SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 6

QUESTION: 1

Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

Statements:

All men are women.

All women are crazy.

Conclusion:

I. All men are crazy,

II. All the crazy are men.

III. Some of the crazy are men.

IV. Some of the crazy are women.

A.
None of the conclusions follows
B.
All the conclusions follow
C.
Only I, III and IV follow
D.
Only II and III follow

Solution:

Both the Premises are Universal Affirmative (A-type)

All men are women.

All women are crazy.

A+A (⇒) A-type of conclusion

"All men are crazy."

This is Conclusion I.

Conclusion III is the Converse of it.

Conclusion IV is the Converse of Statement Q.

QUESTION: 2

If SPARK is coded as TQBSL, what will be the code for FLAME?

A. GMBNF
B. GNBNF
C. GMCND
D. GMBMF

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

How many triangles are there in the following figure?

A. 11
B. 13
C. 11
D. 15

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

A. 45
B. 48
C. 51
D. 54

Solution:

5 X 3+1=16,16 X 3+1=49,

9 X 3+2=29,29 X 3+2=89

Similarly,

15 X 3+3=48,48 X 3+3=147

QUESTION: 5

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

A.
P/AF
B.
Q/AB
C.
P/AC
D.
R/AD

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

Direction : In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

6 : 10 : : 11 : ?

A.
6
B.
17
C.
20
D.
30

Solution:

(6 x 2 - 2 = 10)

Similarly,

(11 x 2 - 2 = 20)

QUESTION: 7

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ACEG: SUWY:: BDFH:?

A. TVZX
B. RTZV
C. TVXZ
D. RTVZ

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Patrol : Security : : Insurance : ?

A. Money
B. Policy
C. Savings
D. Risk

Solution: In order to ensure security, police or defence personnel patrol the area. Similarly, to cover risk, insurance is done.

QUESTION: 9

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

5 : 27 : : 9 : ?

A.
83
B.
81
C.
36
D.
18

Solution:

5 x 5 + 2 = 27

Similarly,

9 x 9 + 2 = 83

QUESTION: 10

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ABE: 8:: KLO:?

A.
37
B.
39
C.
38
D.
36

Solution:

A + B + E = 1+ 2 + 5 = 8

Similarly, K + L + O = 11 + 12 + 15 = 38

QUESTION: 11

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ADBC: EHFG : ILJK:?

A. MOPN
B. MPNO
C. QRPQ
D. MPON

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

Direction In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Sty : Pig : : Byre : ?

A. Eagle
B. Cow
C. Tiger
D. Hen

Solution: The resting place of a pig is called Sty. Similarly, the resting place of cows is called Byre.

QUESTION: 13

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

173 (24) 526;

431 (18) 325;

253 (?) 471

A. 22
B. 42
C. 30
D. 06

Solution:

1+7+3+5+2+6 =24

4+3+1+3+2+5 = 18

2+5+3+4+7+1 = 22

QUESTION: 14

Little wooden cubes, each with a side of one inch, are put together to form a solid cube with a side of three inches. This big cube is then painted red all over on the outside. When the big cube is broken up into the original little ones, how many cubes will have paint on two sides?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 0

Solution:

4 cubes, each of the first and third layers, will have paint on two sides only.

Therefore, the total number of cubes having paint on two sides

=4 X 2=8

QUESTION: 15

From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word: Given :

IMPASSIONABLE

A. IMPASSABLE
B. IMPOSSIBLE
C. IMPASSIVE
D. IMPASSION

Solution: There is no V' letter in the word IMPASSIONABLE to make IMPASSIVE.

QUESTION: 16

If HOSPITAL is written as 32574618 in a certain code, how would POSTAL be written in that code?

A. 752618
B. 725618
C. 725188
D. 725661

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

Arrange the following words according to the dictionary?

1. Inventory

2. Involuntary

3. Invisible

4. Invariable

5. Investigate

A. 4,2,5,3,1
B. 4,5,1,3,2
C. 2,5,4,1,3
D. 4,1,5,3,2

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

In the given question, select the answer shape that questions can be made from pieces of a shape.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

A bus leaves Delhi with half the number of women as men. At Meerut, ten men get down, and five women get in. Now there are an equal number of men and women. How many passengers boarded the bus initially at Delhi?

A.
36
B.
45
C.
15
D.
30

Solution:

Suppose the number of women boarded the bus at Delhi is,

The number of men = 2x

According to the question,

2x - 10 = x + 5

2x - x = 10 + 5

x = 15

The total number of passengers who boarded the bus initially.

3x = 3*15 = 45

QUESTION: 20

M is the son of P. Q is the granddaughter of O, O is the husband of P. How is M related to O?

A. Son
B. Daughter
C. Mother
D. Father

Solution:

O is the husband of P.M. is the son of P.

Therefore, M is the son of O.

QUESTION: 21

Which number is wrong in the given series?

1, 9, 25, 50, 81

A. 1
B. 25
C. 50
D. 81

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

Find out which of the diagrams given in the alternatives correctly represents the relationship stated in the question. Sharks, Whales, Turtles.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

Which answer figure is the exact mirror image of the given question figure when the mirror is held from the right at PQ?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

Find out a set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives, which is the most similar to the numbers given in the question.

Given: (6, 30, 90)

A.
6, 42, 86
B.
7, 42, 218
C.
6, 24, 70
D.
8, 48, 192

Solution:

6 x 5 = 30,

30 x 3 = 90,

8 x 6 = 48,

48 x 4 = 192

QUESTION: 25

K is a place which is located 2 km away in the northwest direction from the capital P, R is another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from K. M is another place, and that is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from R. T is yet another place that is located 2 km away in the South-west direction from M. In which direction is T located in relation to P?

A. South-west
B. North-west
C. West
D. North

Solution:

It is clear that T is located to the West of P.

QUESTION: 26

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) ABJNM

(b) QRTUZ

(c) IXYOQ

(d) WFGOP

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: Except in letter group IXYOQ, In all others, there is only one vowel. In the letter group IXYOQ, there are two Vowels.

QUESTION: 27

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) X

(b) Y

(c) H

(d) D

A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

Solution:

The position number of Y in the English alphabet is odd.

X = 24, Y = 25, H = 8, D = 4

QUESTION: 28

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) Wave

(b) Current

(c) Tide

(d) Storm

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: Except Tide, all other terms are related to both air and water. But the tide is a regular rise and fall in the sea level, caused by the attraction of the moon and sun.

QUESTION: 29

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) 25, 36

(b) 144, 169

(c) 100, 121

(d) 9, 64

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution:

Except for the number pair 9, 64 in all other perfect squares of two consecutive numbers are given.

QUESTION: 30

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) ZKXJ

(b) CMAL

(c) TGRF

(d) FRTK

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three.

(a) Heat

(b) Light

(c) Bulb

(d) Electricity

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution: Bulb is an item while all others are phenomena.

QUESTION: 32

Ashok's mother was 3 times as old as Ashok 5 years ago. After 5 years, she will be twice as old as Ashok. How old is Ashok today?

A.
10 years
B.
15 years
C.
20 years
D.
25 years

Solution:

Suppose the present age of Ashok is x year, and that of his mother is y years.

5 years ago, 3(x - 5) = (y - 5)

3x - 15 = y - 5

3x - y = 10 ... (i)

5 years hence, 2(x + 5) = y + 5

2x + 10 = y + 5

2x - y = -5 ... (ii)

From equation (i) and (ii), x = 15

QUESTION: 33

Arrange the following in the meaningful/logical order :

1. Exhaust

2. Night

3. Day

4. Sleep

5. Work

A.
1,3,5,2,4
B.
3,5,1,4,2
C.
3,5,1,2,4
D.
3,5,2,1,4

Solution:

Meaningful order of the words

Day → Work → Exhaust → Night → Sleep

QUESTION: 34

In a row of boys. Srinath is 7th from the left, and Venkat is 12th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd from the left. How many boys are there in the row?

A. 19
B. 31
C. 33
D. 34

Solution:

Total number of boys in the row

=22+12-1

=33

QUESTION: 35

Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letter of the given Jumbled word. Find out that word. Given :

MUSPOPAPOTIH

A.
METAMORPHIC
B.
PHILANTHROPIST
C.
HIPPOCAMPUS
D.
HIPPOPOTAMUS

Solution:

Meaningful word → HIPPOPOTAMUS

QUESTION: 36

Direction: Given below is a statement followed by 2/3 Assumptions. An assumption is something not written directly but can be considered as the implicit understanding before writing any text, document or writing. Choose the implicit assumption in the following question:

Statement:

Politicians become rich by the votes of the people.

Assumptions:

I. People vote to make politicians rich.

II. Politicians become rich by their virtue.

A. Only I is implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Both I and II are implicit
D. Both I and II are not implicit

Solution:

The statement implies that politicians win elections by the votes of people. Therefore, neither of the assumptions are implicit in the statement.

QUESTION: 37

After interchanging + to X and X to, 12 and 18, which one of the following equations becomes correct ?

A.
(90 x 18) + 18 = 60
B.
(18 x 6) + 12 = 2
C.
(72 x 18) + 18 = 72
D.
(12 x 6) + 18 = 36

Solution:

⇒ (18 ÷ 6) x 12 = 36
⇒ 36 = 36

QUESTION: 38

In the following question,Δ stands for any of the mathematical signs at different places, which are given as choices under each question. Select the choice with the correct sequence of signs which, when substituted, makes the question as a correct equation.

24 Δ 4 Δ 5 Δ 4

A.
(x=)
B.
(=x+)
C.
(=+x)
D.
Both B and C

Solution:

Option (b): 24 = 4 x 5 + 4 ⇒ 24 = 24

Option (c): 24 = 4 + 4 x 5 ⇒ 24 = 24

Both Options (b) and (c) are correct.

QUESTION: 39

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded in the same direction.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

Find the next two letters in the given series.

B, C, E, H, L, ??

A. X, Y
B. M, N
C. Q, W
D. O, P

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis of the given equations. if

6 X 5 = 91;

8 X 7 = 169

10 x 7 = 211

then 11 x 10 = ?

A. 331
B. 993
C. 678
D. 845

Solution:

6 X 5=30,30 X 3+1=91,8 X 7=56

56 X 3+1=169,10 X 7=70,70 X 3+1=211

similarly, ,11 X 10=110,110 X 3+1=331

QUESTION: 42

Which one number is wrong in the given series?

126, 98, 70, 41, 14

A. 98
B. 70
C. 126
D. 41

Solution:

Therefore the number 41 is wrong in the series.

QUESTION: 43

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

8, 24, 12, ?, 18, 54

A. 28
B. 36
C. 46
D. 38

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

AGMSY, CIOUA, EKGWC, ?, IOUAG, KQWCI

A. GMSYE
B. FMSYE
C. GNSYD
D. FMYES

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, ?

A. 31
B. 39
C. 43
D. 47

Solution:

3+1 = 4; 3+4= 7;

4+7 = 11; 7+11 =18;

11+18 = 29; 18+29 =47

QUESTION: 46

Direction What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

975, 864, 753, 642, ?

A. 431
B. 314
C. 531
D. 532

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the east before turning to his right. He went 20 metres before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle's place 30 metres from this point. His father was not there. From here, he went 100 metres to his north before meeting his father in the street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?

A.
90 m
B.
100 m
C.
260 m
D.
140 m

Solution:

Required distance

= √(6400 + 3600) = √10000 = 100m

QUESTION: 48

Which one set of letters, when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series, shall complete it?

a_b_a_n_bb_abbon

A. abnabb
B. bnbban
C. bnbbna
D. babban

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

If the day before yesterday was Sunday, what day will it be three days after the day after tomorrow?

A. Sunday
B. Monday
C. Wednesday
D. Saturday

Solution:

The day before yesterday was Sunday.

Therefore, today is Tuesday.

The day after tomorrow will be Thursday.

Thursday + 3 = Sunday

QUESTION: 50

In a classroom, there are 5 rows, and 5 children A, B, C, D and E are seated one behind the other in 5 separate rows as follows: A is sitting behind C, but in front of B. C is sitting behind E. D is sitting in front of E. The order in which they are sitting from the first row to the last is

A.
DECAB
B.
BACED
C.
ACBDE
D.
ABEDC

Solution:

Ist Row = D,

2nd Row = E,

3rd Row = C

4th Row = A,

5th Row = B

QUESTION: 51

According to Global Peace index 2019, which one of the following is the most peaceful country?

A.
India
B.
Indonesia
C.
Bhutan
D.
Iceland

Solution:

The 2019 Global Peace index indicates Iceland, New Zealand, Portugal, Austria, and Denmark to be the most peaceful countries and Somalia, Afghanistan, Syria, South Sudan, Yemen, and Iraq to be the least peaceful.
The GPI is a report produced by the Institute for Economics & Peace (IEP).
India's rank has slipped five places to 141 among 163 countries on the Global Peace Index 2019.

QUESTION: 52

If 11 - 2 $ 10 = 70 and 1 - 6 $ 4 = 16, then in the expression 17 - A $ 6 = 69, what is the value of 'A'?

A.
7
B.
8
C.
6
D.
5

Solution:

The logic followed here is,
For 17 - A $ 6 = 69
Following mathematical operation is done:
Step I: 17 + (A+1) = 18+A
Step II: 6 ÷ 2= 3
Step III: (18+A) × 3 = 69
Hence, A = 23 - 18 = 5

QUESTION: 53

Who has been appointed as the new Punjab Lokpal in October 2019?

A.
Deepak Mishra
B.
Surendra Bhalla
C.
Vinod Kumar Sharma
D.
Mohan Shekhawat

Solution:

Justice Vinod Kumar Sharma has been appointed as new Punjab Lokpal in October 2019.
The post was lying vacant since April 23, 2018, after Justice Satish Kumar Mittal (retd.) had resigned.
The lokpal will hold the office for a tenure of six years.
He had served as Punjab and Haryana high court judge.

QUESTION: 54

Which was the first wildlife sanctuary was established in Uttar Pradesh?

A.
Chandraprabha Wildlife Vihar, Chandauli
B.
Hastinapur Wildlife Vihar, Meerut
C.
Ranipur Wildlife Sanctuary, Banda
D.
Kishanpur Wildlife Vihar, Lakhmipur

Solution:

Chandraprabha Wildlife sanctuary is the oldest wildlife sanctuary of Uttar Pradesh, which was established in Chandauli district in 1957.
Its wildlife consists of Chinkara, Sambar, Tedua and various birds.

QUESTION: 55

Tansa wildlife sanctuary is located in _____.

A.
Maharashtra
B.
West Bengal
C.
Tamil Nadu
D.
Chattisgarh

Solution:

Tansa wildlife sanctuary is located in the Wada, Shahapur and Mokhada Talukas in Thane district of Maharashtra.
It is at a distance of only 90 kms from the city of Mumbai. The sanctuary covers an area of around 320 sq. km, houses many rare and endangered species of flora and fauna.

QUESTION: 56

Which is the richest temple in India ?

A.
Balaji Temple of Tirupathi
B.
Shirdi Sai Baba Temple
C.
Padmanabha Swamy of of Thiruvananthqpuram
D.
Jagannatha Tempe of Puri

Solution:

Padmanabha Swamy of of Thiruvananthqpuram is the richest temple in India. The Temple has references in Epics and Puranas. Srimad Bhagavatha says that Balarama visited this Temple, bathed in Padmatheertham and made several offerings. Nammalwar, 9th century poet and one among the 12 Vaishnavite saints of the Alvar tradition, has composed ten hymns in praise of Lord Padmanabha. Some well known scholars, writers and historians, like the late Dr. L.A.Ravi Varma of Travancore, have expressed the view that this Temple was established on the first day of Kali Yuga (which is over 5000 years ago).

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following National Park was formerly known as ‘Hailey National Park’?

A.
Jim Corbett National Park
B.
Rajaji National Park
C.
Dudhwa National Pa
D.
Parsa National park

Solution:

Jim Corbett National Park was also Known as Hailey National Park. Jim Corbett National Park is a forested wildlife sanctuary in northern India’s Uttarakhand State.
Rich in flora and fauna, it’s known for its Bengal tigers.
Rajaji National Park - Uttarakhand
Dudhwa National Park - Uttar Pradesh
Parsa National park - Nepal
Balmiki National Park - Bihar

QUESTION: 58

What is the force behind the working principle of Cream separator?

A.
Centrifugal force
B.
Centripetal force
C.
Impulsive force
D.
None of the above

Solution:

Cream separation is a phenomenon by which the milk is separated in to cream and skim milk by centrifugal force.
Centrifugal force is supposed to be acting on a body revolving in a circle.
Centrifugal force is equal and opposite to the centripetal force, i.e. it acts outwards.
The centrifugal force is thousand times greater than gravitational force.

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following elements are commonly found in most fertilizers?

A.
Sodium, Potassium, Phosphorus
B.
Sodium, Potassium, Calcium
C.
Nitrogen, Potassium, Phosphorus
D.
Nitrogen, Potassium, Calcium

Solution:

Commonly Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Potassium are mostly found in fertilisers. among these three, Nitrogen is the most abundant element in fertilisers.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 60

Compressed natural gas mainly consists of which gas?

A.
Methane
B.
Butane
C.
Isobutane
D.
Ethane

Solution:

The natural gas compressed at very high pressure is called compressed natural gas (CNG). It consists mainly of methane (95%). The other 5% is made of various gases such that ethane, propane, and butane including a small amount of other gases such as N₂, CO₂, H₂S, water vapour etc.

QUESTION: 61

Who among the following has been appointed as the Chairman of Apparel Export Promotion Council of India (AEPC)?

A.
Atul Sobti
B.
S.K. Sharma
C.
Ranjit Sinha
D.
A Sakthivel

Solution:

Apparel Export Promotion Council of India (AEPC) has appointed A Sakthivel as the new chairman of the organization. He is appointed for the period 2020-2021.
He will replace HKL Magu. He is also the first person in the history of AEPC, who is sworn-in for the fourth time as Chairman of the AEPC.

QUESTION: 62

The Naseem-Al-Bahr exercise was held in _______.

A.
Andra Pradesh
B.
Gujarat
C.
West Bengal
D.
Goa

Solution:

Two ships of the Royal Navy of Oman (RNO) arrived in Goa to participate in the 12th edition of the Indo-Oman bilateral naval exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr
”Naseem-Al-Bahr” (or sea breeze) is a naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the RNO, being conducted since 1993.

QUESTION: 63

Which country designated US armed forces and Pentagon as ‘terrorist entities’?

A.
Russia
B.
North Korea
C.
Saudi Arabia
D.
Iran

Solution:

Iran designate US armed forces and Pentagon as ‘terrorist entities.
The Iranian Parliament has approved a triple-urgency bill that designates the US army and the Pentagon as a terrorist entity.

QUESTION: 64

In January 2020, which country operationalized the world's largest radio telescope?

A.
Japan
B.
Russia
C.
China
D.
India

Solution:

In January 2020, China operationalized the world's largest radio telescope in southwest China’s Guiyang city, the capital of Guizhou province.
The Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST) telescope was launched after three years of trial operation.
The Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST) telescope is with a diameter of half-a-kilometer.
It is dubbed as China Sky Eye.
FAST is 2.5 times as sensitive as the second-largest telescope in the world.
It is capable of receiving a maximum of 38 gigabytes (GB) of information per second.
The cost of the telescope is around the US $170 million.

QUESTION: 65

In which of the following countries was the World Future Energy Summit held from 13-16 January 2020?

A.
India
B.
Brazil
C.
Japan
D.
UAE

Solution:

The World Future Energy Summit was held in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates.
The theme of the summit is Rethinking Global Consumption, Production, and Investment.
The event was held from 13 to 16 January 2020.
World Future Energy Summit is an annual event.
It was first held in 2011.

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following department is not the part of panchayat samiti at block level?

A.
Finance
B.
Health
C.
Transport
D.
Education

Solution:

The common departments in the Panchayat Samiti are as follows:
General Administration
Finance
Public Works
Agriculture
Health
Education
Social Welfare
Information Technology
Water Supply Department
Animal Husbandry and others
There is an officer for every department. A government-appointed Block Development Officer (BDO) is the executive officer to the Samiti and the chief of its administration, and is responsible for his work to the CEO of Zilla Parishad.

QUESTION: 67

The founder of the city of Agra was

A.
Alam Khan
B.
Daulat Khan
C.
Bairam Khan
D.
Sikandar Lodi

Solution:

Agra was founded by him. He expanded Lodi territory into the regions of Gwalior and Bihar. He made a treaty with Alauddin Hussain Shah and his kingdom of Bengal. In 1503, he commissioned the building of the present-day city of Agra.

QUESTION: 68

Who was awarded as 'National Banker of the Year 2020 – Asia-Pacific' by The Banker magazine?

A.
Viral Acharya
B.
N.K. Singh
C.
Urjit Patel
D.
Shaktikanta Das

Solution:

The governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Shaktikanta Das awarded as 'National Banker of the Year 2020 Asia-Pacific' by The Banker magazine.
He has been honoured for managing Indian banking sector faced with a series of challenges such as non-performing loans to issues around fraud, repeated economic slumps.
The Banker is a London-based international financial affairs publication owned by The Financial Times.
It is known for its annual rankings of the world's top banks.

QUESTION: 69

In January 2020, Who has been appointed as the executive director of SEBI?

A.
Manohar Kant
B.
G Babita Rayudu
C.
Ramesh Bhandari
D.
Justice Deepak Mishra

Solution:

G Babita Rayudu has been appointed as the executive director of SEBI in January 2020.
She will handle the legal affairs department, enforcement department, and special enforcement cell.
The Securities and Exchange Board (SEBI) of India is the Regulator for the Securities market in India owned by the Government of India.
It was formed on 12th April 1992.

QUESTION: 70

Who among the following had won the Pulitzer Prize of 2019 in the poetry category?

A.
Andrew Sean Greer
B.
Fourist Gander
C.
Richard Powers
D.
Frank Bidart

Solution:

Fourist Gander won the Pulitzer Prize for Poetry in 2019 for ‘Be With by’.
Richard Powers won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction 2019 for his epic nature novel The Overstory.
In 2018, author Andrew Sean Greer won the Pulitzer Prize in Fiction for his novel 'Less'.

QUESTION: 71

In which year was the Non-Cooperation Movement launched?

A.
1877
B.
1920
C.
1856
D.
1919

Solution:

The Non Cooperation Movement was launched in 1920.

It was launched by Indian National Congress on 1st August, 1920 under leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
People were asked to boycott foreign goods and use only Indian-made goods, resign British jobs, surrender titles etc.
Khadi and Charkha became the symbol of national movement.
Gandhiji called off the movement in February, 1922 in the wake of the Chauri Chaura incident.

QUESTION: 72

Rastrapati Bhavan was designed by_____.

A.
Edwin Lutyens
B.
Edward stone
C.
Tarun Dutt
D.
None of these

Solution:

The Rashtrapati Bhavan is the official residence of the President of India.
It is located at the Western end of Rajpath in New Delhi.
In terms of area, it is the largest residence of any head of state in the world.
The Rashtrapati Bhavan was designed by Edwin Lutyens and built in 1931.
It was originally called the Viceroy's House.
The Rashtrapati Bhavan covers an area of 4.5 acres of land.

QUESTION: 73

Battle of Wandiwash was fought during which Carnatic War?

A.
First Carnatic War
B.
Second Carnatic War
C.
Third Carnatic War
D.
Fourth Carnatic War

Solution:

The Battle of Wandiwash was fought during Third Carnatic war.

The Battle was fought between French and British Powers.
The battle was won by British in 1760 at Wandiwash in Tamil Nadu.
The British army was led by Sir Eyre Coote.
The Victory of British in the battle left no European rivals for British in India.

QUESTION: 74

Fort Geldria was constructed by ______.

A.
Dutch
B.
Portuguese
C.
British
D.
French

Solution:

Fort Geldria was constructed by Dutch.
They established a factory in Pullicat in 1610, which later become main centre of their activities and this later known as Fort Geldria.
In 1741, Dutch East India Company and State of Travancore fought Battle of Colachel, in which Dutch were defeated and from there on the Dutch influence started to degrade.

QUESTION: 75

Cold War refers to

A.
Tension between Eastern Bloc and Western Bloc
B.
Ideological rivalry between Capitalist and Communist world
C.
Tension between Superpowers
D.
All of the above

Solution:

The "Cold War" refers to the period of heightened tensions between the United States and the Soviet Union lasting roughly from 1945 to 1991.

QUESTION: 76

The Sepoy Mutiny of 1857 took place when ____ was the Governor General of India.

A.
Lord Bentinck
B.
Lord Wellesley
C.
Lord Dalhousie
D.
Lord Canning

Solution:

The rebellion of 1857, starting with the Sepoy Mutiny.
It is considered as the first blow that came to shatter the British rule in India.
On March 29th, 1857, on the parade ground at Barrackpore, a sepoy named Mangal Pandey fired the first shot of the uprising.
Lord Canning was the Governor-General of India during the Indian Rebellion of 1857 and the first Viceroy of India.

QUESTION: 77

In which state silent valley is located?

A.
Tamil Nadu
B.
Kerala
C.
Assam
D.
Arunachal Pradesh

Solution:

Silent Valley is located in the state of Kerala.
It is located in the Nilgiri Hills, within the Palakkad District of Kerala, South India, and it houses Silent valley national park, which is Kerala’s second largest national park after Periyar.

QUESTION: 78

The phenomena of midnight sun is seen in which of following in southern hemisphere?

A.
Antartica
B.
Argentina
C.
Australia
D.
South Africa

Solution:

The phenomena of midnight sun is seen in Antartica in southern hemisphere while it is seen in Norway in northern sphere.

The midnight sun is a natural phenomenon that occurs in the summer months in places north of the Arctic Circle or south of the Antarctic Circle, when the sun remains visible at the local midnight.

QUESTION: 79

Which committee of panchayat look into the matters of public health and rural works?

A.
Public Interest Committee
B.
Education Committee
C.
Development Committee
D.
None of these

Solution:

Public Interest Committee look into the matter of public health and rural works. Education committee manages affairs related to education. Development Committee prepares a plan for rural development.

QUESTION: 80

DIUQ : GHXP : : HMSZ : ?

A.
LKYV
B.
KVYL
C.
JKUX
D.
KLVY

Solution:

D + 3 = G, I - 1 = H, U + 3 = X, Q - 1 = P
H + 3 = K, M - 1 = L, S + 3 = V, Z - 1 = Y

QUESTION: 81

Graphene is an allotrope of which element?

A.
Carbon
B.
Sulphur
C.
Phosphorous
D.
Hydrogen

Solution:

Graphene is an allotrope of Carbon atom.

It is a single layer atom structure compound having hexagonal lattice dimensions.
Graphene is the thinnest material known to man at one atom thick, and also incredibly strong - about 200 times stronger than steel.
Other important allotropes of carbon are- Fullerene, Graphite, Carbon nanotubes etc.
It is used in DNA sequencing, batteries, water filters, solar cells etc.

QUESTION: 82

Chief Justice of India can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the_________.

A.
Prime Minister
B.
Vice President
C.
Election Commission
D.
Parliament

Solution:

• The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
It makes the following provisions:
a) Holds office until he attains the age of 65 years.
b) Resigns his office by writing to the President.
c) Removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament.
d) Under Article 124 (5) Parliament may by law regulate the procedure relating to the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
e) Under this Article Parliament provides the procedure for removal by the Judges Enquiry Act (1968).

QUESTION: 83

The ‘Cornwallis Code’ was related to which of the following settlements?

A.
Permanent Settlement
B.
Ryotwari settlement
C.
Mahalwari Settlement
D.
All of these

Solution:

The ‘Cornwallis Code’ was formulated in 1793.
Its best known provision was the Permanent Settlement.
This was basically an agreement between the company and the Zamindars to fix the land revenue.

QUESTION: 84

The first factory settled by Dutch East India Company was established in which year?

A.
Surat, 1605
B.
Masaulipatam, 1605
C.
Coimbatore, 1615
D.
Kochi, 1635

Solution:

The first factory settled by Dutch East India Company was established at Masaulipatam in Andhra Pradesh in 1605.
Dutch Suratte and Dutch Bengal were established in 1616 AD and 1627 AD respectively. And in 1656 Dutch captured Sri Lanka from Portuguese.
In economic terms, they earned huge profits through business monopolizing in black pepper and spices. The major Indian commodities traded by the Dutch were cotton, indigo, silk, rice, and opium.
The coins issued by the Dutch were all modelled on the local coinages. Dutch presence on the Indian subcontinent lasted from 1605 AD to 1825 AD.

QUESTION: 85

From the given alternative words, select the one which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word only once
MYSTERIOUS

A.
SISTER
B.
RISE
C.
SOURCE
D.
MIST

Solution:

Only the word SOURCE cannot be formed by using the given word. Because there is noletter (C) in the given word.
Hence, (C) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 86

World Energy Conservation Day is observed on________.

A.
14 December
B.
7th December
C.
14th November
D.
12th March

Solution:

World Energy Conservation Day is observed on 14 December.
The day aims to highlight the importance of energy consumption.
In India, the National Energy Conservation Day is observed on 14 December every year.
The day is organized by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), under the Ministry of Power.
BEE observed National Energy Conservation Week from 9 to 14 December 2019.

QUESTION: 87

Which part of the constitution deals with amendment of constitution?

A.
XIX
B.
XX
C.
XXI
D.
XXII

Solution:

Article 368 of part XX of constitution deals with the amendment of constitution.
This article says that parliament can amend the constitution by passing bill in each house by a majority of total membership of the house and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of that house present and voting.
Note: The joint session of houses can’t be made for amendment of constitution; it must be passed by each house individually.

QUESTION: 88

What place was the beginning of the village courts in Madhya Pradesh?

A.
Praanpur
B.
Jatanpur
C.
Nagda
D.
Jhantala

Solution:

The first village court was established in Jhantala village of Neemuch district on 11 December, 2001.

QUESTION: 89

In Lok Sabha 2019 Elections, Congress won ______ seats out of the 13 Lok Sabha seats of Punjab.

A.
8
B.
6
C.
10
D.
5

Solution:

In Lok Sabha 2019 Elections, Congress won 8 seats out of the 13 Lok Sabha seats of Punjab.
The 2019 Indian general election in Punjab was held on 19 May 2019.

QUESTION: 90

Which was the largest princely state to join India?

A.
Hyderabad
B.
Mysore
C.
Travancore
D.
Kashmir

Solution:

A princely state was a vassal state under a local or indigenous ruler in a subsidiary alliance with the British Raj.
Hyderabad was the largest princely state to join India.
Hyderabad was established in 1592 by sultan Muhammed Quil Qutb Shah.
At the time of independence in 1947, the Indian Union had 12 states. Later, Hyderabad, Jammu & Kashmir, Sikkim, Manipur, Tripura joined the Indian Union.

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following banks was authorised to issue Electoral Bonds?

A.
State Bank of India
B.
HDFC Bank
C.
ICICI Bank
D.
Corporation Bank

Solution:

State Bank of India was authorised to issue Electoral Bonds.

Electoral bonds will allow donors to pay political parties using banks as an intermediary. It includes multiples values such as, Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh or Rs 1 crore.
Only the registered Political Parties which have secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last Lok Sabha elections or the State Legislative Assembly are eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.

QUESTION: 92

Who is the Vice Captain of the Indian team that is playing the World Cup 2019 in England?

A.
Shikhar Dhawan
B.
MS Dhoni
C.
Hardik Pandya
D.
Rohit Sharma

Solution:

Rohit Sharma is the Vice Captain of the Indian team that is playing the World Cup 2019 in England.

Rohit Sharma scored 648 runs from the nine games at an average of 81 including 67 fours and 14 sixes.
Virat Kohli was the team Captain of Indian team in World Cup 2019.
Ravi Shastri was the team Coach of India team in World Cup 2019.
India made its World Cup debut in 1975 and won first Cricket World Cup in 1983.

QUESTION: 93

Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions related to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?

A.
Article 345
B.
Article 343
C.
Article 350 A
D.
Article 350 B

Solution:

Article 350B of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions related to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Article 350B was added in Part XVII of the Indian Constitution by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 following the recommendation of States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55).
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India. It is the duty of Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities.

QUESTION: 94

Which of the following articles was added by the Constitutional (103rd Amendment) Act?

A.
Article 16 (5)
B.
Article 15 (5)
C.
Article 15(6)
D.
Article 17

Solution:

The Constitutional (103rd Amendment) Act introduces 10% reservation for economically weaker sections of society.
Article 15(6) was added to provide reservations to economically weaker sections for admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions.
Article 16(6) was added to provide reservations to people from economically weaker sections in government posts.

QUESTION: 95

Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the composition of the Central Information Commission?

A.
Article 243
B.
Article 338
C.
Article 324
D.
None of these

Solution:

The Central Information Commission was established in 2005 by the Central Government. The Constitution of India does not contain any provision related to the Central Information Commission
It was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). Hence it is not a constitutional body. It is an independent body.

QUESTION: 96

Match the following.

A.
1-b, 2-c, 3-a
B.
1-c, 2-a, 3-b
C.
1-b, 2-a, 3-c
D.
1-a, 2-c, 3-b

Solution:

Match the following.

QUESTION: 97

Which one of the following is wrongly paired?

A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

Solution:

One of the famous devotional dances of Bengal is Gambhira. Chhau Dance is one of the most renowned tribal martial dances of India. The dance is known as Seraikella Chau in Jharkhand, Mayurbhanj Chau in Orissa and Purulia Chhau in West Bengal.

QUESTION: 98

The Gandhara Art was mainly patronized by:

A.
Satvahanas
B.
Guptas
C.
Mauryans
D.
Sakas and Kushans

Solution:

Gandhara was the northwestern region of the Indian subcontinent. The Sakas and Kushans were the chief patrons of the Gandhara Art.

QUESTION: 99

What is the main difference between Indus Valley and Vedic civilization?

A.
Indus people were urban and Vedic people were rural.
B.
Indus people worship 'piple tree' and Vedic people worship 'burgad tree'.
C.
Indus people were involved in trade and Vedic people were involved in religion.
D.
Indus people believe in non-violence and Vedic people have no particular rule.

Solution:

Indus valley was an urban and trading society. On the other hand, the Vedic civilization was essentially rural character, with agriculture as the main occupation of the people.

QUESTION: 100

Which famous lady scholar was found in Rigvedic period?

A.
Shavitri
B.
Gargi
C.
Suvadra
D.
Sarasvati

Solution:

Gargi Vachaknavi was an ancient Indian philosopher. In Vedic Literature, she is honored as a great natural philosopher, renowned expounder of the Vedas, and known as Brahmavadini, a person with knowledge of Brahma Vidya.

QUESTION: 101

To avoid the effect of the stray magnetic field in AC bridges, we can use-

A. Magnetic screening
B. Wagner earthing device
C. Wave filters
D. Any of the above

Solution: Magnetic screening/shielding is a phenomenon of protection of a region against any external magnetic effects. For example, when a soft iron ring is placed in a magnetic field, most of the lines are found to pass through the ring, and no lines pass through the space inside the ring.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 102

When the load is connected to secondary o 1-∅ f transformer, the primary current-

A. Will remain the same
B. Will have additional current equal to secondary current
C. Decreases
D. None

Solution:

So (I_P) will have additional current equal to (I_S)

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 103

When a sinusoidal voltage is applied across the R-L parallel circuit so that (R=X_L) the phase angle will be-

A. (45°) lag
B. (45°) leading
C. (90°) lag
D. (90°) leading

Solution:

For the R - L series circuit, the phase angle

So it lags 45°

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 104

How much current flows in an open circuit?

A. Zero
B. Infinite
C. Moderate
D. Cannot say

Solution: In an open circuit, the resistance is infinite. Due to infinite resistance, the current is zero as resistance and current are inversely related as per Ohm's Law.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

QUESTION: 105

With which countries Indus people had trade relations?

A.
Mesopotamia and Afghanistan
B.
Sumerian and Central Asia
C.
Persia and Bahrain
D.
All of the above

Solution:

Indus people’s main occupation was trade and they had trade relations with then existing civilizations Mesopotamia, Sumerian, Egyptian and Bahrain.

QUESTION: 106

In a series circuit with unequal resistances

A. the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
B. the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
C. the lowest resistance has the highest current
D. the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop

Solution: The lower resistance has the high voltage. That means the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop.

In series circuits, the resistor with the greatest resistance has the greatest voltage drop. Since the current is everywhere the same within a series circuit, the I value of ΔV = I • R is the same in each of the resistors of a series circuit.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 107

The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in-

A. series
B. parallel
C. Series-parallel
D. None of the above

Solution: A PMMC instrument can be used as a voltmeter by connecting a series of resistance with the moving coil.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 108

What is the maximum number of lighting points that can be connected in a circuit-

A. 5
B. 10
C. 8
D. 12

Solution: For a lighting circuit, the maximum number of light points is 8. One can thus use up to 8 light bulbs. For a 16-ampere socket, the maximum number of points, and therefore plug sockets, varies between 5 and 8 depending on the section size of the conductor and its level of protection.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 109

Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit-

A. depends upon the magnitude of R
B. depends upon the magnitude of L
C. depends upon the magnitude of C
D. depends upon the magnitude of R, L and C

Solution: Depends upon the magnitude of R

At resonance in series RLC circuits, both inductive and capacitive reactance cancel each other. So it depends only on resistance.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 110

If the terminals of armature of the D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will offer the following kind of braking-

A. regenerative
B. plugging
C. dynamic braking
D. none of the above

Solution: Plugging — sometimes referred to as “reverse current braking” — is possible on both DC motors and AC induction motors. For DC motors, plugging is achieved by reversing the polarity of the armature voltage. Torque is developed in the opposite direction of the motor's rotation, which produces a strong braking effect.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 111

Insulation resistance of the cable is-

A. Directly proportional to the length
B. Indirectly proportional to the length
C. Does not depends upon the length
D. Constant

Solution:

The rule may be stated: Insulation resistance should be approximately one megohm for each 1,000 volts of operating voltage, with a minimum value of one megohm.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 112

Three light bulb are connected in series to a 100V battery. Find the current through a bulb.

A. 1.4A
B. 1.2A
C. 2A
D. 1A

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 113

For the sharp curve, which insulator is used in distribution or transmission.

A. Pin type
B. Suspension type
C. Strain type
D. None of these

Solution: As a practical matter, the shape of the insulator becomes critically important since a wetted path from one cable to the other can create a low resistance electrical path. So strain type insulators are used in distribution or transmission.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 114

Which of the following inductors will have the least eddy current losses?

A. Air core
B. Laminated iron core
C. Iron core
D. Powdered iron core

Solution: Air cores inductor will have the least eddy current losses.

Eddy current loss is conductive I2R loss produced by circulating currents induced in response to AC flux linkage, flowing against the internal resistance of the core.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

QUESTION: 115

____is the property of magnetics which opposes the flow of flux through it.

A. Resistance
B. MMF
C. Reluctance
D. EMF

Solution: Magnetic reluctance is a concept used in the analysis of magnetic circuits, and it opposes the flow of flux.

Lenz's law states that the current induced in a circuit due to a change in a magnetic field is directed to oppose the change in flux and exert a mechanical force that opposes the motion.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 116

...........motor is most suitable for push and pull action

A. Shunt
B. Series
C. Differentially compounded
D. Cumulatively compound

Solution: A cumulative compound motor has a fairly constant speed and good starting torque. Such motors are used where series characteristics are required, and the load is likely to be removed totally. These motors are used in driving machines which are subject to the sudden application of heavy loads; they are used in rolling mills, punching and shearing machines, mine-hoists etc.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 117

The unit of electrical conductance is:

A. Ohm
B. Ohm-cu
C. mho
D. mho-cu^-1

Solution: The electrical resistance of an electrical conductor is a measure of the difficulty to pass an electric current through that conductor. The inverse quantity is electrical conductance, the ease with which an electric current passes. Electrical resistance shares some conceptual parallels with the notion of mechanical friction. The SI unit of electrical resistance is the ohm (Ω), while electrical conductance is measured in mho.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 118

Halogen lamps are used in-

A. sports ground
B. parks
C. airport
D. all of them

Solution: Halogen lamps are mainly used for industrial image processing where large areas must be illuminated with incident light using spots or where a lot of light is required. A typical example is illuminations of large factory buildings, filling stations, outdoor areas and robot applications.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 119

Instrument transformers are-

A. potential transformers
B. current transformers
C. both A and B
D. power transformers

Solution: Instrument transformers are high accuracy class electrical devices used to isolate or transformer voltage or current levels, so it's also potential as current transformers.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 120

A choke is used as a resistance in-

A. DC circuits
B. AC circuits
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these

Solution: Choke coil is used as resistance in AC circuits.

A choke coil is a part used in electrical circuits to allow DC to flow through while blocking AC from passing.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 121

Armature reaction effect is represented as-

A. Resistance in series with armature resistance
B. Reactance in series with armature resistance
C. Reactance in parallel with armature resistance
D. Resistance in parallel with armature resistance

Solution: In armature reaction effect is represented as reactance in series with armature resistance.

The armature reaction simply shows the effect of the armature field on the main field. In other words, the armature reaction represents the impact of the armature flux on the main field flux. It reduces the magnitude of the main field flux.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 122

The resistance of a (125Ω) strain gauge changes by 1 ohm for 4000 microstrainsAC. The gauge factor is-

A.
1.5
B.
2
C.
2.5
D.
3

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 123

If reverse biased is applied to the p-n diode, the depletion region width-

A. Reduces
B. Remain same
C. Increases
D. Either decreases or increase

Solution: If the reverse-biased voltage applied on the p-n junction diode is further increased, then even more number of free electrons and holes are pulled away from the p-n junction. This increases the width of the depletion region. Hence, the width of the depletion region increases with an increase in voltage.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 124

A 100W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 100W bulb is replaced by a 40W bulb, the heater output will

A. decrease
B. increase
C. remains same
D. insufficient information

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 125

Why no-load current in the induction motor more than in the transformer?

A. Mutual flux has to cross the air gap between stator and rotor
B. Mutual flux completes its path through the iron core
C. Air gap in induction motor is less
D. None of these

Solution: Magnetic circuit of the induction motor has a larger reluctance than the transformer due to the air gap between stator and rotor; more MMF or more current is required to set up working flux in the induction motor.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 126

For accomodating large numbers of Poles, which type of rotor is used.

A. Cylindrical rotor
B. Salient Pole rotor
C. Both A and B
D. None of these

Solution: Salient pole rotors are normally used for rotors with four or more poles.

A magnet pole that projects toward the armature of an electric machine — compare consequent pole.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 127

For the purpose of starting an induction motor, switch is equivalent to an auto-transform of ratio

A. 33.3%
B. 57.7%
C. 73.2%
D. 100%

Solution:

X = 0.58

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 128

Most economical conductor diameter-

A.
B.
C.
D.

Solution: For fixed values of the voltage V and overall diameter D1, the g_max will be minimum when

is maximum and

will be maximum if.

or when or when

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 129

To change the direction of rotation of (3∅) Induction motor Rotor,

A. Any two phases interchanged
B. Frequency is decreased
C. Voltage is increased
D. Voltage is decreased

Solution: According to the principle of induction motor that Nikola Tesla made, If you simply swap 2 wires, the magnetic field changes the direction of rotation.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 130

The stator-produced MMF and rotor-produced MMF both rotate in the air gap in-

A. Same direction at synchronous speed
B. Opposite direction at synchronous speed
C. Same direction but not at synchronous speed
D. Opposite direction but not at synchronous speed

Solution: Same direction at synchronous speed

Synchronous speed is a significant parameter for the rotating magnetic field-type AC motor. It is determined by the frequency and the number of magnetic poles. Synchronous speed No = [rps, revolutions per second] f = Frequency [Hz]

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 131

Find L_eq of the circuit shown below

A.
20mH
B.
18mH
C.
22mH
D.
16mH

Solution:

Delta to star conversion,

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 132

The exciting current (iC) leads the magnetic flux (∅) by angela' known as-

A. Load angle
B. Power factor angle
C. Hysteretic angle
D. Power angle

Solution: Contact angle hysteresis is a difference between advancing and receding angles. ... At this point, the advancing and receding angles can be measured. Advancing contact angle tells the maximum contact angle the surface can have and the receding contact angle the minimum.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 133

An ohmmeter is a-

A. moving iron instrument
B. moving coil instrument
C. dynamometer instrument
D. none of the above

Solution: Ohmmeter, an instrument for measuring electrical resistance, which is expressed in ohms. In the simplest ohmmeters, the resistance to be measured may be connected to the instrument in parallel or in series. If in parallel (parallel ohmmeter), the instrument will draw more current as resistance increases.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 134

A switchgear consists of _________ to control, protect and isolate electrical equipment.

A. Batteries
B. Keys
C. Circuit breakers
D. None of these

Solution: In an electric power system, switchgear comprises electrical disconnect switches, fuses or circuit breakers used to control, protect and isolate electrical equipment. Switchgear is used both to de-energise equipment to allow work to be done and to clear faults downstream.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 135

In flat-rate tariffs, the rate is fixed by taking into account their-

A. Diversity factor
B. Load factor
C. Plant factor
D. A and B

Solution:

So, in the diversity factor, the rate is fixed.

The diversity factor is defined as the ratio of the sum of the maximum demands of the various parts of a system to the system’s coincident maximum demand. The maximum demands of the individual consumers of a group do not occur simultaneously.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 136

Resistance offered by the series reactor is usually-

A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
D. Very High

Solution: In a series reactor, high resistance is used.

Series reactors are high impedance electrical components that are used to limit current, mostly in cases of inductive motors or powerful floodlights. Series reactors and shunt reactors are commonly used in power systems. Series reactors are mainly used to limit the short-circuit current.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 137

Dark current in semiconductor photo-diode is-

A. The forward bias current
B. The forward saturation current
C. Reverse saturation current
D. The transistor current

Solution: In physics and in electronic engineering, dark current is the relatively small electric current that flows through photosensitive devices such as a photomultiplier tube, photodiode, or charge-coupled device even when no photons are entering the device; it consists of the charges generated in the detector when no outside radiation is entering the detector.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 138

An electric filament bulb can be worked from-

A. AC supply
B. DC supply
C. Battery supply
D. All of above

Solution: AC means Alternating Current, and DC means Direct Current. For example, a 12V AC power supply has an alternating voltage (which will make an alternating current flow).

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 139

For 11KV transmission line the inductance per km will be about-

A. 1H
B. 0.1H
C. 1mH
D. 0.1mH

Solution:

(L=2×10⁻⁷In⁡(D/r1))L=01

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 140

The equivalent inductance seen at terminal a-b in the figure is-

A. 10H
B. 8H
C. 11H
D. 7H

Solution:

delta to star conversion,

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 141

Ferrites are ___________ materials.

A. Paramagnetic
B. Diamagnetic
C. Ferromagnetic
D. None of these

Solution: Ferrites are ferromagnetic ceramic materials, compounds of iron, boron and barium or strontium and molybdenum. A ferrite material has a high magnetic permeability, which allows it to store stronger magnetic fields than iron and are known as ceramic magnets.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 142

Overvoltage in power system is due to-

A. Switching surges
B. Arcing ground
C. Insulation failure
D. Any of above

Solution: The main cause of these voltage surges in the power system are due to lightning impulses and switching impulses of the system. But overvoltage in the power system may also be caused by insulation failure, arcing ground and resonance etc.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 143

In Kirchhoff’s first law Σi=0 at the junction is based on the law of conservation of-

A. Energy
B. Charge
C. Momentum
D. Speed

Solution: In Kirchhoff’s first law, Σi=0 at the junction is based on the law of conservation of charge.

This law states that charge can neither be created nor be destroyed; it can only be transferred from one system to another.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 144

Under normal conditions, current in the circuit is limited by-

A. Load impedance
B. Line impedance
C. Line capacitance
D. Both A and B

Solution: The load impedance is the impedance you put on the output of the circuit (in this case, the amplifier). In this case, you can see almost no power is drawn; this means that the output impedance has to be very high. This means that you can connect a high input impedance amplifier to the output of the first amplifier.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 145

The ratio of active power and apparent power is known as-

A. Demand factor
B. Power factor
C. Load factor
D. Form factor

Solution: The ratio of active power and apparent power is known as the Power factor. It is a quantity with no unit and dimensions as it is a ratio of two same quantities.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 146

If an instrument has a cramped scale for larger values, then it follows-

A. square law
B. logarithmic law
C. uniform law
D. None of the above

Solution: In logarithm law, cramped scale use for larger values for an instrument.

In fluid dynamics, the law of the wall (also known as the logarithmic law of the wall) states that the average velocity of a turbulent flow at a certain point is proportional to the logarithm of the distance from that point to the "wall", or the boundary of the fluid region.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 147

In Plugging, 3-phase Induction motor operate in-

A. Generating mode
B. Breaking mode
C. Motoring mode
D. None

Solution: Plugging induction motor braking is done by reversing the phase sequence of the motor.

Plugging — sometimes referred to as “reverse current braking” — is possible on both DC motors and AC induction motors. For DC motors, plugging is achieved by reversing the polarity of the armature voltage. For AC induction motors, the stator voltage is reversed by interchanging any two of the supply leads.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 148

At stand still the per phase generated e.m.f. in the rotor conductor E_2S if s is slip.

A. E_2S= SE₂
B. E_{2S c}= E₂
C. (E_{2S c}= E₂/S)
D. E_2S= 0

Solution:

If s is slip = E_2S= E₂

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 149

The current flowing in (20Ω) resistor is given by: 1 = 2 + 4 sin 314t. The current is measured by a hot wire ammeter. What is measure value?

A. 2A
B. 3.46A
C. 4A
D. 2.83A

Solution: In a circuit, the value of the alternating current as measured by hot-wire ammeter is 10 amperes.

Measure value= 3.46A

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 150

A group of eight bits is called-

A. Nibble
B. Byte
C. Kilobyte
D. Megabyte

Solution: A group of eight bits is called Byte. A byte is a data measurement unit that contains a series of eight zeros and ones. A single byte can be used to represent 256 different values.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 151

The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally-

A. low
B. around 500Ω
C. 1000Ω
D. Infinitely large

Solution: At the time of starting a DC motor, starting resistance is only the resistance of the armature. Since the armature resistance of a motor is very small, generally less than one ohm. But for protection purposes, an extra resistance must be connected in series with the armature.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 152

What percent of total operating cost, fuel purchasing and handling is-

A. 10 to 15%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 30 to 40%
D. 50 to 60%

Solution: A higher operating margin indicates that the company is earning enough money from business operations to pay for all of the associated costs involved in maintaining that business. For most businesses, an operating margin higher than 15% is considered good.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 153

What is rotor copper loss of a 3-phase, 550volt, 50hz, 6-poles induction motor developing 4.1kW at the shaft with mechanical loss of 750W at 970rpm?

A. 100W
B. 150W
C. 170W
D. 160W

Solution: Rotor copper loss =

gross mechanical power output.

Gross mechanical power output = shaft power + mechanical losses

= 4.1×103+750

= 4850

Here slip =

Slip s =

= 0.03

Rotor copper loss =

= 150W

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 154

Directional relays respond to the-

A. Flow of current
B. Voltage polarities
C. Flow of power
D. All of these

Solution: The relay will develop maximum torque when its current and voltage are in phase to respond to power flow.

Directional relays can respond to positive sequence, negative sequence, or zero sequence inputs. This should be a consideration when applying directional relays at locations where zero-sequence voltage is minimal.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 155

Lower value of fusing factor can be employed for-

A. Rewirable fuse
B. Semi-enclosed fuse
C. Enclosed fuse
D. None

Solution:

-> For a semi-enclosed zero-sequence or rewirable fuse which employs copper as the fuse element, the value of the fuse factor is usually 2. Lower values of fusing factor can be employed for enclosed cartridge fuse, which uses silver or bimetallic elements.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 156

Core type and the shell-type transformer has-

A. Two-legged core and one-legged core, respectively
B. Two-legged core and three-legged core, respectively
C. Three-legged core and two-legged core, respectively
D. Three-legged core and one-legged core, respectively

Solution:

The core type transformer has two limbs, whereas the shell type transformer has three limbs. In the core-type transformer, both the primary and the secondary windings are placed on the side limbs, whereas, in the shell type transformer, the windings are placed on the central limbs of the transformer.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 157

If a single-phase motor fails to start, it may be due to-

A. Blown fuses
B. Open-circuit in Auxiliary winding
C. Open-circuit in the main winding
D. Any of the above cases

Solution:

Blown fuses
Open-circuit in Auxiliary winding
Open-circuit in the main winding

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 158

The power of an n-phase circuit can be measured by using a minimum of

A. (n-1) wattmeter elements
B. n wattmeter elements
C. (n+1) wattmeter elements
D. 2n wattmeter elements

Solution: If the load is unbalanced,single-phase than "n wattmeter" If the load is balanced, than "n-l" wattmeter

Blondel's theorem, named after its discoverer, French electrical engineer André Blondel, is the An electrical energy meter is a watt-meter whose measurements are integrated over time; thus, the Electric energy meters that meet the requirement of N-1 elements for an N wire service are often said to be Blondel Compliant.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 159

Early effect in BJT refer to-

A. Avalanche breakdown
B. Thermal runaway
C. Base narrowing
D. Zener breakdown

Solution: Base-narrowing has two consequences that affect the current. Early effects in BJT refer to Base narrowing.

The Early effect, named after its discoverer James M. Early, is the variation in the effective width of the base in a bipolar junction transistor (BJT) due to a variation in the applied base-to-collector voltage.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 160

The minimum charge on an ion is-

A. equal to the atomic number of the atom
B. equal to the charge of an electron
C. equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom
D. zero

Solution: Since the electron’s charge (considered negative by convention) is equal and opposite to that of the proton (considered positive by convention), the net charge of an ion is non-zero due to its total number of electrons being unequal to its total number of protons.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 161

From a uniform light source of 500 CP, a surface 15 meter below, find the value of illumination when rays are inclined at an angle to (60°) to the surface.

A. 4.44 lumen
B. 5 lumen
C. 1.23 lumen
D. 3.4 lumen

Solution: The value of illumination is 4.44 lumen

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 162

Unit of galvanometer constant

A.
B.
C.
D.

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 163

Magnetizing current of transformer lies in range of-

A. 0.002P_u to 0.005P_u
B. (2P_nto⁡ 5P_u)
C. 0.02P_u to 0.05P_u
D. (0.2P_ato 0.5P_u)

Solution: Magnetizing current is the term used to denote the total current that flows into the primary of a transformer when the transformer is energised at a specific voltage and frequency, with the secondaries open-circuited.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 164

Find current i₂ in the circuit shown below

A.
4A
B.
3A
C.
2A
D.
1A

Solution:

Use the current divider circuit method and node analysis method.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 165

The coupling between two magnetically coupled coils is said to be ideal if the coefficient of coupling is-

A. Zero
B. 0.1
C. 2
D. 1

Solution: An ideal transformer is a useful approximation of a very tightly coupled transformer (k≈1) in which both the primary and secondary inductive reactances are extremely large compared to the load impedance.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 166

Kilowatt-hour(kWh) is a unit of?

A. Current
B. Power
C. Energy
D. Resistance

Solution: If the unit of power in kW and the unit of time is an hour, then the unit of energy=unit of power×unit of time=kWh.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 167

Which basic law should be followed to analyse a circuit?

A. Newton’s law
B. Faraday’s law
C. Ampere's law
D. Kirchhoff's law

Solution: Kirchhoff's laws, namely Kirchhoff's Current Law and Kirchhoff's Voltage Law, are the basic laws that should be followed to analyse a circuit.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

QUESTION: 168

The calculation of short circuit current enables us-

A. to make a proper selection of bus bars, current transformers.
B. to make a proper selection of bus bars only
C. to make a proper selection of transformer only
D. None of these

Solution: Short circuit current should be around 20 times the rating of the circuit to ensure the branch circuit protection. So to make a proper selection of the transformer only, the calculation of short circuit current is enabled.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 169

Value of leakage reactance of synchronous machine is-

A. 0.5 Pu
B. 0.3 Pu
C. 0.1 to 0.2 Pu
D. 0.15 Pu

Solution:

Value of armature resistance is very, very small. It's about 0.1 to 0.2 PU

The Synchronous Reactance (XS) is the imaginary reactance employed to account for the voltage effects in the armature circuit produced by the actual armature leakage reactance and the change in the air gap flux caused by the armature reaction.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 170

The internal resistance of primary cell varies

A. Inversely with the surface area of electrodes
B. Directly with a distance between electrodes
C. With the nature of electrodes
D. All of above

Solution: Carbon has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance.

That is, internal resistance depends on the nature of the electrolyte. The internal resistance of a cell is inversely proportional to the common area of the electrodes dipping in the electrolyte. The internal resistance of a cell depends on the nature of the electrodes.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 171

To increase the feedwater temperature-

A. Superheater is used
B. Economiser is used
C. Air preheater is used
D. None of these

Solution: Increasing the feedwater temperature to 200 degrees or greater will save money in fuel costs and reduce the chances of oxygen pitting in the boiler. It will also help reduce the costs of boiler water treatment chemicals.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 172

A piece of silver wire has a resistance of 1Ω. What will be the resistance of manganin wire of one third the length and one third the diameter of the specific resistance of manganin is 30 time that of silver-

A. (80Ω)
B. (90Ω)
C. (100Ω)
D. (85Ω)

Solution: Now, the Manganin wire will be l/3 m long, and the area of the cross-section will be πr2/9. Therefore, the resistance of the Manganin wire will be 90 ohms.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 173

Pure inductive circuit-

A. consumers some power on average
B. does not take power at all from a line
C. takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it during other parts of the cycle
D. none of the above

Solution: In the purely inductive circuit, during the first quarter cycle, the power supplied by the source is stored in the magnetic field set up around the coil. In the next quarter cycle, the magnetic field diminishes, and the power stored in the first quarter cycle is returned to the source.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 174

What is the maximum temperature that XLPE cables can withstand?

A. 65⁰C
B. 80⁰C
C. 110⁰C
D. 130⁰C

Solution: Cross-Linked Polyethylene (XLPE) was invented in 1963 in the General Electric Research Laboratory to create a cross-linked material with better mechanical and thermal properties than Polyethylene, which can stand an operating temperature of 90 °C [1].

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 175

Power factor can be improved by using-

A. Capacitor banks
B. Phase advancers
C. Both A and B
D. None of these

Solution: Improving the power factor means reducing the phase difference between voltage and current since the majority of loads are inductive; they require some amount of reactive power for them to function. The capacitor provides this reactive power or bank of capacitors installed parallel to the load.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 176

The current show in the figure is equivalent to a load of-

A. 8/3Ω
B. 3/8Ω
C. 8Ω
D. 3Ω

Solution:

Load = 3/8 Ω

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 177

A resonant circuit has a lower critical frequency of 7KHz and an upper critical frequency of 13KHz. The bandwidth of the circuit is

A. 7 kHz
B. 13 kHz
C. 20 kHz
D. 6 kHz

Solution:

The bandwidth of the circuit is

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 178

Time constant of an inductive circuit-

A. increases with the increase of inductance and decrease as resistance
B. increases with the increase of inductance and increase of resistance
C. increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance
D. increases with the decrease of inductance and increase of resistance

Solution: The time required for the current flowing in the LR series circuit to reach its maximum steady-state value is equivalent to about 5-time constants or 5τ. This time constant τ is measured by τ = L/R, in seconds, where R is the value of the resistor in ohms, and L is the value of the inductor in Henries.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 179

A permeable substance is one-

A. which is a good conductor
B. which is a bad conductor
C. which is a strong magnet
D. though which the magnetic lines of force can pass very easily

Solution: A permeable substance is one through which the magnetic lines of force can pass through easily.

Magnetic fields can penetrate through both magnetic and non-magnetic substances.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 180

Electric traction in comparison to other traction systems has the advantages of_____.

A. higher acceleration and braking retardation
B. cleanest system and ideal for the underground and tube railways.
C. better speed control
D. All of these

Solution: The above given are all advantages of electric traction.

Electric traction has many advantages as compared to other non-electrical systems of traction, including steam traction.

Electric traction is used in Electric trains, Trolleybuses, Tramcars, Diesel-electric vehicles etc.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 181

1F capacitance will be rectified when or D.C. The circuit is connected to-

A. Zero
B. Unlimited
C. 1Ω
D. 0.5Ω

Solution: Impedance is simply the sum of the DC component, resistance, and AC component, called the reactance. If only DC is applied on a circuit, the inductive reactance is zero (short circuit), and the capacitive reactance is infinite (open circuit). If you work out the derived equations for AC analysis, in principle, DC analysis if you recognise that the AC frequency is zero. This means that the inductors are replaced with short circuits and capacitors with open circuits. This transition can sometimes be controlled by setting only the frequency parameter to a small non-zero value. Or you may have to recreate your equations. The concept of impedance in an AC circuit actually converts to one of the resistance in a DC circuit.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 182

For a Resistive line, (Z₀) is calculated as-

A.
B.
C.
D.

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 183

In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be-

A. as long as possible
B. as short as possible
C. neither too small nor too large
D. very thick

Solution: In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be as long as possible

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 184

A 200 Ω resistor, a coil with 30% reactance, and a capacitor of unknown reactance are in series across an ac source. The circuit is at resonance. Circuit impedance

A. 230
B. 170
C. 200
D. Can not be determined

Solution:

Resonance results from oscillations in a circuit as stored energy is passed from the inductor to the capacitor. Resonance occurs when XL = XC and the imaginary part of the transfer function is zero. At resonance, the impedance of the circuit is equal to the resistance value as Z = R.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 185

'Which of the following materials has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance?

A. Copper
B. Aluminium
C. Carbon
D. Brass

Solution: A negative coefficient for a material means that its resistance decreases with an increase in temperature. Semiconductor materials (carbon, silicon, germanium) typically have negative temperature coefficients of resistance.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 186

What is the speed of the stator rotating magnetic field with respect to the rotor rotating magnetic field?

A. Zero
B. Slip speed
C. Synchronous speed
D. None of the above

Solution: The stator rotating magnetic field is rotating at Ns. The current-carrying rotor conductor also produces a rotor magnetic field of speed Ns.

Therefore, the stator rotating magnetic field and rotor rotating magnetic field rotate at the same speed N_s in the air gap. They are stationary with respect to each other and make the rotor rotate at speed N. This happens at any slip.

Hence the correct option is A

QUESTION: 187

What is the device used to measure power known as?

A. Wattmeter
B. Ammeter
C. Voltmeter
D. Galvanometer

Solution: Wattmeter is the device for measuring the electric power or the supply rate of electrical energy in watts of any given circuit.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

QUESTION: 188

The speed of a universal motor can be controlled by-

A. Using variable resistance in series with the motor
B. Tapping the field at various points
C. Centrifugal mechanism
D. All of above

Solution: Three methods of controlling the speed of a universal electric motor were discussed. These are the resistance control method, the field tapping method, and the centrifugal switch method. In the resistance control method, a variable resistance in series with the motor is used to set the RPM.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 189

The earthing electrodes should be placed within what distance in metres from the building whose installation system is being earthed.

A. 4.0
B. 2.5
C. 1.5
D. 0.5

Solution: An earthing electrode should not be situated within a distance of 1.5m from the building whose installation system is being earthed.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 190

In a fluorescent tube, if only the ends of the tube remain lighted, it indicates that-

A. The choke is defective
B. Starter is short-circuited
C. The tube is defective
D. Any of above

Solution:

The choke is defective
Starter is short-circuited
The tube is defective

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 191

What is the SI unit of power?

A. Watt
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Volt

Solution: The SI unit of power is Watt, named after the scientist Sir. James Watt.

Electric power is the rate, per unit time, at which electrical energy is transferred by an electric circuit.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

QUESTION: 192

Value of fusing factor is-

A. Always more than 1
B. Always less than 1
C. Equal to 1
D. Equal to 0

Solution:

The ratio of minimum fusing current and current rating of the fuse:

fusing factor = Minimum fusing current or current rating of the fuse.

The value of the fusing factor is always more than 1.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 193

It is advisable to use an auto-transformer if the transformation ratio is-

A. Greater than 1
B. Near to 1
C. 0.5
D. 1

Solution:

Transformation ratio=1; (N₁I₁=N₂I₂)

So the power is only transferred through induction or magnetically. So power is transferred through both the conduction and induction process. 09․ It is advisable to use an autotransformer if the transformation ratio is greater than 1.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 194

For a p-n junction diode, which equation best describes the forward and reverse bias region.

A.

200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for SSC JE Electrical Engineering | SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 6

If SPARK is coded as TQBSL, what will be the code for FLAME?

How many triangles are there in the following figure?