UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 8


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 8


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This mock test of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

With reference to Regulating Act, 1773, Consider the following statements :

1. It completely subjected the activities of the East India Company to the supervision of the British Government.
2. It established a board of control.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Board of control was established by Pitt’s India Act, 1784. Regulating Act, 1773 only partially subjected the activities of the East India Company to the supervision of the British Government. The main provisions of the act were the appointment of a governor-general of Fort William in Bengal with supervisory powers over the presidencies of Madras and Bombay. The governor-general had a council of four and was given a casting vote but no veto.

QUESTION: 2

Various events of Buddha’s life are represented by different objects. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?

1. Buddha’s birth : Lotus
2. First Sermon : Wheel
3. Death : Bodhi Tree

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Buddha’s birth which is symbolized by a lotus. Dhammachakraparivartan – This was Buddha giving his first sermon in Deer Park close to Varanasi. This is symbolized by a wheel. Mahaparinirvana – Buddha’s death. This is symbolized by a stupa.

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements :

1. Ghadar revolutionists recognized Lala Hardayal as their leader to organize the revolt in India
2. Ghadar movement remained largely unorganized.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Ghadar revolutionists recognized Rash Behari Bose as their leader to organize the revolt in India.Rash Behari Bose played a crucial role in the Ghadar Revolution, a plan to attack British army from the inside. Lala Hardayal was its leader in San Francisco.

QUESTION: 4

Who among the following were participants in individual satyagrah?

1. J. L. Nehru
2. Mahatma Gandhi
3. Vinobha Bhave
4. Sardar Patel

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 

Solution:

The Individual Satyagraha, launched in 1940 was not targeted to seek independence but to affirm the freedom of right to speech, as India was made a party to the 2nd World war without its consent. Vinobha Bhave, J.l.Nehru and Brahma Dutt were the three individual satyagrahis.

QUESTION: 5

The French failed compared to British in India. This was because of :

1. French company was subjected to excessive government control.
2. French did not possess great naval power like the British
3. French officers were corrupt, while British officers were honest.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

British officers were also corrupt. Infact, some sources mention that they were even more corrupt than French. Thus corruption was not the reason for French failure. Unlike the English East India Company, the French East India Company was a State concern, depending for anything and everything on the home government its freedom of action was very much limited by the charter and the whims and fancies of the rulers.

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements regarding Illbert bill :

1. It was strongly opposed by the Indians.
2. It violated the principle of natural justice.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

It was Rowlatt act that violated the principle of natural justice and thus Indians opposed it. Illbert bill allowed Indian judges to try the cases involving the Europeans. Immediately, the whole European community began an agitation to oppose the bill.

QUESTION: 7

The famous Madhubani paintings have their own unique features. Which among the following are features of Madhubani paintings ?

1. use of natural dyes and pigments
2. three dimensional effect
3. depiction of themes like birth, marriage and festivals.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

It was Mughal paintings that had three dimensional effects. In madhubani paintings, the artists prepared the colors that are used for the paintings. Black color is made by adding soot to cow dung; yellow from combining turmeric (or pollen or lime) with the milk of banyan leaves; blue from indigo; red from the kusam flower juice or red sandalwood; green from the leaves of the wood apple tree; white from rice powder and orange from palasha flowers.

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements about Rig vedic period :

1. there was widespread use of horses
2. agriculture was the predominant economic activity.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Horses were used in Rig vedic age. Infact, the Rig veda itself mentions ashva ( horse ) many times. Pastoral nomadism was the dominant economic activity Rig vedic age. The later Vedic Period commenced with the emergence of agriculture as the principal economic activity. Along with that, a declining trend was experienced as far as the importance of cattle rearing was concerned.

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following was also called “Delhi Chalo” movement ?

Solution:

The demand of the Individual Satyagrahi would be the freedom of speech against the war through an anti-war declaration. If the Government did not arrest the Satyagrahi, he or she would not only repeat it but move into villages and start a march towards Delhi, thus precipitating a movement which came to be known as the “Delhi Chalo Movement”.

QUESTION: 10

With reference to the revolt of 1857, consider the following statements :

1. It was well planned and organised.
2. It failed because of disunity between Hindus and Muslims.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

The 1857 revolt was not properly planned and organised and this was the main reason of its failure. Hindu-Muslim disunity was not there that time. It came only from the late 19th and early 20th century.

QUESTION: 11

If both husband and wife have blood group A, then their child cannot have which of the following blood group?

Solution:

If both parents have blood group A, then their child can have either A or O. AB or B is not possible.

QUESTION: 12

Bio-digester toilets are hailed as a solution to many of our problems. Which of the following about bio-digester toilets is correct?

1. they use aerobic bacteria
2. they require no or very low maintenance
3. they use less water

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Bio-Digester Toilet System is based on anaerobic biodegradation of organic waste by unique microbial consortium. In this system, faecal matter is decomposed to bits and converted into water and little of carbon dioxide &methane gas. It is totally maintenance-free system and does not require any sewerage system.

QUESTION: 13

With reference to free radicals, consider the following statements :

1. they are released as a result of oxidation in body cells
2. they are useful for the body

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Free radicals are released as a result of oxidation in body cells. They are “free” because they are missing a critical molecule, which sends them on a rampage to pair with another molecule. Free radicals often injure the cell, damaging the DNA, which creates the seed for disease.

QUESTION: 14

Which of these increases High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) in he body?

1. coconut oils
2. omega 3 fatty acids
3. trans fats

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) particles are protective particles that have important functions in the body. HDL play a key role in protecting against heart disease via their role in reverse cholesterol transport, or the transport of excess cholesterol out of the body. HDL are also part of the innate immune system due to their ability to bind a number of toxic substances in the blood. Products like coconut oils & omega 3 fatty acids increase HDL. Trans fat is considered by many doctors to be the worst type of fat you can eat. It raises your LDL (“bad”) cholesterol and lowers your HDL (“good”) cholesterol.

QUESTION: 15

Various vitamin deficiency causes different diseases. In this regard which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. niacin : cheliosis
2. thiamine : pellagra
3. retinol : xerophthalmia

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

If you are exhibiting cracks on the outside of your lips, you’re likely experiencing cheliosis, a condition commonly caused by a deficiency of riboflavin, or vitamin B-2. Pellagra is a vitamin deficiency disease most frequently caused by a chronic lack of niacin( vitamin B3 ). Xerophthalmia ( drying of tear glands ) due to primary deficiency of vitamin A ( retinol ) is a common cause of blindness among young children in developing countries.

QUESTION: 16

Consider the following statements about antimicrobial resistance :

1. It is a natural phenomena.
2. Indiscriminate use of antibiotics leads to antimicrobial resistance.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

This antibiotic resistance, also known as antimicrobial resistance or drug resistance, is not a natural phenomena but largely due to the increasing use of antibiotics.

QUESTION: 17

Which of these technologies requires line of sight for communication?

1. bluetooth
2. wi-fi
3. near field communication

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

An example of line of sight communication is the TV remote. Bluetooth & Wi-Fi does not require line of sight. Near Field Communication (NFC) is a set of short-range wireless technologies, typically requiring a distance of 4cm or less to initiate a connection. NFC does not require line of sight. 

QUESTION: 18

Scattering of light explains :

1. blue colour of sky
2. colour of oil fins
3. rainbow

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

If a beam of light illuminates a rough surface, or a cloud of small particles, some of the light is removed from the beam and redistributed in all directions. This angular redistribution is called scattering. Almost all objects scatter light, that means they reflect the light that illuminates them in all directions. Air molecules individually scatter sunlight into all directions. Blue light is scattered much more strongly than longer wavelengths. Thus air above us looks blue from that scattered sunlight. The beautiful colours in soap films and in oil floating on water are due to interference by reflection. A rainbow is an optical and meteorological phenomenon that is caused by reflection, refraction and dispersion of light in water droplets. 

QUESTION: 19

Consider the following statements about difference between Genetically Modified Organisms ( GMOs) & Living modified organisms (LMOs) :

1.GMOs means organisms which are not capable of growing, i.e. are dead.
2. LMOs means organisms which are capable of growing.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

The difference between an LMO and a GMO is that a Living Modified Organism means any biological entity capable of transferring or replicating genetic material, including sterile organisms, viruses and viroids and typically refers to agricultural crops. Genetically Modified Organisms include both LMOs and organisms which are not capable of growing, i.e. are dead. 

QUESTION: 20

Neutrinos are one of the fundamental particles. Which of the following about neutrinos is/are correct?

1. they are chargeless
2. they have no mass
3. they travel nearly at the speed of light

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Neutrinos are subatomic particles produced by the decay of radioactive elements. They are similar to the more familiar electron, with one crucial difference: neutrinos do not carry electric charge Neutrino has non-zero rest mass. Neutrinos travel at almost exactly the speed of light.

QUESTION: 21

With reference to forest ecosystems, consider the following statements :

1. The number pyramid is partly upward.
2. The biomass pyramid is inverted.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Forest ecosystem has a partly upright pyramid of number. This is because the number of producers are lesser in number and support a greater number of herbivores and which in turn support a fewer number of carnivores. Biomass pyramid is Upright in a forest ecosystem because a larger net biomass of producers support a smaller weight of consumers.

QUESTION: 22

Which of the following is a part of the biogeochemical cycle ?

1. soils
2. plants
3. atmosphere
4. oceans

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Biogeochemical cycles are pathways for the transport and transformation of matter within four categorical areas that make up planet Earth (biosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere, and the atmosphere). Biogeochemical cycles are components of the broader cycle that govern the functioning of planet Earth.

QUESTION: 23

In ecological terms, what does the term “standing crop” signify ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Which among these would increase carbon dioxide in the atmosphere ?

1. deforestation
2. burning of firewood
3. automobiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Statement 2 and 3 are clear and require no explanation. However, some would think how deforestation increases carbon dioxide in atmosphere. When the trees are felled, they release the carbon that had been storing, into the atmosphere, which mingles with greenhouse gases from other sources.

QUESTION: 25

The energy flow in an ecosystem is :

1. unidirectional
2. non-cyclic
3. cyclic
4. bidirectional

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

It is to be noted that energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional and non-cyclic, whereas nutrient flow is cyclic. The energy enters the plants (from the sun) through photosynthesis during the making of food. This energy is then passed on from one organism to another in a food chain. Energy given out by the organisms as heat is lost to the environment, it does not return to be used by the plants again. This makes the flow of energy in ecosystem ‘unidirectional’.

QUESTION: 26

Ozone depletion would impact the plant community in several ways. These include :

1. increase in photosynthesis
2. decline in water use efficiency
3. decline in yield of plants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Photosynthesis would decrease as increased UV radiations (due to ozone depletion) would make it difficult for leaves of green plants to exchange gases with the atmosphere. Due to increased temperature consequent upon increased UV radiation, the evaporation rate of surface water will increase and soil moisture would decrease leading to drying of agricultural crops and hence reduced yield.

QUESTION: 27

Which among these is/are a cryogenic indicator of climate change ?

1. ice sheets and ice chores
2. sea level changes
3. lacustrine deposists

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Sea level changes – techtonic indicator ; Lacustrine deposits – geological indicator. Ice cores offer comprehensive records of past changes in polar climate and water cycle, aerosol deposition, natural forcings (including solar and volcanic activity), and global atmospheric composition.

QUESTION: 28

The National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) run by Central Pollution Control Board, monitors which of the following pollutants at all locations ?

1. carbon dioxide
2. sulphur dioxide
3. oxides of nitrogen
4. suspended particulate matter

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The objectives of the N.A.M.P. are to determine status and trends of ambient air quality; to ascertain whether the prescribed ambient air quality standards are violated. Under N.A.M.P., four air pollutants viz ., Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2, Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) and Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM10) have been identified for regular monitoring at all the locations

QUESTION: 29

The ecological processes follow the principle of uniformitarianism. This means :

Solution:

Uniformitarianism is the assumption that the same natural laws and processes that operate in the universe now have always operated in the universe in the past and apply everywhere in the universe

QUESTION: 30

Which among the following are mechanical method of soil conservation ?

1. bunding
2. terracing
3. contour farming
4. stubble mulching

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Stubble Mulching is not a mechanical method, but a crop management technique that helps in soil conservation. The soil conservation measures are mainly of two types: (a) crop management, and (b) providing mechanical protection. Techniques like stubble mulching, in which the roots, stems and leaves are left over in the agricultural fields after harvesting, help to conserve soil.

QUESTION: 31

Many places in India are famous for particular minerals. Which of these pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Zawar : Uranium
2. Khetri : Copper
3. Balaghat : Manganese
4. Jaduguda : Zinc

Solution:

1 and 4 are interchanged. Zawar in Rajasthan is famous for Zinc, whereas Jaduguda in Jharkhand is famous for Uranium.

QUESTION: 32

With reference to layers of ionsphere, consider the following statements :

1. During day time, D layer’s density is less compared to E and F layer.
2. High-frequency radiowaves are reflected from the D layer.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

High-frequency radiowaves are reflected from the E layer. D layer is the lowest of the ionosphere layers, which absorbs the highest amount of harsh x-ray radiation. During the night, there is a minimal amount of ionization taking place. There is a high amount of energy dissipation because of rapid collisions of the ions. During day time all three- D, E and F layer are present, but D layer does not help in communication. This is because its density is greatly reduced. The D layer is normally not dense enough to reflect the radio waves. However, the E layer is, so the VLF signals go through the D layer, bounce off the E layer, and go back down through the D layer to the ground. The signals lose energy as they penetrate through the D layer and hence radios pick up weaker signals from the transmitter during the day.

QUESTION: 33

Albedo is the fraction of solar energy reflected from the Earth back into space. Consider the following :

1. Fresh snow
2. Ocean ice
3. Rivers on high mountains.

Q. The correct order of their Albedo is :

Solution:

Albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of the earth’s surface. Ice, especially with snow on top of it, has a high albedo: most sunlight hitting the surface bounces back towards space.

QUESTION: 34

Which of the following are characteristic feature of Eastern Ghats?

1. structural unity of hills
2. physiographic continuity of hills
3. steep sided, flat topped topography

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

All the above are feature of western ghats. The hill ranges of eastern ghats have no structural or topographic continuity.

QUESTION: 35

The world grasslands are useful for many economic activities like :

1. pastoral farming
2. wheat cultivation
3. safari tourism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Grasslands of the world are famous for wheat cultivation (steppes know as granaries of the world), pastoral farming, safari tourism (savanah in Africa – the big game country). Additional, the downs in New Zealand are also famous for wool.

QUESTION: 36

Consider the following statements about forests soils :

1. they are rich in humus
2. they are deficient in phosphorous and potash

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

The top layers of forest soils are rich in humus.

QUESTION: 37

Western Ghats run through many states in India. Which of the following is not among them?

Solution:

If you answered both (a) and (b), then its time to have a look at the map of India. Western ghats run through six states – Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

QUESTION: 38

Peninsular rivers rarely form meanders. Which of the following could be a reason for it ?

1. hard rock surface of peninsular regions.
2. non-alluvial character of plateau
3. high erosional capacity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Peninsular rivers have lower erosional capacity, but because of hard rock surface in the region and non-alluvial character of plateau, they travel almost straight and thus do not form meanders.

QUESTION: 39

With reference to insolation, consider the following statements :

1. Equator receives less insolation than tropics.
2. At the same latitude the insolation is more over the oceans than over the continents.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Equator receives less insolation than tropic due to heavy cloud cover. Remember insolation is the amount of sunlight received at the surface of earth per unit area. So the clouds obstructs the sunlight and hence equator receives less insolation. Similarly, Oceans are significantly cloudier than continents and hence receive less insolation.

QUESTION: 40

Consider the following towns:

1. Karachi
2. Dhaka
3. Mandalay
4. Jodhpur

Q. Which of the following is the correct order of the towns from north to south ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

Rivers forms many outstanding features throughout their course. In this respect which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. river capture   : middle course
2. meanders       : upper course
3. ox-bow lakes  : lower course

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

River capture (When a river or stream from one drainage system erodes through a land divide and acquires the flow from another drainage system) happens in upper course. Meanders are formed in the middle course.

QUESTION: 42

Cherrapunji and Mawsynram records very high annual rainfall. This is because

Solution:

Both these places are south of the Khasi hills where the monsoon winds gets trapped withing a funnel shaped valley giving copious rainfall

QUESTION: 43

With reference to acidic lava ,consider the following statements :

1. they are viscous and flow slowly
2. they form a flattened lava dome

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Acidic lava are viscous and hence flow slowly. They even solidify before flowing for any significant distance. This results in formation of steep sided cone. Flattened lava dome are formed by basic lava which are very fluid and hence travel great distance before getting solidify.

QUESTION: 44

Corals reefs are generally absent on the western coasts of continents. This is because

Solution:

Coral reefs do not flourish where there are cold currents because of the upwelling of the cold water from depths that cools the warm surface water.

QUESTION: 45

The major hot deserts of the world are located on the western coasts of continents between latitudes 15 and 30 degree North and South. Which among the following are examples of such deserts ?

1. Patagonian desert
2. Gobi desert
3. Atacama desert
4. Great Australian desert

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Gobi desert is a continental desert which must be known to you. Patagonian desert is on eastern part of South America. Rest two – Atacama desert and Great Australian desert are the typical example of west coast desert between latitudes 15 and 30 degree North and South. Other examples are Sahara, Namib, Kalahari, Sonoran, Thar etc.

QUESTION: 46

Some parts of India has littoral and swamp forests. With reference to these forests ,consider the following statements :

1. they can survive in both fresh as well as brackish water
2. important species of such forests are teak, sal, mahua etc

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Statement 1 – they can survive in both fresh as well as brackish water is a peculiar feature of littoral forests. Teak, sal and mahua are well know species of tropical moist deciduous forests. Some examples of littoral species are – sundari, agar, bhendi and keora.

QUESTION: 47

The peninsular plateau is a major physiographic division of India. Which of the following is/are a part of the peninsular plateau ?

1. Kutch peninsula
2. Aravali range
3. Meghalaya plateau

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Please revise the physiographic divisions of India from NCERT or Khullar along with a map. Kutch peninsula is a part of the coastal plains. Aravali hills and Meghalaya plateau (eastward extension of the chotanagpur plateau) are part of the peninsular plateau.

QUESTION: 48

Many areas in Rajasthan and adjoining states have arid and desert soils. Which of the following are correct about such soils ?

1. they have high phosphate content
2. they have high nitrogen content
3. they are poor in organic matter

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Yes desert soils have high phosphate content. They have phosphate content as high as in alluvial soils. Nitrogen and organic matter, as expected are low.

QUESTION: 49

Consider the following statements about doldrums :

1. they are a high pressure region
2. they are a zone of wind divergence

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Doldrums are the region between 5 degree north and south of the equator. They are low pressure zones because of heating and trade winds from both hemisphere converges here. Doldrums, also called equatorial calms, equatorial regions of light ocean currents and winds within the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ), a belt of converging winds and rising air encircling Earth near the Equator. The northeast and southeast trade winds meet there; this meeting causes air uplift and often produces clusters of convective thunderstorms.

QUESTION: 50

Suppose 100 units of radiation is coming from the sun. 35 units gets reflected back to space. 14 units is absorbed by atmosphere. 51 units reaches the earth’s surface. What is the amount of insolation in the above scenario ?

Solution:

The purpose of this question was to make you relearn that – only that part of the sun’s radiation which reaches the earth’s surface is called insolation. While it may look easy to remember it now, students often gets confused in these basic concepts when they read more advanced things.

QUESTION: 51

Consider the following statements about private members :

1. MPs who are not ministers are called private members.
2. Private members can introduce a constitutional amendment bill.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

In Lok Sabha, the last two and a half hours of a sitting on every Friday are generally allotted for transaction of “Private Members’ Business”, i.e., Private Members’ Bills and Private Members’ Resolutions. Every member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member. Private members CAN introduce a constitutional amendment bill.

QUESTION: 52

Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any particular tax?

1. increase it
2. decrease it
3. abolish it

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Parliament can either decrease a tax or abolish it, but cannot increase it. A notable point.

QUESTION: 53

With reference to starred questions, consider the following statements :

1. Starred questions are important and hence answer to them have to be given in written form.
2. Answers to starred questions can be followed by supplementary questions.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon. Only 20 questions can be listed for oral answer on a day.

QUESTION: 54

Indian constitution is a combination of federal and non-federal features. Point out the non-federal features from these:

1. All India Services
2. Flexibility of the constitution
3. Supremacy of constitution
4. Bicameralism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

All India Services increases the power of Centre by allowing them some control over state administration, thus its non-federal. A flexible constitution which can be easily changed by the Centre without state’s consultation, skews power in respect of states and thus in non-federal. The rest two – Supremacy of constitution and Bicameralism are federal features.

QUESTION: 55

Which among the following is an informal device in Indian parliamentary practice?

1. Question hour
2. Zero hour
3. Half-an-hour discussion

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

When a member feels that the answer given to a question is not complete or does not give the desired information, he may be allowed by the Speaker to raise a discussion in the House for half an hour. The procedure is, therefore, termed as ‘Half-an-Hour Discussion’. Zero hour is an informal device, not mentioned in any rules of the Parliament. Question hour, the first hour of a sitting, of course is the most important formal device.

QUESTION: 56

Fundamental Duties (FDs) were added in 1976. Which among these are FDs?

1. to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest
2. to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country
3. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Environment protection is both in FD and DPSP, so often people get confused. The FD related to the environment is ” to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.”

QUESTION: 57

With reference to cut motions, consider the following statements :

1. Cut motions are moved only in Lok Sabha.
2. The speaker decides whether a cut motion is admissible or not.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Cut motion is a power given to the members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand in the financial bill discussed by the government. If a cut motion is adopted by the House and the government does not have the numbers, it is obliged to resign. The Speaker shall decide whether a cut motion is or is not admissible under the rules and may disallow any cut motion when in his opinion it is an abuse of the right of moving cut motions.

QUESTION: 58

Among the following, which is/are a part of Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) ?

1. Gram Nyayalaya
2. Fast Track Courts
3. Lok Adalats

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Alternative Dispute Resolution (“ADR”) refers to any means of settling disputes outside of the courtroom. ADR typically includes early neutral evaluation, negotiation, conciliation, mediation, and arbitration. Fast track courts are not ADR, but special mechanism of the judiciary.

QUESTION: 59

Parliamentary authorization for payments is required for :

1. Public account of India
2. Consolidated fund of India
3. Contingency Fund of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Parliamentary authorization is only required for Consolidated fund of India.

QUESTION: 60

Who among the following participates in the election of Vice-President ?

1. elected MPs
2. nominated MPs
3. elected MLAS
4. nominated MLAs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

All MPs (elected + nominated) participate in VP’s election. MLAs have no role.

QUESTION: 61

The central government has decided to move the following bills in the coming session of parliament. Which of these can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha ?

1. a bill for imposition of fine for spitting on roads as part of Swachha Bharat Abhiyan
2. a bill for limiting the borrowing of money by government to reduced fiscal deficit.
3. a bill for imposition of luxury tax on expensive items

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Basically the question is asking you that which of those are money bill. The definition and details of money bill are given in article 110. Money bill includes – (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money by the Government of India (c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India (d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India; (e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India (g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f). Imposition of fines/penalties are NOT considered money bill. 

QUESTION: 62

Suppose the Lok Sabha has been adjourned by the speaker. Then which of the following would take place

1. all pending notices would lapse.
2. a bill pending in lok sabha lapses.
3. a bill passed by both houses but pending assent by president does not lapse

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Yes, none because adjournment just terminates a sitting. Prorogation terminates a session in which all pending notices gets lapsed. It is in dissolution, (which ends the very life of lok sabha) that certain types of pending bill gets lapsed.

QUESTION: 63

The constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. This can be seen from :

1. rigidity of constitution
2. single citizenship
3. all-India services
4. supremacy of constitution

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

A rigid constitution would be difficult to get amended by the central government alone. it would require the support of states. Thus it is a part of federal feature. Similarly supremacy of the constitution protects the powers of states enhancing the federal feature. The rest two – single citizenship and all-India services are unitary feature as it increases the power of the centre.

QUESTION: 64

The Indian Supreme Court is a court of records. This means :

1. it has power to punish for contempt of court.
2. it can punish for comment on its administrative side.
3. its judgments are recorded for testimony

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Please note that comment on court’s administrative side is not punishable as are any fair and reasonable criticism. Contempt of court – both civil and criminal are punishable. The court’s judgments are recorded for perpetual memory and serve as a legal reference.

QUESTION: 65

With reference to resolutions ,consider the following statements :

1. All resolutions are motion.
2. All resolutions are required to be voted upon.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Resolutions are a type of motion – the substantive motion. A substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. They are required to be voted upon by the house.

QUESTION: 66

Rajya Sabha is inferior to Lok Sabha in many aspects and thus has unequal status with respect to it in many cases. These include

1. approval of ordinances
2. approval of national emergency
3. voting on demand for grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Rajya Sabha has equal power in both – approval of ordinances and approval of national emergency. Its in revocation of emergency that only Lok Sabha’s approval is needed. And ofcourse, only lok sabha had the power to vote on demand for grants, while rajya sabha can only discuss it.

QUESTION: 67

The Indian Parliament is not sovereign. This is because of :

1. institution of CAG as a supreme auditor
2. Judicial review
3. Federal system of government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Statement is arbitrary. An audit institution like CAG has no relation with sovereignty of Parliament. Both judicial review and federal system constrains the power of parliament and thus Indian parliament is not sovereign. Apart from these, written constitution and Fundamental rights also constrains the power of parliament.

QUESTION: 68

With reference to Armed Forces Special powers Act (AFSPA), who among the following can declare an area as ‘disturbed area’?

1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Central Government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

The power to declare an area ‘disturbed’ lies with the Governor or the Central Government, who have to form an opinion that the use of armed forces in the aid of civil power is essential and then notify it as ‘disturbed area’. The declaration of an area as a ‘disturbed area’ is for a limited duration and review of the declaration before the expiry of six months has to be undertaken by the executive. The 1972 amendments to AFSPA extended the power to declare an area disturbed to the Central Government whereas in the 1958 version of AFSPA, only the state Governor had the power.

QUESTION: 69

India has signed the international treaty for prevention of corruption (UNCAC). To implement this treaty throughout the country the Parliament needs the consent of :

Solution:

The parliament can make a law for implementation of an international treaty without the consent of any state. This has been clearly stated in article 253 – Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body.

QUESTION: 70

The centre and states have their own respective sources of revenues. Which of the following is levied by the centre ?

1. professional tax
2. corporation tax
3. excise duty on liquor

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

If you are a working employee, you might have noticed a professional tax in your salary slip, which is levied by the state government. Excise duty of liquor is also levied by state government. And Ofcourse, everyone knows that corporation tax is levied by centre.

QUESTION: 71

A decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) can lead to which among the following ?

1. increase in cash availability of the banks
2. increase in repo rate
3. decrease in SLR

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Under CRR a certain percentage of the total bank deposits has to be kept in the current account with RBI which means banks do not have access to that much amount for any economic activity or commercial activity.
Banks can’t lend the money to corporates or individual borrowers, banks can’t use that money for investment purposes.In short, CRR is the amount in cash which banks have to keep with RBI. Any decrease in CRR will therefore increase cash availability with the banks. Repo rate and SLR would not be affected by changes in CRR. They r separate mechanisms, the rate of which is decided by RBI.

QUESTION: 72

The WTO follows the principle of ‘self selection’. This means :

Solution:

There are no WTO definitions of “developed” or “developing” countries. Developing countries in the WTO are designated on the basis of self-selection although this is not necessarily automatically accepted in all WTO bodies.

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following also acts as a mechanism for government lending.

1. CRR
2. Repo rate
3. Reverse repo rate
4. SLR

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

SLR, statutory liquidity ratio is the amount of money that is invested in certain specified securities predominantly central government and state government securities. Investing in government securities by bank is one way of fulfilling the requirement of SLR. In this way, SLR acts as a lending mechanism to government. Repo rate is a rate at which banks borrow from RBI for short periods up to 7 or 14 days but predominantly overnight.

QUESTION: 74

With reference to foreign portfolio investments (FPI), consider the following statements :

1. FPIs are more volatile than loans from international financial institutions.
2. Foreign Direct Investments are part of FPIs.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

FPI is also called Foreign institutional Investments (FIIs). Because of their volatility they are also called hot money. Loans from international financial institutions are given for a fixed tenure and hence are stable. FDI is not part of FPI, but are accounted separately.

QUESTION: 75

India’s central bank, RBI performs various functions. Which of these are its functions according to the RBI act, 1934.

1. managing inflation
2. acting as banker’s bank
3. managing India’s Forex
4. handling government’s borrowing program

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

RBI’s functions – acting as banker’s bank, managing India’s Forex and handling govt’s borrowing programme
These three are well defined, no confusion over this.
Now let’s read more on inflation management by RBI . Before march 2015, the Reserve Bank was not formally an inflation targeting central bank. The defining features of an inflation targeting central bank are a precise mandate, a single instrument (the policy interest rate) in its armoury, a single minded devotion to achieving this target and a principal-agent relationship with the Government.
So, even though RBI was informally helping manage inflation, it was not it’s function as defined by the RBI Acvt, 1934
However, in March 2015 it was formally decided that from now, RBI will have the official mandate to manage inflation.
For this the RBI Act, 1934 will be amended. The amendment has yet not happened, because passing legislation takes some time. But it has been now fully agreed that such an amendment will be made.

QUESTION: 76

Which among the following can result in ‘demand pull inflation’?

1. Increase in subsidy on LPG
2. Increase in fuel prices
3. Decrease in income tax rates

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Increase in subsidy of LPG will reduce the pocket expenditure of people on LPG, making more money available with them, thereby increasing demand and pulling inflation. Similar will be the effect of decrease of income tax rates – more money availability. Increase in fuel prices will lead to cost-push inflation.

QUESTION: 77

The term ‘narrow banking’ is best described as :

Solution:

A ‘Narrow Bank’ can be defined as the system of banking under which a bank places its funds in risk-free assets with maturity period matching its liability maturity profile, so that there is no problem relating to asset liability mismatch and the quality of assets remains intact without leading to emergence of sub-standard assets.

QUESTION: 78

If indirect taxes in an economy are increased, then which of the following can occur ?

1. GDP at factor cost increases
2. GDP at factor cost decreases
3. GDP at market price increases
4. GDP at market price decreases

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

GDP (market price) = GDP ( factor cost) + indirect taxes – subisdies. This equation makes it clear that any increase in indirect taxes will increase the GDP at market prices.

QUESTION: 79

Equity market instruments help in financing a firm. Which of these is/are equity market instruments ?

1. Bonds
2. Shares
3. Debentures

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Shares are equity instruments, while bonds and debentures are debt instruments. Debt instruments are assets that require a fixed payment to the holder, usually with interest. Examples of debt instruments include bonds (government or corporate), debentures and mortgages. Equity financing allows a company to acquire funds (often for investment) without incurring debt, eg shares.

QUESTION: 80

An economy pursuing an expansionary fiscal policy can witness :

1. increase in fiscal deficit
2. increase in wages of labour
3. increase in rate of income tax

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Expansionary fiscal policy is a macroeconomic policy that seeks to expand the money supply to encourage economic growth or combat inflation (price increases). One form of expansionary policy is fiscal policy, which comes in the form of tax cuts, rebates and increased government spending. Expansionary policies can also come from central banks, which focus on increasing the money supply in the economy. Such a fiscal policy will increase the expenditure, thereby increasing fiscal deficit. Increase in wages of labour is unrelated. There can be a decrease (not increase) in income tax rates, so statement 3 is false

QUESTION: 81

With reference to Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) ,consider the following statements :

1. It is applicable in both urban and rural areas.
2. Eradication of unemployment is one of its objectives.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

In 2013, the RBI extended lead bank scheme to urban areas to improve inclusion. Eradication of unemployment and under employment; appreciable rise in the standard of living for the poorest of the poor; and provision of some of the basic needs of the people who belong to poor sections of the society are its objectives.

QUESTION: 82

Trace elements perform important functions in the human body. In this respect which of the following are correctly matched ?

1. calcium : blood clotting
2. sodium : synthesis of enzymes
3. zinc : maintains fluid balance

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Calcium and Magnesium helps in blood clotting. 2 and 3 are interchanged. Sodium maintains fluid balance while zinc helps in synthesis of enzymes.

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following physiographic regions of India :

1. Himalayas
2. Great Plains
3. Peninsular region

Q. Which of the following represent the correct order of their formation.

Solution:

Peninsular region is the oldest among the three. When the Indian Plate collided with the Asian plate, Himalayas were formed. The rivers (like Ganga) were there before the Himalayas. They flowed over the Himalayas and eroded it to form the great plains.

QUESTION: 84

The Consumer Protect Act, 1986 enshrines many consumer rights. These include :

1. Right to be heard
2. Right to seek redressal
3. Right to consumer education

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

CPA,1986 enshrines all the consumers rights which are internationally accepted. These include – Right to Safety; Right to information; Right to Choose; Right to be heard; Right to Seek Redressal; and Right to Consumer Education.

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following indexes are released by Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) ?

1. Consumer Price Index (CPI)
2. Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
3. Index of Industrial Production (IIP)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

CPI and WPI are released by CSO, while WPI is released by office of economic adviser, Ministry of industry and commerce.

QUESTION: 86

‘Fast Power’ has become significant in the context of Indian Diplomacy. ‘Fast Power’ proposes that :

Solution:

This question was given because of India’s increased and quick diplomatic engagements under the new government. John Chipman had suggested, on more recent evidence, that a nation state’s ability to influence developments in an increasingly complex and fast-changing world, other things being equal, is determined by the “speed” of its diplomacy. Fast power can help nations, big and small, find their way through or adapt to complex and rapidly changing strategic environments.

QUESTION: 87

Which of these are considered corporate social responsibility (CSR) activities under the new Companies law ?

1. contribution to state government funds
2. funding of political parties
3. measures to benefit armed forces veterans

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

CSR activities include preventive healthcare, sanitation, providing safe drinking water, protection of national heritage, rural development projects and measures to benefit armed forces veterans. Promoting rural sports, nationally recognized sports, setting up homes and hostels for women, orphans and senior citizens and measures to reduce inequalities are also included. But contributions to state government funds and funding of political parties will NOT be considered CSR activities.

QUESTION: 88

Inner Line Permit is applicable for :

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Nagaland
3. Mizoram
4. Meghalaya

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to allow inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected/restricted area for a limited period. Inner Line Permit is required for Indian citizens to enter Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram. Inner Line Permit is issued under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation.

QUESTION: 89

The Rowlatt Act of 1919 authorized the British government to imprison any person without trial for a maximum period of :

Solution:

The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in 1919. The Act gave enormous powers to the government to repress political activities. It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.

QUESTION: 90

The current account includes which of the following :

1. Goods
2. Services
3. Unilateral Transfers
4. Rupee Debt Service

Solution:

Example of a unilateral transfer would be foreign aid. Rupee Debt Service is a part of Capital account.

QUESTION: 91

Over the past year JAM trinity has thickened, spread and deepened their coverage at an astonishing rate in Indian economy. Here, JAM stands for:

Solution:

Large-scale, technology-enabled, real-time Direct Benefit Transfers can improve the economic lives of India’s poor, and the JAM Trinity—Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile—can help government implement them. Over the past year JAM has thickened and spread: Jan Dhan and Aadhaar deepened their coverage at an astonishing rate—respectively creating 2 and 4 million accounts per week—and several mobile money operators were licensed.

QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements regarding the PAHAL DBTL scheme:

I. The full form of PAHAL Yojana is Pratyaksh Hanstantarit Scheme and concerns the LPG customers.
II. This scheme will reduce or prevent the unauthorised sale of LPG cylinders at higher rates and the purchase of multiple gas connections will be prevented.
III. The PAHAL DBTL scheme considered as the world’s largest cash subsidy under the Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

The PAHAL DBTL ambitious scheme was earlier launched on June 1, 2013 by the previous Government with the objective of giving cash subsidy on cooking gas and it covered 291 districts. The present NDA government has comprehensively examined the PAHAL scheme and after reviewing the problems faced by the consumers, it modified the prior scheme and re-launched it in 54 districts on November 15, 2014 to cover 2.5 crore households. The second phase of this revised scheme started on January 1, 2015 to cover all the districts of the country.

QUESTION: 93

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: 

Code: 
     A       B        C       D

Solution:

The Rainbow Revolution means the various colour of indicate various farm practices such as Green Revolution (Foodgrains), White Revolution (Milk), Yellow Revolution (Oil seeds), Blue Revolution (Fisheries); Golden Revolution (Fruits); Silver Revolution (Eggs), Round Revolution (Potato), Pink Revolution (Meat), Grey Revolution (Fertilizers) and so on. Thus, the concept of Rainbow revolution is an integrated development of crop cultivation, horticulture, forestry, fishery, poultry, animal husbandry and food processing industry.

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements regarding the production of pulses in India:

I. India happens to be the major producer and consumer of pulses, which is one of the major sources of protein for the population.
II. India has low yields comparable to most countries such as on an average; countries like Brazil, Nigeria, and Myanmar have higher yields
III. It is said that if all states were to attain even Bihar’s level of productivity, pulses production would increase by an estimated 41 per cent on aggregate.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

India happens to be the major producer and consumer of pulses, which is one of the major sources of protein for the population. India has low yields comparable to most countries. On an average, countries like Brazil, Nigeria, and Myanmar have higher yields. Some states do much better than the all-India average, but even the key pulse producing state of Madhya Pradesh has yields (938 kg/ha) barely three-fifths that of China’s (1550 kg/ha).

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following schemes has been dedicated for irrigation purpose?

Solution:

The ongoing irrigation schemes are: the Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP), Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) and On Farm Water Management (OFWM) – into the Prime Minister’s Krishi Sinchayi Yojana (PMKSY) offers the possibility of convergence of investments in irrigation, from water source to distribution and end-use.

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following is not considered as the water intensive crop in India?

Solution:

The water intensive crops are those which requires huge amount of water during irrigation and such water intensive crops India usually exports.

QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements regarding drip irrigation system:

I. In drip irrigation for example, perforated pipes are placed either above or slightly below ground and drip water on the roots and stems of plants, directing water more precisely to crops that need it.

II. An efficient drip irrigation system reduces consumption of fertiliser (through fertigation) and water lost to evaporation, and higher yields than traditional flood irrigation.


III. Fertigation is the process of introducing fertiliser directly into the crop’s irrigation system.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

To increase productivity while conserving water (more for less), the farmers should adopt micro irrigation methods. In drip irrigation for example, perforated pipes are placed either above or slightly below ground and drip water on the roots and stems of plants, directing water more precisely to crops that need it. An efficient drip irrigation system reduces consumption of fertiliser (through fertigation) and water lost to evaporation, and higher yields than traditional flood irrigation.

QUESTION: 98

Consider the following statements regarding the Minimum Support Price policy:

I. The crop prices are guaranteed by the government through the MSP but while the government announces MSP for 23 crops, effective MSP-linked procurement occurs mainly for wheat, rice and cotton.

II. The policy of MSP exists for most farmers for most crops; its realistic impact is quite limited for most farmers in the country.

III. Public procurement at MSP has disproportionately focused on wheat, rice and sugarcane and perhaps even at the expense of other crops such as pulses and oilseeds.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

The policy of MSP exists for most farmers for most crops; its realistic impact is quite limited for most farmers in the country. This has resulted in buffer stocks of paddy and wheat to be above the required norms, but also caused frequent price spikes in pulses and edible oils, despite substantial imports of these commodities.

QUESTION: 99

Consider the following sentence regarding the system of “Price Deficiency Payment”:

I. Under this system if the price in an Agriculture Produce Market Committee (APMC) mandi fell below the MSP then the farmer would be entitled to a maximum of, say, 50 per cent of the difference between the MSP and the market price.
II. The subsidy could be paid to the farmer via Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT).
III. Such a system would keep the quantum of the subsidy bill in check and also be consistent with India’s obligations to the WTO.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Solution:

Emphasising on need for remunerative prices for farmers, the NITI Aayog has suggested adopting the system of "price deficiency payment".  Under this system if the price in an Agriculture Produce Market Committee (APMC) mandi fell below the MSP then the farmer would be entitled to a maximum of, say, 50 per cent of the difference between the MSP and the market price.

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following is not among the institutions for agricultural research in India?

Solution:

Addressing India’s multiple challenges in agriculture will require significant upgradation of country’s national agriculture research and extension systems. India’s National Agricultural Research System (NARS) (comprising the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), other central research institutes, and national research centres set up by ICAR), together with agriculture research universities played a key role in the Green revolution. In more recent years, however, agriculture research has been plagued by severe under investment and neglect. RIRI is an index was created by the department of economic affairs for the purpose of exposition in the economic survey. The index postulates that international rating agencies don't assign ratings the way that a rational investor would.

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