UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2017: Paper 1 (GS)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2017: Paper 1 (GS)


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QUESTION: 1

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Members of parliament other than ministers are called private members and bills presented by them are known as private member’s bills.
• Any MP can introduce a bill in parliament. Private member bills are bills introduced in parliament by MPs who are not ministers.
• Only 14 private members’ bills passed since Independence. The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014, passed by the Rajya Sabha on Friday is the first private member’s bill to get the upper house’s approval in the past 45 years.

QUESTION: 2

With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Indus people were basically peace loving. Their arms (swords, daggers, arrow-heads, and spears) were primitive in nature. No evidence of armour, helmet, body armour or shield is available. The Aryans, on the contrary, were warlike people and were conversant with all kinds of traditional arms and armour and had devised a full-fledged ‘science of war’.
• The horse, which played a decisive role in the Aryan system of warfare, was not known to the Indus people. A few bones of horse and terracotta figure of a ‘horse-like animal’ have been unearthed from Surkotada (Gujarat) and still it has not been convincingly proved that the horse was employed by the HarappAnswer:
• The Indus valley people knew the use of copper, bronze, silver, gold but not iron.

QUESTION: 3

Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to:

Solution:

The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) is an assessment of the skills acquired by the individual through experience, observation and selflearning. The assessment, which is followed by a certification, gives an edge to an otherwise informal worker. It provides the employee with the confidence, social recognition and empowerment that are necessary to negotiate his future employment. Following successful assessment, a candidate is given a financial reward, in addition to certification.

QUESTION: 4

From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

Solution:

Sathyamangalam forest range is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats Located in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu, the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is the largest wildlife sanctuary in the state. With a forest area of 1,411.6 square kilometres, the reserve is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and lies between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats. Situated in a key position between the Western and Eastern Ghats, the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve boasts of a wide variety of fauna.
The reserve also adjoins four other protected areas --Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National Park.

QUESTION: 5

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

Solution:

The term ‘equality’ means the absence of special privileges to any section of the society, and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination.

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

TRAFFIC has an enviable reputation as a reliable and impartial organisation, a leader in the field of conservation as it relates to wildlife trade. TRAFFIC was established in 1976 and has developed into a global network, research-driven and action-oriented, committed to delivering innovative and practical conservation solutions based on the latest information.
TRAFFIC also works in close co-operation with the Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
TRAFFIC, the wildlife trade monitoring network, works to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

QUESTION: 7

Which principle among the 'following was added to the Directive Principles of Stat Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

Solution:

42nd amendment act added participation of workers in the management of industries. New directives was added by new articles 39A, 43A, 48A which, respectively, provide for equal justice and free legal aid to economically backward classes, participation of workers in the management of industries, and protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.

QUESTION: 8

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

Rights are claims of citizen of India against the states. They prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country, and protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the State. They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. In short, they aim at establishing ‘a government of laws and not of men’.

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following gives 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world?

Solution:

Global Gender Gap Index is released by World Economic Forum. As per the Global Gender Gap Report 2016, India ranks at 87th in respect of Global Gender Gap Index (GGI) among 144 countries of the World. As per the GGR, India climbed 21 spots to rank 87th in 2016, which is an improvement from being ranked at 108th in 2015.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

Smart India Hackathon 2017 was a 36 hrs non-stop digital product development competition during which teams of thousands of technology students built innovative digital solutions for the problems posted by 29 different central govt. ministries/ departments e.g. Ministry of Railways, External Affairs, Ministry of Defense, ISRO, Ministry of Tourism, Dept. of Atomic Energy, etc.
Smart India Hackathon 2017, has been launched to build Digital India and to engage the youth directly with nation building. For the first time, govt. departments were directly engaging with students and challenging them to build digital solutions to improve their efficiency, plug revenue leakages and corruption.

QUESTION: 11

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016, to provide for a statutory and institutionalised framework for a Monetary Policy Committee it would be entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the specified target level. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
As per the provisions of the RBI Act, out of the six Members of Monetary Policy Committee, three Members will be from the RBI and the other three Members of MPC will be appointed by the Central Government. Hence statement 2 is not correct. The Governor of the Bank— ex officio Chairperson of MPC. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

QUESTION: 12

With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Sankirtana encompasses an array of arts performed to mark religious occasions and various stages in the life of the Vaishnava people of the Manipur plains.
Sankirtana practices centre on the temple, where performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through song and dance. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct.
In a typical performance, two drummers and about ten singerdancers perform in a hall or domestic courtyard encircled by seated devotees. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 13

Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?
1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
3. Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

In the British territories in the south there was a similar move away from the idea of Permanent Settlement. The new system that was devised came to be known as the ryotwar (or ryotwari ). It was tried on a small scale by Captain Alexander Reed in some of the areas that were taken over by the Company after the wars with Tipu Sultan. Subsequently developed by Thomas Munro, this system was gradually extended all over south India. Lord Cornwallis was asscoiated with Zamindari/ Permanent Settlement

QUESTION: 14

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Bioremediation is treatment that uses naturally occurring organisms to break down hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic substances. It uses microorganisms to degrade organic contaminants in soil, groundwater, sludge, and solids. The microorganisms break down contaminants by using them as an energy source or cometabolizing them with an energy source. Statement 2 is not correct. Not all contaminants are easily treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. For example, heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed or captured by microorganisms. Statement 3 is correct. Genetic engineering has been used to create organisms designed for specific purposes. For e.g. bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans (the most radioresistant organism known) has been modified to consume and digest toluene and ionic mercury from highly radioactive nuclear waste.

QUESTION: 15

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

Solution:

Trade Disputes Act (TDA), 1929 made compulsory the appointment of Courts of Inquiry and Consultation Boards for settling industrial disputes;
• made illegal the strikes in public utility services like posts, railways, water and electricity, unless each individual worker planning to go on strike gave an advance notice of one month to the administration;
• forbade trade union activity of coercive or purely political nature and even sympathetic strikes.

QUESTION: 16

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

Solution:

In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Directive Principles of state policy cannot act as constraints/limitations on the government because they are not enforceable and they are fundamental to the governance of a country. Fundamental Rights operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature.

QUESTION: 18

The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to

Solution:

The Digital Single Market strategy was adopted by European Union on the 6 May 2015 and includes 16 specific initiatives which aims to open up digital opportunities for people and business and enhance Europe's position as a world leader in the digital economy.

QUESTION: 19

At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

Solution:

Chandipur is located in Balasore district. This beach is unique in the whole world no where on earth you can find a beach where the sea water retreats inside the sea from 1km to 5Km every day and it again comes back to the shore slowly during high tide. This happens twice every day. It is also known as Odisha's Hide and Seek Beach. Bhavnagar has highest tidal range in India.

QUESTION: 20

With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements:
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Q. Which of the statements .given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Salient features of Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)-
- The PBPT Act defines benami transactions, prohibits them and further provides that violation of the PBPT Act is punishable with imprisonment and fine. The PBPT Act prohibits recovery of the property held benami from benamidar by the real owner.
- The definition of a benami transaction has been widened to include a transaction made in a fictitious name; where the owner is not aware or denies knowledge of the ownership of the property or the person providing the consideration for the property is not traceable.
- Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government without payment of compensation.
- An appellate mechanism has been provided under the PBPT Act in the form of Adjudicating Authority and Appellate Tribunal.

QUESTION: 21

Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 and 3 are correct. Butterflies are pollinating insects. They help in pollination of many flowering plants.
Butterflies also act as a lower member of the food chain. A number of animals, including birds and mice feed on butterfly. As populations of butterfly diminish, so will populations of birds and other animals that rely on them as a food source. This loss of the butterfly is the beginning of the “butterfly effect.” Statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 22

It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Algae can be grown using land and water not suitable for plant and food production. The algal biofuel technology includes selection of specific species for production and extraction of valuable co-products. The algaes are bioengineered for achieving advanced photosynthetic efficiencies through continued development of production system. To make the industry commercially viable, researchers have pursued biotech varieties, which could be particularly dangerous if released into nature. Some algae biodiesel proposals involve aquaculture-style operations in open ocean waters, which could have harmful ecological effects, especially if biotech algae is used. Water and nutrient use would also be extreme, making any serious scaling up of algae biofuels quite unsustainable.

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission'?
1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The key objectives of these programmes are as under:
• To create awareness relating to malnutrition amongst pregnant women, lactating mothers, promote healthy lactating practices and importance of balanced nutrition;
• To improve maternal and child under-nutrition in 200 high burdened districts and to prevent and reduce the under-nutrition prevalent among children below 3 years;
• To reduce incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.

QUESTION: 24

Consider the following statements:
1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Narayan Meghaji Lokhande (1848-1897) was a pioneer of the labour movement in India. During Lord Ripon’s time, the first Factories Act was adopted in 1881. Following this act , a Factory Commission was appointed in 1885. There was another Factories Act in 1891, and a Royal Commission on Labor was appointed in 1892. The result of these enactments was the limitation on the factory working hours. This was an answer of the Government to the pathetic conditions of the workers in the factory, wherein, only when a laborer exhausted, new laborer was to take his / her place.

QUESTION: 25

In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Carbon sequestration is the process involved in carbon capture and the long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide. Geological sequestration involves the storage of CO2 underground in depleted oil and gas reservoirs, saline formations or deep, unminable coal beds.

QUESTION: 26

The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to? 

Solution:

The Report of the Butler Committee on the relations between the Indian States and British India . The Committee advise that the Viceroy (instead of the Governor-General in Council) should represent the Crown in all dealings with the States. This proposed change is comparable with the new Imperial arrangement by which the Governor-General of a Dominion is High Commissioner for the Dominion's Protectorates. The Committee sympathize with the fear of the Native Princes that their States might pass without their consent under a new Government in British India responsible to an Indian Legislature, and they plainly express the opinion that no such transference should be made without the consent of the Princes.

QUESTION: 27

The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to:

Solution:

‘Domestic Content Requirement’, recently in news, is related to development of solar power production.
The World Trade Organization had ruled against India's domestic content policy for solar cells and modules; India appealed the ruling in a bid to keep DCR rules in place for government procurement. The case against India was originally filed in 2013, following the announcement of DCR in JNNSM Phase II policy and after India decided to file an antidumping case against the U.S., China, Malaysia and Taiwan.

QUESTION: 28

Consider the following statements:
1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Nuclear Security Summits are an United States-led initiative and are not under the aegis of the United Nations. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) was founded in January 2006 and is an independent group of armscontrol and nonproliferation experts (and not an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency) from both nuclear weapon and non-nuclear weapon states. Its members include nuclear experts from seventeen countries: Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Iran, Japan, Mexico, Norway, Pakistan, South Korea, Russia, South Africa, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

QUESTION: 29

Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

Solution:

NPS (National Pension System) is a defined contribution based Pension Scheme launched by Government of India. Eligibility
- NPS is applicable to all new employees of Central Government service (except Armed Forces) and Central Autonomous Bodies joining Government service on or after 1st January 2004.
- NPS is applicable to all the employees of State Governments, State Autonomous Bodies joining services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments.
- All citizens of India between the age of 18 and 60 years as on the date of submission of his / her application to Point of Presence (POP) / Point of Presence
- Service Provider (POP-SP) can join NPS. Recently, NRIs were also allowed to open National Pension Scheme (NPS) accounts online.

QUESTION: 30

With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct. The Teesta River originates from the Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse) glacier and flows southward through the Sikkim Himalaya. where the Rangpo River joins, and where it forms the border between Sikkim and West Bengal up to Teesta Bazaar. Just before the Teesta Bridge, where the roads from Kalimpong and Darjeeling join, the river is met by its main tributary, the Rangeet River. Hence Statement 2 is correct. It changes course southwards flowing into West Bengal. The river then goes merging up with the Brahmaputra River after it bifurcates the city of Jalpaiguri and flows just touching Cooch Behar district at Mekhliganj and moves to Fulchori in Bangladesh. Thus it does not flow directly into the Bay of Bengal. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following statements:
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Zika virus is primarily transmitted to people through the bite of an infected mosquito from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti in tropical regions. This is the same mosquito that transmits dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever. Although Zika virus is primarily transmitted through mosquitoes, it can also be sexually transmitted as well.

QUESTION: 32

Consider the following statements:
1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

In 2010, a certification from the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has been made mandatory for all types of automotive tyres and tubes.
AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of standards approved by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, an agency of the Government of India. The AGMARK is legally enforced in India by the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act of 1937 (and ammended in 1986).

QUESTION: 33

What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' scheme?
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
NAM promotes uniformity, streamlining of procedures across the integrated markets, removes information asymmetry between buyers and sellers and promotes real time price discovery, based on actual demand and supply, promotes transparency in auction process, and access to a nationwide market for the farmer, with prices commensurate with quality of his produce and online payment and availability of better quality produce and at more reasonable prices to the consumer. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 34

With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements:
1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Union Cabinet approved the National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy in 2016 that will lay the future roadmap for intellectual property in India. This policy shall weave in the strengths of the Government, research and development organizations, educational institutions, corporate entities including MSMEs, start-ups and other stakeholders in the creation of an innovation-conducive environment, which stimulates creativity and innovation across sectors, as also facilitates a stable, transparent and service-oriented IPR administration in the country. The Policy recognizes that India has a well-established TRIPScompliant legislative, administrative and judicial framework to safeguard IPRs, which meets its international obligations while utilizing the flexibilities provided in the international regime to address its developmental concerns. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement. Hence statement 1 is correct.
These objectives are sought to be achieved through detailed action points. The action by different Ministries/ Departments shall be monitored by DIPP which shall be the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 35

According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Gharial (Gravialis gangeticus), Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) and Wild Buffalo (Bubalus bubalis) are all mentioned under Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

QUESTION: 36

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

There is no legislative process provided to enforce the Fundamental duties and they are not correlative to legal duties. Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also nonjusticiable. The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is no legal sanction against their violation.

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following pairs:
1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

The British Indian Association was established on 31 October 1851. The first committee of the association was composed of : Raja Radhakanta Deb – President, Raja Kalikrishna Deb – Vice-President, Debendranath Tagore – secretary, Digambar Mitra – Asst Secretary.
In May 1884, M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana Sabha. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty was an Indian merchant, Indian independence activist and political activist who founded the Madras Native Association.
Indian Association was the first declared Nationalist Organization founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee​ and Anand Mohan Bose in 1876.

QUESTION: 38

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

Solution:

The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, through their Fundamental Rights, enforceable in court of law, in case of violation. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in our Preamble have been taken from the French Revolution (1789–1799).

QUESTION: 39

With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements:
1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), to establish and operate national accreditation structure and 

QUESTION: 40

What is the purpose of setting up of Small 9 Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
1. To supply credit to small business units
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The objectives of setting up of small finance banks will be to further financial inclusion by
(i) provision of savings vehicles, and
(ii) supply of credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and small industries; and other unorganised sector entities, through high technology-low cost operations.

QUESTION: 41

With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)', consider the following statements:
1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure'.
2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The 1st APMCHUD was held in New Delhi, India from 13th-16th December, 2006 on the theme of ‘A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020’. ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’ was the theme of the 6th Asia Pacific Conference on Housing and Urban Development held in December 2016. 2nd APMCHUD was held in Tehran, Islamic Republic of Iran, 3rd in Solo, Republic of Indonesia, 4th in Amman, Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and 5th in Seoul, Republic of Korea.
Further, APMCHUD is a consultative mechanism on the promotion of sustainable development of Housing and Urban Development in the AsiaPacific Region established under the aegis and support of UNHabitat.

QUESTION: 42

Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact 9 that it calls into activity

Solution:

The object of government according to Mill's views, being the attainment of values and virtues in men , their selfdevelopment, it is essential that the government should be of those whose self development is being sought. This is only possible if the people participate in the making and working of their government or the government is truly representative. "Virtue and intelligence should become genuine attributes of character in a citizen.....and then through participation , people at large , would be able to control the rulers by influencing the character and direction of public policy".

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?

Solution:

UPI is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using a smartphone. UPI allows a customer to pay directly from a bank account to different merchants, both online and offline, without the hassle of typing credit card details, IFSC code, or net banking/wallet passwords.

QUESTION: 44

The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', `String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

Solution:

The terms - ‘Event Horizon’ -boundary in space-time, ‘Singularity’ - location in spacetime where the gravitational field of a celestial body becomes infinite, ‘String Theory’ - links together all physical aspects, and ‘Standard Model’- unifying the four fundamental forces, are related to the observations and understanding of the Universe.

QUESTION: 45

With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

All the statements are correct. Genome sequencing is figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome—the order of As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that make up an organism's DNA.
Genome sequencing of wild varieties of plants can be used to identify disease resistance and drought tolerance genes in various plants and develop new varieties of crop plants in lesser time. Genome sequencing of cop plants can be helpful in deciphering and understanding the host-pathogen realationship in crops.

QUESTION: 46

With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequences’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. 3. It can be used to decipher the hostpathogen relationships in crops.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

All the statements are correct. Genome sequencing is figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome—the order of As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that make up an organism's DNA.
Genome sequencing of wild varieties of plants can be used to identify disease resistance and drought tolerance genes in various plants and develop new varieties of crop plants in lesser time. Genome sequencing of cop plants can be helpful in deciphering and understanding the host-pathogen realationship in crops.

QUESTION: 47

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

Solution:

The Parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’model of government, responsible government and cabinet government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. The features of parliamentary government in India are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives; (b) Majority party rule, (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, (d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature, (e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, (f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

QUESTION: 48

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

Solution:

Rights are what we want others to do for us whereas the duties are those acts which we should perform for others. Thus, a right comes with an obligation to show respect for the rights of others. The obligations that accompany rights are in the form of duties.

QUESTION: 49

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

Solution:

In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.

QUESTION: 50

If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

Solution:

Nagaland (Kohima) – Assam – WestBengThe shortest route from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala) passes through the following states: Nagaland-Assam-West BengalOdisha-Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu-Keralaal – Orissa – Andhra Pradesh – Tamilnadu – Kerala (Kottayam)

QUESTION: 51

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no confidence motion, etc.

QUESTION: 52

Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?

Solution:

Motupalli was the chief port of the Kakatiyas and this port was visited by the Venitian traveller, Marco Polo.

QUESTION: 53

With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, in particular least developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing States (SIDS). Under the first pillar, the GCCA+ serves as a platform for dialogue and exchange of experience between the EU and developing countries, focusing on climate policy and bringing renewed attention to the issue of international climate finance. Under the second pillar, the GCCA+ acts as a source of technical and financial support for the world's most climatevulnerable countries, whose populations need climate finance the most.
International organisations – notably the Centre for International Forestry Research (CIFOR), the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), the United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), UN Habitat and the World Bank – are involved in the implementation of some GCCA-funded interventions, and also co-finance some initiatives. Statement 3 is not correct: Through the Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHGP) World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD) work with businesses to develop standards and tools that help companies measure, manage, report and reduce their carbon emissions.

QUESTION: 54

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: Sautrantika and Sammitya were the the sects of Buddhism.
Statement 2 is correct: Sarvastivadins (They who say "All is"), had the view that the constituents of phenomena (dharmas) were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

QUESTION: 55

Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The countries with coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Morocco, Monaco, Montenegro, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia and Turkey. In addition, the Gaza Strip and the British Overseas Territories of Gibraltar and Akrotiri and Dhekelia have coastlines on the sea.
On the Eastern shore, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon and Israel have their coastline on the Mediterranean Sea.

QUESTION: 56

With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is a fund created by the Government of India for enhancing infrastructure financing in the country. Its creation was announced in the Union Budget 2015-16. Governing Council of NIIF is an advisory body - chaired by the Finance Minister. It is not an organ of NITI Aayog. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
The proposed corpus of NIIF is Rs. 40,000 Crores (around USD 6 Billion). Hence statement 2 is also not correct.

QUESTION: 57

The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an

Solution:

The GIF supports Governments in bringing well-structured and bankable infrastructure projects to market. GIF’s project support can cover the spectrum of design, preparation, structuring and transaction implementation activities, drawing on the combined expertise of the GIF’s Technical and Advisory Partners and focusing on structures that are able to attract a wide range of private investors.
Along with the World Bank Group, Canada is co-chair of the GIF’s Governing Council.

QUESTION: 58

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by:

Solution:

Qualifications for election to Lok Sabha:
- must be a citizen of India - not less than 25 years of age
- must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency

QUESTION: 59

Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: In India, the Himalayas are spread over Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Assam, West Bengal, Arunachal Pradesh. Some extensions of Shiwaliks are also present in Punjab and Haryana.
Statement 2 is not correct: Western Ghats are spread over six states, namely- Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu.
Statement 3 is correct: Pulicat, the second largest brackish water lake in India, lies on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Over 40% of it lies in Andhra Pradesh and 60% in Tamil Nadu.

QUESTION: 60

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

Solution:

Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed (i. e., demanded) by aerobic micro organisms to break down organic material present in a given water sample. A highly polluted water will have a high levels of biological oxygen demand (BOD).

QUESTION: 61

With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: UNHabitat is the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future. Its mission is to promote socially and environmentally sustainable human settlements development and the achievement of adequate shelter for all. Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: It partners with a range of organizations in its endevaour. For example, governments, local authorities, NGOs, Trade unions, professionals, Academics and Researchers, Human Solidarity Groups, Indigenous People, Private Sector, Foundations, Financial Institutions.
Statement 3 is correct: In the absence of effective urban planning, the consequences of this rapid urbanization can lead to lack of proper housing and growth of slums, inadequate and outdated infrastructure – be it roads, public transport, water, sanitation, or electricity – escalating poverty and unemployment, safety and crime problems, pollution and health issues. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of a sustainable urbanization.

QUESTION: 62

With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) organizes qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills and aptitude. These levels are defined in terms of learning outcomes which the learner must possess regardless of whether they were acquired through formal, nonformal or informal learning.
It provides for multiple pathways, horizontal as well as vertical, both within vocational education and vocational training and among vocational education, vocational training, general education and technical education, thus linking one level of learning to another higher level. Thus Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 63

In the context of Indian history, the principle of `Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to

Solution:

The Government of India Act of 1919 was enacted to satisfy the people of India to some extent. The salient features of the Act were as follows : (a) Preamble: The Act provided for a Preamble that laid down the basic principles and policies upon which it was based. According to it the policy of the British Parliament was – (i) to provide for the increasing association of Indians in every branch of Indian administration, (ii) to develop self governing institutions with a view to the progressive realisation of responsible government in British India as an integral part of the empire; (iii) accordingly, the Preamble suggested for a decentralised unitary form of government. The Act divided the functions of government in two categories: central and provincial.
The provincial subjects were further subdivided into transferred and reserved. Thus, in the provinces a new form of government, dyarchy, was introduced. Dyarchy means dual set of governments, e.g. accountable and nonaccountable.
In the transferred subjects the Governors were to be assisted by the ministers responsible to the legislature while in the reserved subjects the Governors were to be advised by the councillors who were not accountable to the legislature.

QUESTION: 64

Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Service':
1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

National Career Service (NCS) project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment (India) Government of India as a Mission Mode Project for establishing quick and efficient career related services. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
The main stakeholders for the NCS would include:
- Unemployed candidates seeking jobs - Students seeking career counseling
- Candidates seeking vocational / occupational guidance - Illiterate, under-privileged sections of society, blue-collar workers seeking placements and guidance
- Person with different abilities (PWDs), ex-servicemen, veterans / senior citizens, etc.
- Employers seeking suitable candidates
Thus statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following statements best  describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)', recently seen in the news? 

Solution:

The S4A by RBI envisages determination of the sustainable debt level for a stressed borrower, and bifurcation of the outstanding debt into sustainable debt and equity/quasi-equity instruments which are expected to provide upside to the lenders when the borrower turns around.

QUESTION: 66

Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydro fluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Climate & Clean Air Coalition is the only global effort that unites governments, civil society and private sector, committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate in next few decades by reducing short-lived climate pollutants across sectors. The Coalition's initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs. The governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the United States, along with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), came together to initiate the first effort to treat these pollutants as a collective challenge. The coalition has 53 country partners and 17 International Governmental Organizations and 45 Non governmental organization partners. India is not a partner country however The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI ) is a partner NGO since 2015.

QUESTION: 67

With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino's impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Indian Ocean Dipole is an irregular oscillation of sea-surface temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean.
Statement 2 is correct: an IOD can either aggravate or weaken the impact of El Nino on Indian monsoon. If there is a positive IOD, it can bring good rains to India despite of an El Nino year.

QUESTION: 68

 If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

Solution:

National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary is one of the dedicated sanctuaries for Gharials.

QUESTION: 69

Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The ‘Indian Ocean Naval Symposium’ (IONS) is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues.
There are 35 members - navies of the IONS which have been geographically grouped into the following four sub-regions:- South Asian Littorals, West Asian Littorals, East African Littorals, South East Asian and Australian Littorals.
The inaugural IONS-2008 was held in New Delhi, India on 14 Feb 08. CNS, Indian Navy was designated the Chairman IONS for the period 2008-10.
The theme of the IONS-2008 was “Contemporary Trans-national Challenges – International Maritime Connectivities”.
Thus statement 2 is correct and statement 1 is not correct.

QUESTION: 70

The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at

Solution:

The painting is on the back wall of the interior hall before the shrineantechamber in Cave No. 1 at Ajanta dating back to the late fifth century CE. The Boddhisattva is holding a padma (lotus), has large shoulders, and has three bents in the body creating a movement in the picture space. The modelling is soft. The figure of the Boddhisattva is wearing a big crown in which detailed rendering is visible.

QUESTION: 71

Consider the following pairs:
Traditions -  Communities
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra — Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari — Santhals
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Solution:

Pair 1 is matched correctly: Chalia sahib is the festival of the Sindhis which involves devotees fasting for days.
Pair 2 is not matched correctly: The Nanda Devi Jat is celebrated every year in the Nanda Devi temples spread across Garhwal and Kumaon. The festival commences on the day earmarked for the Devi’s visit to her maiti or parents’ home and culminates with the return to her husband’s home. This tradition is beautifully expressed in the folk songs of Uttarakhand.
Pair 3 is not matched correctly: Pandharpur Wari or Wari (Vari) is an annual pilgrimage to Pandharpur - the seat of the god Vithoba in Maharashtra, in honour of the deity. Palakhiscarrying the paduka (foot prints) of various saints - most notably Dnyaneshwar and Tukaram - from the Warkari sect are taken from their respective shrines to Pandharpur.

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? ‎
‎1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land ‎
‎2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field ‎
‎3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field ‎
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

No-till farming (also called zero tillage or direct drilling) is a way of growing crops or pasture from year to year without disturbing the soil through tillage. No-till is an agricultural technique which increases the amount of water that infiltrates into the soil and increases organic matter retention and cycling of nutrients in the soil.
Gypsum improves the ability of soil to drain and not become waterlogged thus increasing water-use efficiency of crops.

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following statements:
The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card Scheme' aims at
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Launched by the central government in February 2015, the scheme is tailor-made to issue ‘Soil card’ to farmers which will carry crop-wise recommendations of nutrients and fertilizers required for the individual farms. This is aimed to help farmers to improve productivity through judicious use of inputs.
Thus only statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following pairs:
Commonly used / Unwanted or controversial chemicals consumed materials likely to be found in them
1. Lipstic- Lead
2. Soft drinks- Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food- Monosodium glutamate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Lead is a common impurity found in cosmetic lip products, such as lipsticks, and other cosmetics, such as eye shadows, blushes, compact powders, shampoos, and body lotions.
Brominated vegetable oil is a food additive sometimes used to keep citrus flavoring from separating out in some sodas and soft drinks. It's banned as a food additive in Europe and Japan.
MSG, is a glutamate, or salt of glutamic acid, a “non-essential” amino acid. It is a neurotransmitter - transporting messages from one nerve cell to another. Because it is said to enhance flavours, some scientists believe it “excites nerve endings” and exhibits “neuro-excitatory properties”, that is the ability to stimulate neurons. It is commonly used in chinese fast food.

QUESTION: 75

Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?
1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

All the three statements are correct with regard to OLED and they are the disadvatages of LCDs.
Flexible Organic Light Emitting Diodes (FOLED) fabricated on flexible plastic substates can be bent or rolled while operating.
The manufacturing process of OLEDs is different to those of LCD technology. OLEDs can be printed onto almost any substrate with inkjet printer technology. That is why new applications like displays embedded in clothes or roll-up displays are possible.
LCD technology engages a backlight, whereas OLED has no backlighting function. Hence it can be used for making transparent displays.

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?
1. Arasavalli
2. Amarakantak
3. Omkareshwar
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

The Sun Temple is situated in Arasavalli Village in Andhra Pradesh. Sun temples are not located in Amarkantak and Omkareshwar.

QUESTION: 77

Consider the following statements:
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct. In election for lok sabha and state assembly, the first past the post system is followed where a candidate who polls more votes than any other candidate is elected. Statement 2 is incorrect. As per the constitution, the speaker and deputy speaker in lok sabha are elected among its members.

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Solution:

The post-reform period shows the gradual decline in the agriculture sector’s contribution to the Indian economy. India’s traditional occupation, agriculture now contributes only about 15% to the GDP, down from 29 percent in 1991.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Share of India's exports increased since 1991.
Hence, statement 2 is correct. Before 1991, foreign investment was negligible. The first year of reform saw a total foreign investment of only $74 million. However, investments have steadily risen since then, except for occasional blips between 1997 and 2000 and 2008 and 2012 – owing to the global economic slowdown. As of 31 March 2016, the country has received total FDI of $371 billion, since 1991. The year 2008 recorded the highest FDI inflow of $43.40 billion. The biggest spurt in inflow was between 2005 and 2006 – 175.54%. As of March 2016, India has attracted $10.55 billion worth of FDI.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
It was India’s dismal state of forex reserves that forced the government to bring in economic reforms. Now, 25 years later, forex reserves are at a record high. In 1991, it stood at just $5.8 billion. As of 24 June, the country’s forex reserves are at $360.8 billion. Usually, import coverage of 7-8 months is considered sufficient. The biggest jump in reserves was witnessed between 2007 and 2008 when the kitty bulged 55% to hit $309.2 billion. Hence, sttement 4 is correct.

QUESTION: 79

What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?

Solution:

Somatic-cell nuclear transfer involves removing the nucleus, which contains the DNA, and implanting it into an unfertilised egg, whose nucleus has been removed. It is used in reproductive cloning of organisms.

QUESTION: 80

Consider the following statements:
1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

(NPCI) is an umbrella organization for all retail payments system in India. It was set up with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
The core objective was to consolidate and integrate the multiple systems with varying service levels into nation-wide uniform and standard business process for all retail payment systems. The other objective was to facilitate an affordable payment mechanism to benefit the common man across the country and help financial inclusion. Thus statement 1 is correct.
It offers many products and services which include RuPay card, BHIM app, Unified payment interface among others. Thus statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 81

The term M-STrIPES' is sometimes seen in V the news in the context of:

Solution:

Monitoring System for Tigers’-Intensive Protection and Ecological Status is a software monitoring system launched by the Indian Government in 2010 in some tiger reserves to reduce vulnerability of Tigers. The system would enable field managers to assist intensity and spatial coverage of patrols in a geographic information system (GIS) domain.

QUESTION: 82

What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)'?
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

GST is one indirect tax for the whole nation, which will make India one unified common market.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
There is no information which says GST will drastically reduce the CAD of india. Neither it is true that it will enable India to take over China.
Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

QUESTION: 83

'Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and: 

Solution:

The FTA talks with EU have been deadlocked since 2013 after 16 rounds of negotiations. Last year EU raised its concern over what it called India’s “unilateral termination” of existing Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) with “a significant number of” EUmember countries.

QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements:
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The TFA is the WTO’s first-ever multilateral accord that aims to simplify customs regulations for the cross-border movement of goods. It was outcome of WTO’s 9th Bali (Indonesia) ministerial package of 2013. India ratified it in April 2016. It came into force in February 2017. Thus statement 3 is not correct.

QUESTION: 85

What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? 

Solution:

India and Iran signed a series of agreements that allowed New Delhi to use the port of Chabahar to access Central Asia and Afghanistan without depending upon Pakistan.

QUESTION: 86

In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team shall serve as the national agency for performing the following functions in the area of cyber security,– (a) collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents; (b) forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents; (c) emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents; (d) coordination of cyber incidents response activities; (e) issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes and white papers relating to information security practices, procedures, prevention, response and reporting of cyber incidents; (f) such other functions relating to cyber security as may be prescribed.
Any service provider, intermediaries, data centres, body corporate or person who fails to provide the information called for or comply with the above section shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees or with both.

QUESTION: 87

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a:

Solution:

According to Supreme Court judgment Jyoti Basu vs Debi Ghosal - A right to elect, fundamental though it is to democracy, is, anomalously neither a fundamental right nor a Common Law Right. It is a statutory right. So is the right to be elected, and the right to dispute an election.
***NOTE - As per NCERT One of the important decisions of the framers of the Indian Constitution was to guarantee every adult citizen in India, the right to vote i.e. universal adult franchise. The article 326 of the Constitution provides for the right to vote and to be elected in India. What is true of the right to vote is also true of right to contest election. All citizens have the right to stand for election and become the representative of the people.

QUESTION: 88

What is the purpose of 'evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' project? 

Solution:

eLISA is a spectacular plan of setting into space three spacecraft, a mother and two daughter spacecraft, which will fly in a triangular formation, trailing the earth in its orbit around the sun at a distance of over 50 million km. Laser interferometers will accurately measure changes in the distance between these cubes. If they should be affected by a gravitational wave, the minute changes in this distance are measure by the interferometer.

QUESTION: 89

What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana'?
1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Solution:

The Ministry of HRD recently launched the Vidyanjali scheme aimed at boosting the education system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools.
It will not replace the regular and professionally qualified teachers in the government schools.
The volunteer's responsibility is towards overall development of the child, not academics.
The volunteer service will be used in developing skills like public speaking, creative writing, counseling, music and dance.

QUESTION: 90

What is the aim of the programme `Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'?

Solution:

With a view to uplift rural India, the Unnat Bharat Abhiyan programme is launched in collaboration with the Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) and the National Institutes of Technology (NITs) across the country.
The programme aims to connect institutions of higher education, including Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), National Institutes of Technology (NITs) and Indian Institutes of Science Education & Research (IISERs) etc. with local communities to address the development challenges through appropriate technologies.

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Only statement 3 is correct. Election Commission of India is a 3 member body and it is the election commission which decides the election schedule for both general elections and byeelections.
It is also the function of election commission to resolve the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

QUESTION: 92

In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? 

Solution:

The Act provides for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants; and for matters connected therewith or ancillary or incidental thereto. It extends to the whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir which has its own wildlife act. It has six schedules which give varying degrees of protection. Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide absolute protection -offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties. Species listed in Schedule III and Schedule IV are also protected, but the penalties are much lower. Schedule V includes the animals which may be hunted.

QUESTION: 93

In India, Judicial Review implies

Solution:

Judicial review is the power of judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments. On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra-vires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and viod). Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the government. The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in a high court or supreme court on the following three grounds: (a) it infringes the fundamental rights (Part III), (b) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and (c) it is repugant to the constitutional provisions.

QUESTION: 94

With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events :
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?

Solution:

Second Round Table Conference took place on 7th September 1931. 
The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement was a Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Gandhi JI on 8th August 1942.
Royal Indian Navy (RIN) mutiny was a rebellion launched on
February 18, 1946, by seamen on the HMIS Talwar. Hence correct chronological sequence of the above events are 3-2-1

QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements :
1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solution:

Service tax, personal income tax and corporation tax have been reduced in the recent past to boost aggregate demand, so as to protect the economy from global recession.
Excise duty rates have been reduced in the recent past to boost aggregate demand, so as to protect the economy from global recession hence tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily not increase in the last decade . Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has not steadily increased in the last decade. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 96

Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites ?

Solution:

An environment ministry’s expert committee approved Kuno Palpur in Madhya Pradesh as the second home for Asiatic lions found only in Gir national park. However, the Gujarat government will not share lions unless 33 studies as mandated by international wildlife watchdog IUCN is completed

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. This is the reason why a proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in a state. Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly.The Parliament passes the state legislative bills and the state budget. The President's Rule doesnot lead to dissolution of local bodies.
Hence, the answer is 1 and 3 only.

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION 
includes Article 23 & 24 of the Indian Constitution.
Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons.
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar ?

Solution:

Great Nicobar is the southernmost and largest of the Nicobar Islands of India, north of Sumatra. The island of Sumatra is located 180 km (110 mi) to the south of Great Nicobar.

QUESTION: 100

Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

Solution:

The Parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. The features of parliamentary government in India are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives; (b) Majority party rule, (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, (d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature, (e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, (f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).