AIIMS Full Mock Test 21


200 Questions MCQ Test AIIMS Mock Tests & Previous Year Papers | AIIMS Full Mock Test 21


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This mock test of AIIMS Full Mock Test 21 for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET AIIMS Full Mock Test 21 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this AIIMS Full Mock Test 21 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET students definitely take this AIIMS Full Mock Test 21 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other AIIMS Full Mock Test 21 extra questions, long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

A body moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by s=(t3 - 6t2 +3t+4) The velocity of body when acceleration is zero is

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

The north pole of a magnet is brought near a metallic ring. Then the direction of the induced current in the ring will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

When a disc having velocity of its center of mass vcm, is rolling then velocity at the highest point on the disc will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

If 92U238 undergoes successively 8α -  decays and 6β - decays then the resulting nucleus is
 

Solution:
QUESTION: 5

The equation of wave is given by

If the displacement is 5 cm at t = 0 then the total phase at t = 7.5 sec is

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

A wooden block of mass 8 kg is tied to a string attched to the bottom of the tank. In the equilibrium the block is completely immersed in water. If relative density of wood is 0.8 and g = 10 ms–2, the tension T, in the string is

Solution:
QUESTION: 7

In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed mass of gas is changed in such a manner that the gas molecule will give out 30 joule of heat and 10 joule of work is done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas was 40 joule then the final internal energy will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 8

A hollow charged metal sphere has radius r. If the potential difference between its surface and a point at a distance 3r from the center is V, then electric field intensity at a distance 3r is

Solution:
QUESTION: 9

A source of sound is moving with a velocity 50 m/s towards a stationary observer. The observer measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. What will be apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the observer after crossing him? The velocity of sound in the medium is 350 m/s.

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

The focal length of a thin convex lens for red and blue rays are 100 cm and 96.8 cm respectively. The dispersive power of the material of the lens is

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

Two particles are seen to collide and move jointly together after the inelastic collision. During such a collision, for the total system

Solution:
QUESTION: 12

A capillary tube of internal diameter 2 mm and external diameter 5 mm hangs vertically from the arm of the balance. The lower end of the tube just touching a liquid of surface tension 40 dyne/cm. If the angle of contact is zero, the change in weight due to surface tension will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 13

The pressure inside the soap bubbles is 1.01 and 1.02 atmosphere respectively. The ratio of their volumes is

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

The angular velocity of rotation of a star (of mass M and radius R) at which the matter starts to escape from its equator is

Solution:
QUESTION: 15

For an enclosure maintained at 1000 K the minimum radiation occurs at wavelength . If the temperature is raised to 2000 K, the wavelength will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 16

The frequency of forced vibration equals the

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

A wave traveling along the negative x-direction with amplitude 0.01 m. frequency 550 Hz and speed 330 m/sec is represented by the equation

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

The given figure representing a sinusoidal wave is traveling in string along positive x-direction. P and Q are the two points on the string. The direction of the velocity of particles at P(VP) and at Q(VQ) will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Calculate the time period of the block of mass m shown in figure, if the spring constant of the spring is K and surface is frictionless

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

A projectile is given initial velocity 50 ms–1 and angle of projection is 30º. The average acceleration in first three seconds will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

What is maximum value of ‘F’ for which both blocks move together? (g = 10 m/sec2)

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

If coefficient of limiting friction is 2.4 then maximum uniform speed of a vehicle on a track of radius 24 m for no slipping, can be (Take g = 10 m/sec2)

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

The minimum ‘v’ that should be given to block so that it doesn’t slide on smooth circular track i.e., it breaks off immediately is

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Escape velocity; 

here r→ radius of earth

M → mass of earth

and G → universal constant

% error in measurement of vesc is 3% and in 'M' and 'R' are 1% and 2% respectively. The maximum % error in measurement of 'G' is  

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Flywheel is an important part of steam engine because

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

A missile is launched with the velocity less than the escape velocity. Sum of its kinetic energy and potential energy is

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

The bob of pendulum is attached to a metallic thread having coefficient of linear expansion ‘α’. If temperature is increased by 50º C and α = 1.2 x 10–3 (Cº)–1, then in 5 minutes the pendulum.

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

One mole of oxygen gas undergoes 50% dissociation into oxygen atoms. The degree of freedom of mixture will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

A particle of charge +q and mass m moving under the influence of a uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field follows trajectory from P to Q as shown in figure. The velocities at P and Q are and respectively. Which of the statement(s) is/are correct

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

Two straight long conductors AOB and COD are perpendicular to each other and carry currents l1 and l2. The magnitude of the magnetic induction at a point P at a distance a from the point O in a direction perpendicular to the plane ABCD is

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

The resistance of a metallic conductor increases with temperature due to

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

In a photoelectric experiment, the slope of the stopping potential ( V0 ) versus frequency ( V ) graph

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

The significance of knee voltage in case of forward biasing of a PN junction diode is that

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Two identical capacitors A and B are charged to the same potential and then made to discharge through resistances RA and RB respectively, with RA > RB.

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V. The flux of the electric field through a closed surface enclosing the capacitor is

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

A current i is being driven through a cell of emf E and internal resistance r as shown. The chemical energy is stored in the cell at the rate of

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

In the circuit shown in figure potential difference between points A and B is 16V. The current passing through 2Ω resistance will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

A glass plate has a thickness t and refractive index μ . The angle of incidence of ray from air into the plate is equal to the critical angle for glass glass-air interface. The displacement of ray is given by

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

In a Young’s double slit experiment, angular width of a fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. If wavelength of light used to 6000 Å, then distance between the slits will be

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

A rod AB moves with a uniform velocity v in a uniform magnetic field as shown in fig

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses

A : The reactance of an a.c. circuit at a frequency lower than the resonant frequency is capacitive.
R : The reactance of an inductance increases withthe frequency.

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Short wave radiations is used for long distance.
R : Ionosphere acts as radio mirror and transmit wave.

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Cerenkov radiation occurs when particle travels faster than velocity of light in a medium. This does not violate special theory of relativity.
R : First postulate of relativity refers to velocity of light in vacuum.

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

​These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The apparent weight of a person standing in a lift, which moves upwards with uniform acceleration, is always higher than his true weight.
R : The weight always acts downwards.

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The root mean square velocity of molecules of a gas having Maxwellian distribution of velocities is higher than their most probable velocity, at any temperature.
R : A very small number of molecules a gas which possess very large velocity, increase the root mean square velocity, without affecting the most probable velocity

Solution:
QUESTION: 46

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The impedance of a parallel LCR circuit is minimum at resonance.
R : In a.c. circuit resonance occurs when the inductive reactance is exactly equal to the capacitive reactance.

Solution:
QUESTION: 47

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The angular velocity of each and every particle of a body having a rotational motion is always the same.
R : Each particle moves through the same angle in the same interval of time.

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : A table cloth can be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes.
R : To every action there is an equal opposite reaction.

Solution:
QUESTION: 49

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The internal energy of an ideal gas does not change during an isothermal process.
R : The decrease in volume of a gas is compensated by a corresponding increase in pressure when its temperature is held constant.

Solution:
QUESTION: 50

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : A cyclist riding round a corner at 15 km h–1 has no acceleration
R : His speed is not changing

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : An interference pattern formed by monochromatic light passing through the slits in young’s double slit experiment consists of fringes of equal width.
R : The change in optical path difference for light producing adjacent fringes is always one wavelength.

Solution:
QUESTION: 52

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Alpha particle produce much more ionisation than
beta particles.
R : Alpha particles are positively charged.

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Gamma bombardment does not cause nuclear transmitation.
R : Gamma rays travel at the speed of light.

Solution:
QUESTION: 54

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Even the slowest neutrons can penetrate the nucleus.
R : Neutrons are not electromagnetic in nature.

Solution:
QUESTION: 55

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : In a double star system, the stars revolve around their common centre of mass and the total angular momentum about that point remain constant.
R : The interaction force between the two stars obeys Newton’s law of gravitation.

Solution:
QUESTION: 56

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : An astronaut feels weightless in an artificial satellite around the earth.
R : Both satellite and the astronaut are freely falling towards the centre of the earth.

Solution:
QUESTION: 57

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : When two charged mercury drops coalesce (joint together), the potential energy is conserved.
R : Total energy of an isolated system is constant for all time.

Solution:
QUESTION: 58

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : If a vertical U-tube contains kerosene in one limb and water in the other, at equilibrium the level of kerosene is higher than that of water.

R : The pressures on the two limbs of U-tube being the same, the height of the liquid level depends on its density, the denser the liquid the lesser the height.

Solution:
QUESTION: 59

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : A pulsar is a source of radio waves which changes intensity at regular intervals.
R : A pulsar is a rotating neutron star.

Solution:
QUESTION: 60

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Melting of solid causes no change in internal energy.

R : Latent heat is the heat required to melt unit mass of solid.

Solution:
QUESTION: 61

The thermodynamic efficiency of fuel cell is given by:

Solution:
QUESTION: 62

Gold number of I(casein), II(Haemoglobin), III(Gum Arabic) and IV (Sodium oleate) are 0.01, 0.03, 0.15, and 0.4, respectively. Which has minimum protective power:

Solution:
QUESTION: 63

Sodium metal shows bcc structure. The distance between nearest sodium atoms is 0.368 n m. The edge length of unit cell is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

In the given reaction:

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 65

Which of the following have strongest conjugate base?

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

The enolate ion is a reactive intermediate in:

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

A suitable reagent for the conversion of propanamide to ethylamine is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

Which one of the following compounds will not rotate the plane of plane polarised light?

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

The two compounds (A) and (B) can be distinguished by:

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

Which of the following alcohols is dehydrated easily by conc H2SO4?

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

Glucose and fructose canbe differentated by:

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

Which of the following is not formed by the ozonolysis of o-xylene?

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

Which of the following is hydrolysed to give secondary amine?

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

The maximum number of electron in a sub shell is given by the expression:

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

Iso structural among the following pairs is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

If an electron has spin quantum number - 1/2  and magnetic quantum number –1, then the electron cannot be present in:

Solution:
QUESTION: 77

Which of the following cations has highest polarizing power:

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

In which of the following the hydrationen ergy is higher than the lattice energy?

Solution:
QUESTION: 79

The ionic radii of O2–, F, Na+ and Mg2+ are 1.35, 1.34, 0.95 and 0.66Å respectively. The radius of the
Ne atom will be:

Solution:
QUESTION: 80

Where is an elecron added during the change of O2 to 

Solution:
QUESTION: 81

In brown ring complex (Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4, the oxidation state of Fe is :

Solution:
QUESTION: 82

According to Soddy Fajan’s law the number of alpha and beta particles emitted in the radioactive disintegration of 90Th232 to 82Pb208 is respectively:

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Bond dissociation energy is highest for:

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Number of sigma bonds in P4O10 are:

Solution:
QUESTION: 85

Each Cs+ in CsCl lattice is surrounded by:

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

Among the following ions, which one has the highest paramagnetism?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Number of unpaired electrons present is [Ni(CO)4] ,[Ni(CN)4]2– and [NiCl4]2– are respectively:

Solution:
QUESTION: 88

The oxidation state of P in ATP is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 89

The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations XYZ are +0.68, –3.03 and –0.50V respectively. The order of their reducing power is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 90

A compound contains 8% sulphur by mass. The least molecular mass of the compound is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

Volume of liquid CCl4 (d = 1.5 gm/mL) containing 3.01 × 1025 molecule of CCl4 is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

A 5 cm3 solution of H2O2 liberated 0.508 gm of Ifrom an acidified KI solution. The volume strength ofH2O2 solution at STP is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

An oleum sample is labelled as “118% H2SO4”. The % composition of oleum by wt is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

5 ampere of current is passed of 193 sec through an equeous solution of NaCl. The total amount of NaOH formed on assuming 60% current effciency is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

E0 Cu2+ / Cu = 0.34. Calculate E Cu+2 / Cu at pH = 14 it

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

The major product expected when phthaldehyde is treated with NaOH is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

The total number of stereoisomers possible in 2, 3– dihydroxypentane is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

IUPAC name of the following compound is

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

The order of stability of species A, B and C given below is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

What is the product of hydroboration followed by   oxidation of 1-methylcyclo-hexene?

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Although the ionisation energy of iodine (1008 kJ mol–1) is much lower than that of hydrogen (1310 kJ mol–1), yet, compounds of I+ cation are very less
R : Iodine is electronegative element and hence cannot form compounds in positive oxidtation states

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses

A : In case the central atom in a molecule is surrounded only by shared pairs of electrons, the molecule has a regular geometry
R : The shared pair of electrons repel each other with equal force so all bonds are equal force so all bonds are equidistant from each other

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 103

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The enthalpy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecules at 298 K and under a pressure of one atmosphere is zero
R : The entropy of formation of gaseous oxygen molecule under the same conditions is zero

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The value of van der Waal’s constant a , is larger for ammonia than for nitrogen
R : Hydrogen bonding is present in ammonia

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The pKa of a weak acid becomes equal to pH of the solution at the mid point of its titration
R : The molar concentrations of proton acceptor and proton donor become equal the mid point of titration of a weak acid

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The ratio of volume of gaseous reactants and products is in agreement with their molar ratio
R : Volume of a gas in inversely proportional to the number of mole of a gas

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The order a reaction can have a fractional value
R : The molecularity of a reaction can have a fractional value

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : In electrolysis the quantity of electricity needed for depletion of 1 mole of silver is different from that required for 1 mole of copper
R : The molecular weights of silver and copper are different

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A: Δ Hmix and  Δ Vmix for an ideal solution is zero

R: A .... B interactions in an ideal solution are same as between A ..... A and .......B

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Fluorescein is an adsorption indicator
R : Fluorescein is a dye

Solution:
QUESTION: 111

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Activity of 108 undecayed radioactive nuclei of half life 50 days is equal to that of 10 × 108 number of undecayed nuclei of some other material with half life 60 days.
R : Activity is proportional to half life

Solution:
QUESTION: 112

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : CH3C≡ CH is more polar than CH3CH = CH2
R : sp- carbon is more electronegative than sp2 carbon

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Vinyl chloride can be differentiated from ethyl chloride by alcoholic AgNO3 solution
R : Chlorine atom in ethyl chloride is inert while it is labile in vinyl chloride

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Pentan-2-one can be distinguished from pentan- 3-one by iodoform test
R : Former is a methyl ketone whereas the latter is not a methyl ketone

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : All the amines, except tertiary amines are capable of forming inter molecularhydrogen bonds
R : Tertiary amines have large molecules and surface area

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Anhydrous CaCl2 cannot be used for drying NH3 gas
R : NH3 gas is basic in nature

Solution:
QUESTION: 117

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The bond angle of PBr3 is greater than that of PH3 but the bond angle of NBr3 is less than that of NH3
R : The size of bromine is less than that of hydrogen

Solution:
QUESTION: 118

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A: PCl5 is covalent in gaseous and liquid state but ionic in solid state.

R: PCI5 in solid state consists of tetrahedral PCI+4 cation and octahedral PCI-6 anion

Solution:
QUESTION: 119

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : When KBr is heated with conc. H2SO4, HBr is displaced
R : HBr is a weaker acid than conc. H2SO4

Solution:
QUESTION: 120

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Deep sea divers use He– O2 mixture for breathing
R : Unlike N2, He is not soluble in blood even under high pressure

Solution:
QUESTION: 121

t-RNA recognises ribosome by its

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

When a new viral gene does not integrate with the recipient bacterial genome and is lost, then the process is known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

The percentage of nucleic acid in TMV is about

Solution:
QUESTION: 124

Hydrophobia is caused by

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

BGA differs from bacteria in having

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

In most higher plants, ammonia is assimilated primarily into

Solution:
QUESTION: 127

Plants like Hydrilla, Potomogeton and Vallisneria belong to

Solution:
QUESTION: 128

2, 6-oxy, 5-methyl pyrimidine is

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

In which of the following stem is most reduced?

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

Complementary cells are associated with

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

Phellem is made of:

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

The perimysium is continuous with

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

Which of the following microbes removes oil spills by digesting hydrocarbons of crude oil?

Solution:
QUESTION: 134

Birds of Galapagos islands were named Darwin’s finches by

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

Which of the following endocrine gland stores its hormone prior to secretion?

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

In coconut, a thin black covering united with kernel around the endosperm is

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

The blue mould of cheese is included in

Solution:
QUESTION: 138

R.Q. (Respiratory Quotient) of C39H74O6 is

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

For a successful graft, the adhesion between scion and stock is essential. In your view, which of the following is the earliest event towards a good graft?

Solution:
QUESTION: 140

Which of the following is incorrect

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

In sickle -cell syndrome, the amino acid substituted is

Solution:
QUESTION: 142

In absence of predator the two alternative alleles make an organism equally well adapted. In such cases the changes in gene frequencies are due to

Solution:
QUESTION: 143

Which hormone is glycogenic, antigluconeogenic antilipolytic and antiketotic ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 144

The extra embyronic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from

Solution:
QUESTION: 145

Ornithine cycle removes two metabolic wastes from body. They are

Solution:
QUESTION: 146

‘Speed ball’ is a mixture of .

Solution:
QUESTION: 147

Mark the incorrect statement:

Solution:
QUESTION: 148

Reserve food of giant kelps, is

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

Frond is

Solution:
QUESTION: 150

Double homozygous organisms in F2 generation of adihybrid cross would be

Solution:
QUESTION: 151

A large often brightly coloured bract of infloresence spadix, is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 152

Medulla is

Solution:
QUESTION: 153

......... treated cells can absorb water even from hypertonic solution through an active process

Solution:
QUESTION: 154

Boron deficiency causes

Solution:
QUESTION: 155

A protein molecule in its quarternary structure with two light and two heavy chains is an antibody (immunoglobin) mainly existing in five major forms. The most abundant (80%) in the body is

Solution:
QUESTION: 156

Myogenic heart is found in

Solution:
QUESTION: 157

The events like release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum, actin complexes with myosin, activation of ATPase, binding of Ca2+ with troponin, are associated with which state of muscle

Solution:
QUESTION: 158

Which one of the following neuroglial cells are most abundant in mammals

Solution:
QUESTION: 159

A group of steroid hormones from the adrenal cortex also tend to raise blood sugar level, known as glucocorticoids, which enhances gluconeogenesis. Select the example of glucocorticoids

Solution:
QUESTION: 160

Each beat of the heart is characterized by five separable wave regions on the electrocardiogram. These are designated as P,Q, R, S and T. Select the correct one

Solution:
QUESTION: 161

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : The study of origin of living beings and their gradual changes is called phytogeography
R : Diversity of living beings is due to short term evolution.

Solution:
QUESTION: 162

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : A protist Gonyaulax causes ‘red tides’.
R : Gonyaulax shows the property of bioluminescence.

Solution:
QUESTION: 163

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses

A : Plant body in kingdom-Fungi is generally mycelium.
R : Reserve food material is in the form of glycogen and oil globules in fungi.

Solution:
QUESTION: 164

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : t-RNA is called adapter-RNA or adoptive RNA
R : Function of t-RNA is to carry genetic information present in DNA inside nucleus to cytoplasm for protein synthesis.

Solution:
QUESTION: 165

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Restriction endonucleases and ligase are the main tools of genetic engineering
R : Restriction endonuclease cuts the H-bonds of DNA.

Solution:
QUESTION: 166

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : AIDS is called ‘Death Warrant’.
R : AIDS virus has liking for T-lymphocytes which produce antibodies

Solution:
QUESTION: 167

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Ulothrix filaments are felt as wet threads
R : Outer layer of cell wall of Ulothrix is made of protopectin

Solution:
QUESTION: 168

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : All tissues lying inside the vascular cambium is called as bark
R : Bark is made up of phellogen, phellem and phelloderm lying inside the secondary phloem.

Solution:
QUESTION: 169

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : Guttated water is impure.
R : Guttation is due to transpiration pull.

Solution:
QUESTION: 170

​These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : For controlling air pollution, automobiles are fitted with catalytic converters.
R : Catalytic converter converts CO and harmful hydrocarbons into CO2 and water vapours.

Solution:
QUESTION: 171

These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A : A pure - line is the progeny of a large number of heterozygous self - pollinated plants .
R : In this method, a large number of plants with desired characters are selected from a genetically mixed population.