Courses

VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6

125 Questions MCQ Test VITEEE: Subject Wise and Full Length MOCK Tests | VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6

Description

This mock test of VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6 for JEE helps you for every JEE entrance exam. This contains 125 Multiple Choice Questions for JEE VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. JEE students definitely take this VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6 extra questions, long questions & short questions for JEE on EduRev as well by searching above.

QUESTION: 1

The argument of complex number [(13-5i)/(4-9i)] is

A.
π/3
B.
π/4
C.
π/5
D.
π/6

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

Maximum slope of the curve y = -x³ + 3x² + 9x − 27 is

A.
0
B.
12
C.
16
D.
32

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

The area bounded by the parabola x = 4 − y² and the y-axis, in square units is

A.
3/32
B.
32/3
C.
33/2
D.
16/3

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

The value of (1 + ω²+2ω)³ⁿ - (1+ω+2ω²)³ⁿ is

A.
Zero
B.
1
C.
ω
D.
ω²

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

The area bounded by the curve y=xsinx and x-axis between x=0 and x=2π is

A.
0 sq.unit
B.
2π sq.unit
C.
π sq.unit
D.
4π sq.unit

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

for x ≠ 1 and if f is continuous at x = 1 then f(1) =

A.
0
B.
1
C.
e
D.
1 e

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

If x dy = y(dx + y dy), y > 0 and y (1) = 1, then y (-3) is equal to

A.
1
B.
3
C.
5
D.
-1

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

The solution of the differential equation 2xy(dy/dx) = x²+3y² is (where c is a constant)

A.
x³+y²= px²
B.
(x²/2) + (y²/2) = y²+ p
C.
x²+ y³=px²
D.
x²+y²=px²

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

The solution of the equation (1+x²)(1+y)dy+(1+x)(1+y²)dx=0 is

A.
tan^-1x + log(1+x²) + tan^-1y + log(1+y²)=c
B.
tan^-1x(1/2)log(1+x²) + tan^-y-(1/2)log(1+y²)=c
C.
tan^-1x+(1/2)log(1+x²) + tan^-1y+(1/2)log(1+y²)=c
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

A.
- 2abc
B.
abc
C.
0
D.
a² + b² + c²

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

A.
1
B.
2
C.
4
D.
8

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

A.
2
B.
0
C.
-2
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

Integrating factor of dy/dx + y/x = x³-3 is

A.
x
B.
log x
C.
-x
D.
e

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

If y = sin^-1 [(1 - x²)/(1 + x²)], then (dy/dx) =

A.
-2/(1 + x²)
B.
2/(1 + x²)
C.
1/(2 + x²)
D.
2/(2 - x²)

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

f : R → R is a function defined by f(x) = 10 x − 7. If g = f ^-1 then g(x) =

A.
1/10 x − 7
B.
1/10 x + 7
C.
(x + 7)/10
D.
(x - 7)/10

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

If ∫[(1)/(1+sinx)] dx = tan((x/2)+(a)) + b, then

A.
a=π/4, b=3
B.
a=-(π/4), b=3
C.
a=π/4, b=c
D.
a=-(π/4), b=c

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

A.
-[(1)/(2log5)]
B.
-2log5
C.
(2/log5)
D.
-(2/log5)

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

If tan^-1x - tan^-1y = tan^-1A, then A=

A.
x-y
B.
x+y
C.
[(x-y)/(1+xy)]
D.
[(x+y)/(1-xy)]

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

A.
1
B.
- 1
C.
- 1/2
D.
1/2

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

A.
0
B.
1
C.
e
D.
1/e

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

∼ [ p ↔ q ] is

A.
Tautology
B.
Contradiction
C.
neither (A) nor (B)
D.
either (A) or (B)

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

The inverse of

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following statement is false?

A.
Every skew symmetric matrix of odd order is non-singular
B.
If the determinant of a square matrix is non zero, then matrix is non-singular
C.
The adjoint symmetric matrix of symmetric matrix is symmetric
D.
The adjoint matrix of a diagonal matrix is diagonal

Solution:

The determinant of skew-symmetric matrix of odd order is always zero
Therefore the inverse of skew-symmetric matrix does not exist

QUESTION: 24

How many numbers between 3000 and 4000 divisible by 5 can be formed from the digits 3,4,5,6,7,8 if repetition of any digit is not allowed?

A.
60
B.
12
C.
120
D.
24

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a heart or diamond is

A.
1/26
B.
1/2
C.
3/13
D.
1

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

Each coefficients in the equation ax²+bx+c=0 is determined by throwing an ordinary die. The probability that the equation will have equal roots is

A.
5/216
B.
7/216
C.
9/216
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

Two persons A and B takes turn in throwing a pair of dice. The first person to through 9 from both dice will be avoided the prize. If A throws first, then the probability that B wins the game is

A.
9/17
B.
8/17
C.
8/9
D.
1/9

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

If the side of a triangle are 13, 14, 15, then the radius of the incircle is

A.
65/8
B.
65/4
C.
4
D.
24

Solution:

QUESTION: 29

The number of terms of the A.P. 3, 7, 11, 15,...to be taken so that the sum is 406 is

A.
5
B.
10
C.
12
D.
14

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

The Quartile Deviation of the daily wages (in Rs) of 7 persons given below :
12, 7, 15, 10, 17, 19, 25 is

A.
14.5
B.
5
C.
9
D.
4.5

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

If the roots of 5x² + 13x + k = 0 are reciprocal of each other, then the value of k is____

A.
4
B.
6
C.
5
D.
1/6

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

The standard deviation of 25 numbers is 40. If each of the numbers is increased by 5, then the new standard deviation will be

A.
40
B.
45
C.
40 + 21/25
D.
none of these

Solution:

If each item of a data is increased (or decreased) by the same quantity, the standard deviation (and the variance) is not changed.

QUESTION: 33

If α,β are the roots of the equation x²- 2x + 4 = 0 then α⁵+ β⁵=

A.
16
B.
32
C.
64
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

If a line makes angles α,β,γ with the +ve direction of x,y and z axis respectively, then cos²α + cos²β + cos²γ

A.
1/2
B.
-1/2
C.
-1
D.
1

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

The line (x - 2)/3 = (y - 3)/4 = (z - 4)/5 is parallel to the plane

A.
3x + 4y + 5z = 7
B.
2x + 3y + 4z = 0
C.
x + y - z = 2
D.
2x + y - 2z = 0

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

If √3 cos θ − sin θ = 1 then θ =

A.
π
B.
π/2
C.
π/3
D.
π/6

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

The pair of lines represented by 3ax²+ 5xy + (a² - 2) y²= 0 and at right angles to each other for

A.
Two values of a
B.
For all a
C.
For one value of a
D.
For no value of a

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

A force acts at a point A whose position vector is . If point of application of F^→ moves from A to the point B with position vector , then work done by F is

A.
4
B.
20
C.
2
D.
none of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

If P is any point on the hyperbola [(x - 1)²/9 - (y + 1)²/16] = 1 and S₁, S₂ are its foci, then |s₁ P - S₂ P |

A.
8
B.
6
C.
4
D.
3

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

If a = i + 2 j + 3k, b = - i + 2 j + k and c = 3 i + j and a + tb is perpendicular to c, the value of t is

A.
5
B.
-3
C.
6
D.
-4

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

The armature of D.C. motor has 20 Ω resistance. It draws current of 1.5 ampere when run by 220 volts D.C. supply. The value of back e.m.f. induced in it will be

A.
150 V
B.
170 V
C.
180 V
D.
190 V

Solution:

QUESTION: 42

If two atoms have their atomic numbers as z₁ and z₂ , the ratio of the wavelengths λ₁ and λ₂ corresponding to their K_α lines is

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle moving with a velocity 2.25 x 10⁸ m s^-1 is equal to the wavelength of a photon. The ratio of kinetic energy of the particle to the energy of the photon is [ velocity of light = 3 x 10⁸ m s^-1]

A.
1/8
B.
3/8
C.
5/8
D.
7/8

Solution:

From Compton effect
λ = h/p = c/v [From de-Broglie wavelength]
c p = h v

QUESTION: 44

Increasing the charge on the plates of a capacitor means

A.
increasing the capacitance
B.
increasing the potential difference between the plates
C.
both
D.
none

Solution: C is fixed for a given capacitor.
Charge Q increases the potential V as V = Q/C

QUESTION: 45

In electrolysis, the amount of mass deposited or liberated at an electrode is directly propotional to

A.
amount of charge
B.
square of current
C.
concentration of electrolyte
D.
square of electric charge

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Consider telecommunication through optical fibres. Which of the following statements is not correct

A.
Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss
B.
Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding
C.
Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index
D.
Optical fibres are subject to electromagnetic interference from outside

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

A dry cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5 V and an internal resistance of 0.05 Ω. The maximum current obtainable from this cell, for a very short interval is

A.
0.3 A
B.
3 A
C.
30 A
D.
300 A

Solution:

QUESTION: 48

Two wires of the same metal have same length, but their cross-sectional areas are in the ratio 3 : 1. If resistance of the thicker wire is 10 Ω, then total resistance of the wires in series combination will be

A.
10 Ω
B.
20 Ω
C.
40 Ω
D.
100 Ω

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

Potential difference across the terminals of a battery is 50 V, when 11 A current is drawn. And it is 60 V, when 1 A current is drawn. The e.m.f. and internal resistance of battery is

A.
60 V and 1 Ω
B.
60 V and 2 Ω
C.
61 V and 1 Ω
D.
64 V and 2 Ω

Solution: e = v + Ir
e = emf
V = potential difference
r = internal resistance
Here e = 50 + 11r .....(1)
and e = 60 + 1r .....(2)
Solving these equations (1) and (2) for e and r we get
e = 61V and r = 1 Ω

QUESTION: 50

A cell of internal resistance 3 ohm and emf 10 volt is connected to a uniform wire of length 500 cm and resistance 3 ohm. The potential gradient in the wire is

A.
30 mV/cm
B.
10 mV/cm
C.
20 mV/cm
D.
4 mV/cm

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

An electron having charge e and mass m is moving in a uniform electric field E. Its acceleration will be

A.
e²/m
B.
Ee²/m
C.
eE/m
D.
mE/e

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

A transformer is employed to

A.
Obtain a suitable d.c. voltage
B.
Convert d.c. into a.c.
C.
Obtain a suitable alternating voltage
D.
Convert a.c. into d.c

Solution:

QUESTION: 53

A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x - y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity, V^→ = vî . The magnetic field is directed along the negative z axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, out of the field region, will not remain constant for:

A.
the circular and the elliptical loops.
B.
only the elliptical loop.
C.
any of the four loops.
D.
the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops.

Solution:

QUESTION: 54

Two coils have mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If current in primary circuit is raised to 5 A in one millisecond after closing the circuit, then e.m.f. induced in the secondary circuit is

A.
2.5 kV
B.
5.0 kV
C.
7.5 kV
D.
10.0 kV

Solution:

QUESTION: 55

Which one of the following electromagnetic radiations have the smallest wavelength?

A.
ultraviolet waves
B.
X-rays
C.
γ-rays
D.
microwaves

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is φ₁ and φ₂, the electric charge inside the surface will be

A.
φ₂ - φ₁/∈₀
B.
φ₁ + φ₂/∈₀
C.
φ₁ - φ₂/∈₀
D.
∈₀(φ₁ + φ₂)

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

Two equal print charges are fixed at x = -a and x = +a on the X axis. Another point charge Q is placed at the origin. The change in electrical potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a small distance x along the X-axis is approximately proportional to

A.
x
B.
x²
C.
x³
D.
x^-²

Solution:

QUESTION: 58

A hollow metal sphere of radious 10 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 80V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is

A.
zero
B.
80 V
C.
800 V
D.
8 V

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

Figure shows a solid hemisphere with a charge of 5nC distributed uniformly through its volume. The hemisphere lies on a plane and point P is located on the plane, along a radial line from the centre of curvature at distance 15cm. The electric potential at point P due to the hemisphere is:

A.
150V
B.
300V
C.
450V
D.
600V

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

When a body is connected to the earth, then electron from the earth, flow into the body. It means that the body is

A.
uncharged
B.
an insulator
C.
positively charged
D.
negatively charged

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

Two point charges each equal to 2μC are 0.5 m apart. If both of them exist inside vaccum, then electrostatic force between them is

A.
0.144 N
B.
0.288 N
C.
1.44 N
D.
2.88 N

Solution:

QUESTION: 62

A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ω is to be converted into an ammeter of range 1 ampere. If a current of 1 mA produces full scale deflection, the shunt required for the purpose is

A.
0.01 Ω
B.
0.05 Ω
C.
0.02 Ω
D.
0.04 Ω

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

Among electron, proton, neutron and

α

- particle the maximum penetration capacity is for

A.
Electron
B.
Proton
C.
Neutron
D.
$α$ - particle

Solution:

QUESTION: 64

Which is not electromagnetic wave in the following?

A.
Infrared rays
B.
X - rays
C.
$γ$ - rays
D.
Cathode rays

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

The size of the nucleus varies as ----- power of the atomic number

A.
1/2
B.
2
C.
1/3
D.
3

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

The work function of oxide coated tungsten emitter will be

A.
1.1 eV
B.
2.62 eV
C.
4.72 eV
D.
4.5 eV

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately

A.
540 nm
B.
400 nm
C.
310 nm
D.
220nm

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

A palne mirror produces a magnification of

A.
-1
B.
+1
C.
Zero
D.
Between 0 and +∞

Solution:

QUESTION: 69

A convex lens will become less convergent in

A.
oil
B.
water
C.
Both
D.
None

Solution:

QUESTION: 70

In a transistor, the emitter-base junction and the collector-base junction are

A.
forward and forward respectively
B.
reverse and reverse respectively
C.
reverse and forward respectively
D.
forward and reverse respectively

Solution:

QUESTION: 71

For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain

A.
is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the middle frequency range.
B.
is low at high and low frequencies and constant in the middle frequency range.
C.
remains constant for all frequencies.
D.
is high at high frequencies and low at low frequencies and constant in middle frequency range.

Solution:

QUESTION: 72

When a p - n junction diode is reverse biased, the thickness of the depletion layer

A.
Increases
B.
Decreases
C.
Becomes Zero
D.
Remains constant

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

A P-type semiconductor can be obtained by adding

A.
Arsenic to pure silicon
B.
Gallium to pure silicon
C.
Antimony to pure germanium
D.
Phosphorous to pure germanium

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

The forbidden gap in the energy bands of germanium at room temperature is about

A.
1.1 eV
B.
0.1 eV
C.
0.67 eV
D.
6.7 eV

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

P-N junction diode can be used as

A.
amplifier
B.
oscillator
C.
detector
D.
modulator

Solution:

QUESTION: 76

In a semiconductor crystal if current flows due to breakage of crystal bonds, then the semiconductor is called

A.
acceptor
B.
donar
C.
intrinsic semiconductor
D.
extrinsic semiconductor

Solution:

QUESTION: 77

A parallel monochromatic beam of light is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the first minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of slit is

A.
Zero
B.
$π$
C.
$\frac{π}{2}$
D.
2 $π$

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

Huygen's wave theory of light can not explain

A.
diffraction
B.
interference
C.
polarisation
D.
photoelectric effect

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

If the two slits in Young's experiment have width ratio 1:4, the ratio of intensity at maxima and minima in the interference pattern in

A.
3 : 1
B.
1 : 3
C.
9 : 1
D.
1 : 9

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

When exposed to sunlight, thin films of oil on water often exhibit brilliant colours due to the phenomenon of

A.
interference
B.
diffraction
C.
dispersion
D.
polarisation

Solution:

QUESTION: 81

When ethanol is refluxed with conc. sulphuric acid at 160^o it gives

A.
Diethyl sulphate
B.
Ethene
C.
Both
D.
None

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

Which of the following gives iodoform on heating with a solution of l₂ containing Na₂CO₃ ?

A.
Ethyl alcohol
B.
Acetone
C.
Ethyl alcohol as well as acetone
D.
Methyl alcohol

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

Trioxane is trimer of

A.
Acetaldehyde
B.
Formaldehyde
C.
Benzaldehyde
D.
Salicylaldehyde

Solution:

QUESTION: 84

How many monochlorobutanes will be obtained on chlorination of n-butane?

A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following reactions can be used for the synthesis of an alkene

A.
Chugaev reaction
B.
Dakin reaction
C.
Reimer-Tiemann reaction
D.
Wurtz-Fitting reaction

Solution:

QUESTION: 86

Molarity of liquid HCl with density equal to 1.17 g/cc is

A.
36.5
B.
18.25
C.
32.05
D.
4.65

Solution:

QUESTION: 87

The reaction in which sodium cyanide is used is

A.
Perkin condensation
B.
Reimer-Tiemann reaction
C.
Benzoin condensation
D.
Rosenmund's reduction

Solution:

QUESTION: 88

One mole of CO₂ contains

A.
6.02 x 10²³ atoms of C
B.
6.02 x 10²³ atoms of O
C.
18.1 x 10²³ atoms of CO₂
D.
3 gram of carbon

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

The protein which maintains blood sugar level is

A.
Haemoglobin
B.
Oxytocin
C.
Insulin
D.
Ptyalin

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

Acetamide and NaOBr/OH⁻ produce

A.
Ethanamine
B.
Methanamine
C.
CH₃CN
D.
NH₃

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

Which one of the following proteins transports oxygen in the blood stream?

A.
Myoglobin
B.
Insulin
C.
Albumin
D.
Haemoglobin

Solution:

QUESTION: 92

In a reaction involving ring substitution of C₆H₅Y, the major product is meta isomer. The group Y can be

A.
-NH₂
B.
-COOH
C.
-CH₃
D.
-Cl

Solution:

Electron withdrawing groups favour meta substitution
- COOH group is metadirecting group

QUESTION: 93

The end product of protein digestion is

A.
amino acid
B.
glucose
C.
glycerol
D.
oxalic acid

Solution:

QUESTION: 94

The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at a given temperature

A.
depends on the inital concentration of the reactants
B.
depends on the concentration of the products at equilibrium
C.
does not depends on the initial concentrations of reactants
D.
is not characteristic of the reactions

Solution:

QUESTION: 95

C + O₂ → CO₂ , Δ H = − 94 K cals ,
CO + 1/2O₂ → CO₂ , Δ H = − 67.7 K . cal.

On the basis of above data, the heat of formation of CO is

A.
− 26.3 K.cal
B.
+26.3 K.cal
C.
+52.6 K.cal
D.
+13.2 K.cal

Solution:

QUESTION: 96

Formic acid when treated with H₂SO₄ gives

A.
(COOH)₂
B.
CH₃COOH
C.
C₂H₅OH
D.
CO

Solution:

QUESTION: 97

For the melting of a solid at 25⁰C, the fusion process requires energy equivalent to 2906 Joules to be added to system considering the process to be reversible at fusion point, the entropy change of the process is

A.
9.75 JK^-1
B.
11.272 JK^-1
C.
2.33 JK^-1
D.
insufficient data

Solution:

QUESTION: 98

Heat of combustion of carbon is 96k cal mol^-1. When some quantity of carbon is burnt in oxygen, 48 k cal of heat is liberated. What is the volume (in lit) of oxygen at STP reacted with this carbon?

A.
48
B.
22.4
C.
11.2
D.
1

Solution:

∵ 96 k cal heat is produced by 1 mol of carbon.
∴ 48 k cal heat is produced by 0.5 mol of carbon.
As 1 mol carbon reacts with 1 mol of oxygen, which has 22.4 litre volume at NTP.
∴ The volume of O₂ at NTP reacts with 0.5 mol carbon = 22.4/2 = 11.2 litre.

QUESTION: 99

The rate, at which a substance reacts at constant temperature, depends upon its

A.
atomic mass
B.
active mass
C.
molecular mass
D.
equivalent mass

Solution:

QUESTION: 100

One of the oxidants used with liquid propellants is

A.
Ammonium perchlorate
B.
Nitrocellulose
C.
Sulphuric acid
D.
Nitrogen tetroxide(N₂O₄)

Solution:

QUESTION: 101

Which one of the following is an example of octahedral complex?

A.
[FeF₆]^3-
B.
[Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺
C.
[Ni(CN)₄]^2-
D.
[Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺

Solution:

QUESTION: 102

Name of the following compound is

A.
2-ethyl butanol-2
B.
1-ethyl, 1-methyl-propanol-1
C.
3-ethyl-pentanol-3
D.
diethyl ethanol

Solution:

QUESTION: 103

Which one of the following will not show geometrical isomerism?

A.
[Cr(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl
B.
[Co(en)₂Cl₂]Cl
C.
[Co(NH₃)₅NO₂]Cl₂
D.
[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]

Solution:

QUESTION: 104

Dye test can be used to distinguish between

A.
Ethylamine and acetamide
B.
Ethylamine and aniline
C.
Urea and acetamide
D.
Methylamine and ethylamine

Solution:

QUESTION: 105

Hydrolysis of benzonitrile gives

A.
Benzylamine
B.
Aniline
C.
Benzoic acid
D.
Benzene

Solution:

QUESTION: 106

Out of Cu, Ag, Fe and Zn, the metal which can displace all others from their salt solutions is

A.
Ag
B.
Cu
C.
Zn
D.
Fe

Solution:

QUESTION: 107

The electrode potentials of half-cell reactions are: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ ; E = -0.76 V and Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ ; E=0.41 V. The e.m.f. of the cell Fe²⁺ + Zn → Zn²⁺ + Fe is

A.
+ 1.17 V
B.
+0.35 V
C.
-1.17V
D.
-0.35 V

Solution:

QUESTION: 108

Molten CuCl₂ is electrolysed using platinum electrodes. The reaction occuring at anode is .......

A.
2 Cl^- → Cl₂ g + 2e^-
B.
Cl₂ g + 2e^- → 2 Cl^-
C.
Cu²⁺ + 2e^- → Cu (s)
D.
Cu (s) → Cu²⁺ + 2e^-

Solution:

QUESTION: 109

Absolute ethyl alcohol can be converted to diethyl ether by heating it to 410 K in the presence of

A.
Dil. H₂SO₄
B.
Dil. HCl
C.
Conc. H₂SO₄
D.
Conc. CH₃COOH

Solution:

QUESTION: 110

The most electropositive metals are isolated from their ores by

A.
High temperature reduction with carbon
B.
Self reduction
C.
Thermal decomposition
D.
Electrolysis of fused ionic salts

Solution:

QUESTION: 111

50 mL of hydrogen diffuses out through a small hole of a vessel, in 20 minutes. The time taken by 40 mL of oxygen to diffuse out is

A.
12 min
B.
64 min
C.
8 min
D.
32 min

Solution:

QUESTION: 112

White lead is

A.
Basic lead acetate
B.
Acidic lead carbonate
C.
Basic lead carbonate
D.
Basic lead hydroxide

Solution:

QUESTION: 113

Orthophosphoric acid is

A.
Monobasic
B.
Dibasic
C.
Tribasic
D.
Tetrabasic

Solution:

QUESTION: 114

The basicity of phosphorous acid is

A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4

Solution:

QUESTION: 115

A crystal lattice with alternate positive and negative ions has radius ratio 0.524. Its coordination number is

A.
3
B.
4
C.
6
D.
12

Solution:

Radius ratio of the given crystal lattice is in the range of 0.414 - 0.732. So the coordination number is 6.

QUESTION: 116

Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e^- → Zn(s). This is

A.
Oxidation
B.
Reduction
C.
Redox reaction
D.
None of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 117

In the following structure

A.
x, y and z represent Z-configurations
B.
x, y and z represent E-configurations
C.
x and z represent E-configurations while y represents Z-configurations
D.
x and z represent Z-configurations while y represents E-configurations

Solution:

QUESTION: 118

One of the following is false for Hg ?

A.
It can evolve hydrogen from H₂S
B.
It is metal
C.
It has high specific heat
D.
It is less reactive than hydrogen

Solution:

QUESTION: 119

A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in liquid is known as

A.
Foam
B.
Sol
C.
Aerosol
D.
Emulsion

Solution:

QUESTION: 120

Bell metal is an alloy of

A.
Cu, Zn and Sn
B.
Cu, Zn and Ni
C.
Cu and Zn
D.
Cu and Sn

Solution:

QUESTION: 121

Fill in the blank with appropriate word.
I am given to.......that you are going abroad.

A.
learn
B.
think
C.
predict
D.
understand

Solution:

QUESTION: 122

Find the Antonym of SUAVITY

A.
politeness
B.
impetuosity
C.
stupidity
D.
pleasant

Solution:

QUESTION: 123

find the synonym of OSTENTATION

A.
calmness
B.
equanimity
C.
deception
D.
pagentry

Solution:

QUESTION: 124

Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Bring forth

A.
reveal
B.
produce
C.
put forward
D.
propose

Solution:

QUESTION: 125

Improve the sentence by choosing best alternative for capitalised part of the sentence.

ANY ABLE BODIED MAN eligible for the job.

A.
any able-bodied men are
B.
each able-bodied man is
C.
anyable-bodied men have been
D.
No improvement

Solution:

Recommended Tests

BITSAT Physics Test - 1
Test | 40 questions

Test: Subsets And Supersets
Test | 20 questions

BITSAT Logical Reasoning Test - 1
Test | 10 questions

Test: The Solid State- From Past 28 Years Questions
Test | 39 questions

Test: Modern Periodic Law
Test | 20 questions

Related tests

VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6
Test | 125 questions | 150 min

VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 7
Test | 125 questions | 150 min

VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 10
Test | 125 questions | 150 min

VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 11
Test | 125 questions | 150 min

VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 2
Test | 125 questions | 150 min

VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6

125 Questions MCQ Test VITEEE: Subject Wise and Full Length MOCK Tests | VITEEE PCME Mock Test - 6

The argument of complex number [(13-5i)/(4-9i)] is

Maximum slope of the curve y = -x3 + 3x2 + 9x − 27 is

The area bounded by the parabola x = 4 − y2 and the y-axis, in square units is

150 V

170 V

180 V

190 V

increasing the capacitance

increasing the potential difference between the plates

both

none

amount of charge

square of current

concentration of electrolyte

square of electric charge

Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss

Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding

Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index

Optical fibres are subject to electromagnetic interference from outside

0.3 A

3 A

30 A

300 A

10 Ω

20 Ω

40 Ω

100 Ω

60 V and 1 Ω

60 V and 2 Ω

61 V and 1 Ω

64 V and 2 Ω

30 mV/cm

10 mV/cm

20 mV/cm

4 mV/cm

Obtain a suitable d.c. voltage

Convert d.c. into a.c.

Obtain a suitable alternating voltage

Convert a.c. into d.c

2.5 kV

5.0 kV

7.5 kV

10.0 kV

ultraviolet waves

X-rays

γ-rays

microwaves

φ₂ - φ₁/∈₀

φ₁ + φ₂/∈₀

φ₁ - φ₂/∈₀

∈₀(φ₁ + φ₂)

zero

80 V

800 V

8 V

150V

300V

450V

600V

uncharged

an insulator

positively charged

negatively charged

0.01 Ω

0.05 Ω

0.02 Ω

0.04 Ω

Electron

Proton

Neutron

α - particle

Infrared rays

X - rays

γ - rays

Cathode rays

1.1 eV

2.62 eV

4.72 eV

Maximum slope of the curve y = -x³ + 3x² + 9x − 27 is

The area bounded by the parabola x = 4 − y² and the y-axis, in square units is

$α$ - particle

$γ$ - rays

$π$

$\frac{π}{2}$

2 $π$