UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 6


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 6


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This mock test of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by –

Solution:

The additional functions relating to the services of the Union can be conferred on UPSC by the Parliament. It can also place the personnel system of any authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of the UPSC. Hence the jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by an act made by the Parliament

QUESTION: 2

With reference to Finance Commission (FC), consider the following statements :

1. As the FC is a constitutional body, its recommendations are binding on the government.
2. The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states. Chairman of FC is eligible for re-appointment.

QUESTION: 3

Which of these is/ are constitutional posts?

1. Special officer for linguistic minorities
2. Advocate general
3. Solicitor general

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Special officer for linguistic minorities is provided for in article 350-B. Advocate general of a state is provided under article 165. Solicitor general is not a constitutional post. Article 76 provides only for attorney general and not solicitor general.

QUESTION: 4

With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements :

1. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC.
2. The chairman can be reappointed.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

The retired chief justice of the Supreme Court and all the chief justice of high courts can be appointed as the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission.

The chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC will hold office for 5 years or till the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. The Act allows for the reappointment of members of the NHRC and SHRCs for a period of 5 years.

QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements:

1. The supreme court hears only those who petition or appeal in English.
2. The constitution has specified the official language of different states.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Supreme Court hears only those who petition or appeal in English. In 1971, a petitioner insisted on arguing in Hindi a habeas corpus petition in the Supreme Court. But, the Court cancelled his petition on the ground that the language of the Court was English and allowing Hindi would be unconstitutional. The constitution has not specified the official language of different state and its left for the states to do so.

QUESTION: 6

The Indian constitution has defined which of the following?

1. Scheduled Castes
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Anglo-Indians

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called the SCs or the STs. It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs. Thus, the lists of the SCs or STs vary from state to state and union territory to union territory. Unlike in the case of SCs and STs, the Constitution has defined the persons who belong to the Anglo-Indian community. Accordingly, ‘an Anglo-Indian means a person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory of parents habitually resident therein and not established there for temporary purposes only’.

QUESTION: 7

A person can file a suit against which of the following

1. Union of India.
2. Union Government of India.
3. State Government of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Article 300 of the Constitution deals with the suits by or against the Government in India. It lays down that the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and government of a state may sue or be sued by the name of that state, eg, State of Andhra Pradesh or State of Uttar Pradesh and so on. Thus, the Union of India and states are legal entities (juristic personalities) for purposes of suits and proceedings, not the Government of the Union or government of states.

QUESTION: 8

With reference to defections, consider the following statements :

1. An independent member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party after 6 months from the date on which he take his seat.
2. A nominated member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party anytime.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Interchange both statements to get the correct one. A nominated member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party after 6 months from the date on which he take his seat. If he joins before 6 months, then not disqualified. An independent member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party anytime.

QUESTION: 9

In India, which of the following modes of voting take place

1. Direct voting by being present in person.
2. Voting through postal ballot.
3. Voting through a proxy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Direct voting by being present in person is valid for everybody. In 1999, a provision was made for voting by certain classes of persons through postal ballot. Thus, any class of persons can be notified by the Election Commission, in consultation with the government, and the persons belonging to such notified class can give their votes by postal ballot, and not in any other manner, at elections in their constituency or constituencies. In 2003, the facility to opt to vote through proxy was provided to the service voters belonging to the Armed Forces and members belonging to a Force to which provisions of the Army Act apply.

QUESTION: 10

Consider the following statements about delimitation commission:

1. Delimitation commission is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
2. The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any court.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Delimitation commission is a statutory body formed under Delimitation commission act,1972 . The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any court.

QUESTION: 11

Igneous rocks are also caused primary rock because

Solution:

Although it’s true that igneous rocks are formed due to cooling and solidification of magna, this however does not lead to it being called primary rocks. Igneous rocks were the first rock to originate during formation of earth `s crust. All other rocks are subsequently formed from igneous rock.

QUESTION: 12

The seismic weaves helps in understanding the interior of earth.

Which of the following about seismic waves is/are correct ?

1. P waves travel with fastest speed and are most destructive.
2. S waves cannot pass through liquid.
3. The surface waves (L) are analogous to light waves.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Though P waves travel with fastest speed, they are not most destructive. L waves are most violent and destructive. It’s the S waves that are analogous to light waves because S waves are transverse in the nature and the particle moves at right angles to the direction of propagation.

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements :

1. A positive Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) indicates a good Indian monsoon.
2. A negative SOI is often seen in the El-Nino years.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is an index that is based on the difference in air pressure between Tahiti and Darwin. The SOI is closely related to the El Nino/La Nina climate phenomenon. A consistently negative SOI often indicates the presence of an El Nino. A consistently positive SOI often indicates the presence of a La Nina. This also indicates a good Indian monsoon.

QUESTION: 14

The saline soils can be reclaimed by

1. providing good drainage.
2. applying lime or gypsum.
3. cultivating salt resistant crops.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The saline soils can be reclaimed by providing good drainage, applying lime or gypsum and cultivating salt resistant crops.

QUESTION: 15

Generally saline lakes are found in semi-arid/ arid regions because

Solution:

Rate of evaporation is very high in these regions. The water gets evaporated thus increasing the salt concentration in the remaining water. Crustaceans helps in decreasing salinity.

QUESTION: 16

With reference to plate margins, consider the following statements :

1. New oceanic crust is continuously formed at convergent plate margins.
2. At divergent plate margin crust is neither created nor destroyed.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

New oceanic crust is continuously formed at divergent ( or constructed ) plate margin because of continuous upwelling of lava. It is at conservative plate margin that crusts is neither created nor destroy as two plate slides pass each other.

QUESTION: 17

The “land not available for cultivation” under land use categories includes

1. lands used for settlement.
2. barren lands like deserts.
3. fallow lands
4. grazing lands.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Fallow lands are a separate category. Grazing lands are included under the category of “other uncultivated lands”.

QUESTION: 18

With reference to weathering, consider the following statements :

1. Weathering involves large-scale transport of weathered materials.
2. Weathering is a static process.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Weathering is a static process because the breakdown of rocks occurs at the place of rocks (in-situ). There is no large scale transport of weathered materials except mass movement down the slope under the force of gravity.

QUESTION: 19

Which of these pairs about rivers and their tributaries are correctly matched ?

1. Purna : Narmada
2. Tungabhadra : Godavari
3. Betwa : Yamuna

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Purna is a tributary of river Tapi. The Purna River is a river of Western India. It is one of the chief tributaries of Tapti river and empties in it at Changdev in Jalgaon, Maharashta. Tungabhadra is Krishna’s tributary. The Tungabhadra River is a river in southern India that starts and flows through the state of Karnataka, before flowing along the border between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh and ultimately joining the Krishna River along the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

 

QUESTION: 20

The products from forests are classified as major and minor. Which of the following is/are MAJOR forest produce?

1. Wood
2. Bamboo
3. Tendu Leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Bamboo and tendu leaves are minor forest produce. Only Wood (timber) is a major forest product. All other products are minor. Minor forest products include all products obtainable from the forests other than wood and thus comprise products of vegetable and animal origin.

QUESTION: 21

Receipts in budget can be capital or revenue. Which of these is/are capital receipts?

1. Loan recoveries
2. Provident funds deposits
3. Grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Loan recoveries are the money, which the government had lent out in past, their capital comes back to the government when the borrowers repay them as capital receipts. long-term capital accruals to the government through the Provident Fund (PF), Postal Deposits, various small saving schemes (SSSs) and the government bonds sold to the public (as Indira Vikas Patra, Kisan Vikas Patra, Market Stabilization Bond, etc.) are also capital receipts. Grants are revenue receipts.

QUESTION: 22

If a government is unable to pass the budget in Lok Sabha, then:

Solution:

This is an important point to be noted. Although, UPSC has asked a question on this in 2011, it may still resurface as a part/statement in a question.

QUESTION: 23

With reference to contribution from taxes, consider the following statements:

1. Contribution from direct taxes is more than that from indirect taxes.
2. Corporation tax is the largest contributor.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Since 2007-08, the contribution of direct tax has been more than indirect tax. Before this, the trend was opposite. Corporation tax is the largest contributor among the taxes.

QUESTION: 24

The Economic Survey is complied by:

Solution:

The Economic Survey is complied by Department of economic affairs, Ministry of Finance. Office of economic advisor publishes WPI, while CSO publishes IIP and CPI.

QUESTION: 25

Gross capital formation will increase if:

1. gross domestic savings increases
2. gross domestic consumption increases
3. GDP increases

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Gross capital formation, in simple terms is equivalent to investment made. It was earlier called gross domestic investment. The part of GDP that is used is called gross domestic consumption, while the part that is saved is gross domestic savings (GDS). Some part of this GDS will be re-invested back, and that is called gross capital formation. Now, an increase in GDP or GDS will not necessarily lead to an increase in capital formation. Because how much in invested back will depend on many other factors.

QUESTION: 26

Consider the following statements:

1. India’s GDP is more than its GNP.
2. Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is positive for India.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

GNP = GDP + NFIA. India’s NFIA is negative. Thus India’s GDP is more than its GNP. NFIA = Factor income earned from abroad by residents – Factor income of non-residents in domestic territory.

QUESTION: 27

Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme aims to provide many services to children that includes:

1. school education
2. Nutrition support
3. Immunization

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

ICDS provides Supplementary nutrition, Immunization, Primary healthcare (Health check-up, referral services.) and preschool education to children under 6 years of age and their mothers.

QUESTION: 28

Gross budgetary support means:

Solution:

The Government’s support to the Central plan is called the Gross Budgetary Support. In the recent years the GBS has been slightly more than 50% of the total Central Plan. The share of the GBS in Central Plan has been rising since 2008-09

QUESTION: 29

Consider the following data:

1. Revenue deficit (RD) = 3% of GDP |
2. Grants for capital formation = 1.8% of GDP
3. Primary deficit (PD) = 1.2%
4. Non-plan expenditure = 1.5%

Q. In the above scenario, effective revenue deficit (ERD) will be:

Solution:

ERD = RD – Grants for capital formation. Therefore, here ERD = 3% – 1.8% = 1.2%. The rest two data about primary deficit and non-plan expenditure is not needed to calculate ERD. Effective Revenue was first introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12. While revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure, this accounting system includes all grants from the Union Government to the state governments as revenue expenditure, even if they are used to create assets. Such revenue expenditures contribute to the growth in the economy and therefore, should not be treated as unproductive in nature.

QUESTION: 30

Which of the following interest rates is still regulated?

1. Savings account interest rate
2. Fixed deposit interest rate
3. Current account interest rate

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

All the interest rates in India have been deregulated. The last one was savings interest rate which was deregulated in 2011.

QUESTION: 31

With reference to ecosystem stability, consider the following statements:

1. A diverse and complex ecosystem is more stable.
2. Ecosystem stability increases with decrease in number of links in food web.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Diversity increases the resilience of the system to outside invasions of exotic organisms. So statement 1 is correct. A large number of interacting feeding links provide alternative channels for energy flow and this generates a wide variety of adjustments of population to environment changes and stresses within the ecosystem. Therefore, ecosystem stability increases with INCREASE in number of links in food web.

QUESTION: 32

The brown haze dome formed in cities is because of which gas?

Solution:

Nitrogen oxides (NOX), especially nitrogen dioxide, are emitted from high temperature combustion and can be seen as the brown haze dome above or plume downwind of cities.

QUESTION: 33

Which of the following is/are part of the biosphere?

1. water
2. soil
3. plants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Many people mistakenly believe that biosphere only comprises of the living components. But this is not true. Biosphere, relatively thin life-supporting stratum of Earth’s surface, extending from a few kilometres into the atmosphere to the deep-sea vents of the ocean. The biosphere is a global ecosystem composed of living organisms (biotic) and the abiotic (nonliving) factors.

QUESTION: 34

When acid rain falls on buildings made of marble, what is the final product that flakes off easily?

Solution:

The sulfuric acid ( in acid rain) reacts with limestone( or marble ) in a neutralization reaction. . Limestone and marble buildings sometimes show blackened crusts that have peeled off to reveal crumbling stone beneath it.This black crust is called “gypsum”. Gypsum is a mineral that forms from the reaction between calcite, water and sulfuric acid. Gypsum is soluable in water. It is usually washed away with time. Limestone:
CaCO3 + H2SO—> CaSO4 (gypsum) + H2CO3

QUESTION: 35

The development of vegetation community in any ecosystem is affected by:

1. sunlight
2. soil texture
3. relief
4. human

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Straight forward question. Sunlight helps in photosynthesis, soil provides minerals, water etc; relief helps in development of soil. Human activities can alter or fully destroy a vegetation community.

QUESTION: 36

Consider the following statements:

1. The area recorded as forests in the government records is called forest cover.
2. A forest cover may or may not be a part of forest area.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

The area recorded as forests in the government records is called forest area not forest cover. Forest cover refers to all lands more than one hectare in area, with a tree canopy density of more than 10 percent irrespective of ownership and legal status. Such lands may not necessarily be a recorded forest area. It also includes orchards, bamboo and palm.

QUESTION: 37

Ecotone is best defined as:

Solution:

An ecotone is a transition area between two biomes. It is where two communities meet and integrate. It may be narrow or wide, and it may be local (the zone between a field and forest) or regional (the transition between forest and grassland ecosystems). The most extensive ecosystem unit which is convenient to designate is called biome. The vegetation community developed at the last stage of biotic succession is called climax community.

QUESTION: 38

Persistent organic pollutants (PoPs) are harmful for health and environment because:

1. they are resistant to environmental degradation.
2. they can undergo bioaccumulation.
3. they can cause global warming.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

PoPs do not cause global warming. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are chemical substances that persist in the environment, bio-accumulate through the food web, and pose a risk of causing adverse effects to human health and the environment. The international community has called for urgent global actions to reduce and eliminate releases of these chemicals, because they are : * Highly toxic to humans and the environment * Persistent in the environment, resisting bio-degradation * Taken up and bio-accumulated in terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems * Capable of long-range, transboundary atmospheric transport and deposition.

QUESTION: 39

Water in a wetland can be:

1. Fresh
2. Brackish
3. Static

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The Ramsar definition of wetlands is fairly wide, including “areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six meters” as well as fish ponds, rice paddies and salt pans. wetlands can be freshwater as well. Freshwater wetlands are not connected to the ocean. They can be found along the boundaries of streams, lakes, ponds or even in large shallow holes that fill up with rainwater. Freshwater wetlands may stay wet all year long, or the water may evaporate during the dry season.

QUESTION: 40

Which of the following is responsible for maximum GHGs emission?

Solution:

Thermal power stations > Industrial processes > Agriculture > Transportation fuels is the order of emission of GHGs.

QUESTION: 41

The Young Bengal Movement, started by Henry Vivian Derozio:

1. took up the peasant’s cause
2. advocated women’s rights
3. attacked old and decadent customs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The Young Bengal Movement did not fought for peasant’s cause. The Young Bengal movement was a group of radical Bengali free thinkers emerging from Hindu College, Calcutta. They were also known as Derozians, after their firebrand teacher at Hindu College, Henry Louis Vivian Derozio. The Young Bengals were inspired and excited by the spirit of free thought and revolt against the existing social and religious structure of Hindu society. They advocated women’s rights such as right to education.

QUESTION: 42

The Tanjore paintings are called ‘panel paintings’. This means that Tanjore paintings are

Solution:

Tanjore paintings are panel paintings (done on solid wood planks ) and hence were also referred to as ‘palagai padam'( palagai – wooden plank ; padam- picture) in local parlance. Tanjore Paintings are known for their surface richness, vivid colours and compact composition. Essentially serving as devotional icons, the themes of most of these paintings are Hindu gods and goddesses, and saints as well.

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following elements were used during the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC)?

1. Copper
2. Bronze
3. Iron
4. Silver

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

There is no evidence of use of Iron during the IVC. Copper and bronze were used to make tools, weapons, ornaments and vessels. Gold and silver were used to make ornaments and vessels.

QUESTION: 44

Harijan Sevak Sangh for the emancipation of lower caste was founded by

Solution:

Harijan Sevak Sangh for the emancipation of lower caste was founded by M.K.Gandhi. Harijan Sevak Sangh is an non-profit organisation founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to eradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan or Dalit people and upliftment of Scheduled castes of India. It is still active.

QUESTION: 45

Congress Socialist Party was started in 1934 by

1. J.L.Nehru
2. A.N.Dev
3. J.P.Naryan
4. S.C.Bose

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was founded in 1934 as a socialist caucus within the Indian National Congress. Its members rejected what they saw as the anti-rational mysticism of Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi as well as the sectarian attitude of the Communist Party of India towards the Congress Party. Influenced by Fabianism as well as Marxism-Leninism, the CSP included advocates of armed struggle or sabotage (such as Jai Prakash Narayan and Basawon Singh (Sinha) as well as those who insisted upon ahimsa or nonviolent resistance (such as Acharya Narendra Deva).

QUESTION: 46

The Brahma Samaj , started by Raja Ram Mohan Roy

1. laid emphasis on human dignity
2. opposed monotheism
3. was against idolatory

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Brahma Samaj, started by Raja Ram Mohan Roy supported monotheism. It laid emphasis on human dignity and was against idolatory and meaningless rituals. The Brahmo Samaj literally denotes community of men who worship Brahman the highest reality.

QUESTION: 47

Simon Commission was appointed to

Solution:

Simon Commission was appointed in November 1927 by the British Conservative government under Stanley Baldwin to report on the working of the Indian constitution established by the Government of India Act of 1919.

QUESTION: 48

Which of the following statements about Theosophical society is/are correct?

1. It advocated the revival of ancient religions.
2. It was founded by Annie Beasant.
3. It accepted the doctrine of transmigration of soul.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The Theosophical Society was formed in New York City, United States, in November 1875 by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, William Quan Judge and others. Annie Beasant was not its founder. It advocated the revival of ancient religions like Hinduism, Buddhism, Zoroastrianism. It accepted the doctrine of transmigration of soul.

QUESTION: 49

Which among these did not participated in the Home rule league movement?

1. Muslims
2. Non-Brahmins Hindus

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Most of the Muslims and non-brahmins from South, did not join the agitation as they felt Home Rule would mean rule of the Hindu majority, mainly the high caste.

QUESTION: 50

With reference to the Arya samaj, consider the following statements :

1. It regarded Vedas as infallible.
2. It tried to prevent the conversion of Hindus to other religion.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Arya Samaj believed in Infallible Authority of Vedas and thus gave the slogan ‘go back to the Vedas’. It also propagated the shuddi movement which tried to prevent the conversion of Hindus to other religion.

QUESTION: 51

Swine flu can be transmitted by

1. shaking hands with an infected person.
2. inhaling droplets of virus from sneeze of an infected person.
3. eating pork products.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Swine flu is transmitted from person to person by inhalation or ingestion of droplets containing virus from people sneezing or coughing; it is not transmitted by eating cooked pork products or shaking hands with an infected person.

QUESTION: 52

Lifestyle diseases are associated with the way a person or group of people lives. Which of the following is/are example/s of such diseases?

1. Cirrhosis
2. Malaria
3. Swimmer’s ear
4. TB

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Malaria and TB are not lifestyle disease. Swimmer’s ear is inflammation, irritation, or infection of the outer ear and ear canal. Buzzing or ringing ears, or difficulty in understanding speech patterns are its symptoms. Swimmer’s ears results due to loud music and constant use of headphones. Cirrhosis refers to a group of liver disorders. Heavy alcohol consumption can cause it.

QUESTION: 53

Two layers of a cloth of equal thickness provide warmer covering than a single layer of cloth with double the thickness. This is because

Solution:

Two layers of cloth of equal thickness enclose between them a layer of air which is a bad conductor of heat and it prevents the heat of the body from going out. On the other hand a single layer of double thickness is not able to provide sufficient insulation.

QUESTION: 54

Formation of colors in a soap bubble is due to:

1. diffraction of light
2. interference of light
3. dispersion of light

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The beautiful spectrum of colors reflected from soap bubble are produced by the interference of light waves. This phenomenon is often called iridescence and is observed in transparent films. Diffraction and dispersion of light has no role to play here.

QUESTION: 55

The filament of electric bulb is generally made of tungsten because

1. tungsten has high light emitting power.
2. tungsten has high melting point.
3. tungsten is cheap compared to other similar elements.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The filament of electric bulb is generally made of tungsten because it has high melting point. The other two points about light emitting power and cheapness is incorrect.

QUESTION: 56

Artificial blood is a product made to act as a substitute for real blood. Which component of the blood does an artificial blood mimic?

1. RBC
2. WBC
3. Platelet

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Artificial blood is a product made to act as a substitute for red blood cells. While true blood serves many different functions, artificial blood is designed for the sole purpose of transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body. Currently, artificial blood products are only designed to replace the function of red blood cells. It might even be better to call the products being developed now, oxygen carriers instead of artificial blood.

QUESTION: 57

With reference to tube-lights, consider the following statements :

1. It works on the principle of fluorescence to produce visible light.
2. White lime coating is done inside the tube to produce white light.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Phosphorous coating is done inside the tube to produce white light. To produce light in the visible range, the inside of the tube is coated with a phosphor powder. When the ultraviolet light (generated by electrons from mercury atoms) strikes the powder, it produces excitation of the electrons of the phosphor which then produce visible light by a process called fluorescence. The central element in a tubelight is a sealed glass tube. The tube contains a small bit of mercury and an inert gas, typically argon, kept under very low pressure. The tube also contains a phosphor powder, coated along the inside of the glass.

QUESTION: 58

Fasting has been an essential component of lifestyle in India. During fasting, in which order is the following energy sources used?

1. Proteins

2. Fats

3. Carbohydrates

Solution:

The process is called ketosis. At the start, carbohydrates provide energy, then fats come into the scene. Lastly, the energy is provided by protein.

QUESTION: 59

AMOLED screens are now increasingly used in mobile phones. They offer the following advantages

1. they use an organic electroluminescent material.
2. they can be viewed even in direct sunlight.
3. they have higher refresh rates that improves the quality of display.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

AMOLED (active-matrix organic light-emitting diode) is a display technology. In this, organic compounds form the electroluminescent material, and active matrix refers to the technology behind the addressing of pixels. AMOLED displays provide higher refresh rates than their passive-matrix OLED counterparts improving response time often to under a millisecond, and they consume significantly less power. However, AMOLED displays may be difficult to view in direct sunlight compared with LCDs because of their reduced maximum brightness.

QUESTION: 60

In robotics technology, the ‘actuator’ is used for 

Solution:

Actuators are like the “muscles” of a robot, the parts which convert stored energy into movement. By far the most popular actuators are electric motors that spin a wheel or gear, and linear actuators that control industrial robots in factories.

QUESTION: 61

Where is the largest concentration of stupas in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Which fort did Shah Jahan build? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Where is the Brihadeswara or Rajarajeshwara temple situated? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Which one of these schools of the performing arts was founded in 1953?

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

In which city is the Gateway of India situated?

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

Which is the principal festival of Kerala? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

Where is the Victoria Memorial situated?

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Natya Shastra the main source of India classical dances was written by

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

The sacred book of the Parsis is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Mohiniattam dance from developed originally in which state?

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

Which of the following dances is a solo dance?

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

Thillana is a format of

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

'Madhubani', a style of folk paintings, is popular in which of the following states in India?

Solution:

Madhubani painting or Mithila painting is a style of Indian painting, practiced in the Mithila region of Bihar state, India and the adjoining parts of Terai in Nepal. Painting is done with fingers, twigs, brushes, nib-pens, and matchsticks, using natural dyes and pigments, and is characterized by eye-catching geometrical patterns. There are paintings for each occasion and festival such as birth, marriage, holi, surya shasti, kali puja, Upanayanam (sacred thread ceremony), and durga puja.

QUESTION: 75

The paintings in the Ajanta and Ellora caves are indicative of the development of art under the –

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QUESTION: 76

In which of the following festivals are boat races a special feature?

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QUESTION: 77

In which dance form are the themes called from the Ramayana and Mahabharata?

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QUESTION: 78

The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is:

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QUESTION: 79

Which of the following places is famous for Chikankari work, which is a traditional art of embroidery?

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QUESTION: 80

The dance encouraged and performance from the temple of Tanjore was

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QUESTION: 81

Panchatantra’ is originally written by

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QUESTION: 82

Kalchakra ceremony is associated with which of the following ceremonies?

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QUESTION: 83

Losoong is a festival which is celebrated in

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QUESTION: 84

Recently, UP High Court has ruled that land belonging to a religious body can be used for public purpose. Consider the statements regarding the criteria to be specified as a religious denomination:

1) The institute or group should have a common organisation.
2) It should be a collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs.
3) It may or may not be designated by a distinctive name.

Choose the correct statements code:

Solution:

According to Article 26, every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the following rights:

-Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
-Right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
-Right to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
-Right to administer such property in accordance with law.

The Supreme Court held that a religious denomination must satisfy three conditions:

•    It should be a collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs (doctrines) which they regard as conductive to their spiritual well-being;
•    It should have a common organisation 
•    It should be designated by a distinctive name.

The rights under Article 26 are subjected to public order, morality and health, but not subject to other provisions relating to the Fundamental Rights.

QUESTION: 85

Which statement is true regarding the much in news term, “Google Tax”?

Solution:

'Google tax' is a popular term used to refer to anti-avoidance provisions that have been passed in several jurisdictions dealing with profits or royalties that have been diverted to other jurisdictions with lower or nil rates.

The Indian Government has launched Equalisation levy (Google Tax) for all, which states that any person or entity that makes a payment exceeding Rs 1 lakh in a financial year to a non-resident technology company will now need to withhold 6% tax on the gross amount being paid as an equalisation levy. It is expected to adversely affect the start-up ecosystem going forward.

QUESTION: 86

The Wildlife board has finally cleared the Ken-Betwa project. Consider the following statements regarding Ken- Betwa project:

1) This project will benefit the state of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar in terms of meeting their irrigation, drinking water and electricity needs.
2) The project requires diversion of forest land of Valmiki Tiger Reserve hence it was required to be formally cleared by the wildlife board.

Choose the correct statements code:

Solution:

The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has given its much-awaited clearance to Ken- Betwa project which will benefit six districts of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh in terms of meeting their irrigation, drinking water and electricity needs.

Since the project requires diversion of forest land of Panna Tiger Reserve, it was required to be formally cleared from the board. The clearance has finally come with certain conditions which include integration of nearby sanctuaries including Rani Durgavati and Ranipur with the Panna Tiger Reserve to compensate for the loss of tiger habitat and complete ban of fresh mining lease in the area.
The board also wants the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) to take care of the landscape plan for the area with the help of the state forest department and Wildlife Institute of India (WII).

QUESTION: 87

Indian Sugar Mills Association (ISMA) has estimated a drop of 7 percent in sugar output in India. Consider the following statements regarding the sugar industry in India:

1) India is world’s second largest sugar producer after Brazil.
2) Maharasthra is the biggest sugar producing Indian State.
3) Indian Sugar Mills Association (ISMA) decides the national sugar prices.

Choose the correct answer:

Solution:

Sugar industry is an important agro based industry that impacts rural livelihoods of many farmers and workers directly employed in sugar mills. India is the second largest producer of sugar in the world after Brazil and is also the largest consumer.
Under the ‘Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)’ for sugarcane, the cane price announced by the Central Government is decided on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) after consulting the State Governments and associations of sugar industry. The pricing may depend on following factors:

• Cost of production of sugarcane
• Return to the growers from alternative crops and the general trend of prices of agricultural commodities
• Availability of sugar to consumers at a fair price
• Price at which sugar produced from sugarcane is sold by sugar producers
• Recovery of sugar from sugarcane

QUESTION: 88

The Supreme Court has refused to lift the ban on jallikattu as pleaded by the State government. Consider the following statements regarding Jallikuttu: 

1) Jallikuttu is a part of Pongal celebration in Tamil Naidu.
2) To protect wildlife and have compassion for living creatures is a DPSP in Indian Constitution.
3) Jallikuttu is a bull taming sport.

Choose the correct answer:

Solution:

Jallikattu is a bull taming event held in Tamil Nadu as a part of Pongal celebrations on Mattu Pongal day. Bulls are bred specifically by people of the village for the event and a temple bull is like the head of all cattle in a village.
After the event, tamed weak bulls are used for domestic activities and agriculture; meanwhile the untamable strong bulls are used for breeding the cows.
According to Article 51A, to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures shall be the Fundamental duty of every citizen of India

QUESTION: 89

Hand-in-Hand is India’s joint military exercise with which country?

Solution:

Recently, the sixth meeting on hand in hand 2016 exercise was held at Pune. The basic objective of the training is enhancing confidence and trust between the two armies which may be called upon to grapple with anti terrorism operations under the UN mandate. The conduct of Joint Military Exercises is also an important step to uphold the values of Peace, Prosperity and Stability in the region.

QUESTION: 90

Recently, National Skill Development Agency has signed a MoU with British Council to Collaborate for Joint Research in Skills Sector. Consider the following statements regarding National Skill Development Agency:

1) National Skill Development Agency is a Statutory Body.
2) National Skill Development Agency is a part of Ministry of Human Resource Development.

Choose the incorrect statements:

Solution:

The National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) is an autonomous body created with the mandate to co-ordinate and harmonizes the skill development activities in the country. It is part of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and registered as a Society under the Society's Registration Act 1860.
The NSDA takes all possible steps to meet skilling targets as envisaged in the 12th Five Year Plan and beyond; Coordinate and harmonize the approach to skill development among various Central Ministries/Departments, State Governments, the NSDC and the private sector; Anchor and operationalize the NSQF to ensure that quality and standards meet sector specific requirements and act as the nodal agency for State Skill Development Missions.

QUESTION: 91

The huge Ken-Betwa river interlinking project still awaits the forest clearances, in this regard consider the following statements regarding the project:

1) Ken-Betwa interlinking is supposed to be destructive for the Panna Tiger Reserve which is situated on the Betwa River.
2) Ken and Betwa rivers are tributaries of Yamuna.
3) Ken-Betwa will be the first river interlinking in India.

Choose the correct statements:

Solution:

The Ken River is one of the major rivers of the Bundelkhand region of central India. Ken and Betwa both are the tributaries of the Yamuna and flows through two states, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. The Panna Tiger Reserve is home to 30 tigers, and the River Ken serves as its lifeline.
A canal will siphon off water from the River Ken to River Betwa and dam across the Ken inside the tiger reserve will submerge a part of Panna's forests, destroying tiger habitat. First linking was completed of rivers Krishna and Godavari.

QUESTION: 92

India has been demanding expansion of UNSC and its inclusion as permanent member in it for a long time now. Which of the following statements regarding India’s position in the United Nations is true?

Solution:

The United Nations Security is composed of 15 Members with five permanent members namely China, France, Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the United States and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.
India was among the founding members of United Nations and has been a member of United Nations Security Council for 7 terms. India is the third largest contributor of troops to United Nations Peacekeeping missions and now India has over 8,500 peacekeepers in the field, more than twice as many as the United Nation’s five big powers combined.

QUESTION: 93

Recently, Chinese ships have opened a new trade route via Gwadar port in Pakistan. Consider the following statements regarding the China–Pakistan Economic Corridor:

1) China–Pakistan Economic Corridor is considered to be an extension of China's ambitious One Belt, One Road initiative.
2) Gwadar is envisaged to be the link for China's to Maritime Silk Road project as it opens in the Persian Gulf.

Choose the correct statements:

Solution:

Gwadar Port is a prominent feature in the China–Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) and is considered to be a crucial link between the ambitious One Belt, One Road and Maritime Silk Road projects. It is a warm-water, deep-sea port situated on the Arabian Sea at Gwadar in Pakistan. China–Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) aims to facilitate trade along a Land route that connects Kashgar and Gwadar, through the construction of a network of highways, railways, and pipelines.

QUESTION: 94

Which of the following statements is true regarding the “Hunar Haat” recently seen in news?

Solution:

Hunar Haat or Skill Haat is aimed at promoting and supporting artisans from Minority communities and providing them domestic as well as international market for display and sell of their products. It is an amazing gathering of artisans from every corner from 26 states and Union Territories of the country. The exhibition is being organized under scheme “USTTAD” (Upgrading the Skills & Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development) of Ministry of Minority Affairs.

QUESTION: 95

According to Government of India, 272 products  have been registered as geographical indications since 2003.Consider the following statements regarding the GI in India:

1) Under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications are covered as an element of intellectual property rights.
2) Geographical Indications are also covered under the WTOs Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) agreement.
3) Basmati Rice was the first product from India to get the GI Tag.

Choose the correct statements:

Solution:

Under Geographical Indication Tag, a product is identified as an item manufactured or produced in a particular region. It enjoys the specific reputation which is attributable to that geographical region. Under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications are covered as an element of intellectual property rights (IPRs). They are also covered under the WTOs Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) agreement.
India’s Geographical Indications of Goods Act has come into force with effect in 2003 and Darjeeling tea became the first GI tagged product in India. The other famous goods which carry GI tag include Basmati rice, Chanderi Fabric, Mysore Silk, Kullu Shawl, Kangra Tea, Thanjavur Paintings, Allahabad Surkha, Farrukhabad Prints, Lucknow Zardozi and Kashmir Walnut Wood Carving.

QUESTION: 96

Recently, Competition Commission of India (CCI) was selected to host International Competition Network (ICN) 2018 Annual Conference. Consider the following statements regarding Competition Commission of India:

1) It is responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002 throughout India 
2) It consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by each state Government.
3) Its objective is to prevent activities that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India.

Choose the correct statements:

Solution:

Competition Commission of India’s goal is to create and sustain fair competition in the economy that will provide a level playing field to the producers. The objectives of the Competition Act, 2002 are sought to be achieved through the Competition Commission of India (CCI), which has been established by the Central Government.
CCI consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government. The Commission is also required to give opinion on competition issues on a reference received from a statutory authority established under any law and to undertake competition advocacy, create public awareness and impart training on competition issues.

QUESTION: 97

The term, “swing states” often seen in news is associated with:

Solution:

A swing state is a state in which no single party has huge estimated support in securing the state's Electoral College votes. In politics of the United States, swing states are states which could rationally be won by either major-party presidential candidate or by the other respective candidate depending on the efforts paid to these states.
Election analytics identifies the states of Colorado, Florida, Iowa, Michigan, Minnesota, Ohio, Nevada, New Hampshire, North Carolina, Pennsylvania, Virginia, and Wisconsin as swing states that have seen consistently close contests.

QUESTION: 98

Recently, World Bank appointed a neutral expert and a court of arbitration under the Indus water treaty to sort matters on Kishenganga and Ratle hydroelectric projects. Consider the following statements regarding these rivers:

1) Kishenganga is a tributary of the river Jhelum.
2) The Ratle project is on the river Chenab.
3) Indus water treaty gives control over the three western rivers that is the Beas, the Ravi and the Sutlej to India.

Choose the correct statements:

Solution:

According to the Indus water treaty control over the three "eastern" rivers that is the Beas, the Ravi and the Sutlej was given to India, while control over the three "western" rivers that is the Indus, the Chenab and the Jhelum is given to Pakistan.
The Indus Waters Treaty is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank in 1960. Kishenganga is a tributary of the river Jhelum and the project is in Bandipora and the Ratle project is on the river Chenab in the Doda district.

QUESTION: 99

Interstate water disputes between states over common rivers are very frequent in India. Which the following river disputes is correctly matched with the states:

1) Krishna Water Disputes between Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
2) Cauvery Water Disputes between Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry.
3) Ravi and Beas Water Disputes Punjab and Haryana.

Choose the correct statements:

Solution:

Interstate water disputes between states over common rivers are very frequent in India.
Some of the common river disputes are as follows:
1. Krishna Water Disputes between Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
2. Godavari Water Disputes between Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa.
3. Narmada Water Disputes between Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
4. Ravi and Beas Water Disputes between Punjab and Haryana.
5. Cauvery Water Disputes between Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry.
6. Vansadhara Water Disputes between Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
7. Mahadayi Water Disputes between Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra

QUESTION: 100

The Court language of the Mughals was 

Solution:

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