SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 5


200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for SSC JE Electrical Engineering | SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 5


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Attempt SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 5 | 200 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for SSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series for SSC JE Electrical Engineering for SSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

Direction: In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.

OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 2

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure:

Answer figure:

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 3

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Cheer : Cheerfully : : Act : ?

Solution:

Cheerfully is the adverb of Cheer.

Similarly,

Actively is the adverb of Act.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 4

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

QPO : RST : : IHG : ?

Solution:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 5

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Brick : Mortar : : Body : ?

Solution:

Mortar is a workable paste which dries to bind bricks.

Similarly,

Soul is used to bind bodies.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 6

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

2 : 8 : : 5 : ?

Solution:

23=8

Similarly

53=125

Hence, the correct option is (c),

QUESTION: 7

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

CUP : LIP :: BIRD : ?

Solution: Cup is used to drink something with the help of lips. Similarly, a bird collects grass with the help of a beak to make her nest.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 8

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

1/3 reverse is 3.

Then

2/5 reverse 5/2

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 9

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Influenza : Virus : : Typhoid : ?

Solution:

Influenza is caused by influenza virus.

Similarly,

Typhoid is an illness caused by infection with a specific bacteria called Salmonella typhi.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 10

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

999 : 1001 : 99 : ?

Solution:

999+2=1001

similarly

99+2=101

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 11

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Clock : Time : : Thermometer : ?

Solution:

First is an instrument to measure the second.

Clock is an instrument to measure the Time.

Thermometer is an instrument to measure the Temperature.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 12

M is older than P. S is younger than P. N is older than S, but younger than P. Who among the four is the youngest ?

Solution:

M > P > N > S

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 13

Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

OUO, OOUOO, OOOUOOO, ?

Solution:

In given series this increase this order:

Before 'U', +O and after 'U',+O increase.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 14

Which of the following diagrams represent the relationship between Actors, Actresses and Producers?

Solution: Actors, Actresses and Producers all these are related to each other.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 15

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

Solution: In this series, the letters remain the same: DEF.

The subscript numbers follow this series: 1,1,1; 1,1,2; 1,2,2; 2,2,2; 2,2,3.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 16

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

XXOXXX, XXXOXX, XXXXOX, XXXXXO, ?

Solution:

In this series after XX ,O comes and after this XXX

similarly O is ahead next step in next digit etc.

And the last digit comes OXXXXX.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 17

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

F, I, L, O, ?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 18

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

pig, mead, poise, snarls, ?

Solution:

In this series given these follow:

3,4,5,6,7....words

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 19

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____

Solution:

This is an alternating series in alphabetical order.

The middle letters follow the order ABCDE.

The first and third letters are alphabetical beginning with J.

The third letter is repeated as a first letter in each subsequent three-letter segment.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 20

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

qlg, rmh, sni, toj, ?

Solution:

q+1=r, r+1=s, s+1=t, t+1=u

l+1=m, m+1=n, n+1=o, o+1=p

g+1=h, h+1=i, i+1=j, j+1=k

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 21

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

1,2,4,7,?,16

Solution:

1+1=2

2+2=4

4+3=7

7+4=11

11+5=16

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 22

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

7, ?, -2, -8, -15

Solution:

7, ?, -2, -8, -15

In this series follow this pattern:

-4,-5,-6,-7,-8

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 23

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series

Solution: In this series follow this pattern

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 24

Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

Statement: All bridges are bricks.

No Stones are bridges.

Conclusion: I. Some bricks are stones.

II. Some stones are bridges.

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 25

If 97%61= 7, 64%52=5 then find the value of 92%65= ?

Solution:

97%61= 7

9-7=2

6-1=5

=5+2=7

64%52=5

6-4=2

5-2=3

=3+2=5

92%65

9-2=7

6-5=1

=7+1=8

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 26

Manish walks 21 meter to the south direction and turns to his right and walks 19 meter. Then he turns to his left and walks 11 meter. After that he turns to his left and walks 19 meter. How far is he from his starting point?

Solution:

21+11=32m

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 27

If the letters H, C, R, A, I, Y & T are numbered 1,2,3,4,5,6 & 7 respectively. Select that combination of numbers so that letters so that letters arranged accordingly, form a meaningful word.

Solution:

H,C,R,A,Y&T

1,2,3,4,5,6&7

By these words made a meaningful word:

(CHARITY⇒2143576)

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 28

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

We can see in all the options except ‘426 – 32’, the first number is the square of the second number.

26² = 676

27² = 729

19² = 361

426 is not even divisible by 32.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 29

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

46→4+6=10

64→6+4=10

33→3+3=6

55→5+5=10

So, 33 is an odd number.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 30

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Only Pepper and Salt are eatable items and any other options not eatable.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 31

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Except 246 all others are odd numbers.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 32

DIRECTION: Find the odd letter/ word/ number pair from the given responses.

Solution: Nitrogen is an element while Ammonia, Manure and Urea are not.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 33

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

So, the odd one is MP.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 34

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

2367(→)2+3+6+7=18

4374(→)4+3+7+4=18

5319(→)5+3+1+9=18

6182(→)6+1+8+2=17

Thus 6182 is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 35

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Except crying, all other activities are happiness.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 36

Select the odd word/letters/number/word pair/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

11×7+3=80

13×7+3=94

18×7+3=129

24×7+5=173

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 37

If A%B means A is mother of B, A&B means A is father of B and if A ($) B means A is daughter of B, then what does P%Q ($) R&S means?

Solution:

P%Q($)R&S

P%Q=P is mother of Q

Q($)R=Q is daughter of R

R&S=R is father of S

So,according to above given

P is the mother of S.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 38

In a certain code language, 421 means 'board is black', 213 means 'black is white ' 523 means 'black or white'. Find the code for 'or'.

Solution:

421 means 'board is black', 213 means 'black is white

523 means 'black or white'.

In 'Board is black' and 'black or white' black is similar both

421 and 523 in also 2 similar

So, black (⇒)2

In 'chalk is white "and "black or white'

white is similar in both

213 and 523 in also 3 similar

white (⇒)3

then 523 means 'black or white". In this remaining 5 is for 'or'.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 39

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

32, 31, 32, 29, 32, 27, 32,?,?

Solution: This is an alternating repetition series.

The number 32 alternates with a series in which each number decreases by 2.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 40

A man walks 7 km North, then turns West and walks 3km, then turns South and walks 7km, then turns to his right and walks 5kms. Where is he now with reference to his starting position?

Solution:

So, he is 8km to the West of the starting point.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 41

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Question figure:

Answer figure :

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 42

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure:

Answer figure :

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 43

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets at in two materials given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. 'R' can be represented by 01, 44 and 'U' can be represented by 59, 78 etc. Identify the set for the word FORK.

Solution:

30, 86, 13, 77→ FORK

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 44

If jK, K

I. J < l

II. i > j

Solution:

j

So,

I.j

II.j

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 45

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Question figure:

Answer figure:

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 46

If ANTIQUES is coded as DQWLTXHV, then how will FOX be coded as?

Solution:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 47

In a certain code language '+' represents 'X' , '-'represents '+', X represents '÷' and ÷ represents '-' . Find out the answer to the following question.

(0.12535−54×3=?)

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 48

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

Question figure:

Answer figure:

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 49

The weights of five boxes are 30, 40, 50, 70 & 90 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes ?

Solution:

Weight Combination of these boxes:

30,40,50,70&90

30+40=70

30+40+50=120

30+40+50+70=190

30+40+50+70+90=280

40+50+70=160

40+50+70+90=250

50+70+90=210

40+70+90=200

So,220not comes from these combinations.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 50

Direction: Each question below is followed by a statement and some arguments. You have to decide which of the following arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument. In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments and weak arguments so far as they relate to the question. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Statement :

Should cameras be installed in public school class-rooms to monitor teachers?

Argument :

I. No, This will violate privacy norms.

II. Yes, This will make teachers more accountable, increasing their productivity.

Solution: Neither argument I nor argument II is strong.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 51

A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes breathing problems is

Solution: In the foggy conditions mostly during winters the smoke released from industries combine with fog to form smoke fog, also known as smog. It is highly polluted & causes breathing problems.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 52

Heart is devoid of-

Solution: Cardiac muscle is also an involuntary muscle, found only in the heart. The cardiac muscle fibers all contract together, generating enough force to push blood throughout the body.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 53

Amides can be converted to amines by the reaction named-

Solution: This reaction is called Hoffmann bromamide reaction. When an amide is treated with bromine in an aqueous or ethanolic solution of sodium hydroxide, degradation of amide takes place leading to the formation of primary amine. This reaction involves degradation of amide and is popularly known as Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 54

Instruments can be shielded from outside magnetic effects by surrounding them with-

Solution: Using Ampere's law, we can calculate the magnetic field inside a metallic shield (iron). Which turns out to be zero. So instruments can be shielded from outside magnetic effects by surrounding them with iron shields.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 55

Which one of the following is an example for a non-economic good?

Solution: Mother's service is an example for a non-economic good. Non-economic goods are called free goods because they are free gifts of nature. They do not have any price and are unlimited in supply. Examples of non-economic goods are air, water, sunshine, etc. The concept of non-economic goods is relative to place and time.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 56

Green glands are associated with-

Solution: Green glands are excretory organs of some arthropods like crustaceans. They are also called antennal glands because these glands are located near the base of larger antennas. Each gland has three parts: end sac, labyrinth and bladder. The labyrinth is the proper excretory gland. Hence green glands help in excretion.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 57

The following is a pseudo-force:

Solution: A physically apparent but nonexistent force felt by an observer in a noninertial frame (that is, a frame undergoing acceleration). Newton's laws of motion hold true within such a reference frame only if the existence of such a force is presumed. The centrifugal force is an example of a pseudo force.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 58

The danger signals are red while the eye is more sensitive to yellow because-

Solution: In the spectrum of white light, red has the highest wavelength, and hence is scattered the least by the atmospheric particles. For this reason, danger signals are red despite the fact that the human eye is most sensitive to yellow and green.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 59

The city of Prayag was named Allahabad-the city of Allah by-

Solution: Shaligram Shrivastav claimed in Prayag Pradip that the name was deliberately given by Akbar to be construed as both Hindu ("ilaha") and Muslim ("Allah"). Over the years, a number of attempts were made by the BJP-led governments of Uttar Pradesh to rename Allahabad to Prayagraj.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 60

The original name of Nan Phadnavis was-

Solution: Unsourced material may be challenged and removed. Nana Phadnavis (also Fadnavis and Furnaces and abbreviated as Phadnis) (February 12, 1742 – March 13, 1800), born Balaji Janardan Bhanu, was an influential minister and statesman of the Maratha Empire during the Peshwa administration in Pune, India.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 61

The total population divided by available arable land area is referred to as-

Solution: Agricultural density is defined as the number of farmers per unit area of farmland.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 62

Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?

Solution: Securing Loan Regulation by Fixation of Margin Requirements: The practice of margin requirement is adopted by all the bankers to determine the loan value of a collateral security offered by the borrower. ADVERTISEMENTS: The loan value of the security = The market value of the security – The Margin.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 63

Which of the following determines 'the chemical properties of an element?

Solution: The chemical properties of an element are determined by the number of protons in the nucleus. This number of protons is called the atomic number. The mass of the atom, its atomic mass, depends upon the sum of the number of protons and the number of neutrons present in the nucleus.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 64

An alternate name for the completely interconnected network topology is-

Solution: A fully connected network, complete topology, or full mesh topology is a network topology in which there is a direct link between all pairs of nodes.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 65

Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Solution: Darjeeling is a city and a municipality in the Indian state of West Bengal.

Mount Abu is a hill station in the Aravalli Range in Pindwara - Abu Assembly Constituency Of Sirohi district of Rajasthan state in western India, near the border with Gujarat.

Kodaikanal is a hill station which is located in Dindigul district in the state of Tamil Nadu, India.

Simla is the capital and the largest city of the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 66

Denatured alcohol-

Solution: Denatured alcohol is used as a solvent and as fuel for alcohol burners and camping stoves. The main additive has traditionally been 10% methanol, methyl alcohol, giving rise to the term "methylated spirits". Other typical additives include isopropyl alcohol, acetone, methyl ethyl ketone, and methyl isobutyl ketone.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 67

Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India ?

Solution: Charles John Canning, 1st Earl Canning, KG, GCB, KSI, PC (14 December 1812 – 17 June 1862), also known as The Viscount Canning and Clemency Canning was an English statesman and Governor-General of India during the Indian Rebellion of 1857 and the first Viceroy of India after the transfer of power from the East India Company to the Crown of Queen Victoria in 1858 after the rebellion was crushed.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 68

Arrange the following in chronological order:

I. Dandi March

II. Simon Commission

III. Poona Pact

IV. Gandhi Irwin Pact

Solution: The Indian Statutory Commission also referred to as the Simon Commission, was a group of seven Members of Parliament under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon (later, 1st Viscount Simon). The commission arrived in British India in 1928 to study constitutional reform in Britain's largest and the most important possession.

The Salt March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, Dandi March and the Dandi Satyagraha, was an act of nonviolent civil disobedience in colonial India led by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi. The 25-day march lasted from 12 March 1930.

The 'Gandhi - Irwin Pact' was a political agreement signed by Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, Viceroy of India, on 5 March 1931 before the second Round Table Conference in London.

The Poona Pact was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar on behalf of depressed classes and upper-caste Hindu leaders on the reservation of electoral seats for the depressed classes in the legislature of British India government . It was made on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Poona, India.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 69

Of the following which is the fastest?

Solution: A register is a temporary storage area built into a CPU. The instruction register fetches instructions from the program counter (PC) and holds each instruction as it is executed by the processor. The memory registers are used to pass data from memory to the processor.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 70

A process which is not helpful in the prevention of rusting of iron is-

Solution: Annealing is a heat treatment process that changes the physical and sometimes also the chemical properties of a material to increase ductility and reduce the hardness to make it more workable.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 71

Who among the following has won the Pantaloons Femina Miss India World, 2012 Award?

Solution: The journey that began two years ago, turned into a dream come true for 19-year-old Vanya Mishra when she was crowned Femina Miss India World 2012 at Bhavans Ground, Mumbai on 30 March 2012.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 72

The Constitutional Amendment Act that has introduced safeguards against the misuse of proclamation of national emergency is the-

Solution: The Forty-fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978, was enacted by the Janata Party which had won the 1977 general elections campaigning on a promise to "restore the Constitution to the condition it was in before the Emergency".

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 73

The hydraulic brake used in automobiles is a direct application of-

Solution: Pascal's principle guarantees that the pressure is transmitted equally to all parts of the enclosed fluid system. This gives straight-line braking unless there is a fluid leak or something to cause a significant difference in the friction of the surfaces.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 74

Which one of the following committees is associated with banking sector reforms in India?

Solution: The Narasimham-II Committee was tasked with the progress review of the implementation of the banking reforms since 1992 with the aim of further strengthening the financial institutions of India. It focussed on issues like size of banks and capital adequacy ratio among other things.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 75

Which one of the following does not match?

Solution: Violence Against Women Act or VAWA, legislation included in the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994, sponsored by then-Senator Joseph Biden, which required a strengthened community response to crimes of domestic violence and sexual assault, strengthened federal penalties for repeat sex offenders and strengthened legislative protection of victims, among many other provisions.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 76

The stability of a pond ecosystem depends on-

Solution: The stability of a pond ecosystem depends on producers and consumers. Producers create food for themselves and also provide energy for the rest of the ecosystem. Any green plant, like a tree or grass, as well as algae and chemosynthetic bacteria, can be producers. Consumers are organisms that need to eat to obtain energy. Primary consumers, such as deer and rabbits, eat only producers.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 77

Which one of the following, though called a garden, is in fact, not a garden?

Solution: The Eden Gardens is an iconic cricket ground in Kolkata, India. Established in 1864, it is the oldest and second largest cricket stadium in India after the newly built Sardar Patel Stadium and third in the world after Sardar Patel Stadium and Melbourne Cricket Ground.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 78

Who is present prime minister of Australia?

Solution:
  • Scott John Morrison is an Australian politician who is the current Prime Minister of Australia.
  • He was first elected to parliament in 2007 and served in cabinet from 2013-18.
  • He belongs to Liberal Party.
QUESTION: 79

Prithvi Raj Chauhan was defeated in, the Second Battle of Tarain by-

Solution: First Battle Of Tarain: Prithviraj Chauhan vs Muhammad of Ghor | MyNation. The First Battle of Tarain was fought in 1191 between the Ghurids against the Chauhans and their allies, near Taraori in Haryana.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 80

Who among the following first propounded the idea of Basic Education?

Solution: The first major attempt in curriculum reconstruction in India was made in 1937 when Gandhi Ji propounded the idea of Basic Education.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 81

The high boiling point of water compared to hydrogen sulphide or hydrogen chloride is due to

Solution: Hydrogen bond is more strong than Van Der Waals Force(Present in H2S), so H20 is more stable. During boiling, one has to break the bonds and hence greater amount of energy is required in the case of H20 since it is more stable and has a higher boiling point.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 82

During respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave the same by the process of-

Solution: Gas exchange during respiration occurs primarily through diffusion. Gas molecules move from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Blood that is low in oxygen concentration and high in carbon dioxide concentration undergoes gas exchange with air in the lungs.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 83

Chickenpox is caused by-

Solution: Chickenpox is an infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It causes an itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters. Chickenpox is highly contagious to people who haven't had the disease or been vaccinated against it. Today, a vaccine is available that protects children against chickenpox.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 84

The base used as an antacid is-

Solution: The two main types of bases used in antacids are carbonates and hydroxides. These are weak bases that serve to neutralize the acidity of the stomach.

Examples of common antacid bases include aluminum hydroxide, magnesium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate, magnesium hydroxide, calcium carbonate and potassium bicarbonate.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 85

The main factor which determines the balance of nature is-

Solution: Environmental Conditions means the state of the environment, including natural resources (e.g., flora and fauna), soil, surface water, ground water, any present or potential drinking water supply, subsurface strata or ambient air.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 86

One of the following Chief Ministers received the Highest Civilian Award "Bharat Ratan" ?

Solution: The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India. Instituted on 2 January 1954, the award is conferred in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order, without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 87

Spot the odd one from the following :

Solution: A windmill is a structure that converts wind power into rotational energy by means of vanes called sails or blades, specifically to mill grain (gristmills), but the term is also extended to wind pumps, wind turbines and other applications.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 88

In which district of Tamil Nadu will ISRO set up a second launch port specifically for launching small satellite launch vehicles?

Solution:
  • Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will establish a second launch port in Thoothukodi district in Tamil Nadu exclusively to launch small satellite launch vehicles.
  • It was announced by Chairman of ISRO K. Sivan on 1st January 2020.
  • This space center will be established in 2300 acres of land.
QUESTION: 89

The soil salinity is measured by-

Solution: Water and soil salinity are measured by passing an electric current between the two electrodes of a salinity meter in a soil or water sample. The electrical conductivity or EC of a soil or water sample is influenced by the concentration and composition of dissolved salts.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following cereals was among the first to be used by man?

Solution: The first cereal grains were domesticated by early primitive humans. About 8,000 years ago, they were domesticated by ancient farming communities in the Fertile Crescent region. Emmer wheat, einkorn wheat, and barley were three of the so-called Neolithic founder crops in the development of agriculture.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 91

The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located is-

Solution: The Central Drug Research Institute is a multidisciplinary research laboratory in Lucknow, India, employing scientific personnel from various areas of biomedical sciences.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 92

The Fundamental Rights can be suspended by-

Solution: Fundamental Rights can be suspended during emergency by the President of India under Article 359. The Fundamental Rights are justiciable. Under Article 32 of the Constitution, a person can go to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of these rights.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 93

Supersonic airplanes create a shock wave called-

Solution: A sonic boom is the sound associated with the shock waves created whenever an object traveling through the air travels faster than the speed of sound. Sonic booms generate significant amounts of sound energy, sounding similar to an explosion or a thunderclap to the human ear.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 94

A Retired Judge of a High Court is permitted to practice as a lawyer in-

Solution: The constitution says that once a high court judge has retired, he cannot practice law in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court and the other High Courts. This means that a retired High Court judge cannot practice in lower courts and the same high court from which he has retired.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following is a fungal disease ?

Solution: Tinea corporis or ringworm is a skin infection caused by a fungus that lives on dead tissues, such as the skin, hair, and nails. Ringworm is the fungus that causes both jock itch and athlete's foot. When it appears anywhere else on the body, the infection is just called ringworm.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 96

Phenolics as pollutants can be removed from wastewater by use of-

Solution: The most important membrane technologies used to remove phenols from wastewater are extractive membrane bioreactors and hollow fiber membranes; photocatalytic membrane reactors; high-pressure membrane processes such as nanofiltration, reverse osmosis, and pervaporation; and membrane distillation [3, 9, 24].

Hence, the correct option is (c).

QUESTION: 97

The national income of a nation is the-

Solution: National income is the total value of a country's final output of all new goods and services produced in one year. Understanding how national income is created is the starting point for macroeconomics.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 98

The earth is at its maximum distance from the sun on

Solution: Happy Fourth of July – and Aphelion Day! This Saturday, July 4, Earth will be at the farthest point in its orbit around the sun, also known as aphelion. Aphelion will occur at 7:34 a.m. EDT (11:34 GMT), at which time Earth will be about 94,507,635 miles (152,095,295 kilometers) from the sun.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

QUESTION: 99

Find the odd one

Solution: Marble is a metamorphic rock composed of recrystallized carbonate minerals, most commonly calcite or dolomite.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 100

Who advocated the adoption of the 'PURA' model to eradicate rural poverty?

Solution: Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas (PURA) is a strategy for rural development in India. This concept was given by former president Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam and discussed in his book Target 3 Billion which he co-authored with Srijan Pal Singh.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 101

A resistance R is measured by the ammeter-voltmeter method. The voltmeter reading is 200 V and its internal resistance is 2K. If the ammeter reading is found to be 2A, then value of R is-

Solution:

Current through voltmeter

So,

QUESTION: 102

A coil with a certain number of turns has a specified time constant. If the number of turns is doubled, its time constant would

Solution:

QUESTION: 103

Find for the circuit shown in figure.

Solution:

Current flowing through resistor is zero because the bridge is in balanced condition.

then,

QUESTION: 104

A 3-phase Υ-Δ transformer has 420 and 36 turns on the primary and secondary windings respectively. The supply voltage on the primary side is 3.3kV, then what will be the phase voltage on the secondary side of transformer

Solution:

Winding connection is Y/∆


In 3 transformer

But a may not be equal to N1/N2. So, don’t remember  always in 3- transformer.

QUESTION: 105

Strain gauge rosettes are used when ____________.

Solution:

- wire strain gage can effectively measure strain in only one direction. To determine the three independent components of plane strain, three linearly independent strain measures are needed. i.e., three strain gages positioned in a rosette-like layout.

QUESTION: 106

A load the connected to an active Network. At the Terminal to which load is connected in 10 Ω and Vth = 60 V, then the maximum Power supplied to the load is

Solution:

Rn = 10Ω
Vth  = 60V

QUESTION: 107

A stove element draws 15 A when connected to a 230 V line. How long does it take to consume one unit of energy ?

Solution:

Power consumed

230 X 15 X t = 1000 [1 unit = 1000 W - h ]

t = 0.29 hour

QUESTION: 108

The size of the venturimeter is expressed as 200 x 100 mm2. It means tea the

Solution:

200×100 mm2 it shows that diameter of pipe is 200 mm. And that of throat is 100 mm.

QUESTION: 109

Orifice plates have_____.

Solution:

The discharge coefficient is a dimensionless number used to characterise the flow and pressure loss behaviour of nozzles and orifices in fluid systems. Orifices and nozzles are typically used to deliberately reduce pressure, restrict flow or to measure flow rate. Typical value of discharge coefficient of orifice plate is 0.61.

QUESTION: 110

In a radio, a gang condenser is a type of ____.

Solution:

- air capacitor is also called as “Gang capacitor”. A gang capacitor is a combination of two or more variable capacitors mounted on a common shaft to. This adjustment allows simultaneous change in capacitance of grouped capacitors.

QUESTION: 111

Match List 1 (quantity) with List 2 (transducer) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.

Solution:

cantilever beam used for force measurement. Flat spiral spring for torque measurement. Seismic mass used for acceleration measurement.

QUESTION: 112

The function of measurement system is/are ____________.

Solution:

Most of the measurement systems contain three main functional elements are i) Primary sensing element ii) Variable conversion element & iii) Data presentation element. Primary sensing element: The quantity under measurement makes its first contact with the primary sensing element of a measurement system.

QUESTION: 113

A single phase transformer has 400 primary and 1000 secondary turns. The net cross-sectional area of the core is 60 cm2 If the primary is connected to 500 V, 50 Hz source, the peak value of flux density in the core is

Solution:

QUESTION: 114

A 200 W, 200 V bulb and a 100 W, 200 V bulb are connected in series and the voltage of 400 V is applied across the series connected bulbs, Under this condition

Solution:

 

Hence 100W bulbs will be brighter than 2000 W bulbs.

QUESTION: 115

The circuit shown in the given figure is equivalent to a load of-

Solution:

From the circuit drawn,

{{chart?cht=tx&chl=\(2I+2(I-I}}

and {{chart?cht=tx&chl=\(I}}

Then,

QUESTION: 116

A 4-pole, 3-phase induction motor runs at 1440 rpm on a 50Hz supply. Find the slip speed.

Solution:

QUESTION: 117

A  230/2300 transformer takes no-load current of 6.5 A and absorbs 187 W. If the resistance of the primary is 0.06Ω what is no-load power factor?

Solution:

No-load p.f.,

QUESTION: 118

In a 50 kVA transformer, the iron loss is 500 W and full-load Cu loss in 800 W, The efficiency of the transformer at full-load at 0.8 p.f. lagging is

Solution:

Full-load output
= kVA x cosϕ = 50 x 0.8 = 40 kW
Total F.L. losses
=500 + 800 = 1300 W = 1.3 kW
Full-load input = 40 + 1.3 = 41.3 kW

QUESTION: 119

The total load taken from an a.c. supply consists of
A- a heating load of 15 kW
B- a motor load of 40 kVA at p.f. 0.6 lagging
C- a load of 20 kW at p.f. 0.8 lagging
A capacitor is connected in parallel with load and p.f. raised to unity. The kVAR rating of the capacitor should be

Solution:

The parallel loads draw a total reactive power of 47 kVAR lagging. In order to raise the p.f. to unity, the capacitor should supply leading reactive power of 47 kVAR.

QUESTION: 120

If C is the capacitance per phase for delta-connected capacitor bank, then capacitance per phase for star-connected capacitor bank is

Solution:

QUESTION: 121

The overall efficiency of a steam power station is ………….. its thermal efficiency.

Solution:

The overall efficiency of a steam power station is less than its thermal efficiency. This is expected since some losses (about 1%) occur in the alternator.

QUESTION: 122

In interconnected grid system, more efficient plants are used as

Solution:

A base load station supplies almost a constant load throughout the day i.e. for 24 hours. Therefore, more efficient plants are used as base load stations.

QUESTION: 123

A current of 5 mA flows in a resistance less choke from a 200 V alternating source. The energy consumed in the choke is-

Solution: Energy consumed in the resistanceless choke is zero.
QUESTION: 124

For the linear circuit shown in figure,

when , V = 20 V

when R = 0 , I = 4 A

when the current I is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 125

In an R-L series circuit, the phase difference between applied voltage and circuit current will increase if-

Solution:

Angle between V and I i.e., θ will increase if XL

QUESTION: 126

The peak power supplied by peak load station is

Solution:

The base load stations supply a major part of power while peak load stations are in service for brief intervals throughout the day. For example, peak load stations are in service for an average of only 1 hour per day. Consequently, peak power is very expensive because the stations that produce it are idle most of the time.

QUESTION: 127

In the figure, the value of R is

Solution:

From the figure given, we have

QUESTION: 128

For the circuit shown in figure, when . When Vs = 200V. what will be the value of I?

Solution:

Net current,

{{chart?cht=tx chl=\(I=I}}

QUESTION: 129

For the circuit shown in figure, the voltage across the capacitor during steady state condition is-

Solution:

Steady-state condition, capacitor gets open circuit, then

QUESTION: 130

The Q-factor of a parallel resonant circuit is given by-

Solution:

Q-Factor for parallel resonating circuit is given as

So, the option is not matched.

QUESTION: 131

The measurement of surface temperature in exposed situations where atmospheric variation can interfere with temperature measurement gives rise to

Solution:

An interaction error occurs when two entities work correctly when running independently, but they interact in unexpected ways when they are run together.

QUESTION: 132

In an autotransformer of voltage ratio the fraction of power transferred inductively is proportional is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 133

Tappings of a transformer are provided

Solution:

Tappings are provided to regulate voltage as per need in the secondary side.
Since in HV side, current is low & have more number of turns so tappings are provided in HV side to prevent sparks & for smooth voltage regulation. It is positioned at the middle to eliminate axial forces.

QUESTION: 134

Voltage regulation of transformer is given by

Solution:

Voltage Regulation is the measure of change in voltage magnitude between sending & receiving end when load at receiving end is changed from no-load to full-load.
Voltage Regulation for transformer is given by:
V.R. = (E2 – V2)/ V2

QUESTION: 135

In a CE (common-emitter) transistor Vec = 12 V and the zero signal collector current is 1 mA. Determine the operating point when collector load Rc is 6kΩ .

Solution:

Operating point = 6 V, 1 mA

QUESTION: 136

In a CRO, a sinusoidal waveform of a certain frequency is displayed. The value of the quantity that can be made out by observation is-

Solution:

If Quantity is voltage

So, by observing Peak to peak voltage of sine wave, we can get the RMS value of that quantity.

QUESTION: 137

If voltage is increased by 'n' time, the size of the conductor would-

Solution:

QUESTION: 138

A short circuit test on a transformer gives ___________.

Solution:

From the short circuit test of the Transformer we will find out full load copper loss and equivalent circuit parameter & voltage regulation.
From full load copper loss we can find out copper losses at any fraction of load by using the following formula.
Wcu at x% full load = x2 [Wcu full load]

QUESTION: 139

The conventional direction of the electric field is ________.

Solution: The conventional direction of electric field lines is from positive to negative. Field lines are generated on a positive charge and end on a negative charge.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 140

A piece of oil soaked paper has been inserted between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor. Then the potential difference between the plates will

Solution:

On inserting oil-soaked paper between the plated K will increase.

Q = CV

As,

QUESTION: 141

A single phase, 50 Hz, core-type trans-fomer has square cores of 20  side. The permissible flux density is 
1 Wb/m2  If the stacking factor is 0.9, the voltage induced per turn is

Solution:

QUESTION: 142

What will the maximum power (in W) transferred from the source to the load of the circuit given below?

Solution:



QUESTION: 143

The emf induced in a DC shunt generator is 230 V. The armature resistance is 0.1 Ω . If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be-

Solution:

For a DC generator

QUESTION: 144

The nameplate of a 1-phase, 4-pole induction motor gives the following data:
Output 373 W; 230 V
Frequency 50 Hz; Input current 2. 9 A
Power factor 0. 71; Speed 1410 r. p. m.
What is the efficiency of the motor?

Solution:

QUESTION: 145

Calculate the total energy stored in magnetic field in a solenoid having inductance 100mH when carrying a current of 30 A –

Solution:

Energy stored in magnetic field is given by,

QUESTION: 146

The Req for the circuit shown in figure is-

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 147

Four resistance 2Ω , 4Ω , 5Ω , 20Ω are connected in parallel. Their combined resistance is

Solution:

QUESTION: 148

Two sinusoidal currents are given by the equations and . The phase difference between them is_____degrees.

Solution:

QUESTION: 149

A conductor of length 10 m moves at right angles to the magnetic flux of flux density  with velocity of 20 m/s. then calculate total emf induced in the circuit –

Solution:

Given that,
l = 10m
B = 2 Wb/m2
V = 20 m/s
Induced emf in the conductor –
E=B l v
E = 2 x 10 x 20 = 400 V

QUESTION: 150

A 3 phase 20kVA load has power factor 0.866. If power is measured by two wattmeter method then find reading of first wattmeter when power factor is leading –

Solution:

Given data is,
Cosϕ = 0.866
∴ ϕ =30 °
We know that,

QUESTION: 151

In the circuit shown in Fig., at resonance

Solution:

Fig. shows the phasor diagram at resonance. In this case IL is greater than Ic  The current IL is split into two rectangular components IR and IXL At resonance, IC=IXI'and the resultant current IR(=I)  is in phase with V.

QUESTION: 152

A 0 – 200 V voltmeter has guaranteed accuracy of 2% at full scale. Find the % error if the measured value is 144 V

Solution:

Maximum error = 2% of 240 = (200)×(2/100)= 4 V
% error when measured 100V = 4×(100/144)=2.78 %

QUESTION: 153

A 1 – phase energy meter does 100 revolution in 90 seconds. Meter constant for instrument is 1200 rev./KWh, then power consumed by load is –

Solution:

QUESTION: 154

Determine the value of shunt required to give multiplying power of 41 whereas the instrument resistance is 1600 Ω -

Solution:

QUESTION: 155

Inductance of moving iron instrument is given as  If the control spring torque is  then find deflection in rad for a current of 3 A –

Solution:

QUESTION: 156

Power consumed in the given circuit is-

Solution:

power consumed in the circuit, P

QUESTION: 157

In the network shown, if one of the 4Ω resistances is disconnected, when the circuit is active, the current flowing now will-

Solution:

When 4Ω is in the circuit,

QUESTION: 158

The impedance reflected back to the source in Fig. is………………..

Solution:

QUESTION: 159

An ideal transformer has N1 = 100 turns
N2 = 200 turns with a mutual flux of
ϕm (t) = -0.05(t2 - 2t). The induced emf of secondary in volts is

Solution:

QUESTION: 160

A circuit has inductance of 2 H. If the circuit current changes at the rate of 10 A/'sec, then self-induced emf is-

Solution:

= 2 X 10 = 20 V

QUESTION: 161

Calculate the total susceptance of the circuit shown in figure-

Solution:

QUESTION: 162

A supply voltage of 230 V, 50 Hz is fed to a residential building. Write down its equation for instantaneous value.

Solution:

QUESTION: 163

In electrodynamometer ammeter, the deflection of the pointer is proportional to-

Solution:

Where, I is Mean square current I1 of I2 and

So,

QUESTION: 164

In a transformer maximum efficiency occurs at 80% of a full load then what is the Relation between ironless at rated voltage (Pi) and copper loss full load.

Solution:

At maximum efficiency
Pc = Pi
Copper loss at 70% of full load = (0.8)2 Pc
Iron loss at rated voltage = Pi

25 Pi = 16 Pc

QUESTION: 165

The following is the apparent disadvantage of auto transformer as compared to two-winding transformer

Solution:


 

Drawback of auto transformer
(1) If the transformer ratio K1 is far from unity, then the Auto transformer would not be economical one.
(2) The short circuit current in Auto transformer is higher than the short circuit current in two winding transformer.
(3) The main disadvantage of autotransformer is the direct electrical connection between low tension and high tension side, so it might be possible that the insulation of Cu may fail due to which a large current flow in windings.

QUESTION: 166

A 250 V d.c. shunt motor takes a total current of 20 A.  Resistance of shunt field winding is 200 Ω and that of armature is 0.3 Ω  What is the current in the armature?

Solution:

QUESTION: 167

A 200/400 V, 20 kVA, 50 Hz single-phase transformer has, at full-load, a copper loss of 120 W. If it has an efficiency of 98% at full-load, determine the iron losses.

Solution:

Transformer Efficiency η 
= 1- (Copper Loss + Iron Loss)/Input kVA
0.98  = 1- {( 120 + Pi)/(20x1000)}
0.98 x 20000 = 20000 - 120 -Pi
Pi = 20000 - 19600-120
= 280 W

QUESTION: 168

In low oil circuit breaker, the oil performs the function of

Solution:

In Low Oil Circuit Breaker the are extinction process is carried out in the upper chamber. So, it is called as an arc extinction chamber or current interruption chamber of Minimum Oil Circuit Breaker (MOCB).

QUESTION: 169

Calculate the voltage drop across 14.5 Ω resistance-

Solution:

Voltage drop across resistance

14 . 5 X 2 = 29 V

QUESTION: 170

The current I in the circuit shown is Figure is

Solution:

QUESTION: 171

A moving coil instrument has a resistance of 10 and gives full-scale deflection at 0.5 V potential difference across it. How can it be adapted to measure a current upto 100 A ?

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 172

Consider the following circuit.

What is the equivalent resistance between points A and B when VA  < VB?

Solution:

When VA<VB,the diode is reverse biased and can be replaced by an ‘open’. Therefore, RAB = 10Ω

QUESTION: 173

An over-excited 3-phase synchronous motor can be used to

Solution:

An over-excited 3-phase synchronous motor is not only used as a motor to supply the needed mechanical power but also acts as a power factor correction device.But generally prefered for power factor correction.

QUESTION: 174

A 18.65 kW, 220 V, 50 Hz, 4-pole, Y-connected synchronous motor is running with a light load. The load angle is 4o(elect.) and back e.m.f. generated per phase in 110 V. If the armature resistance per phase is 0.1Ω and synchronous reactance/ phase is 1.5Ω then resultant armature voltage/phase is ……………….

Solution:

QUESTION: 175

An industrial consumer has a daily load pattern of 2000 kW, 0.8 lag for 12 hours and 1000 kW UPF for 12 hours. The load factor is-

Solution:

Load factor

QUESTION: 176

Which of the following expression is the mathematical representation of Mass Action law in electronics?

Solution:

Mass action law states that at thermal equilibrium, the productof number of holes and number of electrons in a semiconductor are constant and is independent of donor and acceptor impurity doping (only intrinsic concentration is considered).

QUESTION: 177

The reactance of 1-farad capacitance when connected to a DC circuit is-

Solution:

Reactance of capacitor

QUESTION: 178

Semiconductor A has a higher band-gap than semiconductor B. If both A and B have the same electron and hole mobilities then

Solution:

We have, intrinsic carrier concentration, 
ηi∞e-Eg/2kT
And, hole concentration (by mass action law) is, p=ni2/n⇒∞e-Eg2kT
Thus, EgA>EgB
⇒pA<pB
Hence, hole concentration in semiconductor A is less than that of B.

QUESTION: 179

The leakage resistance of a 50 km long cable is 1MΩ. For a 100 km long cable is will be

Solution:

Leakage resistance is inversely proportional the length then,

QUESTION: 180

Which of the following statement is correct?

Solution:

Since copper is a metal, conductor, thus it has more number of free electrons in conduction band than that of silicon. Hence, fermi level of copper is at higher energy level than that of silicon.

QUESTION: 181

The secondary load impedance of a step-up transformer is ZS The primary impedance  ZP will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 182

In an Intrinsic semiconductor ________.

Solution:

Semiconductors which are chemically pure, meaning free of impurities, are called Intrinsic Semiconductors or Un doped Semiconductor or i-type Semiconductor. The most common intrinsic semiconductors are Silicon (Si) and Germanium (Ge), which belong to Group IV of the periodic table. The atomic numbers of Si and Ge are 14 and 32.

QUESTION: 183

A transistor is a combination of two p-n junction with their

Solution:

a transistor is a combination of two diodes, we have two junctions here. As one junction is between the emitter and base, that is called as Emitter-Base junction and likewise, the other is Collector-Base junction. A transistor is a combination of two p-n junction with their p region connected together and n region connected together.

QUESTION: 184

The total line current drawn by the circuit shown in the figure is …………………

Solution:

I=|IL+IR|=|V/jXL + V/R|
=|240/j30 + 240/30
= 8√2A

QUESTION: 185

The flux through each turn of a 100-turn coil is t2 - 2t m Wb, where 't' is in second. Find the magnitude of the induced emf at t=2 s.

Solution:

E = 1V

QUESTION: 186

A series circuit has R = 4Ω , XL = 12Ω , and XC = 9Ω  and is supplied with 200 V, 50 Hz Calculate the power.

Solution:

P = FR

 

QUESTION: 187

A capacitor is charged by a battery. When the capacitor is having air core, the charge on the plates is 70 μC When the same capacitor has mica core of dielectric 7, the charge on the plates is

Solution:

QUESTION: 188

The open loop control system is one in which __________.

Solution:

One type of control system in which the output has no influence or effect on the control action of the input signal is called an Open-loop system.

QUESTION: 189

A 10 kVA, 2000/400 V single-phase transformer has a primary resistance and inductive reactance of 5 Ω and 12 Ω respectively. The secondary values are 0.2 Ω and  0.48 Ωrespectively. What is the impedance of the transformer referred to the secondary side?

Solution:

QUESTION: 190

The condition of a semiconductor diode can be determined quickly using:

Solution:

On a digital display meter with a diode checking capability appears, the small diode symbol is the bottom option of the rotating dial to check the functionality of the diode. The curve tracer of can displays the characteristics of a host of devices, including the semiconductor diode.
By properly connecting the diode to the test panel at the bottom center of the unit and adjusting the controls, the display can be obtained.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 191

In a 50 kVA  transformer, the iron loss is 500 W and full-load Cu loss in 800 W.  The efficiency of the transformer at full-load at 0.8 p.f. lagging is

Solution:

Full-load output
=kVA×cosϕ=50×0.8=40 kW
Total F.L. losses
=500+800=1300 W=1.3 kW
Full-load input=40+1.3=41.3 kW
Full-load 

QUESTION: 192

The maximum demand of a consumer is 2 kW and his daily energy consumption is 24 units. His load factor is______%.

Solution:

QUESTION: 193

A circuit element that opposes the change in circuit voltage is

Solution:

A capacitor opposes change in voltage while an inductor opposes change in current However, a resistor neither opposes change in voltage nor change in current.

QUESTION: 194

For the network shown in the figure, the value of current in resistor is-