SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 3

QUESTION: 1

Murthy drove from town A to town B. In the first hour, he travelled 1/4 of the journey. In the next one hour, he travelled 1/2 of the journey. In the last 30 minutes, he travelled 80 km. Find the distance of the whole journey.

A. 240km
B. 300km
C. 320km
D. 360km

Solution: Let total distance of the whole journey = (x km)

QUESTION: 2

Which figure represents the relation among computer, Internet and information communication Technology?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: computer, Internet and information communication Technology all these are related to each other.

QUESTION: 3

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: Answer figure (A) will be appeared when it opened.

QUESTION: 4

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Crime : Court : : Disease : ?

A. Doctor
B. Medicine
C. Hospital
D. Treatment

Solution: Crime is related to court similarly Disease is related to Hospital.

QUESTION: 5

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ADGJ : BEHK : : DGJM : ?

A. KPUB
B. EHKN
C. KNQT
D. PSVY

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Uttarakhand : Dehradun : : Mizoram : ?

A. Aizawl
B. Kohima
C. Shillong
D. Darjeeling

Solution: The capital of Uttarakhand is Dehradun, Similarly the capital of Mizoram is Aizawl.

QUESTION: 7

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

1 : 1 : : 10 : ?

A. 12
B. 110
C. 210
D. 1000

Solution:

((1)³ = 1)

((10)³= 1000)

QUESTION: 8

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

YQXP : JBIA : : OVNU : ?

A. FAGZ
B. HRIS
C. DKCJ
D. DNEO

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ACE : BDF : : GIK : ?

A. HJL
B. AXP
C. CFG
D. GFC

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

7 : 56 : : 5 : ?

A. 25
B. 26
C. 30
D. 35

Solution: 7 x 8 = 56

(7-2) x (8 -2)= 30

QUESTION: 11

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

CAT : BIG : : DDY : ?

A. CLL
B. CLM
C. CML
D. CEP

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

Which of the answer figures is not made up only by the components of the question figure?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: Answer figure (c) is obtain.

QUESTION: 13

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

A. 450
B. 550
C. 320
D. 420

Solution:

(4,5x4=420)

QUESTION: 14

If an electric train runs in the direction from North to south with a speed of 150 km/hr covering 2000 km, then in which direction will the smoke of its engine go ?

A.
B.
C.
D. No direction

Solution: From the given question, if it is clear that the train is moving only in the direction from North to South, there is no direction if the smoke of its engine goes.

QUESTION: 15

Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in question figure have been cut.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: Answer figure (c) is obtained.

QUESTION: 16

Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata and Cochin?

A. Delhi
B. Kanpur
C. Chennai
D. Sholapur

Solution: Mumbai, Kolkata and Cochin are the capital of Maharashtra, west Bengal and Kerala, similarly chennai in the capital of Tamilnadu.

QUESTION: 17

Find the odd number out :

18, 34, 36, 54

A. 34
B. 54
C. 18
D. 36

Solution:

34-18=16

36-34=2

So,36 is odd in this series.

QUESTION: 18

If A = 1, B = 2, and N= 14, then BEADING = ?

A. 2154(14)97
B. 2514(14)79
C. 25149(14)7
D. 2154(14)79

Solution:

A = 1

B = 2

and N = 14

Position of letters of english alphabet starts from A.

QUESTION: 19

Find the answer of the following:

7+3 = 421

11+7 = 445

9+5 = 445

6+2 = ?

A. 444
B. 412
C. 475
D. 487

Solution: 7 +3 =(7-3)(7 X 3)=421

11 + 7 = (11 - 7)(11 X 7)= 477

9 + 5 = (9 - 5) (9 X 5)= 445

6+2=(6-2)(6 X 2)=412

QUESTION: 20

Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Emplane

2. Empower

3. Embrace

4. Elocution

5. Equable

A. 5,1,3,2,4
B. 4,2,1,3,5
C. 4,3,1,2,5
D. 4,5,2,3,1

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

The following numbers fall in a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

(53, 63, 83, 73)

A. 53
B. 63
C. 83
D. 73

Solution: All numbers are prime, except 63

QUESTION: 22

Arrange the letters to form a word and suggest what is it.

NGDELAN

A. State
B. Country
C. River
D. Ocean

Solution: ENGLAND : it is a country.

QUESTION: 23

Arrange the colours of the rainbow (in the reverse order) (from the top edge):

1. Blue

2. Indigo

3. Yellow

4. Green

5. Violet

A. 3,4,1,2,5
B. 4,3,2,5,1
C. 5,3,4,2,1
D. 2,4,3,1,5

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

If A =1, AGE = 13, then CAR= ?

A. 19
B. 20
C. 21
D. 22

Solution: A = 1

AGE = 1+7+5 =13

CAR = 3+1+18=22

QUESTION: 25

If 1=1, 2=3, 3=5 and 4=7, then 5= ?

A. 9
B. 7
C. 5
D. 8

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

Which of the following are the line of symmetry?

A. AB and CD
B. EF and GH
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

Solution: In the given figure AB, CD, EF and GH are the line of symmetry.

QUESTION: 27

Which of the following numbers is present only in the square and the circle?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

Solution: The number is present only in the square and the circle is '4'.

QUESTION: 28

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: Answer figure (C) will complete the pattern in the given question figure.

QUESTION: 29

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: In the given question figure answer figure (D) will complete the pattern.

QUESTION: 30

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. GFI
B. VUX
C. POR
D. LKM

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

Find the odd word/letters/number pair form the given alternatives.

A. (11, 121)
B. (25, 625)
C. (12, 141)
D. (15, 225)

Solution: Given pairs of numbers are the square of first number to get second number except option (C) in not the square of any number.

QUESTION: 32

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

Carrot, Cabbage, Potato, Ginger, Beetroot

A. Cabbage
B. Carrot
C. Potato
D. Beetroot

Solution: Carrot, potato, Ginger, and Beetroot all are gound vegetables except cabbage.

QUESTION: 33

Find the odd word/letters/number pair form the given alternatives.

A. (324, 18)
B. (441, 72)
C. (117, 81)
D. (186, 72)

Solution: All pairs are divisible by 9, except option (D).

QUESTION: 34

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Kolkata
B. Vishakhapatnam
C. Bengaluru
D. Haldia

Solution: Kolkata, Vishakhapatnam and Haldia are coastal areas except Bengaluru.

QUESTION: 35

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. HGFE
B. PONM
C. DCBA
D. MSTU

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. vwqp
B. yxmn
C. gfkl
D. cbrs

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

Statements:

1. SAGE is a reputed publisher of both journals and books.

2. All publishing of SAGE is highly qualitative.

Conclusions:

I. SAGE publishes qualitative articles.

II. SAGE did not publish lowest quality articles.

III. SAGE enriches its publications by high scrutinization.

A. Only conclusion III
B. All conclusions
C. Only conclusions I and II
D. Only conclusion II and III

Solution: Only conclusions I and II

QUESTION: 38

Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words?

1. Sowing

2. Tilling

3. Reaping

4. Weeding

A. 3,1,2,4
B. 2,1,4,3
C. 1,2,4,3
D. 1,3,2,4

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

CGJ, KOR, TXA, ?

A. ACE
B. JDP
C. FJM
D. UWY

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

A. 176
B. 115
C. 157
D. 131

Solution:

4 X 3 + 11 + 5=28

5 X 3 + 20+22=57

6 X 5 +121+25=176

QUESTION: 41

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

CEG, JLN, QSU, ?

A. QQS
B. TVX
C. HJL
D. UVW

Solution:

QUESTION: 42

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

B-1, D-2, F-4, H-8, J-16, ?

A. K-64
B. L-32
C. M-32
D. L-64

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

A. 56
B. 57
C. 58
D. 69

Solution:

8 x 3 +1 = 25

3 x 4 + 1= 13

4 x 5 + 1 = 21

5 x 6 + 1 = 31

6 x 7 + 1 = 43

7 x 8 + 1 = 57

QUESTION: 44

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

A. 422
B. 374
C. 256
D. 342

Solution:

2 x 2 + 2 = 6

6 x 2 -2 = 10

10 x 2 + 2 = 22

22 x 2 -2 = 42

42 x 2 + 2 = 86

86 x 2 - 2 = 170

170 x 2 + 2 = 342

QUESTION: 45

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

A. 40
B. 38
C. 39
D. 44

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

A. 3
B. 9
C. 5
D. 2

Solution:

7 x 9 x 1= 63

3 x 1 x 7 x ? = 63

? = 3

QUESTION: 47

One or two statements are given, followed by three-four conclusions Arguments. I, II, II and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given Conclusion Arguments can definitely be drawn from the given statement (s). Indicate your answer.

Statement: Should little children be loaded with such heavy school bags?

Arguments:

I. Yes, a heavy bags means more knowledge.

II. No heavy school bags spoil the posture of the children.

III. Yes, children need to be adapted for earning knowledge

IV. No, a heavy bag never ensures knowledge gathering

A. I and III appear to be strong arguments
B. I and III are poor arguments
C. II and IV are strong arguments
D. I and IV are strong arguments

Solution: From the given statements, it is clear that argument II and IV are strong arguments.

QUESTION: 48

Find the smallest number which when divided by 25, 40 or 56 has in each case 13 as remainder.

A. 1413
B. 1400
C. 1439
D. 1426

Solution: LCM of 25, 40, 56 = 1400

Required number

= 1400+13= 1413

QUESTION: 49

Introducing a girl, Ram said to his son-in-law, "Her brother is the only son of my brother-in-law." Who is the girl of Ram?

A. Sister-in-law
B. Niece
C. Daughter
D. Sister

Solution: Niece

QUESTION: 50

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the question figure?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then answer figure (D) is the mirror image.

QUESTION: 51

Under MUDRA bank, loan ranging from Rs 50,000 to Rs 5,00,000 is categorized under_______

A.
Shishu
B.
Kishor
C.
Tarun
D.
Atul

Solution:

MUDRA Bank is a public sector financial institution in India. Its full form is Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency. The loans are categorised in the following way.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 52

GIAN initiative is related to which among the following?

A.
Water Conservation
B.
Foreign Investment
C.
Higher Education
D.
Electric Vehicles

Solution:

Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN) aims to boost the quality of higher education in India by tapping the talent pool of global scientists and entrepreneurs to engage with the institutes of higher education in India.
GIAN was launched by the Union Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) in 2015.
Initially, 500 international faculties will be engaged in conducting courses and later in subsequent years 1000 faculties would be engaged throughout India.

QUESTION: 53

Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has proposed to build “igloos” on the Moon for Astronauts. These “igloos” have which of the following nomenclature?

A.
Lunar Habitats
B.
Lunar Laboratory
C.
Chandramana Spacecraft 2
D.
All of above

Solution:

Indian Space Research Organisation has planned to build “igloos”, the Lunar Habitats on the Moon for Astronauts with the help of Robots, lunar soil and 3D printers. It will serve as outpost on the Moon.

QUESTION: 54

Which among the following comes under tertiary sector of Indian Economy?

A.
Cloth Industry
B.
Transport of goods
C.
Dairy
D.
Sugar Industry

Solution:

Transport of goods comes under tertiary sector of Indian Economy. The tertiary sector or service sector is the third of the three economic sectors of the three-sector theory. The others are the secondary sector (approximately the same as manufacturing), and the primary sector (raw materials). The tertiary sector of industry involves the provision of services to other businesses as well as final consumers. Services may involve the transport, distribution and sale of goods from producer to a consumer, as may happen in wholesaling and retailing, pest control or entertainment.

QUESTION: 55

Defence Research and Development Organization carried out “successful” test flight of ‘Rustom 2 drone’. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to ‘Rustom 2’?

A.
It is a medium-altitude long-endurance unmanned aerial vehicle
B.
It is named after late Professor Rustom Damania
C.
Also known as TAPAS-BH-201
D.
All of above

Solution:

Defence Research and Development Organization has carried out “successful” test flight of its ‘Rustom 2 drone’ or TAPAS-BH-201. It is a medium-altitude long-endurance unmanned aerial vehicle. Rustom is derived from the NAL’s LCRA (Light Canard Research Aircraft) developed by a team under the leadership of late Professor Rustom Damania in the 1980s.

QUESTION: 56

As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the intermediate level may NOT be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding:

A.
Thirty lakhs
B.
Forty lakhs
C.
Ten lakhs
D.
Twenty lakhs

Solution:

As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the intermediate level may NOT be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding 20 lakhs.

The above said clause is mentioned in Artcile 243B of Indian Constitution.
The 73rd Constitution amendment act, 1992 made 3 tier system of Panchayati raj for all states.
The 73rd Constitution amendment act, 1992 came into effect from 24 April, 1993.

QUESTION: 57

Match List-1 (Committee) with List-II (Reform) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

A.
A - 3 B - 1 C - 2
B.
A - 1 B - 3 C - 2
C.
A - 1 B - 2 C - 3
D.
A - 3 B - 2 C - 1

Solution:

The Abid Hussain Committee Report on Trade Policy Reform and the Abid Hussain Committee Report on Small Scale Industries have been regarded as milestones in India's economic reforms.
Ajit Kumar Committee stipulates about Army Pay Scales.
Athreya Committee stipulates about restructuring Of IDBI.

QUESTION: 58

The 8th edition of Joint Army Exercise “Lamitye” was conducted between India and which of the following country?

A.
Kenya
B.
Seychelles
C.
South Africa
D.
Uzbekistan

Solution:

The 8th edition of Joint Army Exercise “Lamitye” was conducted between India and Seychelles to counter insurgency and terrorism. It was held in Seychelles. ‘Lamitye’ means friendship in Creole (local dialect of Seychelles). The exercise ‘Lamitye’ is conducted biennially with the aim of enhancing cooperation and interoperability between Indian Army and Seychelles People’s Defence Forces.

QUESTION: 59

Which of following is not a department of Ministry of Law and Justice?

A.
Legislative Department
B.
Department of Legal Affairs
C.
Human Rights Division
D.
Department of Justice

Solution:

The Ministry of Law and Justice in the Government of India is a cabinet ministry which deals with the management of the legal affairs, legislative activities and administration of justice in India by:-

Legislative Department
Department of Legal Affairs
Department of Justice

Human Rights Division – It is a divison of Home Ministry & it deals with matters relating to the Protection of Human Rights Act and also matters relating to national integration and communal harmony.

QUESTION: 60

The percentage of India’s forested land out of total land is

A.
25%
B.
less than 25%
C.
33%
D.
50%

Solution:

Forestry in India is a significant rural industry and a major environmental resource. India is one of the ten most forest-rich countries of the world . The percentage of India’s forested land out of total land is less than 25%.
Forest covers of a geographical area includes all lands having a tree density of 10 per cent and more and have a minimum area of one hectare. Tree cover estimation is a sample based exercise and the report explains that it comprises tree patches less than a hectare in the form of block plantations, linear plantations and scattered trees.

QUESTION: 61

Konkan Joint Military Exercise 2018 was held between India and which country?

A.
USA
B.
United Kingdom
C.
Israel
D.
Indonesia

Solution:

The naval exercise Konkan 18 between India and the United Kingdom was conducted from November 28 to December 6, 2018 off Goa with units participating from both navies.
The harbour phase was scheduled from November 28 to November 30 2018 followed by the sea phase from 2-6 December, 2018.

QUESTION: 62

Silver revolution is related to which of the following

A.
Cotton
B.
Fish
C.
Egg
D.
Agriculture

Solution:

Silver revolution is related to Egg production in India.
Blue revolution is known for fish production in India.
Green revolution is related to Agriculture production.
Silver fiber revolution is related to Cotton production.
M.S. Swaminathan is known as the father of Green Revolution in India.

QUESTION: 63

Who is the Director of NCERT?

A.
Rakesh Sinha
B.
Subramaniam Swami
C.
Dinesh Sinha
D.
Dr. Hrushikesh Senapaty

Solution:

Dr. Hrushikesh Senapaty is acting as the director of the NCERT since September 2015.
The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is an autonomous organisation of the Government of India.
It was established on 1stSeptember 1961.
It was established as a literary, scientific and charitable Society under the Societies' Registration Act (Act XXI of 1860).
Its headquarters are located at Sri Aurbindo Marg in New Delhi.

QUESTION: 64

Who is currently holding the Ministry of Tribal Affairs?

A.
Thaawar Chand Gehlot
B.
Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
C.
Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’
D.
Arjun Munda

Solution:

Arjun Munda is currently handling the responsibility of Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
He assumed the office on 30th May 2019.
He replaced Jual Oram.
He was also Chief Minister of Indian state of Jharkhand.
He has also served as a member of parliament having been elected to the 15th Lok Sabha from the prestigious Jamshedpur constituency in the 2009 parliamentary elections.

QUESTION: 65

The intensity of earthquake is measured by

A.
barometer
B.
hydrometer
C.
polygraph
D.
seismograph

Solution:

The intensity of earthquake is measured by seismograph.

QUESTION: 66

Under which of the following Union Ministries has India’s first and fastest multi-petaflops supercomputer ‘Pratyush’ been designed

A.
Ministry of Earth Sciences
B.
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
C.
Ministry of Defence
D.
Ministry of Space

Solution:

India’s first and fastest multi-petaflops supercomputer ‘Pratyush’ has been designed under the umbrella of Ministry of Earth Sciences. The Supercomputer established at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune. The Supercomputer will be a national facility for improving weather and climate forecasts and services.

QUESTION: 67

The major army exercise “Hamesha-Vijayee 2017” has been conducted by the Southern Command of Indian Army to evaluate the capability of the armed forces to strike deep into enemy territory in an integrated air-land battle. The Exercise is being conducted in which of the following state?

A.
Rajasthan
B.
Punjab
C.
Arunachal Pradesh
D.
Sikkim

Solution:

The major army exercise “Hamesha-Vijayee 2017” is being conducted in the Deserts of Rajasthan by the Southern Command of Indian Army to evaluate the capability of the armed forces to strike deep into enemy territory in an integrated air-land battle.

QUESTION: 68

The security exercise “Sagar Kavach” has been jointly organised by which among the following states of India?

A.
India & Bangladesh
B.
India & Bhutan
C.
India & Nepal
D.
India & Afghanistan

Solution:

“SAMPRITI 2017”, a joint military combat exercise has been conducted between India & Bangladesh in Meghalaya. The Exercise is held alternatively in India and Bangladesh every year.

QUESTION: 69

Who was known as the earliest Neo-nationalist?

A.
Swami Dayanand Saraswati
B.
Bhai Balak Singh
C.
Keshab Chandra
D.
Narendranath Dutta

Solution:

Swami Dayanand Saraswati was known as the earliest Neo-nationalist. He looked on the Vedas as ‘India’s Rock and Ages’. His motto was Go Back to Vedas and India for the Indians. Swami Dayanand Saraswati was born in 1824 in Gujarat. His original name was Mula Shankar. The Arya Samaj was founded by him in 1857 at Bombay. He wrote three books- Satyartha Prakash, Veda-Bhashya Bhumika and Veda Bhashya.

QUESTION: 70

What were the Factors Responsible for the Rise of Extremism?

A.
Natural Calamities
B.
Exploitation
C.
Repression
D.
All of above

Solution:

Natural Calamities, Exploitation, Repression were the Factors Responsible for the Rise of Extremism. The policy and the methods that the moderate leaders of the Congress followed during the first twenty years failed miserably. Their prayers and petitions had no effect on the British Government; on the contrary, the government adopted a hostile attitude towards the congress from the very beginning. They termed themselves Nationalists’ also ‘integral Nationalists’, and came to be commonly known as ‘Extremists’ in opposition to the ‘Moderates’.

QUESTION: 71

In Oscilloscopes the observed waveform can be analyzed for which of the following properties?

A.
Amplitude
B.
Rise time
C.
Frequency
D.
All of the above

Solution:

Oscilloscopes are used to observe the change of an electrical signal over time, such that voltage and time describe a shape which is continuously graphed against a calibrated scale.

The observed waveformcan be analyzed for such properties as amplitude, frequency, rise time, time interval, distortionand others.

QUESTION: 72

What is lactose intolerance?

A.
Allergy to dairy products
B.
Allergy to poultry products
C.
Allergy to grains
D.
None of these

Solution:

Lactose intolerance is simply the intolerance of allergy of a individual to milk and milk products.

It can lead to symptoms such as bloating, diarrhea, and gas after consumption of foods or drinks that contain lactose.
These individual needs to complete their daily calcium requirements from other sources.

QUESTION: 73

The Joint Training Exercise ‘PRABAL DOSTYK-2017’ has been conducted between India and which of the following country?

A.
Iran
B.
Israel
C.
Myanmar
D.
Kazakhstan

Solution:

The 14-day Joint Training Exercise ‘PRABAL DOSTYK-2017’ has been started between India and Kazakhstan. The purpose of Joint Training Exercise is to enhance the military ties between two countries as also at achieving interoperability between two countries.

QUESTION: 74

Who is captain of India A in the Deodhar Trophy?

A.
Karun Nair
B.
Ankit Bawne
C.
Ravikumar Samarth
D.
None of the above

Solution:

Ankit Bawne is captain of India A in the Deodhar Trophy. The Deodhar Trophy, named after prof. D.B. Deodhar who was known as the Grand Old Man of Indian cricket. There are five zonal teams- north zone, south zone, east zone, west zone and central zone. It was realigned in 2015-16 season with winners of Vijay Hazre Trophy playing two teams- India A and India B selected by the BCCI.

QUESTION: 75

What are gymnosperms characteristics?

A.
They do not have an outer covering or shell around their seeds.
B.
They do not produce flowers.
C.
They do not produce fruits.
D.
All of above

Solution:

The gymnosperms characteristics are:

They do not have an outer covering or shell around their seeds.
They do not produce flowers.
They do not produce fruits.
They are pollinated by the wind.

The Gymnosperms are Conifers, cycads and allies. The Gymnosperms are seed-bearing vascular plants, in which the ovules or seeds are not enclosed in an ovary foreg: cycads, ginkgo, yews and conifers,.

QUESTION: 76

The purity of 14 carat gold is_____

A.
58.4 percent
B.
75.5 percent
C.
4.6 percent
D.
30 percent

Solution:

The carat system is increasingly being complemented or superseded by the millesimal fineness system, in which the purity of precious metals is denoted by parts per thousand of pure metal in the alloy; e.g. 18-karat gold, 75% Au, would be called 750. Karat conversion: 58.33% - 62.50% = 14k (acclaimed 58.33%).

QUESTION: 77

Geothermal energy is maximum utilized in _________

A.
Iceland
B.
New Zealand
C.
Russia
D.
Japan

Solution:

Geothermal energy is maximum utilized in Iceland. During winter, pavements near these areas (such as Reykjavik and Akureyri) are heated up. Five major geothermal power plants exist in Iceland, which produce approximately 26.2% (2010) of the nation's electricity. Geothermal power is power generated by geothermal energy. Technologies in use include dry steam power stations, flash steam power stations and binary cycle power stations. Geothermal electricity generation is currently used in 24 countries, while geothermal heating is in use in 70 countries.

QUESTION: 78

The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by _______.

A.
All members of Legislative assembly
B.
All members of Legislative assembly and legislative council
C.
Elected members of the legislative assembly
D.
Elected members of the legislative council

Solution:

Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Assemblies of States and Union territories in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

QUESTION: 79

Yudh Abhyas 2017, a joint military training exercise, was conducted between India and _____.

A.
Russia
B.
United States
C.
Japan
D.
France

Solution:

Exercise Yudh Abhyas - 2017, a joint military exercise between Indian and US armies was conducted at the Joint Base Lewis McChord, Washington, USA.

QUESTION: 80

Apart from the Himalayan region, the forest soils occur which of the following?

A.
Western Ghats
B.
Eastern Ghats
C.
Southern Ghats
D.
Both A and B

Solution:

Apart from the Himalayan region, the forest soils occur on Western and Eastern Ghats as well as in some parts of the Peninsular plateau.

QUESTION: 81

For the first time Private Sector was given priority compared to the public sector in which five year plan?

A.
Ninth Five Year Plan
B.
Seventh Five Year Plan
C.
Eighth Five Year Plan
D.
Sixth Five Year Plan

Solution:

Its duration was from 1985 to 1990.Objectives of this plan include the establishment of the self sufficient economy, opportunities for productive employment.
For the first time the private sector got the priority over public sector.
Its growth target was 5.0% but it achieved 6.0%.
The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting summit held in every two years. It is a meeting of the heads of government from all Commonwealth nations.
In 2015, the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) summit was held in Malta.

QUESTION: 82

“BharatMala scheme” of government of India is related to

A.
Roadways development connecting various regions of the country
B.
Port development
C.
Providing internet connection to every rural household
D.
Infrastructure development in Railway stations of remote areas

Solution:

Bharatmala is a new umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on optimizing efficiency of road traffic movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps.

QUESTION: 83

Which scheme has been launched by central government to provide jobs & business opportunities to youths in January 2019?

A.
Krishak Bandhu Yojana
B.
Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
C.
Rashtriya Aavishkar Abhiyan
D.
Varun Mitra Yojana

Solution:

Central Government of India launched "Varun Mitra Yojana" to provide jobs & business opportunities to youths in January 2019.

This scheme is being conducted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and National Solar Energy Institute.

QUESTION: 84

Government borrowing to finance budget deficits _____.

A.
will exert downward pressure on interest rates
B.
will have no effect on interest rates
C.
will increase supply of loanable funds
D.
will put upward pressure on interest rates

Solution:

Government borrowing to finance budget deficits will put upward pressure on interest rates. The budget deficit is the difference between two huge numbers and it doesn’t take much of an error in either of them for the budget deficit to change significantly.

QUESTION: 85

Which committee was formed to review “Community Development Programme” of 1952?

A.
Ashok Mehta Committee
B.
G.V.K Rao Committee
C.
L.M. Singhavi Committee
D.
Balwan Rai Mehta Committee

Solution:

The BalwantRai Mehta Committee was a committee appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme(1952) and the National Extension Service(1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The Chairman of this committee was Balwantrai G Mehta.

QUESTION: 86

Who among the following makes laws in India?

A.
President and council of ministers
B.
Supreme court and High courts
C.
President and the two houses of the parliament
D.
Lok sabha and rajya sabha

Solution:

The parliament (Lok Sabh and rajya sabha) is vested with power to legislate on all subjects enumerated in the union list and concurrent list. The power to legislate on residual matters vests with the parliament.
As an integral part of the parliament, The president enjoys important legislative powers. All the bills passed by the parliament must receive the presidential assent before they become law.
The president can enact laws through ordinance when Parliament is in recess.

QUESTION: 87

Pitcher plant (Nepenthese) is a special kind of plants which trap and eat frogs, insects and even mice. This plant has a special smell that attracts these organisms. In our country this plant is found in

A.
Manipur
B.
Mizoram
C.
Assam
D.
Meghalaya

Solution:

Nepenthes popularly known as tropical pitcher plants or monkey cups, is a genus of carnivorous plants in the monotypic family Nepenthaceae. The genus comprises roughly 150 species, and numerous natural and many cultivated hybrids. They are mostly liana-forming plants of the Old World tropics, ranging from South China, Indonesia, Malaysia and the Philippines; westward to Madagascar (two species) and the Seychelles (one); southward to Australia (three) and New Caledonia; and northward to India and Sri Lanka. The greatest diversity occurs on Borneo, Sumatra, and the Philippines, with many endemic species. Many are plants of hot, humid, lowland areas, but the majority is tropical montage plants, receiving warm days but cool to cold, humid nights year round.Nepenthes plants found in “Meghalaya”, this is carnivorous plant.

QUESTION: 88

Which of the following is not an investment expenditure in goods and services?

A.
Nikita Khrushchev
B.
Leonid Brezhnev
C.
Yuri Andropov
D.
Mikhail Gorbachev

Solution:

The Indo-Soviet treaty of friendship and co-operation was signed between India and Russia on August 9, 1971 that specified mutual strategic co-operation.
Nikita Khrushchev was the president of Russia (USSR) in 1971.

QUESTION: 89

Who was the third President of the Indian Republic?

A.
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
B.
Dr Zakir Husain
C.
VV Giri
D.
Fakruddin Ali Ahmed

Solution:

Dr Zakir Hussain became Republic India's first Muslim President. He was the third President of the country serving for just two years before he passed away during the middle of his term.

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following is not listed as wetland in Ramsar Convention?

A.
Wooler lake
B.
Rudrasagar Lake
C.
Keoladeo National Park
D.
Rajsamand Lake

Solution:

The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable utilization of wetlands, recognizing the fundamental ecological functions of wetlands and their economic, cultural, scientific and recreational value.

QUESTION: 91

What is the tagline of Jammu and Kashmir Bank?

A.
We Make You Feel Richer
B.
Your family bank across India
C.
Serving to Empower
D.
Smart way to Bank

Solution:

"Serving to Empower" is the tagline of Jammu and Kashmir Bank.

Jammu and Kashmir Bank is a private sector banking and financial services company.
It is headquartered in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
It was established on 1st October 1938.
It commenced its business from 4th July of the year 1939 at in Kashmir.
It is the first of its kind bank to have designated as the RBI’s agent for all the banking related businesses.

QUESTION: 92

Which of the following is not an example of sliding friction?

A.
Rubbing both hands together to create heat
B.
A washing machine pushed along a floor
C.
A card and an envelope when the card is being slid into the envelope
D.
An object moving through a fluid like water

Solution:

The term sliding friction refers to the resistance created by two objects sliding against each other. This can also be called kinetic friction.
Examples:
a) Rubbing both hands together to create heat
b) A washing machine pushed along a floor
c) A card and an envelope when the card is being slid into the envelope
However, option (d) is the example of Rolling friction.

QUESTION: 93

Which of the following is a famous ‘violin’player?

A.
Zia Moinuddin Khan
B.
S. Bal chandran
C.
Sajjad Hussain
D.
L. Subramaniam

Solution:

The Violin Player is the story of one day in the life of a Bollywood session violinist who finds expression in an unlikely place. The day unfolds to reveal startling truths about music, art, life and survival. L. Subramaniam is an acclaimed Indian violinist, composer and conductor, trained in the classical Carnatic music tradition and Western classical music, and renowned for his virtuoso playing techniques and compositions in orchestral fusion.

QUESTION: 94

Who among the following is the fastest supercomputer in the world?

A.
Anupam
B.
Sunway TaihuLight
C.
PARAM Yuva II
D.
Tianhe-2

Solution:

Supercomputer of China ‘Sunway TaihuLight’ has been declared as the world’s fastest supercomputer.
It was revealed in the TOP-500 list of supercomputers released at the International Supercomputing Conference (ISC) in Frankfurt, Germany.

QUESTION: 95

Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana is related to scheme

A.
for the helping the poor by providing skill training
B.
for the helping of disabled person by providing special skill training
C.
for the helping the uneducated by providing skill training
D.
for the helping of women by providing skill training

Solution:

Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojanaor DAY is a Government of India scheme for the helping the poor by providing skill training.Government of India has provisioned ₹500 crore (US$74 million) for the scheme. It replaces Aajeevika. The target is training 0.5 million people in urban area per annum from 2016 and in rural area it is training 1 million people by 2017. Further, in urban areas services like SHG promotion, training centres, vendors markets, and permanent shelters for homeless will be provided for. The aim of scheme is skill development of both rural and urban India as per requisite international standards.

QUESTION: 96

The Supreme Court of India was set up by________

A.
Charter Act, 1813
B.
Regulating Act, 1773
C.
Pits India Act, 1784
D.
Charter Act, 1833

Solution:

Supreme court was established by Regulating Act of 1773. The King of England paved the way for establishment of the Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta.
The Supreme Court of Judicature was established at Calcutta, as a Court of Record, with full power & authority to hear and determine all complaints for any crimes.

QUESTION: 97

A retired judge of a high court is not permitted to practice as a lawyer in______.

A.
Supreme Court
B.
Any Court in India
C.
High Courts
D.
The High Court where he retired

Solution:

As per article 220, the selection of High Court judges from the bar that is the total prohibition on practice after their retirement from the bench.
It was the 7th amendment act of the Constitution of India which proposed to revise the article so as to relax this complete ban and permit a retired judge to practice in the Supreme Court and in any High Court other than the one in which he was a permanent judge.

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following is not a recipient of the Dada Saheb Phalke Award ?

A.
Prithvi Raj Kapoor
B.
Mrs. Kanan Devi
C.
Gemini Ganesan
D.
Mrs. Devika Rani

Solution:

Devika Rani was the first recipient of the Dada Sahib Phalke award in 1969. Prithviraj Kapoor recived this award in 1971 and KannanDevi in 1976.Sivaji Ganesan received the award in 1996

QUESTION: 99

Who among the following Sports- person is/are the recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award 2016?

A.
Saina Nehwal
B.
Sania Mirza
C.
Sakshi Malik
D.
Mary Kom

Solution:

Four athletes, including Olympic silver medallist P.V. Sindhu, gymnast Dipa Karmakar, shooter Jitu Rai and Olympic bronze medallist Sakshi Malik received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award from President.

QUESTION: 100

National Income include:

A.
Financial help to earthquake Victims
B.
Pocket money of a child
C.
Winning of a lottery prize
D.
Construction of a new house

Solution:

National income is the total value of a country’s final output of all new goods and services produced in one year. It includes wages from employment and self-employment, profits to firms, interest to lenders of capital and rents to owners of land, construction of a new house etc.

QUESTION: 101

A current is said to be alternating when it changes in ____.

A. Magnitude only
B. Direction only
C. Both magnitude and direction
D. None of these

Solution: A current is said to be alternating when it changes in both magnitude and direction.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 102

The rms values of sine wave is 100A. Its peak value is ____.

A. 70.7A
B. 141.4A
C. 150A
D. 282.8A

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 103

A 50Hz ac voltage is measured with a moving iron voltmeter and a rectifier type ac voltmeter connected in parallel. If the meter readings V₁ are V₂ and respectively and the meters are free from calibration errors, then the form factor of the ac voltage may be estimated as______.

A. V₁/ V₂
B. (1.11V₁) / V₂
C.
D.

Solution: Form factor of the wave = rms Value / Mean Value

Moving iron Instrument will show rms value. Rectifier voltmeter is calibrate to read rms value of sinusoidal voltage, i.e. with form factor of 1.11

∴ Mean value of the applied voltage = V₂/1.11

∴ Form factor = V₁/ (V₂/1.11) = (1.11V₁) / V₂

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 104

What is the value of current I4 (in A) for the given junction?

A. -4
B. 4
C. -6
D. 6

Solution: According to Kirchhoff’s Current Law: At any point in an electrical circuit, the sum of currents flowing towards that point is equal to the sum of currents flowing away from that point.

From the above Diagram

Current Flowing towards the Point: I₂, I₆, I₄

Current Flowing Away from the Point: I₁, I₃, I₅

So, I₂ + I₆ + I₄ = I₁ + I₃+ I₅

Putting the value of the current

2A + 7A + I4 = 4A + 3A + 8A

I₄ = 15A − 9A = 6A

I₄ = 6A

Hence, the correct option is (D).

QUESTION: 105

If the path difference of two waves with single-source travelling by different paths to arrive at the same point, is λ/2, what would be the phase difference between them?

A. π
B. 2π
C. π/2
D. π/√2

Solution: Now, the phase difference is

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 106

Which of the following statements pertains to resistor only?

A. They oppose sudden changes in voltages
B. They can act as energy storage devices
C. They can dissipate desirable amount of power
D. None of these

Solution: A resistor can dissipate desirable amount of power.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 107

The current waveform in a pure resistor of (10Ω) is shown in the given figure. Power dissipated in the resistor is:-

A. 7.29 W
B. 52.4 W
C. 135 W
D. 270 W

Solution:

QUESTION: 108

Purely inductive circuit takes power from the ac mains when ____.

A. both applied voltage and current increase
B. both applied voltage and current decrease
C. applied voltage decrease but current increases
D. applied voltage increases but current decreases

Solution: Purely inductive circuit takes power from the ac mains when applied voltage decrease but current increases.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 109

A pure capacitance connected across 50Hz, 230V supply consumers 0.04 W. This consumption is attributed to____.

A. ohmic loss due to ohmic resistance of plates
B. loss of energy in dielectric
C. capacitive reactance in ohms
D. both ohmic loss due to ohmic resistance of plates and loss of energy in dielectric

Solution: A pure capacitance connected across 50Hz, 230V supply consumers 0.04 W. This consumption is attributed to both ohmic loss due to ohmic resistance of plates and loss of energy in dielectric.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 110

A voltage of 50 sin 1000t V is applied across a parallel plate capacitor with plate area of 5cm²and plate separation gap of 5mm. If the dielectric material in the capacitor has ε=2ε₀, then the capacitor current in (Amperes) will be

A.
B.
C.
D.

Solution:

QUESTION: 111

For the AC circuit as shown below, if the rms voltage across the resistor is 120V, what is the value of the inductor?

A. 0.5H
B. 0.6H
C. 1H
D. 1.5H

Solution:

QUESTION: 112

The R-L circuit of the figure is fed from a constant magnitude variable frequency sinusoidal source v_in. At 100 Hz, the R and L element each has a voltage drop Urms If the frequency of the source is changed to 50Hz, then new voltage drop across R is:-

A.
B.
C.
D.

Solution:

QUESTION: 113

A certain R-L series combination is connected across a 50 Hz single-phase ac supply. If the instantaneous power drawn was found to be negative for 2 milliseconds in one cycle. The power factor angle of the circuit must be____

A. 9°
B. 18°
C. 36°
D. 45°

Solution: RL series circuit is an inductive circuit. Voltage leads the current. The instantaneous voltage and current can then be expressed as

The instantaneous power can be obtained by multiplying the two. P =vi.

It can be seen from the diagram that in the angle interval 0 to ϕ, the voltage is positive but the current is negative and hence the power is negative. Similarly, in the angle interval π to π+ϕ the voltage is negative but the current is positive and hence the power is again negative.

In other regions the power is positive. Now we just have to find what time interval corresponds to phase difference ϕ. For this we use the formula,

QUESTION: 114

The voltage phaser of a circuit is 10∠15°V and the current phasor is 2∠−45° A. The active and reactive powers in the circuit are

A. 10W and 17.32VAR
B. 5W and 8.66VAR
C. 20W and 60VAR
D. 20√2W and 10√2VAR

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 115

In an RLC circuit, supplied from an ac source, the reactive power is proportional to the-

A. average energy stored in the electric field
B. average energy stored in the magnetic field
C. sum of the average energy stored in the electric field and that stored in the magnetic field
D. difference between the average energy stored in the electric field and that stored in the magnetic field

Solution: Phase angle between current and voltage is zero in Resistor.

Reactive Power P_R=V₁I₁sin⁡q

=VIsin⁡0=0

Current is leading with voltage in capactor

Reactive power ′Pc′=V₂I₂sin⁡(+90)

=+V₂I₂

Current is lagging with voltage in inductor Reactive Power

′P2′=V₃I₃sin⁡(−90)

=−V₃I₃

So Total Reactive Power =P_R+P_C+P_L

=0+V₂I₂−V₃I₃

Energy store in inductor by magnetic field and energy store in capacity by electric field.

So Reactive Power is Proportional to difference between average energy store in electric field and store in magnetic field.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 116

In gases the flow of current is due to___.

A. Electrons only
B. Positive and negative ions
C. Electrons, positive ions
D. Electrons, positive ions and negative ions

Solution: In gases the flow of current is due to electron, positive ions and negative ion.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 117

Ohm's law is applicable to_____.

A. semiconductors
B. vaccum tubes
C. electrolytes
D. None of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 118

Pure metals generally have_____.

A. high conductivity and temperature coefficient
B. high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
C. low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
D. low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 119

The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 km is 1MΩ. For a length of 100 km of same cable, the insulation resistance will be-

A. 1MΩ
B. 10MΩ
C. 0.1MΩ
D. 0.01MΩ

Solution: The insulation resistance of a wire is inversely dependent on the length of the wire. This simply means that if length increases then insulation resistance decreases and vice versa.

Initial cable length =10 km

New cable length =100 km

We can see that length changes to ten times of itself. This implies that insulation resistance reduces to its one tenth as both are inversely related.

New insulation resistance =1 MΩ/10

=0.1 MΩ

Hence, the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 120

All the resistances in figure shown below are (1Ω) each. The value of current 'T' is:-

A. (1/15 A)
B. (2/15 A)
C. (4/15 A)
D. (8/15 A)

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 121

Which of the following does not used heating effect of electric current?

A. Electric Furnace
B. Geyser
C. Electric iron
D. Vaccum cleaner

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 122

Which of the following bulbs will have the least resistance?

A. 220 V, 60 W
B. 220 V, 100 W
C. 115 V, 60 W
D. 115 V, 100 W

Solution: 115 V, 100 W

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 123

Four 100 W bulbs are connected in parallel across 200V supply line. If one bulb gets fused____

A. no bulb will light
B. all the four bulbs will light
C. rest of the three bulbs will light
D. None of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 124

A 100 watt light bulb burns on an average of 10 hours a day for one week. The weekly consumption of energy will be____

A. 7 units
B. 70 units
C. 0.7 units
D. 0.7 units

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 125

The elements which are not capable of delivering energy by its own are known as _____

A. unilateral elements
B. nonlinear elements
C. passive elements
D. active elements

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 126

A network has 4 nodes and 3 independent loops. What is the number of branches in the network?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 127

Compared to the shaded pole motor Split-phase motor provides more

A. current
B. turns per coil
C. starting torque
D. None of the above

Solution: Split-phase motor, commonly used in major appliances such as air conditioners and clothes dryers. Compared to the shaded pole motor, these motors provide much greater starting torque.

Hence, the correct option is (c)

QUESTION: 128

The determinant of the matrix is:-

A. 100
B. 200
C. 1
D. 300

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 129

Ideal voltage source have_____.

A. zero internal resistance
B. infinite internal resistance
C. low value of current
D. large value of emf

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 130

A voltage source having an open circuit voltage of 100V and internal resistance of is equivalent to a current source_____.

A. 2A in parallel with 50Ω
B. 2A in series with 50Ω
C. 0.5A in parallel with 50Ω
D. 2A in parallel with (100Ω)

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 131

Consider the circuit given below. What is the power delivered by the 24V source?

A. 96 W
B. 114 W
C. 192 W
D. 288 W

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 132

For the circuit shown what is the voltage V if the source voltage is:

A. (IRE)
B. (E-IR)
C. (IR - E/2)
D. (E/2 - IR)

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 133

A coil wound over an iron carries certain current and establishes flux in the ring. If the area of a x-section of the ring is doubted, the flux density in the core ____.

A. is double of the previous value
B. is half of the previous value
C. is same as the previous value
D. is not possible to predict

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 134

A cast steel electromagnet has an air gap length of 0.3cm. Find the ampere-turns for the air gap to produce a flux density of (0.7Wb/m²) in the air gap.

A. 2100 AT
B. 1671 AT
C. 1447 AT
D. 167 AT

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 135

An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits so as to_____.

A. prevent saturation
B. increase mmf
C. increase in flux
D. increase in inductance

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 136

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is the same as on its outer surface
B. The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is zero
C. The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is greater than that on its outside surface
D. The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is lower than that on the outside surface

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 137

Consider the following statements: The force per unit length between two stationary parallel wires carrying (steady) currents____.

A. is inversely proportional to the separation of wires.

B. is proportional to the magnitude of each current.

C. satisfies Newton's third law. Out of these_____.

A. A and B are correct
B. B and C are correct
C. A and C are correct
D. A, B and C are correct

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 138

A magnetic circuit requires 800 AT to produce a certain quantity of flux in magnetic circuit. If its excitation coil has 100 turns and 5 ohm resistance, the voltage to be applied in exciting coil is___.

A. 60V
B. 40V
C. 80V
D. 8V

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 139

According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction an emf is induced in a conductor whenever it_____.

A. lies in a magnetic field
B. lies perpendicular to the magnetic field
C. cuts the magnetic flux
D. moves parallel to the direction of magnetic field

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 140

"In all cased electromagnetic induction, an induced voltage will caused a current to flow in a closed circuit in such a direction that the magnetic field which in caused by the current will opposed the change that produces the current", is the original statement of____.

A. Lenz's law
B. Faraday's law of magnetic induction
C. Fleming's law of induction
D. Ampere's law

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 141

A 500 KVA transformer has constant loss of 500W and copper losses at full load are 2000W. Then at what load, is the efficiency maximum?

A. 250KVA
B. 500KVA
C. 1000KVA
D. 125KVA

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 142

The all-day efficiency of a transformer depends primarily on _____.

A. its copper losses
B. the amount of load
C. the duration of load
D. Both the amount and duration of load

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 143

In a power transformer, the breather is provided in order to ____.

A. filter transformer oil
B. prevent ingress of moisture with air
C. the cooling oil
D. provide fresh air for increasing cooling effect

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 144

The startor core of a synchronous machine is built up of ____laminations.

A. stainless steel
B. silicon steel
C. cast iron
D. cast steel

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 145

The sag of a transmission line conductor in summer is_____

A. less than that in winter
B. more than that in winter
C. same as in winter
D. None of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 146

The slip rings employed in a 3-phase synchronous machine are insulated for_____.

A. Output rated voltage
B. low voltage
C. very low voltage
D. very high voltage

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 147

For a linear electromagnetic circuit, which of the following statment is true?

A. Field energy is equal to the co-energy
B. Field energy is greater than the co-energy
C. Field energy is lesser than the co-energy
D. Co-energy is zero

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 148

A short-circuited rectangular coils falls under gravity with the coil remaining in a vertical plane and cutting perpendicular horizontal magnetic lines of force. It has_____acceleration.

A. zero
B. increasing
C. decreasing
D. constant

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 149

Reluctance torque in rotating machines is present, when____.

A. air gap is not uniform
B. reluctance seen by stator mmf varies
C. reluctance seen by rotor mmf varies
D. reluctance seen by the working mmf varies

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 150

In a dc motor the windage loss is proportional to____.

A. supply voltage
B. square of the supply voltage
C. square of the flux density
D. square of the armature speed

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 151

Generally the no-load losses of an electrical machines is represented i n tis equivalent circuit by a____.

A. parallel resistance with a low value
B. series resistance with a low value
C. parallel resistance with a high value
D. series resistance with a high value

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 152

The zero-suppression in recorder implies____

A. recording signals with reference to a point other than the zero
B. removing the static component so that rest of the signal is displayed with more expansion
C. providing inertia-less components to improve transient response
D. designing the recorder for zero error

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 153

Null type recorder are_____recorders.

A. potentiometric
B. bridge
C. LVDT
D. Any of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 154

In a magnetic tape blanks are provided at the___

A. start of the tape
B. middle of the tape
C. end of the tape
D. start and end of the tape

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 155

If the number of bellows elements is made double and the thickness of the bellows element is made halft, the displacement of the element of the same applied pressure would be the____

A. 16 times
B. 4 times
C. same
D. one-fourth

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 156

The meter measuring total flow in a liquid makes use of_____

A. planimeter
B. variable area meter
C. square root extractor
D. none of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 157

Self-generating type transducers are____transducers.

A. active
B. passive
C. secondary
D. inverse

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 158

A transformer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called the_____transducers.

A. active
B. analog
C. digital
D. pulse

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 159

High value pot resistance reads to_____.

A. low sensitivity
B. high sensitivity
C. low non-linearity
D. less error

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 160

In wire-wound strain gauges, the change in resistance under strained condition is mainly on account of______.

A. change in diameter of wire
B. change in the length of wire
C. change in both length and diameter of wire
D. change in resistivity

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 161

Which of the following is not an advantage of semiconductor gauges as compared to conventional strain gauges?

A. Excellent hysteresis characteristics
B. Least sensitive to temperature changes
C. High fatigue life
D. Smaller size

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 162

In a vapour compression system, which of the following units is adversely affected by the presence of moisture?

A. evaporator
B. expansion value
C. compressor
D. condenser

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 163

The range of horse power of diesel locomotive is______.

A. 100-500
B. 1500-2500
C. 3000-4500
D. 4500-5000

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 164

Electric traction in comparison to other traction systems has the advantages of_____.

A. higher acceleration and breaking retardation
B. cleanest system and so ideally suitable for the underground and tube railways.
C. better speed control
D. All of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 165

The method suitable for heating of conducting medium is_____

A. Induction heating
B. Indirect are heating
C. eddy current heating
D. radiant heating

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 166

The danger of electric shock is maximum _____

A. before welding
B. during welding
C. while inserting electrode into the holder
D. after welding

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 167

Halogen lamps have the advantages of _____

A. reduced dimensions of the lamp
B. better colour rendition and longer life (about 2000 hours)
C. high operating temperature with increased luminous efficiency
D. All of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 168

The primary reason for low power factor is owing in installation of______.

A. synchronous motor
B. dc-motors
C. induction motor
D. None of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 169

The load factor for domestic loads may be taken as _____

A. about 85%
B. 50-60%
C. 25-50%
D. 10-15%

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 170

An industrial consumer has a load pattern of 2000 KW 0.8 lag for 12 hours and 1000 KW unity power factor for 12 hours. The load factor is _____

A. 0.5
B. 0.75
C. 0.6
D. 2

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 171

Diversity factor is the ratio of_____

A. sum of maximum demands of consumers/ system maximum demand
B. maximum demand of consumers/average demand
C. demand of all consumers/average demand
D. none of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 172

Diversity factor x maximum demand is____

A. average demand
B. sum of consumer's maximum demands
C. installed capacity
D. generated capacity

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 173

As per recommendation of ISI the maximum number of points of lights, fans, socket and that can be connected in one sub-circuit is____

A. 8
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 174

Which of the following wiring is preferred for workshop lighting?

A. casing-capping wiring
B. Batten conduit wiring
C. Surface conduit wiring
D. Surface conduit wiring

QUESTION: 175

According to fuse law, the current carrying capacity varies as

A. (diameter)
B. ((diameter)^1.5)
C. ((diameter)12)
D. (1/(diameter))

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 176

The loop earth wire used shall not be of size less than_____.

A. 8 SWG
B. 10 SWG
C. 20 SWG
D. 14 SWG

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 177

Third pin in a 3-pin plug is provided so as to____

A. provide an earth connection
B. provide a 3-phase supply, when required
C. provide a spare phase when required
D. prevent the plug being reversed in the socket

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 178

Which one of the following is used as an active device in electronic circuits?

A. Transformer
B. Electric heater
C. SCR
D. Loudspeaker

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 179

A device having characteristics very close to that of an ideal voltage source is____.

A. Vaccum diode
B. Zener diode
C. Transistor
D. FET

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 180

For thermionic emission

A. a material with high work function is preferable
B. a material with low work function is preferable
C. the work function of the material has no importance
D. None of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 181

A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1m away. When the same source of light is placed two meters away, the electrons emitted by the photocathode_____.

A. each carry one-quarter of their previous energy
B. each carry one-quarter of their previous moments
C. are half as numerous
D. are one-quarter as numerous

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 182

In a vacuum tetrode secondary emission is because of emission of_____.

A. electrons from the filament due to heat energy
B. high-velocity electrons from the cathode
C. electrons from the plate due to bombardment of the fast-moving electrons emitted from the cathode
D. electrons belonging to the second orbit of the atoms of cathode.

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 183

Which of the following circuit is mostly used as an amplifier?

A. common-base circuit because it has high voltage gain
B. common-emitter circuit because it has high voltage and current gain
C. common-collector circuit because it has high gain
D. common-emitter circuit is of a little use because it has extremely low input resistance

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 184

In a dc compound motor, 4-point starter provided as_____.

A. to reduce the field current
B. to increase the field current
C. not to affect the current flowing through 'Hold on' coil even when the field current changes
D. none of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 185

The simplest form of a motor controller is_____.

A. relay
B. toggle switch
C. drum switch
D. magnetic switch

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 186

The plugging provides______braking torque in comparison to rheostatic and regenerative braking systems.

A. negligible
B. small
C. highest
D. None of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 187

Dynamic braking is very effective if the dc motor_____

A. is series excited
B. is shunt excited
C. is separately excited
D. has cumulative compound excitation

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 188

In case of dc shunt motors, the regenerative braking is employed when the load_____.

A. has an overhauling characteristic
B. is variable
C. also acts as braking force
D. is constant

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 189

The variable loss in a dc shunt machine is_____

A. iron loss
B. shunt field loss
C. armature copper loss
D. friction and windage loss

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 190

In a synchronous generator, a divided winding rotor is preferable to a conventional winding rotor because of_____.

A. higher efficiency
B. increase steady-state stability limit
C. higher short circuit ration
D. better damping

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 191

The stator winding of an alternator is normally connected in star to eliminate the ____harmonic component of the voltage waveform.

A. third
B. fifth
C. seventh
D. None of these

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 192

How can the reactive power delivered by a synchronous generator be controlled?

A. by changing the prime mover input
B. by changing the excitation
C. by changing the direction of rotation
D. by changing the prime mover speed

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 193

The armature reaction effect in a synchronous machine depends on_____.

A. load current
B. power factor of the load
C. speed of the machine
D. both load current and power factor of the load

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 194

A synchronous generator is feeding a zero power factor (lagging) load at rated current. The armature reactive is_____.

A. magnetizing
B. demagnetizing
C. cross-magnetizing
D. ineffective

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 195

A synchronous motor may fail to pull into synchronism owing to_____.

A. excessive load
B. low excitation
C. high friction
D. Any of the options

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 196

The rated voltage of a 3-phase power system is given as_____.

A. rms phase voltage
B. peak phase voltage
C. rms line to line voltage
D. peak line to line voltage

Solution: Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 197

Feeder is designed mainly from the point of view of_____.

A. its current carrying capacity
B. voltage drop in it

200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for SSC JE Electrical Engineering | SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 3

Murthy drove from town A to town B. In the first hour, he travelled 1/4 of the journey. In the next one hour, he travelled 1/2 of the journey. In the last 30 minutes, he travelled 80 km. Find the distance of the whole journey.

Which figure represents the relation among computer, Internet and information communication Technology?

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.