NABARD Grade A Phase I Test 2


200 Questions MCQ Test NABARD Manager - Mock Tests & Previous Year Papers | NABARD Grade A Phase I Test 2


Description
This mock test of NABARD Grade A Phase I Test 2 for Banking Exams helps you for every Banking Exams entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for Banking Exams NABARD Grade A Phase I Test 2 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this NABARD Grade A Phase I Test 2 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Banking Exams students definitely take this NABARD Grade A Phase I Test 2 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other NABARD Grade A Phase I Test 2 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Banking Exams on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Arun, Bhavna, Chetan, Diksha, Elena, Fatima, Gauri and Hemant lives in an eight storey building and are going to different places. 
(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. 
(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. 
(iv) Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. 
(v) Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. 
(vi) Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding Fatima?

Solution:

(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 


2nd possibility 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. 


(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai. 

QUESTION: 2

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Arun, Bhavna, Chetan, Diksha, Elena, Fatima, Gauri and Hemant lives in an eight storey building and are going to different places. 
(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. 
(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. 
(iv) Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. 
(v) Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. 
(vi) Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai.

Q. Who among the following visits to Kolkata?

Solution:

(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 


2nd possibility 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. 


(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai. 

QUESTION: 3

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Arun, Bhavna, Chetan, Diksha, Elena, Fatima, Gauri and Hemant lives in an eight storey building and are going to different places. 
(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. 
(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. 
(iv) Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. 
(v) Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. 
(vi) Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai.

Q. How many persons live between Diksha and the one who visits to Lucknow?

Solution:

(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 


2nd possibility 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. 


(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai. 

QUESTION: 4

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Arun, Bhavna, Chetan, Diksha, Elena, Fatima, Gauri and Hemant lives in an eight storey building and are going to different places. 
(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. 
(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. 
(iv) Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. 
(v) Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. 
(vi) Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai.

Q. Which of the following is true?

Solution:

(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 


2nd possibility 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. 


(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai. 

QUESTION: 5

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Arun, Bhavna, Chetan, Diksha, Elena, Fatima, Gauri and Hemant lives in an eight storey building and are going to different places. 
(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. 
(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. 
(iv) Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. 
(v) Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. 
(vi) Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai.

Q. Who are the immediate neighbours of Gauri?

Solution:

(i) Hemant lives on the 5th floor and there are two people live between Hemant and Chetan. Hemant is going to Chennai. 


2nd possibility 
(ii) Elena lives on an odd numbered floor but not the first floor and is not an immediate neighbour of Chetan or Hemant. Fatima lives second to the floor of Elena. 


(iii) Three people lives between Hemant and the one who visits to Pune. Hemant, Chetan and also the immediate neighbours do not visit to Mumbai. Only one person lives between the one who visits to Mumbai and Gauri. The one who visits to Delhi is an immediate neighbour of Elena. The one who visits to Kolkata and Lucknow are immediate neighbours of each other. Chetan neither visits to Kolkata nor to Lucknow. Only one person lives between Arun and the one who visits to Punjab. Arun neither visits to Mumbai nor to Kolkata. Bhavna does not visit to Mumbai. 

QUESTION: 6

In a certain code, DESPAIR is written as TFEQSJB. How is NUMERAL written in that code?

Solution:

As, 


Similarly, 

QUESTION: 7

In a family of six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U, there are two married couples. S is grandmother of P and mother of only Q. R is wife of Q and mother of U. U is the granddaughter of T. 
How is R related to P?

Solution:

“Aman’s wife and Emma’s Husband form a team to play with Danny and Fatima’s husband in a game” It means that Aman is not married to either Danny or Emma. Thus, Aman is married to Fatima. As Bablu does not play bridge, Emma’s husband must be Carry. Hence, Danny is married to Aman

QUESTION: 8

Which letter is third to the left of the formed word by using the alphabets which are at first, second, third and fifth place in the word ‘BARTER’. If more than one word is formed, then select 'X'. If no word is formed, select 'Y'.

Solution:

Only two words can be made with the letters BRAE. These words are ‘BEAR’ and ‘BARE’. Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 9

Direction: In the following question, some statements are followed by some conclusions. Assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions follow(s) the given statements and choose appropriate answer choice.

Statement: K < J ≥ I > H ≤ G 

Conclusions: 
I. G ≥ I 
II. K < I 
III. J > H 
IV. H < K

Solution:

J ≥ I > H

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following should replace the question mark so that L < H is true in the statement G ≤ H ? I=J>K= L?

Solution:

I, J > K, L. Now for H>L, H>I or H=I. but for H>I, G=J is not possible.
 Hence '=' is the correct symbol

QUESTION: 11

The nation is still recovering from a crushing recession that sent unemployment hovering above nine percent for two straight years. The president, mindful of soaring deficits, is pushing bold action to shore up the nation's balance sheet. Cloaking himself in the language of class warfare, he calls on a hostile Congress to end wasteful tax breaks for the rich. 

Q. Which of the following may be inferred from the given information? 

Solution:

Options A and C can easily be deduced from the statements given in the passage. There is no evidence, however, to prove that the congress actually wants to reduce the taxes, because they merely oppose the idea of wasteful tax breaks for the rich.

QUESTION: 12

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, some facing the centre while some facing outside, not necessarily in the same order. Each belongs to a particular profession - Clerk, Accountant, Scientist, Mechanic, Engineer, Florist, Doctor and Typist.

● B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre

● F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist.

● D is not an immediate neighbour of H and B.

● Both immediate neighbours of C face outside.

● C is neither a Mechanic nor a Doctor.

● E is an immediate neighbour of B and C.

● A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk.

● The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa).

● Both immediate neighbours of D face the same direction as that of Typist.

● E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic.

● The Typist is an immediate neighbour of the Clerk.

● The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer.

● G is neither a Typist nor an Accountant. 
● A is an engineer and the typist faces outside the centre and sits immediately opposite to Doctor.


Q. How many persons are facing outside as per the given arrangement?

Solution:

Five persons are facing outside as per the given arrangement.

  • By Using Statement 1 i.e. B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre : we get the Position of H and B & Profession of H
  • Further Statement 2 i.e. F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist: we can determine the position of F and mark the position of florist.
  • Using Statement 6 which says E is an immediate neighbour of B & C we can determine the position of E & C
  • Now Considering Statement 4 i.e. Both immediate neighbours of C face outside, Direction of D & E can be determined
  • Using Statement 3 i.e. D is not an immediate neighbour of H & B, we will get the position of D
  • Using Statement 7 which says A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk, we get the position of A & G thus completing the whole circle
  • After completing the circle we get to know that D is a florist
  • Using Statement 13 we get to know A is an engineer
  • Statement 12 i.e. The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer : we can determine the profession of B which is mechanic
  • Combination of Statement 11,13 & 14 explain us that typist is the immediate neighbour of Clerk and it is given that G cannot be a typist helps to evaluate that G is a doctor and F is the Typist who faces outside the circle.
  • Statement 8 i.e. The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa) gives the direction of B since F is outside so B must be towards centre.
  • From Statement 10 i.e. E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic, we get the direction of A and the profession of E as scientist.
  • Statement 9 i.e. both the immediate neighbours of D will face same direction as of typist gives the direction of G & C.
  • C is a Accountant as all profession are listed

    Arrangement: 

QUESTION: 13

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, some facing the centre while some facing outside, not necessarily in the same order. Each belongs to a particular profession - Clerk, Accountant, Scientist, Mechanic, Engineer, Florist, Doctor and Typist.

● B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre

● F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist.

● D is not an immediate neighbour of H and B.

● Both immediate neighbours of C face outside.

● C is neither a Mechanic nor a Doctor.

● E is an immediate neighbour of B and C.

● A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk.

● The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa).

● Both immediate neighbours of D face the same direction as that of Typist.

● E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic.

● The Typist is an immediate neighbour of the Clerk.

● The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer.

● G is neither a Typist nor an Accountant. 
● A is an engineer and the typist faces outside the centre and sits immediately opposite to Doctor.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding A as per the given arrangement ?

Solution:

A sits exactly opposite to the Florist

  • By Using Statement 1 i.e. B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre : we get the Position of H and B & Profession of H
  • Further Statement 2 i.e. F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist: we can determine the position of F and mark the position of florist.
  • Using Statement 6 which says E is an immediate neighbour of B & C we can determine the position of E & C
  • Now Considering Statement 4 i.e. Both immediate neighbours of C face outside, Direction of D & E can be determined
  • Using Statement 3 i.e. D is not an immediate neighbour of H & B, we will get the position of D
  • Using Statement 7 which says A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk, we get the position of A & G thus completing the whole circle
  • After completing the circle we get to know that D is a florist
  • Using Statement 13 we get to know A is an engineer
  • Statement 12 i.e. The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer : we can determine the profession of B which is mechanic
  • Combination of Statement 11,13 & 14 explain us that typist is the immediate neighbour of Clerk and it is given that G cannot be a typist helps to evaluate that G is a doctor and F is the Typist who faces outside the circle.
  • Statement 8 i.e. The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa) gives the direction of B since F is outside so B must be towards centre.
  • From Statement 10 i.e. E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic, we get the direction of A and the profession of E as scientist.
  • Statement 9 i.e. both the immediate neighbours of D will face same direction as of typist gives the direction of G & C.
  • C is a Accountant as all profession are listed

    Arrangement: 

QUESTION: 14

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, some facing the centre while some facing outside, not necessarily in the same order. Each belongs to a particular profession - Clerk, Accountant, Scientist, Mechanic, Engineer, Florist, Doctor and Typist.

● B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre

● F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist.

● D is not an immediate neighbour of H and B.

● Both immediate neighbours of C face outside.

● C is neither a Mechanic nor a Doctor.

● E is an immediate neighbour of B and C.

● A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk.

● The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa).

● Both immediate neighbours of D face the same direction as that of Typist.

● E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic.

● The Typist is an immediate neighbour of the Clerk.

● The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer.

● G is neither a Typist nor an Accountant. 
● A is an engineer and the typist faces outside the centre and sits immediately opposite to Doctor.

Q. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which pair does not belong to the group?

Solution:

The pair of BE does not belong to the group becausse all other person sits opposite to each other but BE does not sits opposite to each other.

  • By Using Statement 1 i.e. B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre : we get the Position of H and B & Profession of H
  • Further Statement 2 i.e. F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist: we can determine the position of F and mark the position of florist.
  • Using Statement 6 which says E is an immediate neighbour of B & C we can determine the position of E & C
  • Now Considering Statement 4 i.e. Both immediate neighbours of C face outside, Direction of D & E can be determined
  • Using Statement 3 i.e. D is not an immediate neighbour of H & B, we will get the position of D
  • Using Statement 7 which says A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk, we get the position of A & G thus completing the whole circle
  • After completing the circle we get to know that D is a florist
  • Using Statement 13 we get to know A is an engineer
  • Statement 12 i.e. The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer : we can determine the profession of B which is mechanic
  • Combination of Statement 11,13 & 14 explain us that typist is the immediate neighbour of Clerk and it is given that G cannot be a typist helps to evaluate that G is a doctor and F is the Typist who faces outside the circle.
  • Statement 8 i.e. The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa) gives the direction of B since F is outside so B must be towards centre.
  • From Statement 10 i.e. E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic, we get the direction of A and the profession of E as scientist.
  • Statement 9 i.e. both the immediate neighbours of D will face same direction as of typist gives the direction of G & C.
  • C is a Accountant as all profession are listed

    Arrangement: 

QUESTION: 15

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, some facing the centre while some facing outside, not necessarily in the same order. Each belongs to a particular profession - Clerk, Accountant, Scientist, Mechanic, Engineer, Florist, Doctor and Typist.

● B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre

● F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist.

● D is not an immediate neighbour of H and B.

● Both immediate neighbours of C face outside.

● C is neither a Mechanic nor a Doctor.

● E is an immediate neighbour of B and C.

● A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk.

● The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa).

● Both immediate neighbours of D face the same direction as that of Typist.

● E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic.

● The Typist is an immediate neighbour of the Clerk.

● The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer.

● G is neither a Typist nor an Accountant. 
● A is an engineer and the typist faces outside the centre and sits immediately opposite to Doctor.

Q. What is the profession of B?

Solution:

The profession of B is - Mechanic

  • By Using Statement 1 i.e. B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre : we get the Position of H and B & Profession of H
  • Further Statement 2 i.e. F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist: we can determine the position of F and mark the position of florist.
  • Using Statement 6 which says E is an immediate neighbour of B & C we can determine the position of E & C
  • Now Considering Statement 4 i.e. Both immediate neighbours of C face outside, Direction of D & E can be determined
  • Using Statement 3 i.e. D is not an immediate neighbour of H & B, we will get the position of D
  • Using Statement 7 which says A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk, we get the position of A & G thus completing the whole circle
  • After completing the circle we get to know that D is a florist
  • Using Statement 13 we get to know A is an engineer
  • Statement 12 i.e. The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer : we can determine the profession of B which is mechanic
  • Combination of Statement 11,13 & 14 explain us that typist is the immediate neighbour of Clerk and it is given that G cannot be a typist helps to evaluate that G is a doctor and F is the Typist who faces outside the circle.
  • Statement 8 i.e. The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa) gives the direction of B since F is outside so B must be towards centre.
  • From Statement 10 i.e. E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic, we get the direction of A and the profession of E as scientist.
  • Statement 9 i.e. both the immediate neighbours of D will face same direction as of typist gives the direction of G & C.
  • C is a Accountant as all profession are listed

    Arrangement: 

QUESTION: 16

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, some facing the centre while some facing outside, not necessarily in the same order. Each belongs to a particular profession - Clerk, Accountant, Scientist, Mechanic, Engineer, Florist, Doctor and Typist.

● B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre

● F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist.

● D is not an immediate neighbour of H and B.

● Both immediate neighbours of C face outside.

● C is neither a Mechanic nor a Doctor.

● E is an immediate neighbour of B and C.

● A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk.

● The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa).

● Both immediate neighbours of D face the same direction as that of Typist.

● E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic.

● The Typist is an immediate neighbour of the Clerk.

● The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer.

● G is neither a Typist nor an Accountant. 
● A is an engineer and the typist faces outside the centre and sits immediately opposite to Doctor.

Q. Which of the following gives the correct position of F?

Solution:

The correct position of F is - Second to the right of Doctor 

  • By Using Statement 1 i.e. B sits 3rd to the left of H. H, who is a Clerk faces the centre : we get the Position of H and B & Profession of H
  • Further Statement 2 i.e. F sits 2nd to the right of B. E sits second to the left of Florist: we can determine the position of F and mark the position of florist.
  • Using Statement 6 which says E is an immediate neighbour of B & C we can determine the position of E & C
  • Now Considering Statement 4 i.e. Both immediate neighbours of C face outside, Direction of D & E can be determined
  • Using Statement 3 i.e. D is not an immediate neighbour of H & B, we will get the position of D
  • Using Statement 7 which says A is not an immediate neighbour of Clerk, we get the position of A & G thus completing the whole circle
  • After completing the circle we get to know that D is a florist
  • Using Statement 13 we get to know A is an engineer
  • Statement 12 i.e. The Mechanic is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer : we can determine the profession of B which is mechanic
  • Combination of Statement 11,13 & 14 explain us that typist is the immediate neighbour of Clerk and it is given that G cannot be a typist helps to evaluate that G is a doctor and F is the Typist who faces outside the circle.
  • Statement 8 i.e. The immediate neighbours of A face opposite directions (i.e. if one face the centre, the other faces outside and vice-versa) gives the direction of B since F is outside so B must be towards centre.
  • From Statement 10 i.e. E is neither an Accountant nor a Mechanic. A faces the same direction as that of Mechanic, we get the direction of A and the profession of E as scientist.
  • Statement 9 i.e. both the immediate neighbours of D will face same direction as of typist gives the direction of G & C.
  • C is a Accountant as all profession are listed

    Arrangement: 

QUESTION: 17

Inflation is on a rise since the last decade. In a country with such a huge population food production can become an issue. The other factor adding to this is global warming and almost to none rains. Hence Dr. Singh assured a FICCI delegation that he would take every possible action to bring down food prices.

Q. Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement?

Solution:

From the statement it is dear that FICI has raised the issue of food prices. From this it can be inferred that FICCI is concerned about food prices. Hence choice (1) is an inference. FICCI has approached Dr. Singh with the issue of food prices and Dr. Singh has assured them that he would take action. From this it can be concluded that Dr. Singh is responsible for control of food prices. Hence, choice (2) can be conclusion from the given statement. The statement does not refer to the capacity in which Dr. Singh has made the promise singh has said that he will take all possible measures to bring down food prices. Hence (4) is an assumption.

QUESTION: 18

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

There are five statues – L, M, N, O and Q each of them having different height and made of different material marble, Silver, Gold, Slate, basalt. Statue L is smaller than only statue M but not made by using Marble or Silver. Statue O is smaller than statue N but not made by Gold. Statue which is smallest made by Gold. The height of second smallest statue is 11 ft and my Basalt. The tallest statue is of 20 ft but not made by Slate or marble.

Q. What will be the height of statue Q?

Solution:

1. Statue L is smaller than only statue M but not made by using Marble or Silver. 
M > L (M is the Longest) 
2. Statue O is smaller than statue N but not made by Gold. 
N > O 
3. Statue which is smallest made by Gold. 
Means Q is the smallest one. 
So the right sequence is: M > L > N > O > Q 

Hence, the height of statue P is 9 ft.

QUESTION: 19

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

There are five statues – L, M, N, O and Q each of them having different height and made of different material marble, Silver, Gold, Slate, basalt. Statue L is smaller than only statue M but not made by using Marble or Silver. Statue O is smaller than statue N but not made by Gold. Statue which is smallest made by Gold. The height of second smallest statue is 11 ft and my Basalt. The tallest statue is of 20 ft but not made by Slate or marble.

Q. What will be the height of the third tallest statue?

Solution:

1. Statue L is smaller than only statue M but not made by using Marble or Silver. 
M > L (M is the Longest) 
2. Statue O is smaller than statue N but not made by Gold. 
N > O 
3. Statue which is smallest made by Gold. 
Means Q is the smallest one. 
So the right sequence is: M > L > N > O > Q 

Hence, the height of third tallest statue will be small from 20 ft and long from 11 ft means it will be 13 ft.

QUESTION: 20

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

There are five statues – L, M, N, O and Q each of them having different height and made of different material marble, Silver, Gold, Slate, basalt. Statue L is smaller than only statue M but not made by using Marble or Silver. Statue O is smaller than statue N but not made by Gold. Statue which is smallest made by Gold. The height of second smallest statue is 11 ft and my Basalt. The tallest statue is of 20 ft but not made by Slate or marble.

Q. Statue L is made by which stone?

Solution:

1. Statue L is smaller than only statue M but not made by using Marble or Silver. 
M > L (M is the Longest) 
2. Statue O is smaller than statue N but not made by Gold. 
N > O 
3. Statue which is smallest made by Gold. 
Means Q is the smallest one. 
So the right sequence is: M > L > N > O > Q 

Hence, statue L is made by Slate.

QUESTION: 21

Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present, and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 
 

Q. Which of the following statement(s) would the author most likely agree with?
I. It will not be possible for the government to offload more than 50% of its stake in Air India because of the enormous amount of debt the airline has accumulated over the years.
II. Air India officials have been intentionally hiding the actual figures from the potential bidders.
III. Prospective investors have requested the government to break up the airline into four entities as that would help them in evaluation.

Solution:

The author would agree with none of the given statements. Nowhere in the passage does the author tell us that it would not be possible for the government to sell its stakes in Air India because of the airline’s debt. Nor the author tell us that the Air India officials had deliberately not revealed the exact amount of debt. Finally, though the passage states that the government has indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities, we do not have information which suggests this step/action was asked for by the prospective investors. Therefore, option E is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 22

Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present, and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 

 

Q. According to the passage, why does the government want to disinvest its stakes in Air India?

Solution:

Refer to the first paragraph of the passage. The author clearly tells us that the government wants to “to offload at least 51 per cent … to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business”. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 23

Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present, and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 

Q. According to prospective bidders, which of the following is the most obvious problem that no one is willing to discuss?

Solution:

Refer to the third paragraph of the passage, which talks about the elephant in the room, or in other words, the most obvious problem that no one is willing to discuss. The author says that “the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books” is a matter of great concern for all potential bidders as no one seemed to know the exact amount of debt that Air India had managed to accumulate over the years. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 24

Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present, and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 

 

Q. Why has the Civil Aviation Minister, A Gajapathi Raju, called the airline’s books “bad”?

Solution:

Refer to the fifth paragraph of the passage, where the author tells us that the Aviation Minister called Air India’s books “bad” because of the Rs. 70,000 crore debt that airline owed. Hence, option E is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 25

Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present, and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 

 

Q. Which of the following statements is true about Air India as per the given passage?

Solution:

Option B is the correct answer. Refer to the last sentence of the first paragraph, where the author refers to Air India as the “national carrier” and tells us how the government intends to sell off a percentage of the company to a private entity. The rest of the options are all incorrect.

QUESTION: 26

Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present, and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 

 

Q. Which of the following correctly describes the tone of the given passage?

Solution:

The author of the passage is clearly analyzing the financial condition of Air India and hence, the correct tone of the passage would be option B – analytical.

QUESTION: 27

Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present, and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 

 

Q. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the given passage?

Solution:

A title is meant to summarize the author’s ideas/points succinctly and it is usually the common theme that runs through the passage. The central theme of this passage is about the government’s disinvestment from Air India. Hence, option C – Divestment of Air India is the most appropriate title of this passage.

QUESTION: 28

Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present, and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 

 

Q. Which of the following is the MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the given word? 
CONTINGENT

Solution:

Contingent = conditional; unforeseen Hence, unforeseen is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 29

Direction:Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 
The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 
 

Q. Which of the following is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word? 
EXPEDITE

Solution:

Expedite = make something happen faster Urge = (noun): very strong desire, (verb): push for, to encourage Grease wheels = make something happen faster Cut the red tape = make something happen faster Assist = help Hinder = to obstruct; cause a slowdown Hence, hinder is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 30

Direction:Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 
The Union government is sparing no effort to expedite the process of strategic disinvestment from Air India, the largest such exercise in Independent India. It has put in place a high-level group of ministers to decide the modalities of this crucial process. The intent is to offload at least 51 per cent in the bleeding national carrier to a private entity so that the government no longer stays in the airline business. 
The key question is: despite the noble intentions, does the government have a handle on the actual financial condition of the Maharaja to dress it up for sale? Are the books of the airline in order? 
The elephant in the room, according to potential bidders, is the extent of liabilities on the airline’s books. A representative of one potential bidder said no one seems to know the extent of liabilities, present and contingent, on the airline and this one figure may well determine the success of the disinvestment. 
“Everyone more or less knows the extent of losses at Air India. But different figures are emerging on the liabilities. What are the valuations for ground handling, land assets, bilateral traffic rights, aircraft – all this needs to be assigned. Then, liabilities need to be accounted for. These figures are being brushed under the carpet,” this person said. 
Remember, Civil Aviation Minister A Gajapathi Raju has said several times in the past that the airline’s books are “bad”. Late last month, he was quoted saying that the debt on Air India’s books may be closer to Rs 70,000 crore rather than the previously thought Rs 50,000 crore. 
That is an increase of about 40 per cent. Are there hidden gems in the airline’s books which are only now being discovered as it readies for sell-off? Air India officials pointed out that the debt was close to Rs 50,000 crore if only long-term debt and working-capital debt were considered. But if all the current and contingent liabilities were included, another about Rs 20,000 crore gets added, taking the total debt close to Rs 70,000 crore. While this is sound accounting, it is certain to send out confusing signals to potential investors. 
The government has now indicated that it wants to break up the airline into four distinct entities and transfer some of the unsustainable debt into a separate entity. This will likely unlock valuations and help potential bidders in evaluating the merits of each part of Air India. 
How clueless the government is about Air India’s books is apparent from the latest disclosure about the airline’s financial performance in 2016-17. On the face of it, it seems the airline added about Rs 1,930 crore to its net loss overnight due to certain accounting practices. 
In this written reply in Lok Sabha, Minister of State for Civil Aviation Jayant Sinha said on 21 December last year that the provisional net loss of Air India was Rs 3,643 crore for 2016-17. Since this was marginally lower than the net loss declared in the previous fiscal (2015-16) and also because this was the second year that Air India was expected to declare a modest operational profit, there was all-round cheer. The loss-laden and over-leveraged airline was finally turning around! 
 

Q. Which of the following best expresses the meaning of ‘brushed under the carpet’?

Solution:

The phrase means to ignore, deny, or conceal from public view or knowledge something that is embarrassing,unappealing, or damaging to one's reputation.

QUESTION: 31

Directions: Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. 

A. India and Pakistan can look forward to meeting some of their energy demands through gas from this pipeline, which promises to be a major confidence building measure for the region. 
B. Afghanistan has said it will raise a 7,000 member security force to guard the $10 million Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan- India (TAPI) gas pipeline project within its territory, an announcement that comes close on the heels of PM Modi’s visit to the country where regional connectivity projects, including the pipeline, were discussed. 
C. He said procurement for demining will be completed by the January month and work on clearing the pipeline passage will begin in April.
D. Mines and petroleum minister Daud Shah Saba told the upper house of his country’s parliament that the force will provide security during the implementation of the project and demining of the route of the pipeline within Afghanistan. 
E. The project poses logistical challenges since the 1,800 km pipeline will pass through areas of Afghanistan and Pakistan plagued by Taliban and separatist insurgents. 
F. The announcement is heartening for India since many of country’s projects in Afghanistan have been targeted by terrorist groups. 
G. The official further said the precise role and responsibilities of each host country are being framed and a team will be created to ensure operational continuity so as to undertake the rapid repair of critical facilities and equipment in case of sabotage or accident.


Q. Which of the following will be the First sentence?

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Directions: Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. 

A. India and Pakistan can look forward to meeting some of their energy demands through gas from this pipeline, which promises to be a major confidence building measure for the region. 
B. Afghanistan has said it will raise a 7,000 member security force to guard the $10 million Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan- India (TAPI) gas pipeline project within its territory, an announcement that comes close on the heels of PM Modi’s visit to the country where regional connectivity projects, including the pipeline, were discussed. 
C. He said procurement for demining will be completed by the January month and work on clearing the pipeline passage will begin in April.
D. Mines and petroleum minister Daud Shah Saba told the upper house of his country’s parliament that the force will provide security during the implementation of the project and demining of the route of the pipeline within Afghanistan. 
E. The project poses logistical challenges since the 1,800 km pipeline will pass through areas of Afghanistan and Pakistan plagued by Taliban and separatist insurgents. 
F. The announcement is heartening for India since many of country’s projects in Afghanistan have been targeted by terrorist groups. 
G. The official further said the precise role and responsibilities of each host country are being framed and a team will be created to ensure operational continuity so as to undertake the rapid repair of critical facilities and equipment in case of sabotage or accident.


Q. Which of the following will be the Last sentence?

 

 

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Directions: Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. 

A. India and Pakistan can look forward to meeting some of their energy demands through gas from this pipeline, which promises to be a major confidence building measure for the region. 
B. Afghanistan has said it will raise a 7,000 member security force to guard the $10 million Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan- India (TAPI) gas pipeline project within its territory, an announcement that comes close on the heels of PM Modi’s visit to the country where regional connectivity projects, including the pipeline, were discussed. 
C. He said procurement for demining will be completed by the January month and work on clearing the pipeline passage will begin in April.
D. Mines and petroleum minister Daud Shah Saba told the upper house of his country’s parliament that the force will provide security during the implementation of the project and demining of the route of the pipeline within Afghanistan. 
E. The project poses logistical challenges since the 1,800 km pipeline will pass through areas of Afghanistan and Pakistan plagued by Taliban and separatist insurgents. 
F. The announcement is heartening for India since many of country’s projects in Afghanistan have been targeted by terrorist groups. 
G. The official further said the precise role and responsibilities of each host country are being framed and a team will be created to ensure operational continuity so as to undertake the rapid repair of critical facilities and equipment in case of sabotage or accident.


Q. Which of the following will be the Third sentence?

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Directions: Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. 

A. India and Pakistan can look forward to meeting some of their energy demands through gas from this pipeline, which promises to be a major confidence building measure for the region. 
B. Afghanistan has said it will raise a 7,000 member security force to guard the $10 million Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan- India (TAPI) gas pipeline project within its territory, an announcement that comes close on the heels of PM Modi’s visit to the country where regional connectivity projects, including the pipeline, were discussed. 
C. He said procurement for demining will be completed by the January month and work on clearing the pipeline passage will begin in April.
D. Mines and petroleum minister Daud Shah Saba told the upper house of his country’s parliament that the force will provide security during the implementation of the project and demining of the route of the pipeline within Afghanistan. 
E. The project poses logistical challenges since the 1,800 km pipeline will pass through areas of Afghanistan and Pakistan plagued by Taliban and separatist insurgents. 
F. The announcement is heartening for India since many of country’s projects in Afghanistan have been targeted by terrorist groups. 
G. The official further said the precise role and responsibilities of each host country are being framed and a team will be created to ensure operational continuity so as to undertake the rapid repair of critical facilities and equipment in case of sabotage or accident.

Q. Which of the following will be the Sixth sentence?

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Directions: Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. 

A. India and Pakistan can look forward to meeting some of their energy demands through gas from this pipeline, which promises to be a major confidence building measure for the region. 
B. Afghanistan has said it will raise a 7,000 member security force to guard the $10 million Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan- India (TAPI) gas pipeline project within its territory, an announcement that comes close on the heels of PM Modi’s visit to the country where regional connectivity projects, including the pipeline, were discussed. 
C. He said procurement for demining will be completed by the January month and work on clearing the pipeline passage will begin in April.
D. Mines and petroleum minister Daud Shah Saba told the upper house of his country’s parliament that the force will provide security during the implementation of the project and demining of the route of the pipeline within Afghanistan. 
E. The project poses logistical challenges since the 1,800 km pipeline will pass through areas of Afghanistan and Pakistan plagued by Taliban and separatist insurgents. 
F. The announcement is heartening for India since many of country’s projects in Afghanistan have been targeted by terrorist groups. 
G. The official further said the precise role and responsibilities of each host country are being framed and a team will be created to ensure operational continuity so as to undertake the rapid repair of critical facilities and equipment in case of sabotage or accident.


Q. Which of the following will the Fifth sentence?

Solution:

Correct Sequence: BFDCEGA
The central idea of all the sentence relates to Afghanistan's raising of 7000 security personnel to guard the TAPI pipeline. Thus, sentence B is the opening sentence of the series. what should follow this announcement logically is India heaving a sigh of relief given she has a number of projects at stake due to the threat of terrorism. thus, sentence F should follow B. 
C and D form a mandatory pair, given both the sentences talk about the same person, i.e. about the petroleum ministers' statement, and are in continuation. D will precede C as it states the minister's name and sentence C starts with the pronoun 'he' and continues with his statement regarding the project. 
Statement E should follow statement C because the latter ends saying that the project will begin in April, so what should follow is the course to be taken after the project begins.Statement E talks about the challenge to be faced as a result of laying of the pipeline.
Statement G builds on the argument of the official as is exemplified by the use of 'further', and hence should come after statement E. Also, E mentions Afghanistan and Pakistan, as the two major countries via which the pipeline would pass and statement G uses the word ' each host country', thus making G and E a mandatory pair, with E preceding G. 
What is left is statement A which gives us a larger picture as a result of laying this pipeline which includes the meeting of the energy needs along with improving bilateral relations.

QUESTION: 36

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as 'No error'. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

As a result, the act of writing (A)/ turns from moulding a lump of clay in to (B)/ a unique form to filling (C)/ a set of jars that are already fired (D)/ No error.

Solution:

The error lies in the incorrect use of preposition. Use in to, two words, when it is part of a verb phrase. In instances when it is part of the verb, it is acting as an adverb and to is either a preposition, which takes an object or part of an infinitive, such as to run. One of the main uses of the preposition into is to indicate movement toward the inside of a place. Hence, B is correct.

QUESTION: 37

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as 'No error'. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

And that’s the real reason for education, (A)/ to get those good grades without (B)/ thinking to much and using (C)/ up too much time (D)/ No error.

Solution:

The error lies in the incorrect usage of an adverb. ‘To’ is a preposition with several meanings, including “toward” and “until”. ‘Too’ is an adverb that can mean “excessively” or “also.” Just to be clear - two is pronounced the same as to and too, but it can't be used instead of either of them because it's a number. Hence, C is correct.

QUESTION: 38

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as 'No error'. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Instrument of aggress, and facilitator (A)/ of its photographic capturing, (B)/ the history of flash photography (C)/ is disconcertingly inseparable from violence (D)/ No error.

Solution:

The error lies in the incorrect usage of a verb. Instead of verb ‘aggress’, noun ‘aggression’ should be used. The segment demands the usage of the noun because of the rule of parallelism. Parallelism refers to using elements in sentences that are grammatically similar or identical in structure, sound, meaning, or meter. This technique adds symmetry, effectiveness, and balance to the written piece. ‘Facilitator’ is a noun and as per the rule, ‘aggression’ is the perfect word to use in the segment. Hence, A is correct.

QUESTION: 39

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as 'No error'. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Without language there would (A)/ be no culture, no literature, (B)/ no science, no historical, (C)/ no commercial enterprise or industry (D)/ No error.

Solution:

The error lies in the incorrect usage of an adjective. The noun ‘culture’, ‘literature’ and ‘science’ used in the above sentence are not going with the adjective ‘historical’. The noun ‘history’ should be used here in accordance with the rule of parallelism. Parallelism refers to using elements in sentences that are grammatically similar or identical in structure, sound, meaning, or meter. This technique adds symmetry, effectiveness, and balance to the written piece. Hence, C is correct.

QUESTION: 40

Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as 'No error'. Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Material fixes so as a universal (A)/ basic income will make no difference (B)/ to societies in which the (C)/ basic relationships are felt to be unjust (D)/ No error.

Solution:

The error lies in the incorrect usage of the pronoun. Structures using 'such' and 'so' are similar in meaning, but different in construction. The main difference between the two structures is that 'such' takes a noun phrase, whereas 'so' takes an adjective. The above segment has a noun phrase. Hence, A is correct.

QUESTION: 41

Direction: The given question has three blanks, each blank followed by a word given in the brackets. If the given word suits the blank, mark ‘no correction required’ as the answer. If the given word doesn’t suit the blank, choose the set of words from the given options that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Community life is about living together in loving ______ (exasperation), caring and sharing and there is no room for anger or competition but ______ (divine) happiness that comes from true ______ (consistency).

Solution:

The first blank should contain a word having meaning similar to peace or unity as the above sentence talks about living in a community with unity and care. Out of the given words only harmony suits the best as “Vexation” means annoyance, “exasperation” means irritation, “Aggravation” means worsen and “Astonishment” means surprise. The second blank should contain a word that means real or authentic because the sentence states that one should not be angry or competitive, but truly happy while living in a community. “Genuine” fits correctly out of the given options as “counterfeit” and “hoax” means something which is fake. The third blank should contain a word that means satisfaction or fulfillment because the sentence talks about happiness that one can get from being satisfied. “Contentment” has the similar meaning, while no other words fit correctly. Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 42

Direction: The given question has three blanks, each blank followed by a word given in the brackets. If the given word suits the blank, mark ‘no correction required’ as the answer. If the given word doesn’t suit the blank, choose the set of words from the given options that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Candles and incense burners are a good way to ______ (diminish) positive vibes and to ensure healing energies in our homes for its ______ (travellers) and they also _____ (demoralise) the mood.

Solution:

The first blank should contain a word that means to lure or tempt as the sentence speaks of how burning candles and incense sticks attract positive vibes. The words “Abbreviate” means to reduce, “Sabotage” means to ruin and “Parry” means to repel and none of these words fit correctly to the blank except “attract”. The second blank should contain a word that means residents because in the given sentence, residents of the home are being referred to and out of the given words only “inhabitants” has a similar meaning. The third blank should contain a word that means to enhance or raise since the above sentence talk about how candles and incense burners uplift the mood. Out of the given option, “uplift” and “boost” both are correct, but since the other options are correct only in option C, we will be considering “uplift” here. Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 43

Direction: The given question has three blanks, each blank followed by a word given in the brackets. If the given word suits the blank, mark ‘no correction required’ as the answer. If the given word doesn’t suit the blank, choose the set of words from the given options that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

A stage comes when we realise the _____ (desire) of running after name and fame at the _____ (peak) of our health, peace of mind and integrity and we begin to _____ (neglect) the true meaning and purpose to our lives.

Solution:

The first blank should contain a word that signifies worthlessness or uselessness since the context of the above sentence speaks of the uselessness behind running after name and fame. The words “Delirium” means a disturbed state of mind and “Zest” means enthusiasm and none of these words except “futility” fits correctly in the blank. The second blank should contain “cost” out of the given options because the sentence speaks of how people tend to run after name and fame and sacrifice their health in the process. The third blank should contain a word that means to find out or seek because the context speaks of realising the unworthiness of materialistic things and finding the true meaning of life. Out of the given options only “discover” fits in the blank. “Impair” and “vandalize” mean to damage. Hence, option A is correct.

QUESTION: 44

Direction: The given question has three blanks, each blank followed by a word given in the brackets. If the given word suits the blank, mark ‘no correction required’ as the answer. If the given word doesn’t suit the blank, choose the set of words from the given options that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Travel writing should ______ (provoke) us of how much of the world we don’t know about, _____ (besides) our countries as we all think we know everything, but so ____ (rarely) we don’t.

Solution:

The first blank should contain “remind” because the sentence talks about how travel writing should cause people to remember that there are still lot of places in the world they are unaware of. The words “Exhilarate” means to excite and “Stimulate” means to raise. The second blank should contain “outside” the rest of the world reside outside the country. No other option fits in the blank. The third blank should contain a word that means frequently or many times as the sentence states that people think they know the whole world but they mostly don’t. Out of the given options, both “often” and “frequently” are correct but as the other words are not fitting in the blank, we will not consider “frequently”.Hence, option C is correct.

QUESTION: 45

Direction: The given question has three blanks, each blank followed by a word given in the brackets. If the given word suits the blank, mark ‘no correction required’ as the answer. If the given word doesn’t suit the blank, choose the set of words from the given options that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

In the current study, 24 young adults _____ (spurned) a working memory task in the morning _____ (opposing) either a full night of sleep or a night of ____ (reliability).

Solution:

The first blank should contain a word that means to execute or to complete as the sentence speaks of a task been carried out for attaining a result, not “spurned” which means to refuse. Out of the given options “performed” fits correctly. The second blank should contain “following” as the sentence talks about a task been carried out that followed some experiments. The third blank should contain a word having meaning opposite to “sleep” as the two words have been joined by “or” conjunction. Out of the given words, only “wakefulness” is the opposite of sleep. “Swiftness” means quickness, “soundness” means the state of being in a good condition and “endurance” means tolerance. Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 46

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence is highlighted.  Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. No correction required.

Television serial junkies in the United States have been savouring a period drama called The Americans – that could well have been called The Russians – since the past four years.

Solution:

The use of "since" in statement A is incorrect. “Since” is used when a particular time has been mentioned. 
The given statement B is in the present tense. Hence, the use of "had" is wrong. 
Statement C has error of plurality “s” has to be added to the word year. 
In Statement E, "For" is used when a time period is given from the starting to end point as "four years" whereas "from" is used as a function word to indicate a starting point of a physical movement or a starting point in measuring.

QUESTION: 47

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence is highlighted.  Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. No correction required.

With the World Health Assembly – the decision-making body of the WHO – meeting today in Geneva, the big political issue is Taiwan’s exclusion from this important health forum.

Solution:

Statement A is incorrect. A meeting is being held by WHO from today, to focus or indicate starting time of an action we should use “from” Statement B is wrong due to the unnecessary use of “for”. In Statement C, “has been” is used to express something that started in the past and has lasted into the present time whereas the meeting is to be held from “today”. Hence, the use of “has been” is incorrect. Statement D is awkward and wrong.Report Solution

QUESTION: 48

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence is highlighted.  Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. No correction required.

Bollywood lyricist Naqsh Lyallpuri, who passed away on Sunday, write a select bunch of unforgetted songs that arehummed to this day.

Solution:

The Statement is in past tense. Hence, the correct verb to be used is "wrote", making option A incorrect. Statement B is incorrect because the word "bunch" is used and bunch means a “bundle or a number of things”. Hence, it will take a plural noun i.e “songs”. Statement D, the use of “forgettable” is contrary to the meaning of the rest of the sentence and hence is incorrect. Statement E, the correct relative pronoun to be used with living things is “who”. Hence, statement E is incorrect.Report Solution

QUESTION: 49

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence is highlighted.  Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. No correction required.

To be able to imagine a world without the Beatles required the same leap of imagination that could allow us to believe the band with any one of its members missing.

Solution:

Statement A, "Requires" is the correct form of verb to be used in the given statement. Statement B, imaginary leap means a dreamlike jump or imagined jump whereas "leap of imagination" means a spring or a jump toward imagination, which sounds correct. Statement D, There is no “ideas” or “types of jump” mentioned thus "these" is wrong and a definite article "the" is required before "same leap". Use “the” when you assume there is just one of something in that place, even if it has not been mentioned before. The verb “leap” is used here with the adjective “same”, that has sufficient reason to use “the”. Statement E is ending with "allow us" which is incomplete without "to". “To” is used to show the “reason”.

QUESTION: 50

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence is highlighted.  Below the sentence alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. No correction required.

Having spent most of my working life and a major chunk of my lifespan count commuting from home in north Delhi to office in central Delhi, it always comes as a great relief to visit any place of smaller comparison, where anything is reachable in a few minutes, whether by vehicle or by foot.

Solution:

Statement B is incorrect because of "for". “For” and “to” are used commonly to show reason. Hence, “to” is appropriate in the given statement. Statement C, the use of “smallest” with “comparison” is incorrect. Since the word “comparison” is used there is no need to use a superlative with it. Unnecessary preposition "within" is used in statement D. “Within” means “inside of something”. Hence "in" would be the correct usage.

QUESTION: 51

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.

Q. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Solution:

The sentence in question talks about the layouts in terms of resources and plans that the cities have already provided with respect to the Smart City project.Thus the word in the first blank should be a word with a meaning close to providing. Furnished means to provide and hence option B is the answer. 

QUESTION: 52

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.

Q. Find the appropriate word in each case.  

Solution:

The second blank conveys the idea that the funds must be used for 'smart interventions' implying making a profit. The most plausible way of using a fund in order to derive profit is via investing. Thus, D is the correct option.  

QUESTION: 53

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.

Q. Find the appropriate word in each case.  

Solution:

The third blank talks about a mixture of something along with greenfield development. The two words are separated by the conjunction, 'and', thereby implying that the two words are to be taken jointly. 'Redevelopment' goes apt with greenfield development in this context.  

QUESTION: 54

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.

Find the appropriate word in each case.  

Solution:

Special purpose vehicles major objective is to channelise funds into the projects they are meant for. The word construct is used for something more abstract. The word build is used for something physical and in this case build fits in aptly.  

QUESTION: 55

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.

Q. Find the appropriate word in each case.  

Solution:

The sentence states that the government policy is related to urban infrastructure. Proceeding, raising or advancing of urban infrastructure does not make sense in conveying the meaning to the central idea. 'Well developed' does not fit in grammatically. The apt word is 'upgrading', which means to better the already existing facilities.

QUESTION: 56

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.

Q. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Solution:

The sentence preceding the blank talks about the McKinsey's report's emphasis on these Smart Cities in determining India's growth trajectory.  The blank thus should fit in the word for the group of such cities. Hence, 'clusters' is the answer.   

QUESTION: 57

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.

Q. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Solution:

Logically, the supply of housing and public transport which is the basis of growth for any area should be reasonably priced for obvious reasons. Thus, the appropriate word in this context will be affordable. 

QUESTION: 58

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.

Q. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Solution:

The concept of Smart City is not standardized and varies accordingly with respect to countries, levels of development and resources available. The word that fits in the blank would be conceptualization; i.e. the action of forming an idea or a plan. 

QUESTION: 59

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.

Q. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Solution:

We need a word which will signify the act of preparing of a city vision and smart city plan. 'Building' is used with respect to a physical entity. 'Creation' is used majorly in the natural sense of the term. 'Form' will make the sentence grammatically incorrect. The only word going along, in this case, is formulation. We generally use 'formulation' when we talk about ideas and plans. 

QUESTION: 60

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

According to the government, a Smart City is “not a destination but a series of small steps in that direction”. The list of 20 Smart Cities and towns shortlisted by the Centre, appears to be a decisive step in this direction, considering that these cities have already (31) plans to cumulatively mobilize resources to the tune of Rs 50,802 Cr over the next five years under the public-private-partnership route and (32) these funds for rolling out “smart” interventions across an area spanning 26,735 acres through a mix of (33) and greenfield development. These include an integrated urban planning effort with a sharper focus on infrastructure, land use planning, transport, design, and architecture. 

Special purpose vehicles are likely to be floated for channeling these funds to (34) these Smart Cities. Given that the urbanization level in India is still at just around 31 per cent, far lower than China’s 54 per cent, Brazil’s 90 per cent and well over 80 per cent in most developed economies, the NDA government’s policy thrust on (35) urban infrastructure could see this list of 20 Smart Cities being expanded to 100 urban centers and the up gradation of basic infrastructure — under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) — across 500 cities with outlays of Rs 48,000 Cr and Rs 50,000 Cr, respectively. 

The importance of these urban centers as drivers of India’s growth story cannot be underestimated. McKinsey’s report — India’s economic geography in 2025: States, clusters, and cities—had identified 49 metropolitan growth (36) covering 183 districts across India, which it estimated would contribute 77 per cent of India’s incremental GDP, 72 per cent of consuming-class households, and 73 per cent of its incremental income pool in the 2012-25 period. In terms of economic growth policy making in India, the supply of (37) housing and large enough public transportation networks is central to the growth prospects of any large metropolitan area. States need to priorities the long-term development of these areas, with the Centre stepping in wherever they overlap across states. 

There is no universally accepted definition of a Smart City, with the (38) varying from city-to-city and country-to-country, depending on the level of development, willingness to change and reform, resources and aspirations of the residents. According to the Ministry of Urban Development, the Smart City Mission marks a paradigm shift towards urban development in the country since it is based on ‘bottom up’ approach with the involvement of citizens in (39) of city vision and smart city plans and the urban local bodies and state governments (40) the mission with little say for the Ministry of Urban Development.
 

Q. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Solution:

The sentence conveys the idea that the vision and the smart city plan is at the dispense of the local bodies and citizens rather than that of the ministry of urban development. the word in the blank should convey the meaning of being under the directions of, and hence 'piloting', option B, is the correct option 

QUESTION: 61

______acts as temporary high speed holding area between the memory and the CPU thereby improving g processing capabilities.

Solution:

Cache memory is random access memory (RAM) that a computer microprocessor can access more quickly than it can access regular RAM. 
Note:- This memory is typically integrated directly with the CPU chip or placed on a separate chip that has a separate bus interconnect with the CPU.

QUESTION: 62

PNG was created as an improved, non-patented replacement for Graphics Interchange Format (GIF). What is full form of PNG?

Solution:

Portable Network Graphics (PNG) is a faster graphics file format that supports lossless data compression. PNG was created as an improved, non-patented replacement for Graphics Interchange Format (GIF), and is the most widely used lossless image compression format on the Internet. 
Note: PNG was designed for transferring images on the Internet, not for professional-quality print graphics, and therefore does not support non-RGB colour spaces such as CMYK.

QUESTION: 63

Who among the following has invented Java?

Solution:

James Arthur Gosling is a Canadian computer scientist best known as the father of the Java programminglanguage.

QUESTION: 64

In order to avoid memorizing e-mail address, you should use ____.

Solution:

In order to avoid memorizing e-mail address you should use Address book.

QUESTION: 65

Which one of the following is a key function of a firewall?

Solution:

A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of another file?

Solution:

“.BAK” is a file name extension used to signify a backup copy of a file. This common ‘.bak’ naming scheme makes it possible to retrieve the original contents of the file.

QUESTION: 67

Which of the following is not a guided transmission line ?

Solution:

Laser beamis a unguided transmission medium without wires. The receiver must be in the line of sight toreceive the signal.

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following is a secondary memory device?

Solution:

Disk storage is a general category of storage mechanisms where data are recorded by various electronic, magnetic, optical, or mechanical changes to a surface layer of one or more rotating disks. A disk drive is a device implementing such a storage mechanism.

QUESTION: 69

In half duplex mode _______.

Solution:

Half-duplex data transmission means that data can be transmitted in both directions on a signal carrier, but not at the same time. 
Note: For example, on a local area network using a technology that has half-duplex transmission, one workstation can send data on the line and then immediately receive data on the line from the same direction in which data was just transmitted.

QUESTION: 70

In Word, the feature that automatically correcting the most common of spelling errors and typos while writing?

Solution:

Autocorrect is a feature in many applications, including word processing programs, spreadsheets and search engines that will automatically detect and correct typos, misspelled words and incorrectcapitalization.

QUESTION: 71

SAP is an identifying label for network endpoints used in Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) networking. what is meaning of ‘SAP’?

Solution:

A Service Access Point (SAP) is an identifying label for network endpoints used in Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) networking.

QUESTION: 72

What is the full form of SIM?

Solution:

A subscriber identity module (SIM) is an integrated circuit that is intended to securely store the international mobile subscriber identity (IMSI) number and its related key, which are used to identify and authenticate subscribers on mobile telephony devices.

QUESTION: 73

Which device uses a handheld operating system?

Solution:

A tablet (along with smartphone)is one of the most commonly used handheld devices. It uses handheld OS like Android, iOS, Symbian etc

QUESTION: 74

To send another station a message, the main thing a user has to know ____.

Solution:

To send the message to any other station the user must know the other station address.

QUESTION: 75

In a computer, how many bits does a nibble signify?

Solution:

In computing, a nibble is a four-bit aggregation, or half an octet. It is also known as half-byte.Note:- In a networking ,the nibble is often called a semi-octet, quadbit,or quartet. 

QUESTION: 76

What is the full form of LSI?

Solution:

Large-scale integration (LSI) is the process of integrating or embedding thousands of transistors on a single silicon semiconductor microchip. LSI technology was conceived in the mid-1970s when computer processor microchips were under development.Note:- LSI is no longer in use. It was succeeded by very large-scale integration (VLSI) and ultra large-scale integration (ULSI) technologies.

QUESTION: 77

To allow someone else schedule your meetings and appointments, _______ feature of Outlook is used

Solution:

Delegate Access is most commonly used between a manager and his or her assistant, where the assistant (delegate) is responsible for processing the manager's incoming meeting requests or e-mail messages and coordinating the manager's schedule. This article assumes that scenario for explaining the feature; however, Delegate Access can be used between peers.

QUESTION: 78

Operating system and utility programs are in a class of software known as _______.

Solution:

System software is computer software designed to operate and control the computer hardware and to provide a platform for running application software.System software can be separated into two different categories, operating systems and utility software.

QUESTION: 79

Micro instruction are kept in _____.

Solution:

The control store contains the set of micro-instructions that are used to execute all of the programs run that computer. The control store is referenced by the MPC (the micro-program counter) a device similar to a register. 
Note: The MPC stores the location of the microinstruction that is currently being executed.

QUESTION: 80

‘Handshaking’ in Networking parlance means ____.

Solution:

Handshaking is a networking process where two computers establish a connection. Handshaking occurs when packets of data are exchanged between two computers.
Note: Handshaking is the action of exchanging standardized signals between devices in a computer network to regulate the transfer of data.

QUESTION: 81

India became the 69th member of European Bank for Reconstruction and Development. Where is the headquarters of European Bank for Reconstruction and Development?

Solution:

The headquarters of European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) is in London, United Kingdom. Recently India became the 69th member of the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development. This membership will enhance the economic interest of our country and also strengthen India’s international profile.

QUESTION: 82

The 6th edition of “Garuda Shakti” joint military exercise was held between India and ____.

Solution:

The 6th edition of “Garuda Shakti” joint military exercise was held between India and Indonesia in Bandung, the Capital of West Java Province, Indonesia. Note: The objective of Garuda Shakti is to strengthen relations between two armies of India and Indonesia and to enhance their ability to undertake joint tactical level operations.

QUESTION: 83

What is the new scheme launched by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi to ensure better healthcare facilities for the poor?

Solution:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Ayushman Bharat scheme to improve the healthcare facilities for the poor people. The two major initiatives in the health sector have announced in the scheme. • Health and Wellness Care • National Health Protection SchemeReport Solution

QUESTION: 84

Who has won the title of miss world 2017?

Solution:

India’s Manushi Chhillar (20) was crowned coveted Miss World crown for the year 2017. The win comes 17 years after Priyanka Chopra brought home coveted title in the year 2000. Reita Faria was first Indian woman to claim title back in 1966, followed by Aishwariya Rai Bachchan (1994), Diana Haydon (1997), Yukta Mookhey (1999), Priyanka chopra 2000.

QUESTION: 85

The Central Govt. has constituted a committee to draft New Direct Tax Legislation. The Committee is headed by__

Solution:

The Central Govt. has constituted a committee headed by Arbind Modi, to draft New Direct Tax Legislation and to look into the tax systems of different countries of the world. A permanent special invitee status has been given to Chief Economic Advisor Arvind Subramanian.

QUESTION: 86

Which state government has launched a programme Ama Gaon, Ama Vikas for development of rural areas?

Solution:

The Odisha government has launched a programme Ama Gaon, Ama Vikas (Our Village, Our Development) to reach out to the people in rural areas and involve themselves in the developmental activities.

QUESTION: 87

Which of the following is the rank of India on the list of countries with highest Non-Performing Assets (NPA) levels as per the report released by CARE Ratings?

Solution:

India has ranked 5th on the list of countries with highest Non-Performing Assets (NPA) levels as per the report released by CARE Ratings. On top of list, Greece has highest level of NPA in the world followed by Italy, Portugal and Irland.

QUESTION: 88

Which country became the first country in the world to launch its own cryptocurrency as a legal tender?

Solution:

Marshall Islands is the first country in the world to launch its own cryptocurrency as legal tender. This cryptocurrency is named SOV. Its legal tender status has been approved by the parliament of Marshall Islands. 
Note: Marshall Islands has been tied up with NEEMA, an Israeli financial technology startup, for issuing SOV.

QUESTION: 89

The Goods and Services Council has decided to implement the ‘e-way bill mechanism’ throughout the country. Which of the following is correct regarding the ‘e-way bill mechanism?’

Solution:

The Goods and Services Council has decided to implement the ‘e-way bill mechanism’ to bring uniformity the states for smooth inter-state movement of goods throughout the country from February 1, 2018. Now every transporter will have to carry a system-generated bill to move goods from one place to another. 
Note: The e-bay bill Bill is mandatorily for interstate transportation of goods beyond 10km with value of Rs. 50, 000.

QUESTION: 90

The Animal Welfare Board of India shifted the headquarters from Chennai to which place?

Solution:

The Union Government has shifted the headquarters of the Animal Welfare Board of India from Chennai (Tamil Nadu) to Ballabhgarh, Haryana. The Animal Welfare Board of India is statutory advisory body established in 1962.

QUESTION: 91

Who became the new Chief Minister of Nagaland?

Solution:

The Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party (NDPP) leader ‘Neiphiu Rio’ has been appointed as the new Chief Minister of Nagaland by Governor P B Acharya.

QUESTION: 92

Who won the 45th edition of the Deodhar Trophy 2017–18?

Solution:

India B clinched the 45th edition of the Deodhar Trophy by defeating Karnataka in the final at the Himachal Pradesh Cricket Association Stadium in Dharamsala. Note: Deodhar Trophy was named after Prof. D. B. Deodhar who was known as the Grand Old Man of Indian cricket.

QUESTION: 93

44th G7 Summit 2018 will be held in which country?

Solution:

The 44th G7 summit will be held in Canada (Le Manoir Richelieu in La Malbaie, Quebec). Thie will be the Sixth time since 1981 that Canada has hosted the meetings.

QUESTION: 94

Balpakram National Park is located in which of the following State?

Solution:

Balpakram National Park is a national park ranging from under 200 to over 800 meters above sea level, near the Garo Hills in Meghalaya, India.

QUESTION: 95

Bengaluru situated on the bank of which river?

Solution:

Bengaluru (Karnataka) situated on the bank of Vrishabhavathi river.

QUESTION: 96

The World Wildlife Day is observed every year all over the world on__

Solution:

The World Wildlife Day is observed every year all over the world on March 3. The theme of 2018 World Wildlife Day is “Big Cat: Predators under Threats”. The day is celebrated and implemented by the Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

QUESTION: 97

Recently “PENCIL portal” launched by home minister at the National Conference on Child Labour organised by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Here “PENCIL” stands for-

Solution:

The Union Home Minister Shri Rajnath Singh launched the Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour (PENCIL) Portal at the National Conference on Child Labour organised by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following state government has launched the ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming Project’?

Solution:

Himachal Pradesh government has launched the ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming Project’. Under the project, the role of Agricultural Scientists is very important. A group of five scientists should adopt one village for natural farming and the Himachal Pradesh government will provide the required assistance.

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following states became the best performing State under the MGNREGA?

Solution:

The West Bengal has emerged as the best performing state in allotting jobs and utilising funds under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). 
West Bengal generated more than 28.21 crore work days under the scheme so far in 2017-18 and spent more than ₹7,335.31 crores for it. 
State Work days Spent 
West Bengal 28.21 crore ₹7,335.31 crores 
Tamil Nadu 22.17 crore ₹5981.75 crores 
Andhra Pradesh 18.16 crore ₹5054.17 crore 
Goa(lowest) 94,000 ₹2.47 crore

QUESTION: 100

The headquarters of WTO is at?

Solution:

The WTO Secretariat, based in Geneva. It does not have branch offices outside Geneva. Since decisions are taken by the members themselves, the Secretariat does not have the decision-making role that other international bureaucracies are given. The WTO's top-level decision-making body is the Ministerial Conference, which meets at least once every two years.

QUESTION: 101

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it. 
The bar chart shows the discount percentage allowed on six different articles on two different days of the week i.e. Monday and Tuesday. The table provides us with the marked price of different articles. Some of the data are missing for the table. 
Note:The cost price on both days and the marked price on both days, of the articles are same

Q. If the difference in selling price of the article F on both the days is Rs. 100, then find the cost price of the same article if the profit obtained on Monday through F is 25%?

Solution:

Let the marked price of the article F on both days=100 
Discount on Monday=25% 
So selling price on Monday=75 
Discount on Tuesday=35% 
So selling price on Tuesday=65 
Difference=(75-65)=10 
Then it is given difference of selling price=100 
10%=100 
1%=10 
So selling price on Monday, 
75*10=750 
As profit is given on Monday then, 
125% of CP of Monday=750 
CP=600rs. 
Hence, option B.

QUESTION: 102

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it. 
The bar chart shows the discount percentage allowed on six different articles on two different days of the week i.e. Monday and Tuesday. The table provides us with the marked price of different articles. Some of the data are missing for the table. 
Note:The cost price on both days and the marked price on both days, of the articles are same

Q. If the profit on article D on Tuesday and that of article A on Tuesday is 20% and 27.5% respectively. Then find the ratio of cost price of article D and article A, if marked price of A is 3/4th of the marked price of article D?

Solution:

Let the marked price of article D=400x 
Let the marked price of article A=300x 
Discount of article D on Tuesday=25% 
Selling price of article D=400x * 75/100=300x 
Discount of article A on Tuesday=15% 
Selling price of article D=300x * 85/100=255x 
Profit of article D=20% 
Profit of article A=27.5% 
Ratio of cost prices of both articles, 
CPD * 120%/CPA *127.5%=SPD/SPA 
CPD * 120%/CPA *127.5%=300x/255x 
CPD/CPA=300*1275/255*1200 
CPD/CPA=5/4 
Hence, option C.

QUESTION: 103

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it. 
The bar chart shows the discount percentage allowed on six different articles on two different days of the week i.e. Monday and Tuesday. The table provides us with the marked price of different articles. Some of the data are missing for the table. 
Note:The cost price on both days and the marked price on both days, of the articles are same

Q. Total selling price of article A on Tuesday and article E on Monday is 1590. Then find the profit of article C on Monday, if the cost price of article C is 5/4 of the marked price of article A?

Solution:

Marked price of article E=1200 
Discount on Monday of article E=10% 
So selling price of article E on Monday=1200*90/100=1080 
Total selling price of article A on Tuesday and article E on Monday is 1590 
So selling price of article A on Tuesday=1590-1080=510 
Discount on Tuesday for article A=15% 
Let the marked price of article A=100 
So selling price of article A on Tuesday=100-15=85% 
Now, 85%=510 
Then 100%=600 
So marked price of article A=600 
Cost price of article C is 5/4 of the marked price of article A, 
So cost price of article C=600*5/4=750 
Marked price of article C=1400 
Discount on Monday=40% 
So selling price of article C on Monday=1400*60/100=840 
So profit of article C on Monday=840-750=90 
Hence, option D.

QUESTION: 104

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it. 
The bar chart shows the discount percentage allowed on six different articles on two different days of the week i.e. Monday and Tuesday. The table provides us with the marked price of different articles. Some of the data are missing for the table. 
Note:The cost price on both days and the marked price on both days, of the articles are same

Q. If the total cost price of article B and article D is 1500. Then find the cost price of article D, if the profit of article B on Tuesday is 5%?

Solution:

Marked price of article B=1500 
Discount of article B on Tuesday=30% 
Selling price of article B on Tuesday=1500*70/100=1050 
Profit of article B on Tuesday=5% 
So, 105%=1050 
Then CP of article B=1050*100/105=1000 
Total CP of article B and article D=1500 
CP of article D=1500-1000=500 
Hence, option E.

QUESTION: 105

There are two Bottles M and N filled with oil with different prices and with volumes 160 and 40 liters respectively. Equal quantities are drawn from both M and N in such a manner that the oil drawn from M is poured into N and oil drawn from N is poured into M. If the price per liter becomes equal in both Bottles. What is the (equal) quantity that was drawn from both M and N?

Solution:


Let quantity taken out from both = a litres
In bottle 'M':- ‘a’ litres are removed and ‘a’ litres of bottle N is added.
So, Rate (Rs/Litres) of bottle M after removal and then addition = [(160-a)p + aq]/160
Similarly rate of Bottle N after removal and then addition = [(40-a)q + ap]/40
On equating these equations:-
[(160-a)p + aq]/160 = [(40-a)q + ap]/40

we get a = 32 liters

QUESTION: 106

irection: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

125% of 3060- 85% of ? = 408 

Solution:

Let the required number be x then:-
3825 – 408= 85x/100 
3417= 85x/100 
x= 3417*100/85 
x= 4020

QUESTION: 107

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it. 
The bar chart shows the discount percentage allowed on six different articles on two different days of the week i.e. Monday and Tuesday. The table provides us with the marked price of different articles. Some of the data are missing for the table. 
Note:The cost price on both days and the marked price on both days, of the articles are same


Q. What is the sum of the selling prices of article B on Monday, article C and article E on Tuesday?

Solution:

Marked price of article B=1500 
Discount on Monday=25% 
Selling price of article B on Monday=1500*75/100=1125 
Marked price of article C=1400 
Discount on Tuesday=20% 
Selling price of article B on Monday=1400*80/100=1120 
Marked price of article E=1200 
Discount on Tuesday=30% 
Selling price of article B on Monday=1200*70/100=840 
Total selling price=1125+1120+840=3085 
Hence, option C.

 

QUESTION: 108

In a 2280 m race Dev beats Abid by 360 m or 6 seconds. In another race on the same track at the same speeds. Abid and kandy start at one end while Dev starts at the opposite end. How many metres would Abid have covered ,by the time Dev meets kandy given that Dev speed is 16 m/sec more than that of kandy.

Solution:

Abid 's speed =360/6 =60 m/s 
Time taken by Abid to cover 2280 m =2280/60= 38 seconds 
Time taken by Dev to cover 2280 m = 32 seconds
Dev's speed = 2280/32 = 71.25 m/s
kandy 's speed = 71.25 - 16 = 55.25
Time taken by Dev to meet kandy in 2280m race in opp. direction = 2280/(55.25+71.25) = 2280/ 126.5
Distance covered by Abid:
2280*60/126.5 = 1081.4 m

QUESTION: 109

Direction: In the following question two equations (I) and (II) given. You have to solve both:
I.
a2 - 1156 = 0
II.
b2 = 39304

Solution:

QUESTION: 110

Direction: In the following question, there are two equations. Solve the equations and answer accordingly.

I. 2X2 + 10X – 12 = 0 
II. 4Y2 – 12Y – 16 = 0

Solution:

2X2 + 10X – 12 = 0 
X2 + 5X – 6 = 0 
X2 + 6X – X – 6 = 0 
X(X+6) – 1(X+6) = 0 
(X+6)(X – 1) = 0 
X = 1, -6 
4Y2 – 12Y – 16 = 0 
Y2 – 3Y – 4 = 0 
Y2 – 4Y + Y – 4 = 0 
Y(Y – 4) + 1(Y – 4) = 0 
(Y – 4)(Y+1) = 0 
Y = -1, 4 

QUESTION: 111

Direction: Study the graph and answer the given questions. 
Study of Radio listeners in six groups of people: 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500 

Q. From which of the groups, equal no. of people listen 98.3 MHz?

Solution:

From the graph, 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500
 

∴We can clearly see that equal no. of people from group A and D listen 98.3 MHz.

QUESTION: 112

Direction: Study the graph and answer the given questions. 
Study of Radio listeners in six groups of people: 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500 

Q. What is the average no. of listeners of 90.4 MHz from each group?

Solution:

From the graph, 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500 


So, the total no. of people listen 90.4 MHz 
= 168 + 644 + 189 + 105 + 28 + 126 = 1260 
∴The average no. of listeners of 90.4 MHz from each group = 1260/6 = 210.

QUESTION: 113

Direction: Study the graph and answer the given questions. 
Study of Radio listeners in six groups of people: 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500 

Q. What is the ratio of no. of people listen 90.4 MHz from group A and no. of people listen 92.7 MHz from group C?

Solution:

From the graph, 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500 

 

Percentage of people from group A listen 90.4 = 32 
So, the no. of people from group A listen 90.4 = 525 × (32/100) = 168 
Percentage of people from group C listen 92.7 = 40 
So, the no. of people from group C listen 92.7 = 945 × (40/100) = 378 
∴ The required ratio = 168 : 378 = 4 : 9.

 

QUESTION: 114

Direction: Study the graph and answer the given questions. 
Study of Radio listeners in six groups of people: 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500 

Q. From which group, the no. of people listen 90.4 MHz is the second highest?

Solution:

From the graph, 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500 


∴ We can clearly observe that the no. of people listen 90.4 MHz is the second highest from group C.

QUESTION: 115

Direction: Study the graph and answer the given questions. 
Study of Radio listeners in six groups of people: 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500 

Q. The no. of people listen 92.7 MHz from group A is what percent of the total no. of people listen 92.7 MHz?

Solution:

From the graph, 
Total no. of people in all group = 3500 


 

So, the total no. of people listen 92.7 MHz from all groups 
= 105 + 322 + 378 + 126 + 35 + 126 = 1092 
∴ The required percentage = [(105/1092) × 100]% = 9.61% ≈ 10%.

Report Solution

QUESTION: 116

8 men and 12 women together can complete a work in 24 days. Each woman is two- third as efficient as each man. If six men and nine women started the work and after 8 days two men left and three women joined, in how many days can the remaining work be completed?

Solution:

Women= 2/3 men 
3 women = 2 men 
Men/ women= 3/2 
Total work = (8*3+12*2)*24= 1152 units 
Work done by 6 men and 9 women in 8 days = (6*3+ 9*2)*8= 288 units 
Work remaining= 1152-288= 864 units 
Now, 
One day work by 4 men and 12 women= (4*3 + 12*2) = 36 units 
So, 
Time required to complete remaining work= 864/36= 24 days

QUESTION: 117

The sales of a retail shop increased by 600% when the selling price of the articles was slashed by 50%. Initially the profit was 140%. Find the % increase in profit.

Solution:

Let the cost price of 1 such type of article be ‘a’ 
Given, initial profit% was 140%. 
Thus, initial selling price = a + 140% of a = 2.4a 
Profit = 2.4a – a = 1.4a 
Now, sales increased by 600%. 
Thus, number of article sold for 1 article sold initially = 1 + 600% of 1 = 7 
Selling price of 1 article = 2.4a/2 = 1.2a 
Selling price of 7 such article = 8.4a 
Profit = 8.4a – 7a = 1.4a 
Thus, the profit remains the same. 
Increase in profit is 0%.

QUESTION: 118

4848÷24*11 -222 =?

Solution:

202*11- 222=? 
2222 – 222=? 
?= 2000

QUESTION: 119

Solo Tell charges a fixed rental of Rs.350 per month. It allows 200 calls free per month. Each call is charged at Rs.0.8 when the number of calls exceeds 200 per month and it charges Rs.1.2 when the number of calls exceeds 400 per month and so on, A customer made 150 calls in May and 250 calls in June. By how much per cent the each call is cheaper in June than each call in May?

Solution:

Charge of 1 call in May = 350/150=7/3= 2.33 
Charge of 1 call in June = (350+50*0.8)/250= 1.56 
% cheapness of call in June = (2.33-1.56)*100/2.33 = 33.04%

QUESTION: 120

A, B and C enter into a partnership. A invests Rs. 30000, B invests 60000 and C invests Rs. 90000. At the end of each year, A increases his investment by 10%, while B withdraws Rs. 5000. After every 2 years, C increases his investment by 5%. Find the approximate profit earned by B at the end of 3 years if the total profit is Rs. 37464?

Solution:

Given, A, B and C enter into a partnership. A invests Rs. 30000, B invests 60000 and C invests Rs. 90000. 
At the end of each year, A increases his investment by 10%, while B withdraws Rs. 5000. 
A’s investment at the end of 1 year = 30000 + 10% of 30000 = Rs. 33000 
A’s investment at the end of 2 years = 33000 + 10% of 33000 = Rs. 36300 
B’s investment at the end of 1 year = Rs. 60000 – 5000 = Rs. 55000 
A’s investment at the end of 2 years = Rs. 55000 – 5000 = Rs. 50000 
Also, after every 2 years, C increases his investment by 5%. 
C’s investment at the end of 2 years = 90000 + 5% of 90000 = Rs. 94500 
Total investment made by A in 3 years = 30000 + 33000 + 36300 = Rs. 99300 
Total investment made by B in 3 years = Rs. 60000 + 55000 + 50000 = Rs. 165000 
Total investment made by C in 3 years = 90000 × 2 + 94500 = Rs. 274500 
Given, total profit = Rs. 37464 
Profit earned by B at the end of 3 years = 

QUESTION: 121

Which of the following states in India has less than 50 % of village households with electricity?

Solution:

Till date, 71 % of total village households were electrified 
Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Nagaland have less than 50 % village household electrification. 
Jharkhand has the lowest household electrification level of just 39 % 
Tamil Nadu, Keral, Gujarat, West Bengal are the states which has more than 90 % household electrification.

QUESTION: 122

Which of the following statements are not correct regarding the Institutional and Non-Institutional Rural Credit in India ?

Solution:

Formal credit source : 
4 % in 1951 
57 % in 1981 
52 % in 2001 
50 % in 2013 – declining 
Informal Credit Source 
70 % in 1951 
17 % in 1981 
30 % in 2001 
33.2 % in 2013 – increasing

QUESTION: 123

Which of the following Financial Inclusion programmes are the initiative of NABARD ?

Solution:

Accordingly, NABARD launched a pilot project to cover Self-Help Groups (SHGs) promoted by Non-Governmental Organizations, banks and other agencies under the pilot project and supported it by way of refinance. 
The quick studies conducted by NABARD in a few states to assess the impact of the linkage project brought out encouraging and positive features like increase in loan volume of the SHGs, definite shift in the loaning pattern of the members from non-income generating activities to production activities, nearly 100% recovery performance, significant reduction in the transaction costs for both the banks and the borrowers etc, besides leading to gradual increase in the income level of the SHG members. 
Another significant feature observed in the linkage project was that about 85% of the groups linked with the banks were formed exclusively by women.

QUESTION: 124

Which of the following Specialized Banks are not created by the act of the Parliament ?

Solution:

All the banks mentioned above are created under the act of the Parliament.

QUESTION: 125

What percentage of Rural households had access to formal banking services, as per census 2011 ?

Solution:

As per 2011 census – only 54 % households in rural areas had access to formal banking services. 59 % of total households in India are access to formal banking system

QUESTION: 126

Which of the following Institutions/organisations releases “Healthy States, Progressive India” report ?

Solution:

● NITI Aayog released today a comprehensive Health Index report titled, “Healthy States, Progressive India”. 
● The report ranks states and Union territories innovatively on their year-on-year incremental change in health outcomes, as well as, their overall performance with respect to each other. 
● The report was released jointly by the CEO, NITI Aayog; Amitabh Kant, Secretary, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare; Preeti Sudan and World Bank India Country Director, Junaid Ahmad. 
● It is the first attempt to establish an annual systematic tool to measure and understand the heterogeneity and complexity of the nation’s performance in Health. 
● The report has been developed by NITI Aayog, with technical assistance from the World Bank, and in consultation with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW)

QUESTION: 127

Recently UNESCO accorded India’s first world heritage City to which of the following cities in India?