Daily Current Affairs MCQ - June 1, 2021


10 Questions MCQ Test Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly | Daily Current Affairs MCQ - June 1, 2021


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QUESTION: 1

With reference to the Maratha reservation, consider the following statements:

1. Maratha community recently brought under Economically Weaker Section (EWS) quota in Maharashtra.

2. 92nd Constitutional amendment Act 2019 introduced 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Maratha community brought under Economically Weaker Section (EWS) quota in Maharashtra.

  • In a bid to extend relief to the Maratha community in the State, the tripartite Maha Vikas Aghadi (MVA) government in Maharashtra extended the benefits of reservation for the Economically Weaker Section (EWS) to the Socially and Economically Backward Class (SEBC).
  • Previously, the government had decided that the Maratha community could not take advantage of the 10% EWS category as Maratha reservation was in force in the State.
  • The Supreme Court, however, scrapped the SEBC reservation in jobs and education, making it possible for the State government to extend the benefit of the EWS quota to the Marathas.
  • As per the government resolution, a person fulfilling the criterion for EWS would be eligible for 10% reservation in educational institutes, barring minority institutes.
  • This would also be applied for State government recruitment. The resolution said the reservation would be above the existing reservation.
  • It also stated that the benefit would be available from September 9, 2020, when the apex court brought an interim stay on the reservation, to May 5, 2021, when the final verdict was announced.

103rd Constitution amendment Act 2019 introduced 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society.

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

QUESTION: 2

With reference to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth, consider the following statements:

1. India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) contracted by 7.3% in 2020-21, as per provisional National Income estimates released by the National Statistical Office.

2. Only two sectors bucked the trend of negative GVA growth are agriculture, forestry and fishing, which rose 3.6%, and electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services (up 1.9%).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) contracted by 7.3% in 2020-21, as per provisional National Income estimates released by the National Statistical Office. GDP growth in 2019-20, prior to the COVID-19 pandemic, was 4%.

  • The Gross Value Added (GVA) in the economy shrank 6.2% in 2020-21, compared to a 4.1% rise in the previous year.
  • Only two sectors bucked the trend of negative GVA growth — agriculture, forestry and fishing, which rose 3.6%, and electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services (up 1.9%).
  • GVA for trade, hotels, transport, communication and broadcasting-related services saw the sharpest decline of 18.2%, followed by construction (-8.6%), mining and quarrying (-8.5%) and manufacturing (-7.2%).
  • Though this is the bleakest performance on record for the economy, the fourth quarter (Q4) of 2020-21 helped moderate the damage, with a higher-than-expected growth of 1.6% in GDP.
  • This marked the second quarter of positive growth after the country entered a technical recession in the first half of the year.
  • GDP had contracted 24.4% in April-June 2020, followed by a 7.4% shrinkage in the second quarter. It had returned to positive territory in the September to December quarter with a marginal 0.5% growth.
  • Hence both statements are correct.
QUESTION: 3

With reference to the tobacco use, consider the following statements:

1. The National Health Policy 2017 has set an ambitious target of reducing tobacco use by 30% by 2025.

2. Theme for “World No Tobacco Day” 2021 is “Commit to Quit”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare today chaired an event to mark the ‘World No Tobacco Day’ on May 31, 2021. Theme for 2021 is “Commit to Quit.”

  • In India, over 1.3 million deaths are attributable to tobacco use every year amounting to 3500 deaths per day, imposing a lot of avoidable socio-economic burden.
  • Smokers face a 40-50% higher risk of developing severe disease deaths from COVID-19.
  • As per the WHO study titled “Economic Costs of Diseases and Deaths Attributable to Tobacco Use in India”, the economic burden of diseases and deaths attributable to tobacco use of tobacco in India was as high as Rs. 1.77 lakh crores, amounting to approx 1% of GDP.

Steps taken in India:

  • Tobacco control legislation in India dates back to ‘Cigarettes Act, 1975’ which mandates display of statutory health warnings in advertisement and on cartons and cigarette packages.
  • A Central Legislation banned smoking in public places in 2002, on the directions of Supreme Court.
  • This was followed by comprehensive tobacco control legislation in 2003 [Cigarettes and other Tobacco Products (Prohibition of Advertisement and Regulation of Trade, Commerce, Production, Supply and Distribution) Act –COTPA, 2003] which aims to provide smoke free public places and also places restrictions on tobacco advertisement and promotion.
  • The ‘Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes Bill, 2019’ prohibits Production, Manufacture, Import, Export, Transport, Sale, Distribution, Storage and Advertisement of e-Cigarettes.
  • The National Health Policy 2017 has set an ambitious target of reducing tobacco use by 30% by 2025.
  • Tobacco Quitline service -1800-112-356 was initiated in 2016, that was expanded in September, 2018.
  • Hence both statements are correct.
QUESTION: 4

Which of the following comprises of ‘Second Positive Indigenisation List’ recently notified by Union Ministry of Defence (MoD)?

1. Next Generation Corvettes

2. Air Borne Early Warning and Control (AEW&C) systems

3. Tank Engines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Ministry of Defence (MoD) has notified ‘Second Positive Indigenisation List’ of 108 items to promote indigenisation in the Defence sector and defence exports.

  • This will give further boost to indigenisation with active participation of public and private sector for fulfilling the twin objectives of achieving self-reliance and promoting defence exports.
  • All the 108 items will now be procured from indigenous sources as per provisions given in Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020.
  • The second list (enclosed) lays special focus on weapons/systems which are currently under development/trials and are likely to translate into firm orders in the future.
  • The ‘Second Positive Indigenisation List’ comprises complex systems, sensors, simulator, weapons and ammunitions like Helicopters, Next Generation Corvettes, Air Borne Early Warning and Control (AEW&C) systems, Tank Engines, Medium Power Radar for Mountains, MRSAM Weapon Systems etc.
  • This second list is planned to be implemented progressively with effect from December 2021 to December 2025.
  • In August 2020, the ‘First Positive Indigenisation’ List comprising 101 items was notified.
  • At that time, it was also highlighted that more such equipment would be identified progressively to facilitate and encourage defence manufacturing in the country.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 5

With reference to the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Promotion of Domestic Manufacturing of critical Key Starting Materials (KSMs)/ Drug Intermediates and Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs), consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative of Union Ministry of Finance.

2. It aims to set up greenfield plants with minimum domestic value addition in four different Target Segments with a total outlay of Rs.6,940 cr. for the period 2020-21 to 2029-30.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Department of Pharmaceuticals has accorded approvals under Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Promotion of Domestic Manufacturing of critical Key Starting Materials (KSMs)/ Drug Intermediates and Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs).

  • The Department of Pharmaceuticals has launched this scheme with an objective to attain self-reliance and reduce import dependence in critical Bulk Drugs - Key Starting Materials (KSMs)/ Drug Intermediates and Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs).
  • This will be achieved by promotion of their domestic manufacturing by setting up greenfield plants with minimum domestic value addition in four different Target Segments with a total outlay of Rs.6,940 cr. for the period 2020-21 to 2029-30.
  • Setting up of these plants will make the country self-reliant to a large extent in respect of these Bulk drugs. The disbursal of production linked incentive by the Government over the six years period would be up to a maximum of about Rs.6,000 cr.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements:

1. The effectiveness of the Nano Urea Liquid is greater than the conventional urea.

2. The Nano Urea Liquid is indigenously developed in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) introduced the world's first Nano Urea Liquid for farmers across the world.
  • Nano Urea Liquid is a nutrient (liquid) to provide nitrogen to plants as an alternative to the conventional urea.
    • It is developed to replace conventional urea and it can curtail the requirement of the same by at least 50%.
    • It contains 40,000 mg/L of nitrogen in a 500 ml bottle which is equivalent to the impact of nitrogen nutrient provided by one bag of conventional urea.
    • Conventional urea is effective 30-40% in delivering nitrogen to plants, while the effectiveness of the Nano Urea Liquid is over 80%. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
      • Its effectiveness has been tested in over 11,000 farmers’ fields for 94 crops like rice and wheat.
      • An average 8% increase in yield has been witnessed.
  • Nano Urea Liquid has been indigenously developed at Nano Biotechnology Research Centre, Kalol, Gujrat in line with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Atmanirbhar Krishi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 7

With reference to the 'AmbiTAG', consider the following statements:

1. It is an Internet of Things (IoT) based device.

2. It is a temperature data logger for cold chain management.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Recently, Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Ropar, Punjab has developed a first-of-its-kind IoT (Internet of Things) device. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • AmbiTag that records real-time ambient temperature during the transportation of perishable products, vaccines and even body organs and blood.
  • The device has been developed under Technology Innovation Hub – AWaDH (Agriculture and Water Technology Development Hub) and it's Startup ScratchNest
  • 'AmbiTAG' is shaped as a USB (Universal Serial Bus) device.
  • It is India's first indigenous temperature data logger for cold chain management. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • It continuously records the temperature of its immediate surroundings from -40 to +80 degrees in any time zone for a full 90 days on a single charge.
    • Most of the similar devices available in the international market record data only for a duration of 30- 60 days.
    • It generates an alert when the temperature goes beyond a pre-set limit.
    • The recorded data can be retrieved by connecting the USB with any computer.
QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements regarding Employee’s Provident Fund (EPF) Scheme:

1. It is the main scheme under the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948.

2. Under this scheme, both the employee and employer contribute 12% of the employee’s basic salary and dearness allowance towards EPF.

3. A person mandatorily becomes a member of EPF if his monthly salary does not exceed Rs.15,000.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Employees’ Provident Funds (EPF) Scheme is the main scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Act, 1952. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    • It offers the institution of provident funds for factory employees and other establishments.
  • The employee and employer each contribute 12% of the employee’s basic salary and dearness allowance towards EPF. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The Economic Survey 2016-17 had suggested that employees be allowed to choose whether or not to save 12% of their salary into EPF or keep it as take home pay.
  • As per current laws, a person mandatorily becomes a member of EPF if his monthly salary does not exceed Rs. 15,000. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
QUESTION: 9

Which of the following ministries has granted permission for “No-Permission-No-Takeoff'' (NPNT) compliant drone operations?

Solution:

Recently, the Ministry of Civil Aviation has granted permission for “No-Permission-No-Takeoff'' (NPNT) compliant drone operations at 166 additional green zones to facilitate, smoothen, and promote drone operations in India. About: The approved sites allow drone usage up to 400 ft Above Ground Level (AGL). These zones are in addition to the 66 green zone sites approved earlier. The list of the approved green zone sites can be accessed from the Digital Sky Platform (https://digitalsky.dgca.gov.in).

QUESTION: 10

From which of the following districts of India 2 consignments of 4.5 MT of patented ‘village rice’ were exported to Ghana & Yemen via air & sea routes?

Solution:

Recently, 2 consignments 4.5 MT of patented ‘village rice’ sourced from Kumbakonam, Thanjavur district, Tamil Nadu was exported to Ghana & Yemen via air & sea routes by a start-up Udaya Agro Farm. It is supplemented with protein, fibre, and a variety of minerals. APEDA helped Udaya Agro Farm to plan and enhance the volume of exports of ‘village rice’ in the coming months.