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If the code word of 'DOG' is 'BCMNEF,’ then find the code of 'CAT'?
(MN→O)
(EF→G)
Same as
AB(→)C
YZ(→)A
RS(→)⊤
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Which numbered space in the Figure given below represents 'Doctors.’ Who are Players as well as Artists?
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Raju ranks 10th from the top, and Ravi ranks 24th from the bottom; if there are 3 students between, how many students are there in the class?
Hence the correct answer is option A.
If L = +, M = -, N = X, P = ÷ then 5 N 5 P 5 L 5 M 5 =?
Hence the correct answer is option B.
Four diagrams of dice are represented below. Which of these dice shape represents the diagram given below.
(2⇒3)
(1⇒5)
(4⇒6)
So 2,4,1 are shown simultaneously and 3,5,6 in front of each other.
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Find at what time between 8 and 9 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but not together:
∴ The hand will be in the same line but not together at 10(10/11) min. past 8
Hence the correct answer is option A.
In a certain code, if Mode is written as Node, Fun is written as Gun, and Bat is written as Cat, then what is the code for ‘Ring’?
Therefore, 'Ring' become 'Sing' (as letter 'S' comes after letter 'R') .
which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Universe
3. Tirupati
4. World
5. India
Hence the correct answer is option B.
which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order?
1. Police
2. Punishment
3. Crime
4. Judge
5. Judgement
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Which of the following words, in terms of the alphabet, will be the fourth in the dictionary?
2. ENSURE
3. ENTREAT
4. ENTRY
Hence the correct answer is option C.
If 4 ×6 ×9× 1 = 4196, 2 ×3 ×7 × 2 =2273 then 1 × 4 ×8 9 = ?
4 × 6 × 9 × 1 = 4196,
2 × 3 × 7 × 2 =2273
1 × 4 × 8 × 9 = 1984
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Choose the set from the given options, which is similar to the given set.
Given set: 4, 9, 18
Hence the correct answer is option D.
S is richer than R whereas A is richer than P. B is as rich as R. C is richer than S. the, which of the following statements is true.
B is poorer than S
Hence the correct answer is option C.
In the following series, how many 9 are there, which are not preceded by 7, not followed by 5?
7, 9, 5, 5, 9, 7, 7, 9, 5, 5, 5, 7, 9, 5, 5, 7, 7, 9, 5, 7
There is only one such number after 5 and before 7.
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:
Statements:
I. Some weather is rain.
II. Some summers are weather.
Conclusions:
I. Some summers are rain.
II. Some weather are summers.
Hence the correct answer is option B.
Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:
Statements:
Malpractices in the examination are the major cause of decline in education standards.
Conclusions:
I. To improve the standard of education, control on malpractices is necessary.
II. These days, malpractices are happening in all the examinations.
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Group the given figures in three classes using each figure only once.
There is a similarity in 1,2,6 that in these diagrams, the half-circle is cut into another chart.
There is an equality in 3,5,7 that is in the second diagram in these diagram chakras.
There is a similarity in 4,8,9 that the rectangular second diagram is cut in these diagrams.
So, the answer is 1,2,6 / 3,5,7 / 4,8,9
Hence the correct answer is option C.
If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the following answer figures will be the correct reflection of the question figure.?
Question Figure:
Answer Figure:
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Which of the following word can't be made from the word 'PHARMACEUTICAL.'
Only one 'I' in this word is not made serious by this CRITICAL word
Hence the correct answer is option B.
Select the figure which is different from the rest of the 3 images.
Hence the correct answer is option C.
Which answer figure will complete the question figure?
Question Figure:
Answer Figure:
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Sathi is older than Renu. Geeth is younger than Renu, Priya is older than Sathi. Who is the oldest of them?
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Ram is standing facing North-West; first, he turns in the 45° clockwise direction and again in 135° the same direction, then he turns in the 90°anti-clockwise direction and again in the 180o same direction. Find in which direction is ram facing now?
the 4th turn is the endpoint which shows that he is facing in the south-west direction.
Hence the correct answer is option D.
The figure X given on the left-hand side in each question is folded to form a box. Choose from amongst the alternatives (A), (B), (C),(D) the boxes that are similar to the box formed.
c and e are opposite to each other.
b and d are opposite to each other.
a and f are opposite to each other.
Since the opposite faces cannot be on adjacent sides, all these conditions are satisfied in Figure (D).
E is the sister of B; A is the father of C, B is the son of C. How is A related to E.
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Fact 1: Jessica has four children
Fact 2: Two children have blue eyes, and two children are brown eyes.
Fact 3: The child has half girls
If the first three statements are true, then which of the following statements should be?
I. At least one girl has blue eyes
II. Two children are boys
III. Boys have brown eyes
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Fact 1: Bridges are in all cap
Fact 2: There are black hats and blue hats.
Fact 3: Baseball caps the facts of the first three statements are true, then which of the following statements should be?
I. All the caps are bris
II. Some baseball caps are blue
III. There is no brush in baseball caps
Hence the correct answer is option D.
A word is represented by the only set of members given in any one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives is represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices given below. The column and row of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 3, and those of Matrix-II are numbered from 4 to 7. A letter from the matrices can be represented first by its row and then by its column. e.g., 'A' can be represented by 01, 12, 23, etc., and 'T' can be represented by 02, 10, 23, etc. Identify the set for the word 'LAMB.’
A - 00, 12, 21, 32
M - 01, 13, 22, 30
B - 45, 57, 66, 74
Thus, the word LAMB is represented by the set of numbers 75, 21, 13, 45
Hence the correct answer is option A.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is fourth to the right of H and second to the left of A. F is fourth to the left of A and third to the right of C. G is third to the right of K. E is second to the left of D. Then who is second to the left of K?
D is the second to the left of K
Hence the correct answer is option B.
Which one set of letters, when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series, shall complete it?
m_m_am_a_mam
Hence the correct answer is option B.
Which one set of letters, when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series, shall complete it?
a_ba_b_b_a_babb
Hence the correct answer is option C.
In a certain code language, '783' means 'Mangoes are good,’ '657' means 'eat good food,' and '938' means 'Mangoes are ripe,’ then which digit means 'ripe' in that language code?
The code for 'ripe' is 9.
Hence the correct answer is option A.
One application was received by the clerk in the afternoon of one week.
The next day he sent him to the senior clerk's table, which was on holiday that day.
The next day the senior clerk of the evening gave the application to the desk officer.
The Desk Officer had disposed of the application on the same day i.e., on Friday.
Which application was received by the incoming clerk?
Hence the correct option is (C).
Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
Gun : Soldier : : Camera : ?
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
RTVP : 19 : : NXLJ: ?
=18+20+22+16=76
76/4=19
NXLJ=14+24+12+10
=38+22=60
(=60/4=15)
Hence the correct answer is option B.
DirectionIn each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
130 : 68 : : 350 : ?
(130/2=653=68)
(350/2=1753=178)
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
0.01 : 0.0001 : : 0.05 : ?
((0.05)2=0.0025)
Hence the correct answer is option B.
Direction: Select the related word/letters/ number from the given alternatives.
Branch : Plant :: Limb : ?
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
Fish: School::?
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Select the odd word/letter/number from the given alternatives.
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Select the odd letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.
Therefore, SV is the odd pair.
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Select the odd number/letter/number pair from the given.
114-19=95
144-24=120
132-22=110
All except for 87 are divisible by 5
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Select the odd number/letter/number pair from the given.
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Select the odd number/letter/number pair from the given.
Hence the correct answer is option C.
Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.
10-7 = 3
11-8 = 3
12-9 = 3
= 3 + 3 + 3 = 9
Similarly
In other figures:
15-12 = 3
17-14 = 3
16-13 = 3
= 3 + 3 + 3 = 9
Hence the correct answer is option D.
Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.
92=81
52=25
Hence the correct answer is option B.
Direction : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
11, 14, 14, 17, 17, 20, 20,?,?
It adds 3 in each number to reach the next number,
Which is repeated before 3 is added again.
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.
ZW3, UR6, PM10, KH15, ?
Hence the correct answer is option A.
Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
5, 6, 14, 45, 184, ?
5×1+1=6
6×2+2=14
14×3+3=45
45×4+4=184
184×5+5=925
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Which diagram represents the relationship between Female, Mother, and Doctor?
Hence the correct answer is option C.
The Iqta system was a practice of Tax farming that Iltutmish introduced in the Delhi Sultanate.
It was a grant of revenue from the territory in lieu of salary.
Megalith literally means a huge stone.
This culture is called Megalithic Culture.
From this age, big stones have been found, sculptured, or chipped into different shapes.
The dead were buried with distinctive pots,which are known as Black and Red Ware.
The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called
Smelting is the process of applying heat to ore to melt out a base metal. It is a form of extractive metallurgy. It is used to extract many metals from their ores, including silver, iron, copper, and other base metals.
In which year Annapurna Yojana stated?
Which strait connects the Arctic and the Pacific Ocean?
Important Strait and its Location
1. Palk Strait Between India and Sri Lanka
2. Duncan Passage South Andaman and Little Andaman
3. Ten Degree Channel Little Andaman and Nicobar
4. The English Channel Between England and France
5. Florida Strait Between Cuba and the USA
6. Berring Strait Between Russia and USA
7. Bass Strait Between Australia and Tasmania
8. Strait of Gibraltar Between Spain and Morocco
9. Strait of Malaca Between Malaysia and Sumatra (It also connects the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean)
10. Barents Strait Between Scandinavian countries and the Arctic Ocean
By what name has the NITI commission launched the global mobility Hackathon to crowdsource solutions for the purpose of future mobility in India?
Karikala was a Chola King during which of the following period?
Neutrophils and lymphocytes originate form
Neutrophils and lymphocytes orginate from the bone marrow.
B-lymphocytes, which originate in the bone marrow, produce antibodies to fight off infection. The antibody attaches to the microbe, tagging it as "foreign.” Infection-fighting cells called neutrophils can now recognize the microbe, engulf and digest it.
Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature; that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. So, the Governments cannot be compelled to implement them.
Although the Constitution in Article 37 itself says that these principles are fundamental in the country’s governance and it shall be the State’s duty to apply these principles in making laws.
These principles reflect the ideology of socialism, Gandhian, and liberalism.
Who was the founder of Bhartiya Jan Sangh?
In 1977, it merged with several other left, centre, and right parties opposed to the rule of the Indian National Congress and formed the Janata Party.
In addition to hydrogen, the other abundant element present on Sun’s surface is
A more important point related to solar System
Smallest Planet: Mercury
Nearest Planet to Sun: Mercury
Farthest Planet from Sun: Neptune
Closest Planet to Earth: Venus
Brightest Planet: Venus
Brightest star after Sun: Sirius
The planet with maximum satellites: Jupiter
Coldest Planet: Neptune
Hottest Planet: Venus
Heaviest Planet: Jupiter
Red Planet: Mars
Biggest Satellite: Ganymede
Smallest Satellite : Deimos
How many ways are there to lose citizenship in the Indian Constitution?
Three modes are given to lose citizenship in the Indian Constitution. These are:-
1) Renunciation
2) Termination
3) Deprivation
The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes 5 ways to acquire Citizenship of India. These ways are :
1) By birth
2) By decent
3) By registration
4) By naturalization
5) By incorporation
The alignment of the beginning and the end of lines is referred to as
Small drops of a liquid are spherical in shape because
Small drops of a liquid are spherical because the surface energy is minimum for the spherical shape. It is due to surface tension.
The inward forces on the surface molecules of the liquid droplet tend to cause the surface to volume ratio as small as possible.
Hence, option D is correct.
The highest concentration of urea is found in
The highest concentration of urea is found in the Hepatic vein.
The hepatic veins are the veins that drain de-oxygenated blood from the liver into the inferior vena cava.
There are usually three upper hepatic veins draining from the left, middle, and right parts of the liver. These are larger than the group of lower hepatic veins that can number from six to twenty.
An Arab traveller Al-Masudi visited India during the reign of
Hence, option B is correct.
The fuse in an electric circuit is connected in
A fuse wire is a safety wire connected in series with the live wire; in case of any large current supply or malfunctioning in the electric connections, it melts and breaks the electric circuit.
It is always in series with the load no matter where it’s located. Many loads have an integral fuse that protects the appliance load.
Usually, there is a fuse (or, more common these days, a circuit breaker) in the distribution box. This is intended to protect both the wiring and the appliance load.
When was Bhartiya Mahila Vishwavidyalaya established for women’s welfare?
Dr. Dhondo Keshav Karve, popularly known as Maharishi Karve, was a social reformer in India in the field of women's welfare.
Karve continued the pioneering work in promoting widows' education.
What are the normal values of partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood?
The normal values are 35-45mmHg
It is a good indicator of respiratory function.
It reflects the amount of acid in the blood.
The United States has marked India as the STA-1 country. What is the full form of STA-1?
Who gave the Gandhian Plan of 1944 for the economic development of India?
Which of the following terms is used for the tax revenue in the inflationary period?
In the inflationary period, the increase in tax revenue is known as buoyancy.
When the government fails to check inflation, it raises income tax and corporate tax. Such a tax is called buoyancy.
When was Prime Minister Narender Modi calls for the end of the “husbands of women sarpanches” or “sarpanch pati” practice?
The Mansabdari system was introduced by which of the following emperor?
Manas National Park is in which state?
Manas National Park is located in Assam.
It is a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve, and a biosphere reserve. It is well known for wild water buffalo.
On which river, Tata Hydel scheme started?
All forms of ROM are also known as ____________.
All forms of ROM are also known as Firmware.
Data stored in ROM can only be modified slowly, with difficulty, or not at all, so it is mainly used to store firmware (software that is closely tied to specific hardware and unlikely to need frequent updates) or application software in plug-in cartridges.
Which of the following states has launched ‘horn not ok’ awareness campaign and ‘Shaur Nahin’ mobile application?
The campaign’s objective is to spread awareness of unnecessary blowing horn as it creates unnecessary noise pollution and is harmful to health.
Which of these are called long-haired stars?
Comets are popularly known as long-haired stars.
They are small icy bodies that revolve around the Sun.
They glow with the light of the Sun as they come close to it.
Halley's Comet appears regularly every 76 years.
It was last seen in 1986.
It is believed that more than 700 comets have so far been observed.
An object which absorbs all colours and reflects none appears:
An object which absorbs all colours and reflects none appears black.
A black body is an idealized physical body that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation, regardless of frequency or angle of incidence.
Science dealing with the study of soil is called
Pedology is the study of soils in their natural environment.
Pomology is the science of fruit-growing.
Ecology is the branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
Pedagogy is the method and practice of teaching, especially as an academic subject or theoretical concept.
Recently, the Home Minister of India inaugurated the campus of NSG Regional Hub at_____.
The optical phenomenon that is primarily responsible for the observation of rainbow on a rainy day is
A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower. It is caused by the dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets present in the atmosphere.
A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun. The water droplets act like small prisms.
They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrops.
Heavy metals got their names because compared to other atoms, they have
Heavy metals got their names because compared to other atoms, they have higher densities.
Examples of heavy metals include gallium, thallium, and hafnium.
The chemical(s) most commonly used for cloud seeding or 'artificial rainmaking’ is/are
Cloud seeding, a form of weather modification, attempts to change the amount or type of precipitation that falls from clouds by dispersing substances into the air that serve as cloud condensation or ice nuclei, which alter the microphysical processes within the cloud.
The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include
a) silver iodide b) potassium iodide c) dry ice (solid carbon dioxide).
'Entomology' is the science that studies
'Entomology' is the science that studies Insects.
Entomology is a taxon-based category; any form of scientific study focusing on insect-related inquiries.
Entomology developed rapidly in the 19th and 20th centuries and was studied by large numbers of people.
How many Rajya Sabha members, the President of India, can nominate?
Article 80 of the Indian Constitution lays down the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which the President nominates 12 members, and 238 are representatives of the States and Union Territories.
12 members nominated by the president have expertise in subjects like literature, science, art, and social service.
A NOT gate / Invertor can be implemented by:
Also, as a transistor is a basic current amplifier, it can also operate in a linear mode, and any small variation to its input level will cause a variation to its output level or may even switch “ON” and “OFF” several times if there is any noise present in the circuit. One way to overcome these problems is to use a Schmitt Inverter or Hex Inverter.
In which country the Canterbury grassland most commonly found?
Canterbury grasslands are found in New Zealand,
Other grasslands such as Prairies, Pampas, and Veldts are found in North America, South America, and South Africa.
The chemical used as a 'fixer' in photography is
Which among the following theories is called the Iron Law of Wages?
Wage Fund Theory is called the Iron Law of Wages.
It was developed by J.S.Mill.
Accorourers. Wage is determined by the amount of wages fund and the total number of labours employed by him, the employers set apart a certain amount of capital to pay wages for labours.
The iron law of wages is a proposed law of economics that asserts that real wages always tend, in the long run, toward the minimum wage necessary to sustain the life of the worker.
The theory was first named by Ferdinand Lassalle in the mid-nineteenth century.
Microeconomics deals with the decision-making of a single economic variable like a demand.
Microeconomics is generally considered for the individual economics agents like household and business firms.
What are the main functions of the spleen?
to produce immune cells to fight antigens
to remove particulate matter and aged blood cells, mainly erythrocytes
to produce blood cells during fetal life
The spleen synthesizes antibodies in its white pulp and removes antibody-coated bacteria and antibody-coated blood cells through blood and lymph node circulation.
The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as
The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as transcription.
In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA. This necessitates defining the boundaries that would demarcate the region and the DNA strand that would be transcribed.
Consumer gets maximum satisfaction at the point where
As per the law of diminishing marginal utility, the utility of each successive unit goes on diminishing as more and more units of a commodity are consumed.
A rational consumer will consume the commodity up to a point where the marginal utility of the final unit of the commodity is equal to the marginal utility of money (in terms of price) paid for it. In this way, the consumer will get the maximum satisfaction and will be in equilibrium.
'Misch Metal' is widely used in the manufacture of which of the following
Mischmetal (Mischmetal - "mixed metal") is an alloy of rare earth elements.
A typical composition includes approximately 50% cerium and 25% lanthanum, with small amounts of neodymium and praseodymium.
It is widely used in the manufacture of Cigarette lighters.
Who was the ruler of the sultanate dynasty?
The total membership of the constituent assembly was ____?
The total membership of the constituent assembly was 389.
292 members were representatives of British States, 93 members were representatives of Princely States & 4 were from the Chief Commissioner Provinces of Delhi, Ajmer Merwara, Coorg & British Baluchistan.
The Chairman of the Drafting Committee was Dr. BR Ambedkar.
(m=280/3σcbc)
Hence the option C is correct.
The relation between E (Modulus of elasticity) and G (Shear modulus) is given by:
where μ = Poisson’s Ratio
Hence, the correct option is (B).
A mild steel wire is 10 mm in diameter and 1 mm long. If a wire is subjected to an axial tensile load of 10 kN, find the extension in the rod. (Take E = 200 x 109)
(=100×100×1/A×200×109(m))
(A=π/4(d2)=π/4×(10×10−3)2m2)
(=7.85×10−5m2)
( Elongation =10×1000×1/7.85×10−5×200×109)
(=6.369×10−4m)(=0.64nm)
Hence the option C is correct.
Pick the wrongly written assumption taken in the analysis of riveted joints-
1. Friction between the plates is neglected.
2. Initial tensile stress in the rivet is neglected.
3. The plates are rigid.
4. The rivet fills the hole completely.
5. Deformation of the plates under the load is neglected.
6. Shearing deformation in the rivet is assumed proportional to the shearing stress.
7. Shearing stress in the rivet is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the rivet crossing section.
8. Unit shearing stress in all the joint rivets is uniform.
9. Tensile stress concentration due to rivet holes in the plates is neglected.
10. Bearing stress between rivets and plates is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the nominal contact surface between the rivets and plates.
11. Bending of rivets is neglected.
Hence the option B is correct.
The characteristic strength of concrete is defined as that strength below which not more than —— of the test results are expected to fall-
Hence the option B is correct.
The heaviest I-section for the same depth is-
Hence the option C is correct.
Permissible compressive strength of M200 concrete grade is-
Hence the option C is correct.
Moment of inertia is a concept application in the case of :
Hence the option A is correct.
Minimum thickness of load-bearing RCC wall should be-
Hence the option B is correct.
Snowcrete is one of the patent forms of-
Hence the option B is correct.
1. Tension failure in the plates
2. Shearing failure across one or more planes and shearing failure of the rivet
3. Bring failure between the plates and the rivets.
Hence the option D is correct.
For a continuous floor slab supported on beam, the ratio of the end span of length and intermediate span length is-
Hence the option D is correct.
A railway curve of 1350 m radius is to be set out to connect two tangents. If the design speed is 110 kmph and the rate of change of acceleration is 0.3 m/s3, the shift of the circular curve will be nearly
Shift of curve, S=L2/24R=0.154m
Hence the option B is correct.
The ratio between stress and strain is called as-
(E=Normal stress/Normal strain=σ/ε)
Hence the option A is correct.
The load factors for live load and dead load are-
Hence the option B is correct.
A reinforced concrete beam, supported on columns at ends, has a clear span of 5m and 0.5m, effective depth. It carries a total uniformly distribution lad 100 kN/m. The design shear force for the beam is:
Shear force = (ωL/2)
here L = 5m
S.F. = (100×5/2 =250kN)
The effective depth of the beam is 0.5m, hence critical depth for shear occurs at a distance of 0.5 m from the face of the column
Therefore, design shear force
= 250 – 100 × 0.5 = 200 kN
Hence the option B is correct.
A 100 m tape is suspended between the ends under a pull of 200 N. If the weight of the tape is 30 N, the correct distance between the tape ends will be nearly
Csagg=−100×302/24×2002
CSag=0.09
Correct distance =100−0.09=99.9m
Hence the option D is correct.
Partial safety factors for concrete and steel respectively may be taken as-
Partial safety factor for steel = 1.15
Hence the option A is correct.
If d and n are the effective depth and depth of neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced beam, the lever arm of the beam is-
Hence the option D is correct.
The construction of optical square is based on the principle of optical-
Hence the option D is correct.
Characteristic strength of concrete is measured at-
Hence the option B is correct,
Minimum thickness of main steel members, not exposed to the weather is-
The steel is directly exposed to weather and is not accessible for cleaning and repainting. The thickness shall be not less than 8 mm. These provisions do not apply to the web of Indian standard rolled steel joists and channels to packings.
Steelwork not Directly Exposed to Weather. The thickness of steel in main members not directly exposed to weather shall be not less than 6 mm.
The thickness of steel in secondary members not directly exposed to weather shall be not less than 4-5 mm.
Hence the option B is correct.
Disinfection of drinking water is done to remove-
Hence the option D is correct.
The % of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about.
Hence the option C is correct.
To the calculated area of cover plates of build-up beam, an allowance for rivet hole to be added is-
Hence the option B is correct.
Hence the option B is correct.
The pH value of fresh sewage is usually-
A sand deposit has a porosity of ⅓, and its specific gravity is 2.5. The critical hydraulic gradient to cause sand building in the stratum will be-
ic = (G - 1)(1 - n)
= (2.5 - 1) x(1 - 1/3) = 1
Hence the option A is correct.
If a uniform bar is supported at one end in a vertical direction and loaded at the bottom end by a load equal to the weight of the bar, the strain by a load equal to the weight of the bar, the strain energy as compared to that due to self-weight will be-
Now, axil deformation due to load W is given by (Δ1=WL/AE)axial deformation due to self-weight W is given by (Δ2=WL/2AE)
(NowΔ1=2Δ2)(and U∞Δ)
Hence strain energy due to load W is given by (U1=(1/2)WΔ1)
(U1=2U2)
Hence strain energy as compared to that due to self-weight will be double.
Hence the option C is correct.
The minimum diameter of an opening of a manhole should be-
Hence the option B is correct.
For a number of columns constructed in a row, the type of foundation provided is
Hence the option D is correct.
Hence the option B is correct.
Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using-
Hence the option D is correct.
Effective throat thickness (t) and size of weld (S) are connected as-
Hence the option C is correct.
Strain energy stored in a solid is given as:
(U=½ × stress × strain × volume )
(=0.5×σ×ε× volume)
Hence the option D is correct.
The purpose of lateral ties in short concrete columns is-
Hence the option A is correct.
(EI(d3y/dx3)=shear) for a beam represent:
(EI(dy/dx)=slope)
(EI(d2y/dx2)=moment)
(EI(d3y/dx3)=shear)
Hence the option D is correct.
A simply supported beam is considered as a deep beam if the ratio of effective span to overall depth is less than-
Hence the option D is correct.
Which of the following statements with reference to an isogonic line are correct in magnetic declination?
(1) It is drawn through the points of the same declination
(2) It does not form a complete great circle
(3) It radiates from the north and south magnetic regions and follows irregular paths
Hence the option B is correct.
ISI has specified the full strength the full strength of concrete after-
It has a gain of strength beyond 28 days.
The quantum of increase depends on the grade and type of cement curing and environmental conditions. The design should be based on 28 days characteristic strength of concrete unless there is evidence to justify a higher strength for is a piece of evidence to justify a higher strength for a particular due to age.
Hence the option D is correct.
For the deflection of the simply supported beam to be within permissible limits, the ratio of its span to effective depth should not exceed-
- Cantilever 7
- Simply supported 20
- Continuous 26
* For spans above 10 m, the values may be multiplied by 10/span in meters, except for the cantilever, columns in which case deflection calculations should be made.
Hence the option B is correct.
Section modulus for a rectangular section is given as-
Section modulus, (Z=1/Ymax)
where (I=bd3/12)&(ymax=d/2)
Now
(Z=(bd3/12)/(d/2)=bd2/6)
Hence the option B is correct.
Hence the option C is correct.
If the LMT is 8h12m165 AM at 38∘45′ W longitude, the GMT will be
Difference in longitude
∴38∘45′W=38.75∘
∴ Time difference =38.75×4=155 minutes
∵ GMT will be at east
∴ time will be 155 minutes ahead.
∴8hr12 minutes 16sec+155 minutes =10hr47 minutes 16secAM
Hence the option B is correct.
It has been shown that Euler's formula is valid for a long column having an l/k ratio greater than a certain value for a particular material. Euler's formula does not give a reliable result for short columns, and the length of the column intermediate between very long to short.
Hence the option B is correct.
Hence the option D is correct.
A beam simply supported at both the ends of length ‘L’ carries two equal unlike couple ‘M’ at two ends if the flexure rigidity EI is constant. Then the central deflection of the beam is given by-
The slope at both ends will be equal
(θA=θB)
(ML/2EI)
Deflection will be maximum at the center
(△max=△center)(=ML2/8EI)
Hence the option D is correct.
According to IS 800 – 1962 the permissible bending stress in steel slab plate is-
Hence the option D is correct.
If the maximum bending moment of a simply supported slab is M kg-cm, the effective depth of the slab is-
(=√M/100Q)
Hence the option D is correct.
Minimum pitch of rivets should not be less than how many times the gross diameter of the rivet?
Hence the option B is correct.
According to IS : 456 – 2000, the maximum reinforcement in a column is:
Hence the option C is correct.
Hence the option D is correct.
The type of weld used to connect two plates at a lap joint is called-
Hence the option D is correct.
In ordinary Portland cement, the first one react with water is-
((C3A)=3CaO⋅Al2O3)
It contains 5-11% of cement.
it rapidly reacts with water
The high heat of hydration
Responsible for flash set
Hence the option A is correct.
The flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is-
Hence the option B is correct.
Hence the option C is correct.
Bernoulli’s equation represents total energy per unit of a certain quantity. That quantity is:
(P/w=V2/2g(z)=C)
Hence the option B is correct.
According to IS : 456-2000, the maximum reinforcement in a column is-
Hence the option C is correct.
When slenderness ratio in column lies between 32 to 120, it is known as-
Hence the option C is correct.
(M/I=σb/Y=E/R)
Hence the option A is correct.
Permanent hardness of water can be removed by-
Hence the option D is correct.
According to IS 456 - 1978, the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edge is kept less than-
Hence the option C is correct.
The limiting length of an offset does not depend upon-
Hence the option D is correct.
The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is-
Hence the option B is correct.
The extent of bulking depends upon the percentage of moisture present in sand and its fineness. Bulking of sand is more in fine sand.
Hence the option D is correct.
The minimum grade of reinforced concrete in seawater as per IS 456: 2000 is :
As per IS 456:2000, if the RCC structure is in the exposure of seawater spray, then the minimum grade of concrete to be used is M35, and if the structure is submerged or fully merged in seawater, then the minimum grade of concrete will be M40. If it expose in seawater, then the minimumgrade of reinforced concrete is M30
Hence the option D is correct.
Hence the option C is correct.
Stalactites and stalagmites are features of
A stalactite hangs like an icicle from the ceiling or sides of a cavern. A stalagmite appears like an inverted stalactite, rising from the floor of a cavern.
Hence the option B is correct.
The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook should be at least-
The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook curve should be at least four times the diameter.
Hence the option C is correct.
The % of elongation of the piece under tension indicates its: