Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 16


200 Questions MCQ Test Mock test series of SSC JE Civil Engineering | Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 16


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This mock test of Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 16 for Civil Engineering (CE) helps you for every Civil Engineering (CE) entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for Civil Engineering (CE) Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 16 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 16 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Civil Engineering (CE) students definitely take this Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 16 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 16 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Civil Engineering (CE) on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

ROAD : SRFK : : LINE : ? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 2

Select the related letters from the given alternatives.  

ZXVT : ACEG :: SQOM :?

Solution:

If letters are given the position value, the relation between the letters is as follows,

Thus SQOM is related to HJLN.

QUESTION: 3

Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

ADGJ : QTWZ : : BEHK : ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 4

In the following question find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

BIRD : BEAK ∷ CUP : ?

Solution:

Birds collects grass with the help of beak to make nest. Similarly Cup is used to drink something with the help of lips.

Hence, the correct answer is LIP.

QUESTION: 5

Select the related words from the given alternatives.

Mount Everest : Asia :: Mont Blanc : ?

Solution:

Mount Everest is located in Asia.

Mont Blanc is located in Europe.

QUESTION: 6

Select the related numbers from the given alternatives:

12 : 39 :: 15 : ?

Solution:

As the sequence in this problem followed is:

⇒ (12 + 1) × 3 = 13 × 3 = 39

So in the same way the corresponding number for 15 is

⇒ (15 + 1) × 3 = 16 × 3 = 48

QUESTION: 7

Select the related number from the given alternatives.

3 : 243 :: 5 :?

Solution:

Given, 3 : 243 :: 5 :?

The relation is in the form of 35 → 243

Similarly, 55 → 3125

QUESTION: 8

If 2819 is related to 1, then 6432 is related to:

Solution:

1 is the tens digit of 2819 and the tens digit of 6432 is 3.

QUESTION: 9

Identify the word which belongs to the class of given words.

Grams, Kilograms, Quintal

Solution:

Grams, Kilograms, Quintal are unit of measuring Weight. Similarly Tonnes also used to measure Weight.

QUESTION: 10

Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

Solution:

According to the given numbers, in all other numbers

Second number = (First number / 3) + 3

156 – 55 → (156 / 3) + 3 = 55

207 – 72 → (207 / 3) + 3 = 72

255 – 63 → (255 / 3) + 3 = 88

234 – 81 → (234 / 3) + 3 = 81

The number which does not follow the rule is 255 – 63.

Hence the answer is 255 – 63.

QUESTION: 11

Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

Solution:

In all other numbers,

Third number → First number + second digit of second number

12, 26, 18 → 12 + 6 → 18

13, 19, 16 → 13 + 9 → 22

35, 78, 43 → 35 + 8 → 43

43, 27, 50 → 43 + 7 → 50

Hence, the correct answer is 13, 19, 16.

QUESTION: 12

Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

Solution:

69 = 23 × 3

230 = 23 × 10

115 = 23 × 5

163 = 23 × 7.08

All the numbers except 163 are multiples of 23.

Hence, 163 is answer.

QUESTION: 13

Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Solution:

All the other are consonants but only option 2) is vowels.

QUESTION: 14

Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Here 1st letter + 7 = 2nd letter; 2nd letter – 6 = 3rd letter; 3rd letter + 7 = 4th letter

1. BICJ = B + 7 = I;    I – 6 = C; C + 7 = J

2. CJDK = C + 7 = J;   J – 6 = D; D + 7 = K

3. AIHB = A + 8 = I; I – 1 = H; H – 6 = B

4. DKEL = D + 7 = K; K – 6 = E; E + 7 = L

“AIHB” doesn’t follow the pattern, hence it is odd one out

QUESTION: 15

Select the one which is different from the other responses. 

Solution:

A) ABD = A + 1 = B; B + 2 = D

B) GHJ = G + 1 = H; H + 2 = J

C) MPR = M + 3 = P; P + 2 = R

D) VWY = V + 1 = W; W + 2 = Y

Hence, MPR is odd one out. 

QUESTION: 16

Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Hold is odd one as other words when read backwards give meaningful words

Thus Hold is the answer.

QUESTION: 17

In a certain code, BUILDER is written as JVCKSFE. How is SEALING written in that code?

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

If 1986 is coded as  and 2345 is coded as ,then  will be the code for

Solution:

Here, each digit has been allocated a unique symbol as shown below:

 

Thus,

Thus the required digits are 865234.

QUESTION: 19

In a certain code language, ‘light  lamp  live’ means ‘drum rum sum’; ‘pole  high area’ means ‘din pin kin’; ‘area pole mark’ means ‘pin din fin’; and  ‘area live red’ means ‘pin rum disk’. Which words in that language means ‘high’ and ‘red' respectively’?

Solution:

If we write the code,

light   lamp  live =    drum rum  sum

pole   high  area  =   din  pin  kin

area   pole   mark =   pin din  fin

area   live  red  =   pin  rum  disk

The words that are matching in the four statements have been marked.

From the above explanation it is clear that the code for ‘Red’ and ‘high’ is ‘disk’ and ‘kin’ respectively.

QUESTION: 20

A cyclist goes 30 km to North and then turning east he goes 40 km. Again he turns to his right and goes 20 km. after this, he turns to his right and goes 40 km. How far is he from his starting point?

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Vijay starts walking straight towards East. After walking 75 meters he turns to the left and walks 25 meters straight. Again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 40 meters straight. Again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 meters. How far is he form the starting point?

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

In the given figure what will be the opposite surface of Δ?

Solution:

Observe the figures where ÷ is on the top i.e. figure 1, 3 and 4.

O and × are adjacent to each other.

From figure 4,

+ and O are adjacent to each other.

So the arrangement will be,

+  O  ×

From figure 3, Δ and + are adjacent to each other.

So the arrangement becomes,

Δ  +  O  ×

Hence O will be opposite to Δ as 1st and 3rd element will be opposite to each other.

QUESTION: 23

A piece of paper is folded and cut / punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Directions: In question, which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Solution:

The correct option is (C) because it will complete the two concentric diamond shaped square and also it does not contain a circle similar to its diagonally opposite part.

QUESTION: 25

If a mirror is placed on the line XY, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure?

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Look carefully at the below given figure. The total number of triangles in the figure are:

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

A statement is given followed by two inferences I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.

Statement: Literature is a form of ugliness so intolerable that we have to alter it every six months.

Inferences: I. Authors do not understand the public mind very well.

 II. The public, by and large, is highly susceptible to novelty.

Solution:

The statement asserts that people do not condone a particular trend for a long time and want to change it quite often. The first inference cannot be drawn as nothing about the authors’ mind set can be inferred. Thus only inference II follows because the public wants a change and wants something original all the time. Thus, literature is altered every six months to suit the taste of the public.

QUESTION: 28

In a village one half of the population works in the fields. Half of the people who do not work in fields are working in factories. Select the appropriate diagram in which shared region is best representing people working in factories.

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

A mother’s age is thrice that of her daughter’s age. Six years ago, the mother’s age was five times that of the daughter’s age. What was the daughter’s age 6 years ago?

Solution:

Let the daughter’s age six years ago be ‘y’.

Then mother’s age six years ago = 5 × y

Daughter’s age at present = y + 6

Mothers age at present = (5 × y) + 6

According to the question, mother’s age at present = (5 × y) + 6 = 3 × (y + 6)

Solving, we have:

y = 6

Hence the daughter’s age six years ago was 6 years.

QUESTION: 30

Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct?

5 + 3 × 8 – 12 ÷ 4 = 3

Solution:

Given equation: 5 + 3 × 8 – 12 ÷ 4

1) Interchanging + and ÷ ⇒ 5 ÷ 3 × 8 – 12 + 4 ⇒ 13.33 – 12 + 4 = 5.33 ≠ 3

2) Interchanging + and – ⇒ 5 – 3 × 8 + 12 ÷ 4 ⇒ 5 – 24 + 3 = -16 ≠ 3

3) Interchanging – and ÷ ⇒ 5 + 3 × 8 ÷ 12 – 4 ⇒ 5 + 2 – 4 = 3

4) Interchanging + and × ⇒ 5 × 3 + 8 – 12 ÷ 4 ⇒ 15 + 8 – 3 = 23 – 3 = 20 ≠ 3

Hence interchanging – and ÷ we get the equation correct.

QUESTION: 31

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace ‘*’ signs and to balance the given equation.

8 * 6 * 7 * 3 * 12

Solution:

Rewriting each option by replacing blanks by given symbols and finding the correct combination, we get

1) 8+6-7÷3 = 12 is not correct as L.H.S. is equal to 14 – 2.33 = 11.67

2) 8+6-7+3 = 12 is not correct as L.H.S. is equal to 10.

3) 8+6+7-3 = 12 is not correct as L.H.S. is equal to 18.

4) 8-6+7+3 = 12 is correct as L.H.S. is equal to R.H.S.

Hence answer is - + + =.

QUESTION: 32

Directions: In question, select the missing number from the given responses.

2          6          18

4          10       30

3          8          ?

Solution:

Logic:-

→ (1st Column × 2) + 2 = 2nd Column;  (2nd Column × 2) + 2nd Column = 3rd Column

→ (2 × 2) + 2 = 6 , (6 × 2) + 6 = 18

→ (4 × 2) + 2 = 10 , (10 × 2) + 10 = 30

→ (3 × 2) + 2 = 8 , (8 × 2) + 8 = 24

So, ? = 24.

Hence, Option (A).

QUESTION: 33

Directions: Which one number can be placed at the sign of interrogation? (Read column wise).

Solution:

Looking at alternate terms and in anti clockwise pattern, we see:-

?, 21, 23, 25

We see that there is a difference of 2 between 2 elemets.

By that logic, ? = 19.

Hence, 19 is correct answer.

QUESTION: 34

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Earth, Saturn, Planet, Star

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Statements:

1. All men are bachelors.

2. Some bachelors are teachers.

Conclusions:

I. All men are teachers.

II. Some men are bachelors.

III. Some teachers are not bachelors.

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

The diagram represents Teachers, Singers and Players. Study the diagram and find out how many teachers are also singers.

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – ll are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, 'B' can he represented by 21, 32 etc., and 'W' can be represented by 97, 89 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word 'SAINT’.

Solution:

1) 00, 56, 20, 68, 76 ⇒ S, A, I, N, T

2) 11, 67, 31, 57, 12 ⇒ S, A, I, N, F

3) 22, 78, 20, 02, 44 ⇒ S, A, I, K, C

4) 33, 67, 42, 00, 99 ⇒ S, A, I, S, O

Therefore, “00, 56, 20, 68, 76” are set of number which represent Word ‘SAINT’

QUESTION: 38

Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

a) Stem                b) Leaf                  c) Flower             d) Branch                             e) Fruit

Solution:

The correct order is:

a. Stem

d. Branch

b. Leaf

c. Flower

e. Fruit

The above being the logical order in which they grow.

Hence, Correct order is a, d, b, c, e.

QUESTION: 39

Which of the following word will come in the middle when they are arranged alphabetically as per in a dictionary?

1. Tennis

2. Tendon

3. Tender

4. Tempest

5. Terminal

Solution:

Words as per dictionary will be arranged as follows:

Tempest

Tender

Tendon

Tennis

Terminal

Hence the word in middle is Tendon.

QUESTION: 40

Rearrange the jumbled letters to make a meaningful word and then select the one which is different.

Solution:

After rearranging the jumbled letters,

SUVNE = VENUS

APTLE = PLATE

ARMS = MARS

RUJTIPE = JUPITER

Among these, except one, three words have same category. They all are planets.

Only PLATE is different.

Hence, (APTLE) is true.

QUESTION: 41

Directions: Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Interchanging the first two letters we get.

IHJ → HIJ

ONP → NOP

STR → TSR

LKM → KLM

After interchanging the letters, all results in three consecutive letters except STR.

QUESTION: 42

Direction: Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

Solution:

Here all except Shark are Mammals. Shark is a Fish. 

QUESTION: 43

Directions: In question, find the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution:

From the given options, Punishment is odd one because Reward, Praise, Encourage are the ways to expressing admiration & to boost up one to do better performance.

But Punishment is the imposition of penalty or rough treatment.

Thus Punishment is odd one.

QUESTION: 44

Directions: In the given question select the one which is different from the other three alternatives.

Solution:

Avoid: keep away from
Dodge:  avoid by a quick movement
Flee: run away from a place or situation of danger
Duck:  avoid by moving quickly
From the meaning of the above words we see that flee is the odd one out.

QUESTION: 45

In the following question find the odd word out from the given responses.

Solution:

‘Monetary’, ‘pecuniary’, ‘remuneration’ are all related to money. Only ‘gold’ is unrelated. ‘Gold’ is the precious metal. While gold adds value to a person’s finances, it is not directly related to money.

QUESTION: 46

Directions: Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Prize and Award : Given for distinction or good performance.

Gift: Given without in exchange for anything.

Charity: An activity or gift that benefits as form of good deed.

So, Charity is odd-one out.

QUESTION: 47

Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

211, 283, and 277 is a prime number but 287 does not a prime number therefore 287 is odd one out.

QUESTION: 48

Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

1) 1356 ⇒ 1 + 3 + 5 + 6 = 15

2) 5497 ⇒ 5 + 4 + 9 + 7 = 25

3) 8764 ⇒ 8 + 7 + 6 + 4 = 25

4) 9943 ⇒ 9 + 9 + 4 + 3 = 25

Therefore, 1356 is odd one among given option.

QUESTION: 49

Select the odd number from the given alternatives

Solution:

1) 1716 ⇒ 13 × 12 × 11 = 1716

2) 2730 ⇒ 15 × 14 × 13 = 2730

3) 3360 ⇒ 16 × 15 × 14 = 3360

4) 4086 ⇒ 17 × 16 × 15 = 4080

Here as we can see in above explanation 1716, 2730 and 3360 are in form of

⇒ a(n) = n × (n–1) × (n–2)

But 4086 does not follow this equation.

Therefore, 4086 is odd one out. 

QUESTION: 50

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in the figure below. Find the answer figure which shows the question figure being un-folded:

Question figures:

Solution:
QUESTION: 51

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List – I (Biosphere Reserve)

A. Dehang-Debang

B. Manas

C. Nokrek

D. Similipal

List – II (State)

1. Odisha

2. Meghalaya

3. Assam

4. Arunachal Pradesh

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

Environmental degradation means

Solution:
  • Environmental degradation is the deterioration of the environment through depletion of resources, the destruction of ecosystems, habitat destruction, the extinction of wildlife, and pollution.
  • Thus it means overall lowering of environmental qualities
  • It also means adverse change brought by human activities
  • And it causes ecological imbalance.
QUESTION: 53

What is the full form of VPN?

Solution:

The Virtual Private Network is setup for a certain group of users like the users in one office or of a company etc.

QUESTION: 54

The designers of the Internet Protocol defined an IP address as a ____ bit number.

Solution:

An Internet Protocol address (IP address) is a numerical label assigned to each device connected to a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication. It is a 32 bit number. 

QUESTION: 55

An HTTP request contains how many parts?

Solution:

An HTTP request contains 4 parts. Which are Request Method, URL, Header Fields, and Body

QUESTION: 56

Name the hottest planet.

Solution:

Mercury is the planet that is closest to the sun and therefore gets more direct heat, but even it isn't the hottest. Venus is the second planet from the sun and has a temperature that is maintained at 462 degrees Celsius, no matter where you go on the planet. It is the hottest planet in the solar system.

QUESTION: 57

Which base is present in lime water?

Solution:

Limewater is the common name for a diluted solution of calcium hydroxide. Limewater is prepared by stirring calcium hydroxide in pure water and filtering off the excess undissolved Ca(OH)2. It is basic in nature.

QUESTION: 58

When Sodium (Na), Copper (Cu) and Zinc (Zn) are placed in the order of decreasing reactivity, then their order would be-

Solution:

Reactivity is defined as rate at which a chemical substance tends to undergo a chemical reaction.

The order of reactivity is known as reactivity series, in which reactivity decreases from top to bottom.

In reactivity series copper, gold known as structural metals are at bottom where sodium, potassium are at top of series.

Reactivity series -

K > NA > Ca > Mg > Al > C > Zn > Fe > Sn > Pb > H > Cu > Ag > Au > Pt.

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following is an important ore of zinc?

Solution:

Calamine is an ore of zinc. Galena is an ore of lead. Siderite is an ore of iron and malachite is an ore of copper. An ore is a body of rock which contains a high enough concentration of a metallic or non-metallic resource.

QUESTION: 60

________ is the hardest non metal.

Solution:

Diamond is the hardest non-metal. The hardness of the diamond depends on the purity, perfection and alignment of its atoms in the crystalline structure.

QUESTION: 61

Who invented Crescograph?

Solution:

Crescograph was invented by Jagdish Chandra Bose in the early 20th century. It is a device for measuring growth in plants.

QUESTION: 62

Which one of the following is not a property of electric field lines?

Solution:

Each location in space has its own specific value of electric field strength and direction. If two electric field lines were to intersect at a point, it would mean that there are two different values of electric field at that single point, each with its own direction. This is not possible.

QUESTION: 63

A fountain pen works on which of the following principle?

Solution:

A fountain pen is a nib pen that draws ink from the reservoir through a feed to the nib and deposits it on paper via a combination of gravity and capillary action.

QUESTION: 64

Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have - 

Solution:

A polarized 3D system (Polaroids) uses polarization glasses to create the illusion of three-dimensional images by restricting the light that reaches each eye. 

QUESTION: 65

Which colour light would travel the fastest in the vacuum?

Solution:

Light travels at same speed across all media and in all variants. What differs is the distance which it travels depending upon the wavelength of the colour.

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following diseases is also known as varicella?

Solution:

Chicken pox is an infectious disease causing a mild fever and a rash of itchy inflamed pimples which turn to blisters. It is caused by the herpes zoster virus and mainly affects children.

QUESTION: 67

Which of the following rulers was not involved in the Battles of Panipat?

Solution:

Babur was involved in the first battle of Panipat where he defeated Sikander Lodi. Second battle was fought between Akbar and Hemu where Hemu got defeated. Third battle saw the victory of Ahmed Shah Abdali over Marathas.

QUESTION: 68

Hindu Marriage Act was brought in

Solution:

The Hindu Marriage Act is an Act of the Parliament of India in 1955 as part of the Hindu Code Bills. Three other important acts were also enacted during this time: the Hindu Succession Act (1956), the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act (1956), the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act (1956).

QUESTION: 69

Doha Round is related to which of the following bodies?

Solution:

Doha Round is the current trade-negotiation round of the World Trade Organization (WTO) which commenced in November 2001.

QUESTION: 70

Right to Education is prescribed under which article of the constitution?

Solution:

RTE provides for free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.

QUESTION: 71

The provision of Directive Principles of State Policy has been borrowed from which of the following countries?

Solution:

Many parts of Indian constitution were borrowed from various countries. DPSPs were borrowed from Ireland

QUESTION: 72

National Girl Child day is celebrated every year on ________.

Solution:

National girl child day is celebrated every year on 24 January as a national observance day for the girl child.

QUESTION: 73

Marx  believed in which of the following ideologies?

Solution:

Marx professed a future where capitalism would be abolished by a revolution brought upon by the workers of the world. In the process, Socialism would be established which would then be succeeded by Communism.

QUESTION: 74

The Russian revolution established the supremacy of which of the following ideologies?

Solution:

The Russian Revolution is the collective term for a pair of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which dismantled the Tsarist autocracy and led to the eventual rise of the Soviet Union.

QUESTION: 75

What is the main cause of Anemia?

Solution:

Anemia is a condition in which there is a deficiency of iron in the blood, resulting in pallor and weariness.

QUESTION: 76

The full form of SIM is:

Solution:

SIM or Subscriber Identity Module card is a portable memory chip that is found inside the cell phones.

QUESTION: 77

Photosynthetic vesicle that is found in bacteria is called

Solution:

Chromatophores are pigment-containing and light-reflecting cells, or groups of cells, found in a wide range of animals including amphibians, fish, reptiles, crustaceans and cephalopods.

QUESTION: 78

What is a Cultigen?

Solution:

A cultigen is a plant that has been deliberately altered or selected by humans; it is the result of artificial selection.

QUESTION: 79

Which type of mirror is used as rear view mirror?

Solution:

Convex mirrors are used because they provide a larger field of view than a plane mirror. For example, the passenger-side rear view mirror on a car is convex.

QUESTION: 80

Momentum is a product of

Solution:

Momentum is the product of the mass and velocity of an object.

QUESTION: 81

Optical Fibre generally work on the principle of ________.

Solution:

A fibre optic cable consists of a bundle of glass threads, each of which is capable of transmitting messages modulated onto light waves. Fibre optic is based on the principle of total internal reflection.  

QUESTION: 82

Which of the following determines the luster of metals?

Solution:

When light shines on a lustrous metal, the loosely bound electrons reflect incoming light, giving the metal a shiny appearance.

QUESTION: 83

Cement is a result of which of the following?

Solution:

Cement is a binder substance that sets and hardens and can bind other materials together. It is formed out of the chemical reaction between Limestone and clay.

QUESTION: 84

Iodoform is a type of

Solution:

Iodoform is the organoiodine compound with the formula CHI₃. It has a pale yellow, crystalline, volatile substance, it has a penetrating and distinctive smell.

QUESTION: 85

Kuiper belt is located between which of the following planets?

Solution:

Kuiper belt is a region of the solar system beyond the orbit of Neptune, believed to contain many comets, asteroids, and other small bodies made largely of ice.

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following nutrients is not produced inside an alcoholic’s body?

Solution:

Vitamin K is a group of structurally similar, fat-soluble vitamins the human body requires for complete synthesis of certain proteins that are prerequisites for blood coagulation that the body needs for controlling binding of calcium in bones and other tissues.

QUESTION: 87

Syphilis is a type of

Solution:

Syphilis is a chronic bacterial disease that is contracted chiefly by infection during sexual intercourse.

QUESTION: 88

In which of the following years was NABARD formed?

Solution:

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development is an apex development bank in India, having headquarters in Mumbai and other branches all over the country. It was formed in 1982.

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following articles prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, sex, caste?

Solution:

Article 16 provides for Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Article 17 provides for Abolition of Untouchability and Article 18 provides for Abolition of titles.

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following article is related to the Vice President of India?

Solution:

Article 63 of the Constitution says that there shall be a Vice President of India.

QUESTION: 91

India held its first general elections in

Solution:

The Indian general election of 1951–52 elected the first Lok Sabha since India became independent in August 1947. The Indian National Congress (INC) won a landslide victory, winning 364 of the 489 seats and 45% of the total votes polled.

QUESTION: 92

According to which article of the Indian Constitution is the state of Jammu and Kashmir given a special constitutional status?

Solution:

Article 370 of the Indian Constitution grants a special constitutional status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. As a part of this, the laws passed by the Indian constitution apply to the state of J&K only if they are passed by the J&K legislature.

QUESTION: 93

Which of the given rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the “very soul of the Indian Constitution”?

Solution:

Article 32 of the Indian Constitution which deals with the right to constitutional remedies against the violation of human rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the very soul of the constitution.

QUESTION: 94

The tissue which connects bone to bone is called

Solution:

Ligament is the connected tissue which connects bone to bone. Tendon connects muscle to bone and fasciae connects muscle to muscle.

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following scripts is said to have appeared first in Indian writings?

Solution:

The Brahmi script is one of the most important writing systems in the world by virtue of its time depth and influence. It represents the earliest post-Indus corpus of texts, and some of the earliest historical inscriptions found in India.

QUESTION: 96

The book ‘Indica’ which is related to india was written by?

Solution:

Megasthenes gave an account of India in his book Indica.

QUESTION: 97

Fathometer is used to measure:

Solution:

Fathometer is an instrument that works on the echo system and used to measure the depth of water in an ocean.

QUESTION: 98

Which among the following is popularly known as the laughing gas?

Solution:

Nitrous oxide or N2O, a transparent gas is called laughing gas. The gas is used as an anaesthetic, in cans as well as an oxidizing agent for racing cars.

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following is a type of storage device?

Solution:

Blu-ray disc is a digital optical disc data storage format. It was designed to supersede the DVD format, in that it is capable of storing high-definition video resolution (1080p).

QUESTION: 100

Who has won the Nobel Prize 2017 for Medicine or Physiology?

Solution:

Michael W. Yong, Michael Rosbash and Jeffrey C. Hall have won the Nobel Prize 2017 in Medicine or Physiology for their discoveries of the molecular mechanisms controlling the circadian rhythm. The Nobel Prize in medicine is decided by the Karolinska institute, a medical centre in Sweden.

QUESTION: 101

In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a triangular section is

Solution:

QUESTION: 102

The maximum pitch for rivets or welds in tension zone are:

Solution:

Maximum pitch for rivets or welds in tension zone are 16t or 200 mm whichever is less as per IS 800: 1984 but for rivets in compression zone it is 12t or 200 mm whichever is less.

QUESTION: 103

For single lacing the thickness of flat lacing bars shall not be less than _____times of effective length.

Solution:

Minimum thickness of lacing bar

tmin = l/40 for single lacing

tmin = l/60 for double lacing

Where l = effective length of lacing member

QUESTION: 104

Which of the following shows the CORRECT expression for target mean strength (fcm) of concrete, if the characteristic strength and standard deviation is given by fck and σ respectively?

Solution:

The correct expression as per IS 456 : 2000 to find Target mean strength is :

fcm = fck + 1.65 σ

1.65 is generally a risk factor.

QUESTION: 105

Degree of workability required as per IS 456 : 2000 for lightly Reinforced sections in slabs, beams, walls, columns is

Solution:

As per Art. 7.1 of IS 456 : 2000, For Construction of lightly reinforced sections in slabs, beams, walls etc. degree of workability required is low. Whereas far heavily reinforced sections in slabs, beams etc Degree of work ability required is Medium.

QUESTION: 106

A Pitot-static tube (C = 1) is used to measure air flow. With water in the differential manometer and a gauge difference of 75 mm, what is the value of air speed if ρ = 1.16 kg/m3?

Solution:

QUESTION: 107

The minimum cover for bars in RCC slabs should be:

Solution:

As per IS 456 : 2000, The minimum cover for bars in RCC slabs should be limited to:

  • 15 mm
  • Diameter of bars

(whichever is maximum).

QUESTION: 108

The anchorage value of a hook is assumed 16 times the diameter of the bar if the angle of the bend is

Solution:

The anchorage value is 4 times the diameter for every 45o bend. So for 16 times the diameter the bend is 180o

QUESTION: 109

The assumption that the plane sections normal before bending remain normal after bending is used

Solution:

The assumption that plane sections normal before and after bending remain same is used in both working stress and limit sate method. For this the strain diagram is linear in both working stress and limit state method.

QUESTION: 110

Under service loads the crack width in concrete should not exceed under mild exposure as per IS 456 is:

Solution:

According to IS: 456-2000, the maximum allowable crack width (in mm) for mild type of environmental condition is 0.3 mm.

QUESTION: 111

The chances for the actual strength of concrete to be less than its characteristic strength are 

Solution:

The characteristic strength is defined as the strength of the concrete below which not more than 5% of the test results are expected to fall.

QUESTION: 112

In a simply supported beam carrying uniformly load, the spacing of vertical stirrups near supports would be 

Solution:

In simply supported beam near the support the shear force is maximum. As the vertical stirrups are provided to resist the vertical shear, near the support the stirrups are closer. 

QUESTION: 113

The maximum diameter of the reinforcement bars in R.C.C. slabs is

Solution:

The maximum diameter of bar used in slab should not exceed 1/8 of the total thickness of slab.

QUESTION: 114

Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as _______.

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

Stress-strain curve of concrete is

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab should not exceed its effective depth by ________.

Solution:

The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab should not exceed three times the effective depth of slab. But for distribution bars it is 5 times the effective depth.

QUESTION: 117

According to Witney's theory, the maximum depth of concrete stress block in a balanced RCC beam section of depth 'd' is ________.

Solution:

Witney’s theory is ultimate load theory. Witney replaced the actual parabolic stress diagram by a rectangular stress diagram such that the C.G of both the diagrams lies at same point and their areas are also equal. The maximum depth of concrete stress block in a balanced RCC beam is 0.53 d.

QUESTION: 118

A reinforced cantilever beam of span 4 m has a cross section of 150x500 mm. If checked for lateral stability and deflection, the beam will ________.

Solution:

Check for deflection,

For catilever beam permissible value is 7, so the beam is not safe in deflection.

Check for lateral stability,

l≯25b=25×150=3750mm=3.75m

For lateral stability length ≯ 3.75 m

So the beam is not laterally stable.

Option 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 119

The limits of percentage 'p' of the longitudinal reinforcement in a column are given by _________.

Solution:

As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum percentage of steel is 0.8% and maximum percentage of steel is 6%. Although as per practical consideration the maximum percentage of steel is limited to 4% only.

QUESTION: 120

The process of adding water to lime to convert it into a hydrated lime is termed as:

Solution:

Slaking is the process in which quick lime reacts with water, during this reaction, it swells, cracks, and falls out as calcium hydroxide.

QUESTION: 121

If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of size 60 mm, the aggregates will be known as elongated aggregate if its length is not less than

Solution:

An aggregate is said to be elongated if its greatest dimension is greater than 1.8 times the mean diameter.

Length of aggregate ≮ 1.8 × 67.5

= 121.5 mm

QUESTION: 122

Which of the following compound affects the ultimate strength of cement?

Solution:

Dicalcium silicate is the last compound that is formed after the addition of water in the cement which may require a year or so for its formation. It is responsible for the progressive strength of cement. While Tricalcium silicate is responsible for the early development of strength. Tricalcium aluminate is responsible for the maximum evolution of heat of hydration.

QUESTION: 123

Which of the following is the correct reason for soaking the brick in water before its use?

Solution:

Soaking of bricks is water before its use is done because wetting of bricks removes dirt, sand and dust. Soaked bricks prevents suction of water from the wet mortar. If dry bricks are used then it will absorb water from mortar and mortar will become, dry and cannot attain any strength. The main reason for soaking the brick is to prevent adsorption of moisture from mortar by bricks.

QUESTION: 124

The defect in timber that arises due to the swelling caused by growth of layers of sap wood over the wounds after branch is cut off is called as ________.

Solution:

Overgrowth of Timber in some parts of a tree may result in some typical defects. Rind gall are quite common. A rind gall is simply a highly thickened, enlarged wood cover developed over an injured part of the tree. The meaning of rind is bark and gall is abnormal growth. So abnormal growth of the bark of the trees is called Rind galls. Improper cutting of branches causes this abnormal growth

Shakes are defects that occur around the annual ring or growth ring of timber.

QUESTION: 125

The defect that is caused by falling of rain water on the hot surfaces of the bricks is known as ________.

Solution:

Defects in Bricks are:

1. Bloating: This defect observed as spongy swollen mass over the surface of burned bricks is caused due to presence of excess carbonaceous matter and sulphur in brick clay.

2. Chuffs: The deformation of the shape of bricks caused by the rain water falling on hot bricks is known as chuffs.

3. Laminations: These are caused by the entrapped air in the voids of clay. Laminations produce thin lamina on the brick faces which weather out on exposure. Such bricks are weak in structure.

QUESTION: 126

The optimum number of revolutions in which concrete is required to be mixed in a mixer machine is 

Solution:

To make concrete economical, mixing of concrete is performed in a machine mixer that leads to 10% saving in quantity of cement and the optimum number of revolutions in which concrete is required to be mixed in a mixer machine is 20 revolutions in 2.5 or 3 minutes.

QUESTION: 127

Which among the following is the defect in timber due to conversion

1. Diagonal Grain

2. Wane

3. Torn grain

4. Blue stain

5. Cup

6. Dry rot

Solution:

Defects due to conversion are: Chip mark, Torn grain, Diagonal grain, wane

Defects due to Fungi are: Heart Rot, Brown Rot, White Rot, Dry rot, wet rot, sap stain, blue stain

Defects due to Natural forces are: cup shakes, Ring shakes, heart shakes, radial shakes

Defects due to seasoning are: Bow, warp, cup and twist

QUESTION: 128

which among the following is a correct sequence for the preparation of clay in the manufacturing of bricks

Solution:

In the preparation of clay, first Unsoiling of clay is done in which top 200 mm soil is thrown out as it contains most of the impurities in it, then digging is done in which soil is dug out and is thrown on a level field to make it ready for the next operation of cleaning then cleaning of impurities is performed, after cleaning, cleaned clay is exposed to the atmosphere for few weeks to few months in order to carry out its softening, Ripening and mellowing etc then ingredients of the brick earth is spread over the clay in required proportion and at last tempering is done in a pug mill.

QUESTION: 129

Which IS code gives specifications about cement plaster?

Solution:

IS 1661: 1972 = Code of Practice for application of cement and cement-lime plaster finishes.

IS 1261: 1956 = Code of Practice for seam welding in mild steel.

QUESTION: 130

Properties of concrete can broadly be divided into:

Solution:

Properties of concrete can broadly divided in to two categories:

(i) Properties of hardened Concrete

(ii) Properties of fresh concrete

QUESTION: 131

Calculate the number of bricks in 20 cubic metres brick works.

 

Solution:

No of Brinks required in 1 m3 of brickwork

No. of Bricks required in 20m3 of brickwork is = 20 × 500 = 10000

QUESTION: 132

Which IS code gives details regarding water to be used in concrete?

Solution:

Water content and water cement ratio related provisions are given in IS 456 : 2000

IS 383 → specification for Coarse and fine aggregates.

QUESTION: 133

The Black marble is found in _______ district

Solution:

Generally white marble is found in Jabalpur district (M.P.) and Black marble in Jaipur.

QUESTION: 134

Which of the following is the most fire-resistant paints?

Solution:

Asbestos paints are used in residences, schools, and other public buildings as well as the Commercial establishment and maritime vessels. Asbestos paint is an inexpensive, efficient and more fire-resistant paint which has been widely used in many applications for decades.

Enamel paint is paint that air dries to a hard, usually glossy finish. Used for coating surfaces that are outdoors or otherwise subjected to hard wear or variations in temperature, it should not be confused with decorated objects in “painted enamel”.

QUESTION: 135

In which of the following pairs of trees, both trees yield soft wood?

Solution:

Chir and Deodar both yield soft wood hence are called conifers trees, as they possess distinct annular rings but indistinct medullary rays. While sal, Teak, Shishum are Decideous trees which yield hard woods.

QUESTION: 136

Inner part of a timber log surrounding the pith, is called

Solution:

 

 

QUESTION: 137

The main constituent of cement which is responsible for the initial setting of cement is

Solution:

The initial setting of Portland cement is due to tricalcium aluminate. Tricalcium silicate hydrates quickly and contributes more to the early strength. The contribution of dicalcium silicate takes place after 7 days and may continue for up to 1 year. Tricalcium aluminate hydrates quickly, and generates much heat and makes only a small contribution to the strength within the first 24 hours. Tetracalcium alumino-ferrite is comparatively inactive.

QUESTION: 138

The slump recommended for mass concrete is about

Solution:

The slump recommended for mass concrete is about 25 mm to 50 mm.

QUESTION: 139

The purpose of pointing is

Solution:

Pointing, in building maintenance, the technique of repairing mortar joints between bricks or other masonry elements. When aging mortar joints crack and disintegrate, the defective mortar is removed by hand or power tool and replaced with fresh mortar, preferably of the same composition as the original. All of the above statements are correct.

QUESTION: 140

Loss on ignition in cement should not exceed

Solution:

Loss on ignition is calculated by heating up a cement sample to 900 – 1000°C (1650 – 1830°F) until a constant weight is obtained. The weight loss of the sample due to heating is then determined. A high loss on ignition can indicate pre-hydration and carbonation, which may be caused by improper and prolonged storage or adulteration during transport. Loss on ignition in cement should not exceed 5%

QUESTION: 141

The process of heating the limestone to redness in contact with air is termed as...

Solution:

Calcination or calcining is a thermal treatment process to bring about a thermal decomposition. The process takes place below the melting point of the product. The name calcination is derived from the Latin word ‘Calcinare’ which mean to burn lime.

QUESTION: 142

A quick-setting cement has an initial setting time of about

Solution:

The initial setting time can be defined as the time taken by paste to stiffen to such an extent that the Vicatt’s needle is not permitted to move down through the paste through 25 mm. With Portland cement and rapid hardening cement, the normal initial setting time should not be less than 30 minutes and the final setting time should not be more than 10 hours. With a quick setting cement, the initial setting time should not be less than 5 minutes and the final setting time should not be more than 30 minutes.

QUESTION: 143

The total length of a stair in a horizontal plane is known as -

Solution:

Run is the total length of stair in a horizontal plane, including landings.

Flight – It is a series of steps without any platform or landing or breaks in their direction.

Riser – It is the vertical portion of a step providing a support to the tread.

QUESTION: 144

The percentage of water for normal consistency is _____.

Solution:

The percentage of water for normal consistency is 20% to 30% .

QUESTION: 145

What will be the value of Poisson’s ratio, it the elasticity and rigidity of the material is 200 GPa and 66.67 GPa?

Solution:

E = 2G (1 + μ)

200 = 2 × 66.67 (1 + μ)

μ = 0.5

QUESTION: 146

In case of biaxial stress (tensile), the maximum value of shear stress is given by

Solution:

In case of biaxial stress,

i.e. It is the magnitude of difference between their principal stresses divided by 2.

QUESTION: 147

If the moment of inertia of a section about its axis is l and its effective sectional area is A, its radius of gyration r about the axis is

Solution:

Moment of Inertia = Ar2

Where A = Area of cross section

R = radius of gyration

QUESTION: 148

The maximum deflection due to a load W at the free end of a cantilever of length L and having flexural rigidity EI is

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

The resultant of two forces each equal to P and acting at right angles is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 150

Moment of Inertia for a circular section has 20 cm diameter, is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 151

The property of the material to regain its original shape after deformation when the external forces are removed is ________.

Solution:

Elasticity is the property of a material to regain its original shape after deformation when the external forces are removed. All materials are plastic to some extent but the degree varies, for example, both mild steel and rubber are elastic materials but steel is more elastic than rubber.

Plasticity of a material is its ability to undergo some degree of permanent deformation without rupture or failure. This property is important in forming, shaping, extruding and many other hot and cold working processes.

Durability is defined as the ability of a product to perform its required function over a lengthy period under normal conditions of use without excessive expenditure on maintenance or repair.

QUESTION: 152

The equivalent length of the column when both the ends are fixed is ________.

Solution:

QUESTION: 153

The total area under the stress-strain curve of a mild steel specimen tested up to failure under tension is a measure of its:

Solution:

Strength is defined as the ability of the material to resist, without rupture, external forces causing various types of stresses. Breaking strength is the ability of a material to withstand a pulling or tensile force.

Toughness is defined as the ability of the material to absorb energy before fracture takes place. In other words, toughness is the energy for failure by fracture. Toughness is measured by a quantity called modulus of toughness. Modulus of toughness is the total area under a stress-strain curve in tension test, which also represents the work done to fracture the specimen.

Hardness is defined as the resistance of a material to penetration or permanent deformation. It usually indicates resistance to abrasion, scratching, cutting or shaping.

Stiffness or rigidity is defined as the ability of the material to resist deformation under the action of external load. Modulus of elasticity is the measure of stiffness. 

QUESTION: 154

The neutral axis of a beam is subjected to _________ stress.

Solution:

The neutral axis is an axis in the cross-section of a beam (a member resisting bending) or shaft along which there are no longitudinal stresses or strains. If the section is symmetric, isotropic and is not curved before a bend occurs, then the neutral axis is at the geometric centroid. All fibers on one side of the neutral axis are in a state of tension, while those on the opposite side are in compression.

QUESTION: 155

In the cross-section of a rectangular beam, what is the ratio of the average shear stress to the maximum shear stress?

Solution:

 

Average shear stress  

 

Maximum shear stress 

 

QUESTION: 156

A shaft turns at 150 rpm under a torque of 100 Nm. Power transmitted is

Solution:

Power transmitted is given by

= 500 π W = 0.5 π kW

QUESTION: 157

Which of the following is not the displacement method?

Solution:

Force / Flexibility /                                          Displacement / Stiffness /

Compatibility Method                                     Equilibrium Method

(i) Virtual work/Unit load method                  (i) Slope deflection method

(ii) Method of consistent deformation           (ii) Moment distribution method

(iii) Three-moment theorem                           (iii) Minimum potential energy method

(iv) Column analogy method

(v) Elastic center method

(vi) Castigliano’s theorem of minimum strain energy

(vii) Maxwell-Mohr equation

Difference between Force Method and Displacement Method

QUESTION: 158

The water utilizable by plants is available in the form of:

Solution:

Gravitational water: Gravitational water occupies the larger soil pores (macropores) and moves down readily under the force of gravity. Water in excess of the field capacity is termed gravitational water. Gravitational water is of no use to plants because it occupies the larger pores.

Hygroscopic water: The water that held tightly on the surface of the soil colloidal particle is known as hygroscopic water. It is essentially non-liquid and moves primarily in the vapour form. Hygroscopic water held so tenaciously by soil particles that plants cannot absorb it.

Capillary water: Capillary water is held in the capillary pores (micropores). Capillary water is retained on the soil particles by surface forces. It is held so strongly that gravity cannot remove it from the soil particles. The molecules of capillary water are free and mobile and are present in a liquid state. Due to this reason, it evaporates easily at ordinary temperature though it is held firmly by the soil particle; plant roots are able to absorb it.

QUESTION: 159

Lacey’s regime theory is not applicable to a channel in

Solution:

Lacey said that even a channel showing no silting no scouring may actually not be in the regime. He differentiated three regime conditions,

(i) True regime

(ii) Initial regime and

(iii) Final regime

According to him, a channel which is under ‘initial’ regime is not a channel in a regime, as there is no silting or scouring and hence regime theory is not applicable to such channels. His theory is therefore applicable only to those channels, which are either in true regime or in the final regime.

QUESTION: 160

For a 120 m Radius of curve, the maximum grade compensation required is

Solution:

Grade compensation =

But subjected to maximum value of 

QUESTION: 161

What is the value of the coefficient of lateral friction as per the IRC?

Solution:

As per IRC, the coefficient of lateral friction recommended is 0.15.

Also, for the coefficient of longitudinal friction, the recommended value is (0.35 - 0.40).

QUESTION: 162

Calculate the diameter of a pipe of 32000 m long, if it is equivalent to another pipe of 0.2 m diameter and 1000 m long.

Solution:

Using dupit’s equation

D1 = 0.4 m

QUESTION: 163

Which of the following instrument is used for measuring the discharge?

Solution:

Venturimeter: Used to measure discharge in the pipe flow.

Manometer: Measure low, medium and high gauge as well as vacuum pressure of liquids and gases both.

Current meter: Used to measure the velocity of water in the rivers

Vane anemometer: Used for measuring the velocity and volumetric flow rate on air grills in residential buildings and utility.

QUESTION: 164

Calculate the kinematic viscosity (stoke) of the fluid, if the dynamic viscosity of fluid is 0.5 poise and specific gravity is 0.4?

Solution:

Kinematicviscosity(ν)

ν = 1.25 × 10-4 m2/sec

ν = 1.25 cm2/sec

ν = 1.25 stokes

QUESTION: 165

A rectangular block of dimensions 2 m × 1 m × 1 m is floating in the water with immersing depth of 0.5 m. What is the weight of block (kN) if unit weight of water is 10 kN/cubic meter.

Solution:
QUESTION: 166

The diameter of droplet is 0.075 mm. What is the intensity of the pressure (N/sq. cm) developed in the droplet by surface tension of 0.000075 N/mm?

Solution:

Intensity of Pressure

6 = Surface tension

D = Diameter of droplet

ΔP = 0.4 N/cm2

QUESTION: 167

The flow in a channel is laminar and Reynolds number is given by 1200. What is the friction factor for the channel?

Solution:

Friction factor is given by =

F = 0.053

QUESTION: 168

What is the value of the angle (degree) between stream lines and equipotential lines at the point of intersection in the flow net?

Solution:
QUESTION: 169

For a fluid flow problem in a distorted model, calculate the discharge scale ratio if horizontal scale ratio is 1/4 and vertical scale ratio is 1/9

Solution:

For a distorted model, discharge scale ratio is given by

QUESTION: 170

A fluid flows through a round pipe with Reynold’s number 1000. The shear stress is