322–185 BCE), some with Ashokan inscriptions, located in the Jahanabad district, Bihar, 24 km north of Gaya. These rock-cut chambers date back to the 3rd century BC, Maurya period, of Ashoka (r. 273-232 BCE) and his son Dasaratha Maurya. Though Buddhists themselves, they allowed various Jain sects to flourish under a policy of religious tolerance. The caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect.

QUESTION: 6

Which of the following is/are feature of the Dravida style of temple architecture?

1. curvilinear shikara
2. recessed sculptures
3. gopuram

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Curvilinear shikara is a feature of the Nagara style. The other two features – recessed sculptures and gopuram are feature of Dravida style.

QUESTION: 7

With reference to phad paintings, consider the following statements:

1. They are the folk paintings of Maharashtra.
2. Their themes include rural life, animals, and narratives of folk deities.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Phad paintings are folk paintings of Rajasthan. Their themes includes rural life, animals, and narratives of folk deities, like Pabuji and Dev Narayan. The ancient tradition of scroll painting survives in Rajasthan as Phad. A Phad is a long rectangular cloth painting that tells of the adventures and travails of Pabuji, a local hero or other epic heroes. The Hindu has covered phad paintings regularly in last few months.

QUESTION: 8

Which of the following pairs of Indian embroidery is correctly matched with their state?

1. Kashida : Karnataka
2. Phulkari : Punjab
3. Kasuti : West Bengal

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Kashida is of Jammu Kashmir, while Kasuti is of Karnataka. Phulkari is of Punjab.

QUESTION: 9

Many new elements were added in Indian architecture during the Muslis rule. These include

1. use of shapes instead of natural forms.
2. use of calligraphy as inscriptional art.
3. use of trabeated roof.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Trabeated roof was used before the Muslims came. The Muslims added the feature of arcuate roof as reflected in the dome and double dome in their buildings. Indian architecture took new shape with the advent of Islamic rule in India towards the end of the twelftth century AD. Islam introduced new elements into the Indian architecture including: use of shapes (instead of natural forms); inscriptional art using decorative lettering or calligraphy; inlay decoration and use of colored marble, painted plaster and brightly colored glazed tiles.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following literary works were composed during the Gupta’s period?

1. Kathasaritsagar by Somdev
2. Vikramanyadevcharita by Bilhana
3. Gita Govinda by Jayadev

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

All the above works are of medieval period, while Gupta age was in the ancient period.

QUESTION: 11

The Election Commission of India consists of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two election commissioners (EC). With regard to these two officials, which of the following is/are correct?

1. CEC and EC receive equal salary.
2. CEC and EC are provided with security of tenure.
3. In case of difference of opinion amongst them, the view of CEC prevails.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority. Only the chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. Election commissioners can be removed from office on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.

QUESTION: 12

Suppose Bihar legislative assembly passes a bill and forwards it to legislative council which rejects it.

Q. What happens to the bill then ?

Solution:

The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time. Therefore the final power of passing an ordinary bill lies with the assembly. At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months.

QUESTION: 13

The original jurisdiction of the High Court includes:

1. disputes related to the election of MPs
2. disputes related to the election of MLAs
3. cases related to murder

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Original jurisdiction means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. High courts do not have any original criminal jurisdiction and thus cases related to murders can be taken to High court only as appeal. The original jurisdiction includes – (a) Matters of admirality, will, marriage, divorce, company laws and contempt of court. (b) Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. (c) Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection. (d) Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens. (e) Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to its own file.

QUESTION: 14

With reference to Vice-President of India ,consider the following statements :

1. If the Vice-President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy should be held within six months.
2. A Vice-President can be removed on the grounds of violation of constitution.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Both the statements are true for President and not VP. If the Vice-President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy should be held as soon as possible. The constitution mentions no ground for removal of VP.

QUESTION: 15

In India, the council of ministers have:

1. Individual responsibility
2. legal responsibility
3. collective responsibility

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of ommission and commission. Article 75 contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president. In India there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of a minister. It is not required that an order of the President for a public act should be countersigned by a minister

QUESTION: 16

The Union executive of India consists of :

1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Council of Ministers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

All four are the parts of the union executive of India. Some of you might have excluded VP, but please remember the VP is also a part of union executive.

QUESTION: 17

With reference to removal of chairman of a state public service commission, consider the following statements :

1. they can be removed for misbehaviour.
2. they can be removed only by the President.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Although the chairman of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor). They can be removed on the grounds of misbehaviour. The Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of a SPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he (a) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or (b) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.

QUESTION: 18

During a national emergency, the President can:

1. reduce the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
2. increase the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
3. cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to states.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states. This means that the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states. So statement 2 about increasing the transfer of finances from Centre to states is incorrect.

QUESTION: 19

Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter-State relations are constitutional?

1. River water tribunals
2. Inter-State Councils
3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

River water tribunals are setup under an act and therefore are not constitutional. Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956). The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley.Inter-State Councils are constitutional body under article 263. Zonal councils were setup under the State reorganisation act, 1956 and are thus not constitutional.

QUESTION: 20

The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on which of the following matters?

1. public order
2. police
3. land

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List except the three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police and land. Therefore, critics have often called Delhi no more than a senior municipality.

QUESTION: 21

Erosion in coastal areas forms different types of landform. Which of the following is/are erosional landform of coastal areas?

1. wave-cut platforms
2. Beaches
3. Capes and bays

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Beaches in coastal areas are a depositional landform and not erosional. A wave-cut platform is the narrow flat area often found at the base of a sea cliff. They along with capes and bays are erosional landform.

QUESTION: 22

Latitude is the angular distance of a point on earth’s surface measured from the:

Solution:

Latitude is the angular distance of a point on earth’s surface measured from the centre of earth. It specifies the north-south position of a point on the Earth’s surface. Latitude is an angle which ranges from 0° at the Equator to 90° (North or South) at the poles.

QUESTION: 23

Latitude is the angular distance of a point on earth’s surface measured from the:

Solution:

Latitude is the angular distance of a point on earth’s surface measured from the centre of earth. It specifies the north-south position of a point on the Earth’s surface. Latitude is an angle which ranges from 0° at the Equator to 90° (North or South) at the poles.

QUESTION: 24

Some areas in India receive very high annual rainfall of more than 200 cm. These include:

1. major parts of Assam.
2. West coast from Thiruvananthapuram to Mumbai.
3. Ladakh region of Jammu Kashmir.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Easy one. Ladkah region receives very low rainfall and is an example of cold desert.

QUESTION: 25

River rejuvenation can occur due to:

1. uplift of land over which the river is flowing.
2. rise in sea-level.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

River rejuvenation involves a renewed period of vertical erosion to achieve a new and lower base level. Rejuvenation occurs when the river’s base level falls (i.e. when sea level falls). This can be a consequence of either a fall in the amount of sea water or the land rising. Uplift of land over which the river is flowing steepens the slope so that active down cutting is renewed. A fall in sea-level (and not rise) causes river rejuvenation. A fall in sea level leaves the flood plain at an increased altitude above the sea level. The river with its renewed vigour cuts into the former flood plain, leaving behind terraces on both sides of the river.

QUESTION: 26

Consider the following statements about jet streams:

1. Easterly jet stream blows over the northern Indian region in winter.
2. The easterly jet stream is replaced by the westerly jet stream during summer.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Westerly jet stream blows over the northern Indian region in winter. The westerly jet stream is replaced by the easterly jet stream during summer. This helps in the onset of monsoon.

QUESTION: 27

The movement of ocean currents is influenced by many factors which include:

1. temperature
2. salinity
3. earth’s rotation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

All the above factors affect ocean current. The ocean currents are generated from the forces acting upon the water like the earth’s rotation, the wind, the temperature and salinity differences and the gravitation of the moon.

QUESTION: 28

The eastern hills or Purvanchal is a beautiful landscape in the northeast region of India. Three famous hill ranges are –

1. Naga Hills
2. Patkai bum
3. Lushai hills

Q. The correct arrangement of these hills from north to south are:

Solution:

Please go through the India Physical map for hills, rivers, passes etc. Lushai hills are also called Mizo hills, so that can give a hint that Mizo hills should be south of Naga hills.

QUESTION: 29

Ports in western Europe are ice free while those in Canada at the same latitude are frozen. This is because:

Solution:

On the other hand the Canadian region is touched by the cold Labrador current. The effect of continentality is felt in the interior region of continents and not the coastal areas.

QUESTION: 30

Punjab and Haryana exploit more than 85% of ground water for irrigation. This is due to:

1. low surface water availability.
2. impact of Green revolution.
3. change in cropping pattern with an increased preference for rice.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The first two statements are self explanatory. The third statement about change in cropping pattern is also correct. Punjab and Haryana region are best suited for wheat, but farmers are increasingly growing rice there. Punjab and Haryana are battling with crop diversification to reduce depletion of groundwater due to higher area under water-guzzling paddy crop. To irrigate their fields, farmers in both states draw groundwater using tubewells, which has lowered the water table to alarming levels, even if rainfall is deficient or scanty.

QUESTION: 31

Fiscal consolidation is one of the objectives of India’s economic policy. Which of the following would help in fiscal consolidation ?

1. increasing taxes
2. getting more loans
3. reducing subsidies

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Fiscal consolidation is a reduction in the underlying fiscal deficit. So, by increasing revenues and decreasing expenditure, we can undertake fiscal consolidation. While getting more loans may increase receipts, it will not help in fiscal consolidation as that loan has to be repaid back along with interest. So loans add more to the expenditure than it contributes to receipts. Increasing taxes and reducing subsidies will ofcourse increase revenues and decrease expenditure respectively contributing to fiscal consolidation.

QUESTION: 32

With reference to pulses, consider the following statements :

1. India is the largest producer of pulses.
2. India imports pulses to meet its domestic demand.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

India is the world’s largest producer and consumer of pulses. It imports about 3.5 million tonnes of pulses every year from the U.S., Australia, Myanmar, East Africa and Ukraine, besides Canada to meet its domestic demand.

QUESTION: 33

The government provides subsidies in various sectors. Which of the following are the effects of subsidies ?

1. it increases inflation
2. it increases fiscal deficit
3. it decreases export competitiveness

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

There is no direct relation between subsidies given and inflation. It may increase inflation (eg. subsidies on LPG helping people save more thus increasing their capacity which can cause demand pull inflation.) or decrease inflation by making accessible low cost subsidized goods. Subsidies ofcourse increases fiscal deficit. Subsidies INCREASES not decreases export competitiveness of goods as it decreases their cost of production.

QUESTION: 34

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act aimed for

1. eliminating both revenue deficit and fiscal deficit
2. giving flexibility to RBI for inflation management

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

FRBM Act had the objective of ensuring prudence in fiscal management by eliminating revenue deficit, REDUCING (and not eliminating) fiscal deficit, establishing improved debt management and improving transparency in a medium term framework with quantitative targets to be adhered by the state with regard to deficit measures and debt management. The act was also expected to give necessary flexibility to Reserve Bank of India(RBI) for managing inflation in India.

QUESTION: 35

With reference to deficit financing, monetized deficit is the part that is financed through

Solution:

Monetized deficit indicates the level of support extended by the Reserve Bank of India to the government’s borrowing programme. Since borrowings from Reserve Bank of India directly add to money supply, this measure is termed monetized deficit. It is obvious that monetized deficit is only a part of fiscal deficit.

QUESTION: 36

All banks are mandated to lend to priority sector. Which of the following would come under Priority Sector Lending (PSL) ?

1. loans to corporations
2. loans to Self Help Groups
3. loans to small and marginal farmers
4. loans to state government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Priority sector refers to those sectors of the economy which may not get timely and adequate credit in the absence of this special dispensation. Typically, these are small value loans to farmers for agriculture and allied activities, micro and small enterprises, poor people for housing, students for education and other low income groups and weaker sections. So, loans to corporations and state government does not come under PSL.

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following statements about Index of Industrial Production (IIP 

1. It is released monthly by Central Statistical Organisation (CSO)
2. It shows the volume of industrial activity.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

IIP or the index of industrial production is the number denoting the condition of industrial production during a certain period (month for eg.). It does not show the volume of industrial activity but only its growth with respect to a reference period. As IIP shows the status of industrial activity, one can find out if the industrial activity has increased, decreased or remained same.

QUESTION: 38

Financial market is classified into money market and capital market. Which of these are money market instruments ?

1. T-Bills
2. Preference shares
3. Commercial papers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The short-term debts and securities sold on the money markets—which are known as money market instruments—have maturities ranging from one day to one year and are extremely liquid. The Treasury bills are short-term money market instrument that mature in a year or less than that. Commercial Paper is short-term loan that is issued by a corporation use for financing accounts receivable and inventories. Preference shares are capital market instrument.

QUESTION: 39

Suppose you went to a restaurant and paid certain taxes. which of these would be considered an indirect tax ?

1. service tax paid for lunch
2. tip given to waiter
3. VAT paid

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Indirect Taxes are not levied on individuals, but on goods and services. Customers indirectly pay this tax in the form of higher prices. Some of the significant indirect taxes include Value Added Tax, Service Tax Central Sales Tax, Central Excise Duty, Customs Duty, stamp duties and expenditure tax. Tip given to waiter goes into their unofficial income and is therefore not accounted for taxing purpose :)

QUESTION: 40

The expenditure in India is classified as capital and revenue. Which of the following is/are revenue expenditure ?

1. interest payments on debt
2. loans granted by central government
3. subsidies

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Revenue expenditure is for the normal running of Government departments and various services, interest payments on debt, subsidies, etc. Broadly the expenditure which does not result in creation of assets for Government of India is treated as revenue expenditure. Loans granted by central government are capital expenditure.

QUESTION: 41

With reference to ecosystems, consider the following statements:

1. Organisms at higher trophic level receive energy from more than one trophic level.
2. Higher trophic levels tend to be more discrete than the lower ones.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

In an ecosystem, organisms at higher trophic level receive energy from more than one trophic level. The best example is man. Humans, for example, are primary consumers when they eat plants such as vegetables. They are secondary consumers when they eat cows. They are tertiary consumers when they eat salmon. So as you can see, humans can obtain energy from more than one trophic level. This statement – “Organisms at higher trophic level receive energy from more than one trophic level.” is one of the fundamental principles of ecology. Further, higher trophic levels tend to be less discrete than the lower ones as they have varied sources of food. They thus, tend to be ‘generalists’ in their feeding habits.

QUESTION: 42

Which of the following are required for the formation of Ground-level ozone (GLO) ?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Volatile Organic Compounds
3. Sunlight

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Ground-level ozone is a colorless and highly irritating gas that forms just above the earth’s surface. Ground level or “bad” ozone is created by chemical reactions between oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOC) in the presence of sunlight. Emissions from industrial facilities and electric utilities, motor vehicle exhaust, gasoline vapors, and chemical solvents are some of the major sources of NOx and VOC.

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?

1. National Parks
2. Wildlife Sanctuaries
3. Biosphere Reserves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Both National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries have been provided for in the Wildlife (Protection ) Act, 1972. The Act provides for four type of protected areas viz. Wildlife Sanctuaries, National Parks, Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves. National parks and Wildlife sanctuaries are created by state government via a notification. However, alteration of boundaries of a national park can only be done via a legislation passed by the state government.Biosphere Reserves are not provided for under any act.

QUESTION: 44

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer aims to control the production and use of :

1. Dichloromethane
2. CFCs
3. HFCs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Montreal protocol aims to phase out several groups of halogenated hydrocarbons that have been shown to play a role in ozone depletion. All of these ozone depleting substances contain either chlorine or bromine (substances containing only fluorine do not harm the ozone layer). These include CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs replaced CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer because, unlike CFCs and HCFCs, they do not contain chlorine. The Montreal Protocol therefore does not address HFCs. But HFCs cause global warming. Dichloromethane is a new entry among gases that depletes ozone layer, but at present it has not been included under Montreal Protocol.

QUESTION: 45

Endosulphan has been banned under the Stockholm Convention because:

Solution:

Endosulfan is an off-patent organochlorine insecticide and acaricide that is being phased out globally. Endosulfan became a highly controversial agrichemical due to its acute toxicity, potential for bioaccumulation, and role as an endocrine disruptor. 

QUESTION: 46

Which of the following Tiger reserves is/are also a National Park ?

1. Manas
2. Indravati
3. Namdapha
4. Sariska

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Factual question just to make you revise the national parks and tiger reserves of India.

QUESTION: 47

Pollutants can be classified as primary and secondary. Which of these is/are primary pollutant?

1. Volatile Organic Compunds
2. Ground Level Ozone
3. Acid Rain

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants (primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere. Ground Level Ozone is a “secondary” pollutant because it is produced when two primary pollutants react in sunlight and stagnant air. These two primary pollutants are nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs). Acid rain ofcourse is a secondary pollutant.

QUESTION: 48

With reference to eutrophication, consider the following statements:

1. primary productivity becomes low
2. oxygen availability decreases

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Primary productivity is high in eutrophic water bodies. Due to excessive nutrients, especially nitrogen and phosphorus, these water bodies are able to support an abundance of aquatic plants. thereby leading to a high primary productivity. Because of abundance of aquatic plants and algae, the oxygen availability decreases.

QUESTION: 49

Which of the following is/are in-situ methods of conservation?

1. Biosphere Reserve
2. Botanical Garden
3. Zoological Park

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

In situ conservation is on-site conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal species. It is the process of protecting an endangered plant or animal species in its natural habitat, either by protecting or cleaning up the habitat itself, or by defending the species from predators. National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves etc are its examples. Ex-situ conservation is the process of protecting an endangered species of plant or animal outside its natural habitat; for example, by removing part of the population from a threatened habitat and placing it in a new location. Botanical Gardens, Zoological Parks, germplasm banks are its examples.

QUESTION: 50

Consider the following scenario :

1. Trees at trophic level 1 as primary producers.
2. Parasites at trophic level 2 as primary consumers.
3. Hyperparasites at trophic level 3 as secondary consumers.

Q. The resultant pyramid of numbers would be :

Solution:

This is because one single primary producer (tree) can support numerous primary consumers (parasites) and secondary consumers (hyperparasites). Therfore number of organisms will be highest at trophic level 3 followed by 2 and then minimum at 1 giving rise to an inverted numbers pyramid.

QUESTION: 51

Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a central figure of the social and cultural awakening in the first half of the 19th century. Which of these is/are correct about him?

1. he was opposed to worship of idols.
2. he was against monotheism.
3. he opposed the prevalence of meaningless rituals.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

RRMR stood for the defence of monotheism. Roy’s monotheistic ideas were formed as early as 1804, when he published his Persian tract Tuhfat’ ul muhwahhiddin (A Gift to Monotheists). Roy’s study of the Upanishads had convinced him that Hinduism taught the existence of a single God, or Absolute Reality and that the development of the many deities, and of venerating their images, was a corruption of originally monotheistic Hinduism.

QUESTION: 52

The British government sent the Cripps Mission in 1942 to:

Solution:

The Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II. Cripps Mission promised to give dominion status as well as elections to be held after the war.

QUESTION: 53

With reference to Kalaripayattu, a martial art, consider the following statements:

1. It is practicised only by men.
2. It emphasises on the ability to strike at vital points.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

It is practiced by both men and women. Kalaripayattu, the martial art form of Kerala is regarded as the oldest and most scientific of its kind in the world. Feats like chaattom (jumping), ottam (running), marichil (somersault), use of weapons such as daggers, swords, spears, maces, and ability to strike at vital points are taught.

QUESTION: 54

The British had introduced the permanent settlement in many areas. Which of these was a feature of permanent settlement?

1. fixed land revenue
2. non-transferable ownership of lands
3. cultivators reduced to the status of tenants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Under permanent settlement, zamindars and revenue collectors were converted into landlords. Their right of ownership was made hereditary and transferable. On the other hand the cultivators were reduced to the low status of mere tenants and were deprived of long-standing rights to the soil and other customary rights. The zamindars were to give 10/11th of the rental they derived from the peasantry to the state, keeping only 1/11th for them. But the sums to be paid by them as land revenue were fixed in perpetuity.

QUESTION: 55

Which of these empowered the Constituent Assembly of India to frame and adopt any constitution of its choice?

Solution:

It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of India and Pakistan to frame and adopt any constitution for their respective nations and to repeal any act of the British Parliament, including the Independence act itself. Dickie Bird Plan was mooted by Mountbatten in which he proposed that Indian provinces would first become independent and then decide to whether they will join India or Pakistan. It was rejected as it would lead to balkanization of India.

QUESTION: 56

Consider the following statements about Indian Council Acts, 1909 (also called Morley Minto reforms):

1. it provided separate electorates for Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians and Anglo-Indians.
2. it introduced direct elections in the country for the first time.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Both are features of the Government of India Act, 1919 also called MontFord reforms. 1909 Act introduced separate electorates only for Muslims. This was extended by the 1919 act to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Europeans and Anglo-Indians. GOI 1919 Act introduced direct elections in the country for the first time.

QUESTION: 57

The national leadership got divided into no-changers and pro-changers after the withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement.

Q. Who among the following was a no-changer?

Solution:

The sudden withdrawal of the non-cooperation movement encouraged an alternative political approach within the Congress. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru advocated that the Congress must give up its boycott of Legislative Councils. Once elected to these Councils, Congressmen should obstruct their working from within and bring out their shortcomings. They were known as Swarajists or ‘pro-changers’ and those who opposed this change within Congress were termed as ‘no-changers’. Sardar Patel was a no-changer.

QUESTION: 58

Subsidiary alliance as a policy was extremely advantageous to the British because it helped them in:

1. controlling defence and foreign relations of the Indian ally.
2. helping them fight the French onslaught.
3. maintaining large army at the cost of Indian states.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The Subsidiary system helped the British East India company to effectively counteract any possible French move in India. It enabled the company to maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states. By signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an Indian state virtually signed away its independence. It lost the right of self defenses, of maintaining diplomatic relations, of employing foreign experts, and of setting its disputes with its neighbors.

QUESTION: 59

During the Delhi Sultanate, who among the following first started to pay his soldiers fully in cash?

Solution:

Khilji was the first Sultan to have permanent army,­ paid soldiers fully in cash, imported horses, detailed description of each soldier (Chehra) and each horse (Dagh) was also kept.

QUESTION: 60

With reference to Mathura School of art, consider the following statements:

1. It was influenced by the Greek arts.
2. Red sandstone was primarily used.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Mathura School of art was primarily indigenous. It was the Gandhara School of art that was influenced from the Greeks. The sculptures of Mathura deserve recognition for creating the earliest, exclusively Indian representations of the Lord Buddha. Mathura school of art draws inspiration from the ancient Indian arts of Bharhut and Sanchi. The artists of Mathura used spotted red sandstone as the material for making images and statues.

QUESTION: 61

Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are two standards for wireless communication. With respect to the difference between the two, which of the following is/are correct?

1. Bluetooth is more secure than Wi-Fi.
2. While Bluetooth works at 2.45 GHz Wi-Fi works at 1.8 GHz.
3. Bluetooth consumes less power than Wi-Fi.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Wi-Fi is more secure than Bluetooth. Unlike Wi-Fi, which uses wireless access devices that connect clients, each Bluetooth device is an access point itself. The potential for abuse is a lot greater for Bluetooth than for Wi-Fi, as every Bluetooth device is a potential entry point to the local network. Wi-Fi works at 2.45 , 3.6 and 5 GHz frequencies, while Bluetooth works only at 2.45 GHz. Bluetooth consumes less power than Wi-Fi.

QUESTION: 62

With reference to induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs), consider the following statements :

1. They are originally embryonic stem cells.
2. Tissues derived from iPSCs can avoid rejection by the immune system.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

iPSCs are originally adult cells. Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are adult cells that have been genetically reprogrammed to an embryonic stem cell–like state by being forced to express genes and factors important for maintaining the defining properties of embryonic stem cells. Tissues derived from iPSCs will be a nearly identical match to the cell donor and thus probably avoid rejection by the immune system.

QUESTION: 63

Water disinfectants used to kill or deactivate pathogenic microorganisms. Which among the following can be used as a disinfectant?

1. Chlorine
2. Hydrogen peroxide
3. Ultraviolet rays

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Chlorine is one of the most widely used disinfectants. It is very applicable and very effective for the deactivation of pathogenic microorganisms. Chlorine can be easily applied, measured and controlled. Is is fairly persistent and relatively cheap. The disinfection mechanism of hydrogen peroxide is based on the release of free oxygen radicals: H2O2 → H2O + O2. UV as a disinfectant has many advantages – UV does not alter taste, odour, colour or pH of the water – UV does not require the addition of chemicals – UV does not impart toxic by-products into the water – UV systems are compact and easy to install – UV systems require very little maintenance.

QUESTION: 64

Consider the following statements about additive manufacturing:

1. In this, an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the entire object is created.
2. It can be used in reconstructing heavily damaged evidence acquired from crime scene investigations.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Additive manufacturing is just the other name of 3D printing. It is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. In an additive process an object is created by laying down successive layers of material until the entire object is created. Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal cross-section of the eventual object. Applications include design visualization, prototyping/CAD, metal casting, architecture, education, geospatial, healthcare and entertainment/retail. Other applications would include reconstructing fossils in paleontology, replicating ancient and priceless artifacts in archaeology, reconstructing bones and body parts in forensic pathology and reconstructing heavily damaged evidence acquired from crime scene investigations.

QUESTION: 65

Kessler syndrome is

Solution:

Kessler Syndrome is not related to any disease of the human body. It is related to possible collision of objects in low earth orbit. The Kessler Syndrome is a theory proposed by NASA scientist Donald J. Kessler in 1978, used to describe a self-sustaining cascading collision of space debris in LEO. It’s the idea that two colliding objects in space generate more debris that then collides with other objects, creating even more shrapnel and litter until the entirety of LEO is an impassable array of super swift stuff. At that point, any entering satellite would face unprecedented risks of headfirst bombardment.

QUESTION: 66

Touchscreen mobile phones have become common these days. In this respect, which of the following is/are correct?

1. Resistive touchscreen are quick to respond compared to a capacitive touchscreen.
2. Resistive touchscreen are expensive compared to a capacitive touchscreen.
3. Resistive touchscreen allow for multi-touch gestures such as pinch to zoom.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Resistive touchscreen require slight pressure in order to register the touch, and are not always as quick to respond as capacitive touchscreens such as the iPhone’s. Resistive screens don’t allow for multi-touch gestures such as pinch to zoom, although they can register a touch by one finger when another finger is already touching a different location on the screen. As expected Capacitive touchscreens are expensive.

QUESTION: 67

Reusing cooking oil is unhealthy because

Solution:

In a used oil bacteria feeds on food particles left in the oil. These often lead to the growth of Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism, a potentially fatal food poisoning. Used oil contains free radicals, molecules that can damage cells and lead to increased cancer risk, as well as affect the quality of your food.

QUESTION: 68

Aluminium has been used in aircrafts because it offers many advantages. These are

1. excellent machinability and plasticity which helps in bending, cutting, and drawing aluminium sheets.
2. high thermal resistance making it suitable for use in engines which are exposed to extreme heat.
3. ability to withstand the stresses that occur during launch and operation in space.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Aluminium has high thermal conductivity and not resistance that make it suitable for use in engines which are exposed to extreme heat. The rest two statements – excellent machinability and plasticity which helps in bending, cutting, and drawing aluminium sheets and ability to withstand the stresses that occur during launch and operation in space are correct.

QUESTION: 69

Catching ‘red handed’ is based on the so called Phenolphthalein Test. The principle behind this is that when phenolphthalein is mixed with :

Solution:

Phenolphthalein is a light white powder and slightly soluble in water. It is colourless in acid and neutral media and pink in alkaline medium. When the currency notes are treated with phenolphthalein powder, it adheres to the surface, hardly visible to the naked eye. The person who has touched the currency notes with phenolphthalein powder dips his fingers in the sodium carbonate solution upon which the colourless solution turns pink.

QUESTION: 70

Climate change can be caused by :

1. Volcanic eruptions
2. Rice cultivation
3. Changes in sun spots numbers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Intense heat generated during volcanic eruptions, methane produced from rice fields and temperature changes due to sun spot cycle causes climate change.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following best defines ‘market capitalisation’ ?

Solution:

Shares can be either outstanding or treasury. Outstanding shares are those issued by a company and purchased by investors. Treasury shares are held by company themselves. Statement a) is false as it talks about total shares.

QUESTION: 72

The horizontal distribution of heat across the earth’s surface is primarily done by

Solution:

Advection is a lateral or horizontal transfer of mass, heat, or other property Conduction is the transfer of heat between substances that are in direct contact with each other.Convection occurs when warmer areas of a liquid or gas rise to cooler areas in the liquid or gas.Radiation is a method of heat transfer that does not rely upon any contact between the heat source and the heated object.

QUESTION: 73

Jainism is characterised by

1. non-belief in superiority of vedas
2. avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
3. non-belief in rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Statement 2 is a feature of Buddhism. Jainism believes in penance which requires undergoing extreme pain and suffering. In Jainism, happiness is the ultimate bliss for which people strive. Jains believe in fasting, meditating and observing penance to achieve happiness.

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements about Vote on account.

1. Vote on account comprises only of expenditure.
2. Vote on account is passed every year.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

A vote-on-account presents an estimate of expenditures to be sanctioned by the exchequer till the Budget is passed. Article 266 of the Constitution mandates that parliamentary approval is required to draw money from the Consolidated Fund of India. A special provision is, therefore, made for a ‘Vote on Account’ by which the government obtains the vote of Parliament for a sum sufficient to incur expenditure on various items for a part of the year

QUESTION: 75

Various committees were formed during the making of Indian Constitution. Who chaired the committee on local governance ?

Solution:

Committees of the Indian Constitution

  1. The Constituent Assembly appointed several committees for framing the constitution. Some of the important committees were:
  2. Union powers committee of members chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  3. The committee on Fundamental Rights and minorities of 54 members chaired by Sardar Patel.
  4. The committee on Union constitution of 15 members with Jawaharlal Nehru-as Chairman.
  5. The provincial constitution committee of 25 members chaired by K.R. Munshi.
  6. These committees submitted their reports between April & August 1947.
  7. This draft contained 240 clauses and 13 schedules in order to consider the Draft constitution; a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was set up.
  8. While the formal centers of the work of drafting the constitution were no doubt the Constituent Assembly and Drafting Committee, the Congress leaders held the important powers of decision-making.
  9. In a way the Congress Working Committee was the real architect of the constitution in that most of the important decisions were arrived at on the basis of what the Congress leaders suggested.
  10. Granvile Austin points out those four men – Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel, Rajendra Prasad and Abul Kalam Azad – constituted a virtual oligarchy in the Assembly and dominated the proceedings by virtue of the prestige and power they enjoyed both in the Congress and in the Government.
QUESTION: 76

Which of these pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Bhabhar : elevated land along Ganga
2. Tarai : wide marshy tracks
3. Bhur : rock beds with high porosity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

1 and 3 are interchanged. Bhabhar are rock beds with high porosity. Here streams disappear. Bhurs are the elevated land along Ganga.

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following is the correct order of credits issued to agriculture by the financial agencies ?

Solution:

Commercial banks leads in financing agriculture.

QUESTION: 78

Consider the following statements :

1. Infant Mortality rate is the number of infant deaths per 1 lakh live births.
2. Maternal Mortality rate is number of pregnancy related deaths per 1 lakh live births.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Infant Mortality rate is the number of infant deaths per 1000 live births. The Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is the annual number of female deaths per 100,000 live births from any cause related to or aggravated by pregnancy or its management (excluding accidental or incidental causes).

QUESTION: 79

What are Gilt-edged securities ?

Solution:

Government securities, also called the gilt edged securities or G-secs, are not only free from default risk but also provide reasonable returns.

QUESTION: 80

The Union Cabinet has approved Establishment of Food Legumes Research Platform (FLRP). Consider the following statements regarding this:

I. FLRP has been established by International Center for Agricultural Research in Dry Areas (ICARDA).
II. The Cabinet has authorised the Ministry of Science and Technology to carry out technical modifications in the Supplementary Agreement signed between ICAR and ICARDA relating to establishment of FLRP.
III. The establishment of FLRP in India will enable India to harness the best of international science in meeting the emerging food security challenges.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

Solution:

The Union Cabinet has approved the Establishment of Food Legumes Research Platform (FLRP) at Amlaha, Sehore, Madhya Pradesh with Satellite Hubs in West Bengal (for pulses) and Rajasthan (for Natural Resource Management) by ICARDA in the second phase; by International Center for Agricultural Research in Dry Areas (ICARDA) and authorised the Ministry of Agriculture to carry out technical modifications in the Supplementary Agreement signed between ICAR and ICARDA relating to establishment of FLRP, if required.
The establishment of FLRP in India will enable India to harness the best of international science in meeting the emerging food security challenges. India would be able to rapidly and effectively absorb the research output achieved in the country by FLRP.
A major international R&D institution will make India an even bigger center for agricultural research in the world and this in turn, will attract further research & development investment in the country. This is a research set up by an international organization. ICARDA has a good track record of innovation, as in climate resilient technologies including suitable food legume varieties for dry-land production systems.
ICARDA will carry out research through a multi-disciplinary team of scientists for enhancing productivity of crops range-land and livestock. This platform will contribute significantly towards reducing poverty, improving food security, improving nutrition and health, and sustaining the natural resource base. The research output would benefit farmers of all regions, whether big, small or marginal; and as technologies developed would be eligible for use by all farmers, the project is equitable and inclusive.

QUESTION: 81

Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs the investment proposal for generation component of Arun-3 Hydro Electric Project in Nepal by SJVN Limited. Consider the following statements regarding the investment proposal for generation component of Arun-3 Hydro Electric Project:

I. Investment for generation component of Arun-3 HEP (900 MW) for an estimated cost of Rs. 5723.72 crore at May 2015 Price Level.

II. Completion period of the project shall be 60 months from the date of financial closure which is planned for September this year.
III. The project is located on Arun River in Sankhuwasabha District of Eastern Nepal.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has approved:

Investment for generation component of Arun-3 HEP (900 MW) for an estimated cost of Rs. 5723.72 crore at May 2015 Price Level.
Completion period of the project shall be 60 months from the date of financial closure which is planned for September this year.
Ex-post facto approval for the existing implementing agency, already incorporated in the name of SJVN Arun-3 Power Development Company (P) Limited (SAPDC) registered in Nepal as a 100% subsidiary of SJVN Limited for implementing the project.
Any component of work already or being made by the Nepalese authorities shall be so certified by Central Electricity Authority (CEA) and shall be accordingly deducted from the project cost requirements.
The project is located on Arun River in Sankhuwasabha District of Eastern Nepal. The Run-of-River scheme envisages about 70 mtrs high concrete gravity dam and Head Race Tunnel (HRT) of 11.74 Km. with underground Power House containing four generating units of 225 MW each on Left Bank.

QUESTION: 82

Recently, India has sanctioned an amount of USD 340 million to which of the following country?

Solution:

Recently, India has sanctioned a soft loan of USD 340 million to Nepal. The loan amount will be used in developing various infrastructure development programmes in Nepal. Suresh Prabhu was in Kathmandu, Nepal to attend the 'Nepal Infrastructure Summit 2017'. While delivering the keynote address at the summit, Suresh Prabhu said Infrastructure is a pre-requisite for development. Under this programme, Mahalaki Bridge and 15 roads will be constructed in various parts of Nepal. On the occasion of this handing over ceremony, Suresh Prabhu expressed India’s commitment to strengthen infrastructure in Nepal.

QUESTION: 83

Recently, India has signed an agreement with Japan on enhancing railway safety in the Indian Railways. Consider the following statements regarding the Memorandum of Cooperation between India and Japan:

I. India signed an agreement with Japan last week on enhancing railway safety in the Indian Railways with focus on railway track and rolling stock safety.
II. The areas of cooperation include rail inspection, rail wielding and providing automatic railway track safety inspection, maintenance of rolling stock.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

India signed an agreement with Japan last week on enhancing railway safety in the Indian Railways with focus on railway track and rolling stock safety. The Memorandum of Cooperation was signed between Railway Board Chairman and Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism of Japan Vice-Minister.
The areas of cooperation include rail inspection, rail wielding and providing automatic railway track safety inspection, maintenance of rolling stock and “any other relevant railway safety matters jointly determined by both sides” with the aim to prevent major rail accidents.

QUESTION: 84

Recently, the government of India has scrapped the import duty on which of the following crops?

Solution:

The Government has scrapped the import duty of 10 per cent on wheat amid rising domestic prices and concerns of a dip in buffer stocks following two consecutive drought years.
The government has expected to produce 93.5 million tonnes in 2015-16, an 8 per cent increase over 86.53 million tonnes in 2014-15 is off the mark.  However, India has imported around 2.1 million tonnes of wheat since April 2016.

QUESTION: 85

During recent visit of Qatarian Sheikh Abdullah bin Nasser Bin Khalifa Al Thani, India and Qatar have signed four agreements to boost the bilateral relations between the two nations. Consider the following statements agreements between the two nations:

I. Agreement on the exemption from visa requirement for holders of diplomatic, special and official passports was inked
II. Protocol on cooperation against terrorism and middle-east crisis. 
III. Letter of Intent regarding negotiations on an Agreement on the grant of e-Visa for businessmen and tourists of the two countries.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

The agreements between India and Qatar were signed after delegation level talks held between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Prime Minister of Qatar Sheikh Abdullah bin Nasser Bin Khalifa Al Thani. Emir Al Thani was on a two-day visit to India.
The List of agreements signed includes:
Agreement on the exemption from visa requirement for holders of diplomatic, special and official passports: The agreement allows holders of diplomatic, special and official passport of the two countries to visa-free travel between the two countries.
Protocol on Technical Cooperation in cyber space and combating cyber crime: This Protocol adds an important dimension of bilateral Technical Cooperation in Cyber Space and Combating Cyber Crime to the existing framework agreement in the field of security signed on 10 November 2008.
Letter of Intent regarding negotiations on an Agreement on the grant of e-Visa for businessmen and tourists of the two countries: This allows negotiations on an agreement on the grant of e-visa to businessmen and tourists of the two countries.
MoU between Supreme Committee for Delivery & Legacy of Qatar and Confederation of Indian Industry: This MoU will provide the framework for project experts for Indian companies in Qatar, including through participation in infrastructure projects in Qatar undertaken for the 2022 FIFA World Cup.

QUESTION: 86

Over which of the following lakes, India’s first first-ever floating elementary school was has been inaugurated recently?

Solution:

India’s first floating elementary school named Loktak Elementary Floating School has been inaugurated recently at Langolsabi Leikai of Champu Khangpok floating village on Loktak Lake in Manipur. The school was established to control the sudden high dropout rate of children living in the Champu Khangpok floating villages who were rendered homeless due to the recent evacuation of phumdis.
Loktak Lake is referred as the lifeline of Manipur, the largest freshwater lake in northeast India. It is also famous for the phumdis or phumshongs, the assorted heap of vegetation, soil and organic matter at various stages of decomposition floating over it.

QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements regarding Serendipity Arts Festival which is a long-term cultural project that hopes to affect positive change in the arts in India on a large scale:

The Serendipity Arts Festival will be held on the banks of River Mandovi in Goa.
The festival will see a stellar line-up of 33 global artists, who will display their work at the eight-day inspiration-packed festival.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

The Serendipity Arts Festival (SAF) is scheduled to be held from 16 December to 23 December 2016 on the banks of River Mandovi in Goa. The festival will see a stellar line-up of 33 global artists, who will display their work at the eight-day inspiration-packed festival.
More than 40 exciting projects and exhibitions featuring well known artists like Kabi Raj Lama, Bandu Manamperi, Escif, Billy Chang, SP Pushpakanthan, Lisa Stertz and Paquito Gonzalees, will be a part of the festival.

QUESTION: 88

With which of the following international organisations the government of India has signed an agreement for constructing a new bridge across river Ganga:

Solution:

An agreement has been signed between the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and Government of India for constructing a new bridge across river Ganga, for an amount of 500 Million Dollars, to improve connectivity between North and South Bihar. So far, the State Government has incurred an amount of Rs.177 crore on pre-construction activities.
The newly constructed bridges on Ganga would serve as an alternative to the existing one and be linked to the National Highway network in the country. The project will include building of embankments, viaducts and toll facilities also.

QUESTION: 89

Consider the following statements regarding open skies agreement as per the NCAP 2016:

I. India renegotiated traffic rights with Oman increasing the entitlements with 6,258 seats effective from summer 2017 as the existing entitlements were nearly exhausted.
II. India agreed with Saudi Arabia to increase the capacity by 8000 seats per week from IATA season when Indian carrier’s utilization reaches 80%.
III. Open Skies Agreement allows unlimited number of flights to six metro airports namely Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Chennai, was signed with six countries namely Jamaica, Guyana, Czech Republic, Finland, Spain and Sri Lanka.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

The International Civil Aviation Negotiations (ICAN) 2016 was held in Nassau recently from 5th to 9th December, 2016. The Conference was attended by 106 countries out of ICAO membership of 191 countries. India held negotiations with 17 countries and “Memorandum of Understanding” was signed with 12 countries.
As per NCAP 2016 Open Skies agreement which allows unlimited number of flights to six metro airports namely Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Chennai, was signed with six countries namely Jamaica, Guyana, Czech Republic,   Finland, Spain and Sri Lanka. The new arrangement will encourage connectivity and passenger travel between India and these countries.

QUESTION: 90

The Union Cabinet has given its approval for signing Memorandum of Understanding between India and Kyrgyzstan for strengthening cooperation in the field of Tourism. Consider the following statements regarding K and central Asian countries:

1) Kyrgyzstan is a not the part of Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) countries.
2) Kyrgyzstan is bordered by the Caspian Sea and hence important for natural gas resources.
3) Kyrgyzstan supports India’s full membership in the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO).

Choose the correct statements:

Solution:

The Commonwealth of Independent States is a regional organization formed during the dissolution of the Soviet Union. Nine out of the 15 former Soviet Republics are member states namely- Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Moldova, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan and two are associate members that are Ukraine and Turkmenistan.
Kyrgyzstan is a part of CIS countries and is bordered by countries like Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan.  India and Kyrgyzstan have enjoyed a strong diplomatic and long economic relationship. And hence, Kyrgyzstan supports India’s full membership in the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO).
The main objectives of the Memorandum of Understanding on tourism is to expand bilateral cooperation in the tourism sector, to exchange information and data related to tourism and to encourage cooperation between tourism stakeholders including Hotels and Tour operators.

QUESTION: 91

India took part in the INDRA NAVY 2016 bilateral maritime exercise with which country?

Solution:

INDRA NAVY is a bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian and Russian navies aimed at increasing inter-operability amongst the two navies and develop common understanding and procedures for maritime security operations.
The scope of the exercise includes wide-ranging professional interactions in harbor phase and a diverse canvas of operational activities across a spectrum of maritime operations at sea which improves the strategic relationship between the two countries.
It was initiated in 2003 and from there; the exercise has matured over the years with increase in scope, complexity of operations and level of participation. The 9th edition of exercise INDRA NAVY, an annual bilateral maritime exercise between Indian Navy and Russian Navy has begun in the Bay of Bengal recently

QUESTION: 92

India will take part in the Seventh edition of the joint military exercise called EKUVERIN with which country?

Solution:

The Seventh edition of Exercise EKUVERIN to conduct military training with emphasis on amphibious & counter insurgency/ counter terrorism operations with a view to enhance interoperability between the two armies wiill shortly be held at Kadhdhoo, Laamu Atoll, Maldives.
The Exercise is a 14 day platoon level joint military exercise between the Indian Army & the Maldives National Defence Force conducted on a yearly basis. The previous edition of the exercise was held in India at Trivandrum, Kerala.

QUESTION: 93

Rio de Janeiro has officially entered the UN’s list of world heritage sites. Which of the following statements is true regarding the cultural criteria for a site for Heritage site?

1) Nominated sites must be of "outstanding universal value" 
2) If it represents a masterpiece of human creative genius and cultural significance.
3) If the nominated site is an outstanding example of a traditional human settlement.

Choose the correct code:

Solution:

Cultural criteria for a site to be declared as world heritage site under UNESCO are as follows:

• If the nominated site represents a masterpiece of human creative genius and cultural significance.
• If the nominated site exhibits an important interchange of human values, over a span of time, or within a cultural area of the world, on developments in architecture or technology, monumental arts, town-planning, or landscape design.
• If the nominated site bear a unique or at least exceptional testimony to a cultural tradition or to a civilization which is living or which has disappeared.
• If it is an outstanding example of a type of building, architectural, or technological ensemble or landscape which illustrates a significant stage in human history.
• If the nominated site is an outstanding example of a traditional human settlement, land-use, or sea-use which is representative of a culture, or human interaction with the environment especially when it has become vulnerable under the impact of irreversible change.
• If the nominated site is directly or tangibly associated with events or living traditions, with ideas, or with beliefs, with artistic and literary works of outstanding universal significance.

QUESTION: 94

The Government has approved cadre review and formation of the Indian Enterprise Development Service (IEDS) in which ministry?

Solution:

The Government has approved cadre review and formation of the Indian Enterprise Development Service (IEDS) in the Office of the Development Commissioner, Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
The creation of the new cadre and change in structure is aimed at strengthening the organisation. It will also help achieve the vision of Startup India, Stand-up India and Make in India.
The measure will also enhance the capacity and efficiency of the organisation and also help in achieving growth in the MSME sector through a dedicated cadre of technical officers

QUESTION: 95

Global Wage Report 2016-17 released that women from 60% of low paid wage labours in India. Which international organisation releases this report?

Solution:

India had among the worst levels of gender wage disparity with men earning more than women in similar jobs and the gap exceeding 30 per cent as per the Global Wage Report 2016-17 released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO).
In India, women formed 60 percent of the lowest paid wage labour, but only 15 percent of the highest wage-earners. In other words, not only were women paid less but there were fewer women in highly paid occupations. Among the major economies, only South Korea fared worse than India, with a gap of 37 per cent.

QUESTION: 96

Khanjar-IV is the name of the newly finalised joint military exercises between India and which country?

Solution:

The President of the Kyrgyz Republic paid a State Visit to India in December 2016. The two sides expressed satisfaction with the development of cooperation in the defence sphere, which reflects the high level of mutual trust between the two countries.
They noted that three IT-Centers have been established by India in the last two years at Kyrgyz Military Institutions, and an IT Centre is being upgraded at this time. The Khanjar series of India and Kyrgyzstan military exercises have become an annual event. Khanjar-II exercises were held in March 2015 in Kyrgyzstan and Khanjar III in March-April 2016 in Gwalior, India. The Khanjar-IV exercises are scheduled to be held in Kyrgyzstan in 2017.

QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Standing Committee on Science and Technology which has recommended a national policy on managing and curbing forest fires:

I. The committee revealed that there has been about 55 per cent rise in forest fire which tremendously affects environment, forests, biodiversity and wildlife.
II. The committee has recently submitted their report mainly focuses on the prevention of fires, especially in the Satpura forests.

Choose the correct answer from following codes:

Solution:

The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Science and Technology has recommended a national policy on managing and curbing forest fires. This move has come following the committee’s latest report on ‘forest fires and its effect on the environment, forests, biodiversity and wildlife’, which revealed that there has been about 55 per cent rise in forest fires. The number of forest fires has touched 24817 in 2016, in comparison to 15937 in 2015. A total of around 17502 acres of land has been destroyed this year due to the spread of the forest fire. The increase is alarming, as 2015, which was in fact considered a drought year, had seen about 16 percent fall in the frequency of the blazes. The three states that contribute about one third to the total number of forest fires are Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.

QUESTION: 98

The statue of renowned poet and philosopher Thiruvalluvar was unveiled in Haridwar recently. Consider the following statements regarding philosopher Thiruvalluvar:

1) Thiruvalluvar is a celebrated Tamil poet.
2) His major contribution is the "Thirukkural", a work on ethics.

Choose the correct statements:

Solution:

The statue of the renowned Tamil poet and philosopher Thiruvalluvar was unveiled on the premises of Mela Bhawan in Haridwar. Thiruvalluvar is a celebrated poet believed to have lived between 3rd Century BC and the 1st Century BC. Thiruvalluvar is a celebrated Tamil poet and philosopher whose contribution to Tamil literature is the Thirukkural, a work on ethics.
The Tamil poets of the Sangam period mentioned that Thiruvalluvar was the greatest Tamil scholar and it is estimated to be based on linguistic analysis of his writings.

QUESTION: 99

The popular dance form ‘Kuchipudi’ has found a place in the Guinness World Record. Which of the following features is true regarding the Kuchipudi dance:

1) Kuchipudi is a dance-drama performance art, with its roots in the text of Natya Shastra.
2) It originated in the state of Kerala.
3) Kuchipudi is one of the ten major Indian classical dances.

Choose the correct statements code:

Solution:

Andhra Pradesh's classical dance 'Kuchipudi' found a place in the Guinness World Records when a record 6,117 dancers came together to present a show. Kuchipudi is one of the ten major Indian classical dances. It originated in a village of Krishna district in modern Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
Kuchipudi is a dance-drama performance art, with its roots in the ancient Hindu Sanskrit text of Natya Shastra and it developed as a religious art linked to travelling bards, temples and spiritual beliefs. Kuchipudi largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition and it is most closely related to the Bhagavata Mela performance art found in Tamil Nadu.

QUESTION: 100

Consider the following statement regarding the National Consumer Day 2016:
1) The National Consumer Day is observed on 24th December because the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 had received the assent of the President on this day.
2) The theme for 2016 was- “Alternate Consumer Disputes Redressal”

Choose the correct statements code:

Solution:

The National Consumer Day is observed every year on December 24. On this day, the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 had received the assent of the President. The Day is an annual occasion for celebration and solidarity within the national consumer movement and is an opportunity to promote the basic rights of all consumers.
The Department of Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution celebrated the National Consumer Day 2016 with the theme “Alternate Consumer Disputes Redressal” on 24th December.

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