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# Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 17

## 200 Questions MCQ Test Mock test series of SSC JE Civil Engineering | Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 17

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This mock test of Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 17 for Civil Engineering (CE) helps you for every Civil Engineering (CE) entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for Civil Engineering (CE) Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 17 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 17 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Civil Engineering (CE) students definitely take this Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 17 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Test: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) Technical- 17 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Civil Engineering (CE) on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

### In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternativesClock : Needle : : ? : ?

Solution:

Just as Needle is a part/component of the Clock, similarly Blade is a part/component of Fan.

Thus the related word pair is Fan : Blade.

QUESTION: 2

### In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.Apple : Fruit : : Microscope : ?

Solution:

Just as Apple is a Fruit, similarly Microscope is an Instrument.

Thus Microscope is related to Instrument.

QUESTION: 3

### In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.Watt : Power : : Knot : ?

Solution:

Just as Watt is the unit of Power, similarly Knot is the unit of Speed.

Thus Knot is related to Speed.

QUESTION: 4

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.FLIP : ZAGK : : ZEAL : ?

Solution:

Adding the alphabetical positions of each letter from left,

FLIP : ZAGK ⇒ 43 : 45 ⇒ 45 - 43 = 2 ⇒ Difference is 2

ZEAL : WPBE ⇒ 44 : 46 ⇒ 44 - 46 = 2 ⇒ Difference is 2.

QUESTION: 5

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.UNIT : AIOO : : STAR : ?

Solution:

In UNIT : AIOO

U + 6 = A

N - 5 = I

I + 6 = O

T - 5 = O

Similarly,

S + 6 = Y

T - 5 = O

A + 6 = G

R - 5 = M

Thus STAR is related to YOGM

QUESTION: 6

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.NW : KT ∷ XS : ?

Solution:

Considering the alphabetical positions of the letters.

NW : KT ∷ XS : ?

(14 - 23) : (11 - 20) ∷ (24 - 19) : ?

9 : 9 ∷ 5 : ?

OJ → 15 - 10 ⇒ 5

Hence XS is related to OJ.

QUESTION: 7

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.21 : 72 : : 27 : ?

Solution:

(3 × 7) : (7 - 1) × 12 ∷ (3 × 9) : (9 - 1) × 12

⇒ 21 : 72 ∷ 27 : 96

Thus, 27 is related to 96..

QUESTION: 8

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.16 : 258 : : 18 : ?

Solution:

In 16 : 258

16 × 16 = 256; 256 + 2 = 258

Similarly,

18 × 18 = 324, 324 + 2 = 326

Hence 18 is related to 326.

QUESTION: 9

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.64 : 73 : : 81 : ?

Solution:

82 : (82 + 9) ∷ 92 : (92 + 10)

⇒ 64 : 73 ∷ 81 : 91

Hence, 81 is related to 91

QUESTION: 10

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Cheetah, Leopard and Puma belong to Cat family whereas Jackal belongs to Dog family.

Thus Jackal is the odd word.

QUESTION: 11

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Tramway, Metro rail, and Monorail are all types of Train whereas Bus is different.

Therefore, “Bus” is the odd word among given alternatives.

QUESTION: 12

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Solution:

N - 6 = H; H - 4 = D

P - 6 = J; J - 4 = F

V - 6 = P; P - 4 = L

J - 7 = C; C - 4 = Y

Hence “JCY” is the odd letters from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 13

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Solution:

With reference to English alphabet,

1) M is 13th alphabet from the left and N is 13th alphabet from the right.

2) G is 7th alphabet from the left and T is 7th alphabet from the right.

3) K is 11th alphabet from the left and P is 11th alphabet from the right.

4) D is 4th alphabet from the left but V is 5th alphabet from the right.

Hence “DV” is the odd letters from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 14

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Y - 5 = T; T - 5 = O; O - 5 = J

N - 5 = I; I - 6 = C; C - 5 = X

W - 5 = R; R - 5 = M; M - 5 = H

F - 5 = A; A - 5 = V; V - 5 = Q

Hence “NICX" is the odd letters from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 15

In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

11 - (112 + 2) ⇒ 121 + 2 = 123

14 - (142 + 2) ⇒ 196 + 2 = 198

22 - (222 + 2) ⇒ 484 + 2 = 486

27 - (27- 2) ⇒ 729 - 2 = 727

Hence “27 - 727” is the odd number from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 16

In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

113, 137 and 127 are prime numbers but 153 is not a prime number. (It is divisible by 3, 9, 17, 51)

QUESTION: 17

In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

12 - 28 ⇒ The difference is 16.

18 - 36 ⇒ The difference is 18.

14 - 30 ⇒ The difference is 16.

16 - 32 ⇒ The difference is 16.

Hence “18 - 36” is the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 18

According to the dictionary, which of the following word will come at the second position?

1) General

2) Gelatin

3) Gender

4) Gesture

5) Gentle

Solution:

According to dictionary order, words will be arranged as follows,

2) Gelatin

3) Gender

1) General

5) Gentle

4) Gesture

Hence, Gender would come in the second position.

QUESTION: 19

From the given alternatives, according to the dictionary, which word will come at LAST position?

Solution:

The dictionary order arrangement would be:-

3) Mocking

2) Monitor

1) Morning

4) Mosaic

Hence, "Mosaic" would come at last.

QUESTION: 20

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1) Lucent

2) Lunar

3) Lucky

4) Luggage

5) Luxury

Solution:

The dictionary order arrangement would be:-

1) Lucent

3) Lucky

4) Luggage

2) Lunar

5) Luxury

Hence, “13425” is the correct order as they will occur in the dictionar

QUESTION: 21

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.MMF, FGA, YAV, RUQ, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,

M - 7 = F; F - 7 = Y; Y - 7 = R; R - 7 = K

M - 6 = G; G - 6 = A; A - 6 = U; U - 6 = O

F - 5 = A; A - 5 = V; V - 5 = Q; Q - 5 = L

Hence, KOL is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 22

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.SGB, UJZ, WMX, YPV, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,

S + 2 = U; U + 2 = W; W + 2 = Y; Y + 2 = A

G + 3 = J; J + 3 = M; M + 3 = P; P + 3 = S

B - 2 = Z; Z - 2 = X; X - 2 = V; V - 2 = T

QUESTION: 23

In the following question, select the wrong term from the given alternatives.H6D, J13C, L28Z, N58X, P122V

Solution: Therefore, the wrong term is N58X.

QUESTION: 24

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.LPN, RUR, XZV, DEZ, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,

L + 6 = R; R + 6 = X; X + 6 = D; D + 6 = J

P + 5 = U; U + 5 = Z; Z + 5 = E; E + 5 = J

N + 4 = R; R + 4 = V; V + 4 = Z; Z + 4 = D

QUESTION: 25

In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.26, 30, 39, 55, 80, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,

26 + 22 = 30

30 + 32 = 39

39 + 42 = 55

55 + 52 = 80

80 + 62 = 116

Thus the correct answer is 116.

QUESTION: 26

In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

39, 15, 54, 69, 123, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,

39 + 15 = 54

15 + 54 = 69

54 + 69 = 123

69 + 123 = 192

Thus the next number will be 192.

QUESTION: 27

In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.11, 38, 80, 243, 488, ?

Solution:

The patter followed here is,

(11 × 3) + 5 = 38

(38 × 2) + 4 = 80

(80 × 3) + 3 = 243

(243 × 2) + 2 = 488

(488 × 3) + 1 = 1465

QUESTION: 28

Five people are standing in a line. R is between S and P. T is immediately ahead of Q and P is immediately ahead of T. Who is standing second last in the line?

Solution:

R is between S and P.

⇒ S/P > R > P/S

T is immediately ahead of Q and P is immediately ahead of T.

⇒ S > R > P > T > Q

Thus second last in the line is T.

QUESTION: 29

At a family gathering, C explained his relation with D by saying that D is the grandson of C's mother's mother. If C's mother has no siblings, then how is D's brother related to C?

Solution:

C’s mother’s mother ⇒ C’s grandmother.

D is grandson of C’s mother’s mother ⇒ D is grandson of C’s grandmother.

Since C’s mother has no siblings so C and D are children of C''s mother.

Thus, D brother will be the brother of C.

QUESTION: 30

From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.DEPASTURES

Solution:

The word ‘Sugar’ cannot be formed using the letters of the word ‘DEPASTURES’ because the letter ‘g’ is not present in ‘DEPASTURES’.

QUESTION: 31

If ORGANISED is coded as QQIYPGUCF, then how will SUM be coded as?

Solution:

O + 2 = Q

R - 2 = Q

G + 2 = I

A - 2 = Y

N + 2 = P

I - 2 = G

S + 2 = U

E - 2 = C

D + 2 = F

Similarly,

S + 2 = U

U - 2 = S

M + 2 = O

QUESTION: 32

If ‘Mango, lemon and melon are fruits’ is written as 439516; ‘Mango and melon are yellow’ is 04516 and ‘Melon is green’ is 857, which digit represents ‘melon’?

Solution:

It is given that,

Mango, lemon and melon are fruits → 4 3 9 5 1 6

Mango and melon are yellow → 0 4 5 1 6

Melon is green → 8 5 7

Here Melon is common in all three sentences and 5 is common in all three coded numbers,

So 5 is the code for Melon.

QUESTION: 33

In a certain code language, '+' represents '-', '-' represents '×', '×' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '+'. Find out the answer to the following question.78 × 3 + 12 - 18 ÷ 10 = ?

Solution:

Given equation ⇒ 78 × 3 + 12 - 18 ÷ 10 = ? After Interchange,

⇒ 78 ÷ 3 - 12 × 18 + 10

⇒ 26 - 216 + 10

⇒ -180

QUESTION: 34

If 82 \$ 95 = 10, 72 \$ 74 = 8 and 92 \$ 63 = 10 then find the value of 84 \$ 52 = ?

Solution:

82 \$ 95 = 10

⇒ (8 - 2) + (9 - 5)

⇒ 6 + 4 = 10

72 \$ 74 = 8

⇒ (7 - 2) + (7 - 4)

⇒ 5 + 3 = 8

92 \$ 63 = 10

⇒ (9 - 2) + (6 - 3)

⇒ 7 + 3 = 10

Similarly,

84 \$ 52

⇒ (8 - 4) + (5 - 2)

⇒ 4 + 3 = 7

QUESTION: 35

If A \$ B means A is daughter of B, A # B means A is brother of B and If A ⋆ B means A is father of B, then what does P \$ Q ⋆ R # S mean?

Solution:

P \$ Q ⋆ R # S ⇒ P is daughter of Q, Q is father of R, R is brother of S. ⇒ P, R and S are siblings and P is a girl and R is a boy

⇒ P is sister of S.

QUESTION: 36

Select the missing number from the given responses Solution:

First column + second column + 2 = third column

9 + 7 + 2 = 18

12 + 5 + 2 = 19

Similarly,

7 + 13 + 2 = 22

QUESTION: 37

Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

AABAAAAAC, ABAAAAACA, BAAAAACAA, AAAAACAAB, AAAACAABA, ________.

Solution:

According to the sequence, B and C are shifting one position ahead of its previous position at every step.

Thus next term would be AAACAABAA.

QUESTION: 38

The fitness club has organised a race. The route goes 4.5 km West from the starting point. It then turns North and goes 3 kms, then turns East and goes 4.5 km, finally it turns left and goes 1.5 km to reach the end point. Where is the end point with respect to the start point?

Solution:

The diagram below shows the route of the race, Clearly we can see that the end point is 4.5km in north direction from his starting point.

QUESTION: 39

One morning a football player while playing football was running towards the sun with his football. While running he turns 45 degrees twice and again starts running. If his shadow is towards his right in which direction is he facing after both turns?

Solution:

In the morning sun rises in the east.

So the shadow will fall toward the west. Since the shadow is towards his right, it means he is facing towards South.

Hence, south is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 40

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.Statements:I. Some blue are yellow.II. Some yellow are green.Conclusions:I. Some blue are green.II. Some blue are not green.

I. Some blue are yellow.

II. Some yellow are green.

Conclusions:

I. Some blue are green.

II. Some blue are not green.

Solution:

Drawing a Venn diagram of given statement, Conclusions:

I. Some blue are green → not follows (as there is possibility but nothing is definite about it)

II. Some blue are not green → not follows (as there is possibility but nothing is definite about it)

Here conclusion I and II form a complimentary as either conclusion I or II follows.

Therefore, either conclusion I or II follows.

QUESTION: 41

In the following question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. All Toy are Blue.

II. No Blue is a Pen.

III. Some Pen are Green.

Conclusions:

I. Some Toy are Green.

II. No Green is a Blue.

III. No Toy is Pen.

Solution:

Consider the following least possible Venn diagram, Conclusions:

I. Some Toy are Green → False (It is possible but not definite).

II. No Green is a Blue → False (It is possible but not definite).

III. No Toy is Pen → True (as all toy are blue and no blue is pen).

Hence, only conclusion III follows.

QUESTION: 42

Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure? Solution:  Thus, the correct answer is option 3).

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure? Solution: Hence figures in option 1 can be combined to form the question figure.

QUESTION: 44

In the following figure, rectangle represents Mechanics, circle represents illustrators, triangle represents Singers and square represents Mothers. Which set of letters represents illustrators who are not singers? Solution: Hence, the correct answer is “ABC”.

QUESTION: 45

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Male, Teacher, Truck

Solution:

Some teachers are male and truck is a vehicles which cannot have any relation with male or teacher. Hence diagram at option 3 correctly represents the relationship among the given classes.

QUESTION: 46

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure? Solution: Hence, option 2 completes the pattern in the question figure.

QUESTION: 47

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded. Solution: Hence option 1 has the given figure embedded in it.

QUESTION: 48

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened? Solution: QUESTION: 49

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure? Solution: Hence, the correct answer is option ‘2’.

QUESTION: 50

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘P’ can be represented by 79, 59 ect and ‘I’ can be represented by 31, 20 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘TURF’.  Solution:

1) 67, 99, 75, 23 ⇒ X U R L

2) 89, 56, 41, 34 ⇒ X U D M

3) 87, 97, 42, 12 ⇒ Y T C L

4) 97, 56, 75, 24  T U R F

Thus 97, 56, 75, 24 is set of number that represent word “TURF”.

QUESTION: 51

In which language Xhoihobote Dhemalite film is released?

Solution:
• Xhoihobote Dhemalite is a film released in the Assamese language.
• Bidyut Kotoky is the director of this film.
• The film gets eight nominations in US film festival.
• The film is based on the true story of the Children who went through the psychological trauma during Assam agitation in 1980.
• The film achieved the 'Best Foreign Film Award' in the Hollywood International CineFest in 2017.
• The film also achieved the three top awards at the third Love International Film Festival held in Los Angeles.
QUESTION: 52

Whom among the following has won the 'UN Human Rights Prize' for the year 2018?

Solution:
• Pakistan’s human rights activist and lawyer Asma Jahangir has been posthumously awarded the UN Prize along with three other winners.
• Rebeca Gyumi of Tanzania, Brazil’s first indigenous lawyer Joenia Wapichana and Ireland’s human rights organisation Front Line Defenders are the other winners of the prize.
• The Prize is an honorary award given for outstanding achievement in human rights.
QUESTION: 53

Which country hosted the inaugural BRICS Fashion Show and Fashion Business Forum on 24 October 2018?

Solution:
• The BRICS nations have signed a declaration to accelerate creative and sustainable cultural cooperation on 31 October 2018.
• The declaration will see Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa (BRICS) cooperating in fashion, culture and animation.
• South Africa hosted an inaugural BRICS Fashion Show and Fashion Business Forum on 24 October 2018.
QUESTION: 54

Which of the following has signed a MoU with the railways to cater to pilgrims availing the 'Mukhyamantri Tirth Yatra Yojana' on 1 November 2018?

Solution:
• The Delhi government signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the railways to cater to pilgrims availing the 'Mukhyamantri Tirth Yatra Yojana' on 1 November 2018.
• per the agreement, Railways will provide separate coaches to pilgrims who are selected under the Yojana.
• The scheme will enable 1,100 senior citizens of Delhi every year to undertake free pilgrimage.
QUESTION: 55

'The Tall Man Biju Patnaik' is a book authored by ________.

Solution:

'The Tall Man Biju Patnaik' is a book authored by Sundar Ganesan. The book was released on January 27, 2018. QUESTION: 56

Which among the following is an Abiotic component of environment?

Solution:

Abiotic component of environment include water, light, radiation, temperature, humidity, atmosphere and soil.

QUESTION: 57

In which year 'Project Tiger' was launched?

Solution:

Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme launched in 1973 by the Government of India during Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's tenure.

The project aims at ensuring

1) a viable population of Bengal Tigers in their natural habitats,

2) protecting them from extinction,

3) preserving areas of biological importance as a natural heritage

QUESTION: 58

The method of soil conservation in the coastal and dry regions where rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect soil cover is called?

Solution:

‘Shelterbelts’ is the method of soil conservation in the coastal and dry regions where rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect soil cover.

QUESTION: 59

Where is International Solar Alliance headquarters situated –

Solution:

In January 2016, Prime Minister Narendra Modi, and the French President François Hollande jointly laid the foundation stone of the ISA Headquarters and inaugurated the interim Secretariat at the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) in Gwalpahari, Gurugram, India.

QUESTION: 60

Which of the following has issued the notification for setting up Sessions Courts in all states and union territories?

Solution:
• The Finance Ministry has issued the notification for setting up Sessions Courts in all states and union territories.
• The Session court will act as Special Courts for the trial of offences under the benami transaction law.
• Benami transaction refers to transactions made in a fictitious name, or the owner is not aware of the ownership of the property.
QUESTION: 61

Which of the following countries will host the fourth summer youth Olympic games in 2022?

Solution:

In 2022, Senegal will host the fourth summer youth Olympic games. Senegal has thus become the first African country to host an Olympic event. The International Olympic Committee (IOC) unanimously made the decision in Buenos Aires. The 2022 Youth Olympics will take place in Senegal between May and June.

QUESTION: 62

Who won Mercedes Cup 2018?

Solution:

Roger Federer wins Mercedes Cup 2018 in Stuttgart by beating Milos Raonic of Canada. He had already secured number one in the world ranking by defeating Nick Kyrgios in the semi-final and this is his 98th tour title. He will be competing at Halle Open in June 2018

QUESTION: 63

What was the symbol of the Gupta Empire?​

Solution:

The royal symbol of the Gupta Empire was Garuda, the mythic eagle.​

QUESTION: 64

Parthians came after the end of which of these dynasties?

Solution:

The Parthian dynasty was established after the Parthian ruler Gondophares I defeated and conquered the Shakas. They ruled northwestern India during the 1st century AD. They originally belonged to Iran and moved to India later. They occupied only a little portion of north-western India as compared to the Greeks and Shakas.

QUESTION: 65

_______ was a Hindu saint associated with the Bhakti movement and the Varkari sect of Maharashtra.

Solution:

Sant Gora Kumbhar was a Hindu saint associated with the Bhakti movement and the Varkari sect of Maharashtra. This sect attached least importance to the position/status of person in society.

QUESTION: 66

Which among the following is NOT correctly matched?

Solution: QUESTION: 67

Who was the patrons of Sangama Literature?

Solution:

Sangam literature is one of the main sources used for documenting the early history of the ancient Tamil country. The ancient Sangam poems mention numerous kings and princes, the existence of some of whom have been confirmed through archaeological evidence.

QUESTION: 68

Which part of Indian Constitution deals with Elections?

Solution:

Part XV of Indian Constitution deals with Elections.

• Part XV of Indian Constitution consists of Articles 324-329, which deals exclusively with Indian electoral system.
QUESTION: 69

Which position’s electoral process was changed drastically in the 11th Constitutional Amendment?

Solution:

The following changes were made in the 11th amendment:

• Changed the procedure of election of the Vice-President by providing for an electoral college instead of a joint meeting of the two Houses of Parliament.
• Provided that the election of the Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground of any vacancy in the appropriate electoral college.
QUESTION: 70

Who among the following is known as the Father of Economics?

Solution:

Born in 1723, Adam Smith is regarded as the Father of Economics due to his immense contribution to the subject. Amongst his many books, the most famous is Wealth of Nations (1776) which is regarded as the first work in modern economics. Smith influenced many later thinkers such as Karl Marx, Joseph Schumpeter, David Ricardo and many more.

QUESTION: 71

What is the dimension of the new Rs 50 currency note issued by the Reserve Bank of India?

Solution:
• The new Rs 50 currency note has the dimension of 135 mm × 66 mm.
• The colour of the currency note is Fluorescent Blue.
• This new currency note was issued by the RBI in August 2017.
QUESTION: 72

During which Five Year Planning was NABARD established?

Solution:
• NABARD stands for National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai and was established on 12th July 1982 on the recommendations of B. Sivaraman Committee.
• It was established during the Sixth Five Year Plan, which was from the year 1980-85.
QUESTION: 73

Which of these industries is not affected by seasonal unemployment?

Solution:

The software industry won't be affected by seasonal employment as seasonal employment refers to unemployment faced by people who work in industries that face seasonal demand. The software industry works throughout the year and thus will not face such type of unemployment.

QUESTION: 74

The theory that says the level of population at which per capita income is maximum is known as?

Solution:

The theory that says the level of population at which per capita income is maximum is the Theory of optimum population. The optimum theory of population was propounded by Edwin Cannan.

QUESTION: 75

What percent of total population lives in Uttar Pradesh?

Solution:
• As per the Census 2011, 16.5 percent of the total population lives in Uttar Pradesh.
• Uttar Pradesh occupies 6.88 percent of the land surface area of India and is the most populous state in India with an estimated population of 199, 581, 477.
QUESTION: 76

How much longitude does the Earth move in an hour?

Solution:

The Earth moves 15° in an hour.

In 24hrs, the Earth completes one rotation of 360° along its axis.

In 1hr = 360/24 = 15°

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following is the driest desert in the world?

Solution:

The Atacama Desertis the driest desert in the world, as well as the only true desert to receive less precipitation than the polar deserts. It is a plateau in South America (primarily in Chile).

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following is a gold mine?

Solution:
• Hatti is a gold mine situated in Raichur District of Karnataka. Kolar is also a gold mine situated in Karnataka.
• Digboi is an oil field in Assam. Singhbhum is rich in iron ore, situated in Jharkhand.
QUESTION: 79

Trees like Bamboo and Sandalwood are common to which type of forest?

Solution:

Bamboo and Sandalwood are commonly found in tropical deciduous forests, these forests are found on the foothills of Himalayas, north-eastern states, Jharkhand, West Orissa, Chhattisgarh and eastern slopes of the Western Ghats. The trees shed their leaves seasonally in the dry season. They can be further classified into moist and dry deciduous forests.

QUESTION: 80

By what name is the combined water stream of Ganga and Brahmaputra known?

Solution:

The combined water stream of Ganga and Brahmaputra is known as Meghna.

• The tributaries of the Meghna river originate in the mountains of eastern India and flows southwest and join.
• The headstream of Meghna, the Barak, rises in the hills of Manipur.
• After flowing into Bangladesh, the Ganges, Brahmaputra (also known as Jamuna) and Meghna rivers join (near Bhairab Bazar, Bangladesh) and flow into the Bay of Bengal as the Meghna river.
QUESTION: 81

The Volga is the largest river of which of the following Continent?

Solution:

The Volga is the longest river in Europe. It is the national river of Russia. It originates in the Valday Hills northwest of Moscow and discharges into the Caspian Sea. Out of 20 largest cities of Russia, 11 are located in river’s drainage basin.

QUESTION: 82

Which body part prevents entry of food into the respiratory while ingestion?

Solution:

The epiglottis is a thin blade like structure which closes the larynx during food intake so that food cannot enter the respiratory system. This is also why you should not try to talk while eating food so the epiglottis does not have to open while eating.

QUESTION: 83

The outer part of coconut is made up of which tissue?

Solution:

The outer part of coconut is made up of the sclerenchyma tissue. The cells of this tissue are dead. They are rigid, contain thick and lignified secondary walls. Their main function is to provide strength and support to parts of the plant.

QUESTION: 84

Which of the following is a water-borne disease?

Solution: QUESTION: 85

Which of the following is not correctly matched? Solution:

The chemical name of Vitamin B2 is Riboflavin. QUESTION: 86

The loss of water in plants in the form of water drops is known as -

Solution:

Guttation is the process by which plant loose water in form of water drops. It happens in certain plants that have vascular systems such as grass, wheat, barley, tomatoes, strawberries, and other small plants.

QUESTION: 87

Solution:
• Soft Iron has very high relative permeability i.e. it can magnetise itself very quickly when current is pass around the core and demagnetised when current is stopped.
• Electromagnet is basically used for different electrical or mechanical devices like picking iron or calling bell where this quick transformation property is very important.
• So, soft iron is the ideal material for this operation.
QUESTION: 88

In case of a convex lens, real images formed are always

Solution:

Real images formed by mirrors or lens are always inverted images. Virtual images formed by lens or mirrors are always erect.

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following always form virtual and erect image?

Solution:

The plane mirror, the convex mirror and the concave lens always form virtual and erect image, no matter where the object is placed. This can be verified by making ray diagrams for these mirrors and lens.

QUESTION: 90

What is measured by Ammeter?

Solution: QUESTION: 91

Match the following: Solution: QUESTION: 92

The zig zag line on the periodic table separates ________.

Solution:

The zig zag line on the periodic table separates the metals from the non-metals. QUESTION: 93

Which of the following non-metals is lustrous?

Solution:
• Iodine is a lustrous non-metal.
• The atomic number of Iodine is 53 and its symbol is I.
QUESTION: 94

Atomic bomb is based on which of the following principle?

Solution:

Nuclear fission is the process of chain reaction in which neutrons get split into smaller parts. This process emits a large amount of energy which is used to utilize in many fields. But it should be a controlled reaction otherwise it can prove fatal accident.

QUESTION: 95

When a sound travels from air to water, which of the following quantities remains unchanged?

Solution:

The frequency remains constant when a sound travels from air to water as the frequency is not determined by the source. Wavelength and speed changes.

QUESTION: 96

A Sonar of a ship sends sounds waves of speed 1600m/s. These waves are reflected back by the ocean floor in 4 seconds. Find the depth (in m) of the ocean floor.

Solution:

Sonar is a technique that uses sound propagation to navigate, communicate or detect. The sonar hydrophones may be towed behind the ship or submarine in order to reduce the effect of noise generated by the watercraft itself.

Given, Speed = 1600 m/s

time = 4s

Distance = Speed × Time

= 1600 × 4 = 6400 m.

Now according to the question statement, These waves are reflected back by the ocean floor in 4 seconds. But this is the total distance traveled by sound. So the depth of the ocean floor is half of the total distance i.e 6400/2 = 3200m

QUESTION: 97

What is the name of the heaviest mass revolving around the Sun?

Solution:

Jupiter which is the largest planet in the solar system is also the heaviest mass revolving around the Sun.

QUESTION: 98

A device which reads barcodes and converts them into electric pulses to be processed by a computer is

Solution:

A barcode reader is an electronic device that can read barcodes and converts them into electric pulses to be processed by a computer. A barcode reader scans the barcode, and the CPU handle the barcode, turn them into information that we can read and it sends the data to the scanner's output port.

QUESTION: 99

Which among the following is not a programming language?

Solution:
• A database management system (DBMS) is a software package designed to define, manipulate, retrieve and manage data in a database.
• Fourth-generation query languages, such as SQL, are used to interact with a database.
QUESTION: 100

Modi launched the digital platform "Parivesh". It is an initiative of which of the following?

Solution:

Modi launched the digital platform the “Pro Active and Responsive facilitation by interactive and Virtuous Environment Single window Hub” (Parivesh). It is an initiative of the Environment Ministry. Through this portal, environmental clearances for forest and climate-related issues will be done easily. He also gave clearance to the first project which is being built in Odisha via Parivesh.

QUESTION: 101

In which soil structure are the particles arranged more or less parallel to each other?

Solution:

Dispersed Structure: In the case of dispersed structure, the particles will have face to face contact. This type of formation is due to net electrical forces between adjacent soil particles at the time of deposition being repulsive in nature. This type of structure is common in fresh water deposits. Flocculated Structure: In the case of flocculated structure there will be edge to edge and edge to face contact between the particles. This type of formation is due to the net electrical forces between the adjacent particles at the time of deposition being attractive in nature. Honeycomb Structure: This type of structure is associated with silt deposits. When silt particles settle out of suspension, in addition to gravitational forces the surface forces also play a significant role. When particles approach the lower region of suspension they will be attracted by particles deposited as well as the neighbouring particles leading to the formation of arches.

Single grained: This type of structure will be found in the case of coarse grained soil deposits. When such soils settle out of suspension in water, the particles settle independently of each other.

The major force causing their deposition is gravitational and surface forces are too small to produce any effect.

There will be particle-to-particle contact in the deposit.

QUESTION: 102

Which of the following is a practically impermeable?

Solution:

Permeability is defined as the property of a porous material which permits the passage or seepage of water through its interconnecting voids.

Usually, the finer the soil texture, the slower the permeability.

The decreasing order of permeability is:

Gravel > Coarse sand > Sand mixture > Clay

Clay is impermeable, or at least it has a very low permeability. The grains in clay are so fine that the spaces between the grains are extremely small. This makes it difficult for water to squeeze through, so water is more likely to simply run off.

QUESTION: 103

A soil sample is having a specific gravity 2.60 and a void ratio of 0.78. The water content required to fully saturate the soil would be?

Solution:

Using the relation,

Se = wG

Where,

S = degree of saturation = 1

e = void ratio = 0.78

w = water content

G = specific gravity of soil solids = 2.60

1 × 0.78 = w × 2.60

w = 30 %

QUESTION: 104

According to IS 2720 (V), for clayey soils to ensure uniform distribution of moisture throughout the soil mass, after mixing water, the soil water mixture shall be left to stand of X hours, where X is:

Solution:

For determination of Liquid Limit-By Casagrande Appratus is laid down in IS: 2720 (Part 5) 1985.

Sample preparation:

• Take representative soil sample of approximately 120gms passing through 425 micron IS sieve and mix thoroughly with distilled water in the evaporating dish to a uniform paste.
• The paste shall have a consistency that will require 30 to 35 drops of the cup to cause the required closure of the standard groove.
• Leave the soil paste to stand for 24 hours to ensure uniform distribution of moisture throughout the soil mass.
• Remix the soil thoroughly before the test
QUESTION: 105

Group symbols assigned to silty sand and clayey sand are respectively:

Solution:

In Soil classification system,

Silt is represented by M

Sand is represented by S

Clay is represented by C

Gravel is represented by G

For silty sand:

This implies the soil has more sand and less silt. So it is represented as “SM”.

For clayey sand:

This implies the soil has more sand and less clay. So, it is represented as “SC”.

QUESTION: 106

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

Solution:
• In both standard proctor test and modified proctor test, it is clearly seen that the dry density decreases after OMC.
• • In a well graded soil there is all size particles present in soil so voids formed by larger particles get filled by a smaller size particles so it attains better arrangement of particles and poses firm compacted surface, that’s why Well-graded coarse grained soil can be compacted to a very high density as compared to fine grained soil
• Consolidation is the process in which reduction in volume takes place by expulsion of water under long term static loads. This implies the soil is in fully saturated state.
QUESTION: 107

If the degree of saturation of soil is given by 67.89%, what is the percentage of air content of the soil?

Solution:

S = 67.89%

ηa + S = 100%

ηa = air content

ηa = 100 - 67.89 = 32.11%

QUESTION: 108

For seepage in anisotropic soil conditions, scale transformation is used to obtain standard Laplace equation. Then flow net is drawn for transformed section, by:

Solution:

The flow net is drawn for a transformed section by shortening the horizontal dimension by Where Kz = Co-efficient of permeability in Z direction

Kx = Co-efficient of permeability in x direction

QUESTION: 109

Settlement of soil under compressive load takes place due to -

Solution:

Settlement of soil under compressive load takes place due to expulsion of air (initial compaction), expulsion of water from pores (Consolidation settelement) and due to plastic readjustment of particles (secondary consolidation).

QUESTION: 110

Which one of the following is not a factor influencing coefficient permebality -

Solution:

Co−efficient of permeability,K Where C = A shape factor,

μ = dynamic viscosity of liquid

e = void ratio

D10 = effective size of particle

Factors affecting coefficient of permeability –

i. Shape and size of the particle

ii. Fluid properties

iii. Specific surface area, degree of saturation and adsorbed water

iv. Temperature

So hydraulic gradient has no effect on  coefficient of permeability o

QUESTION: 111

The standard measurement of the Geodimeter 510 is:

Solution:

Geodimeter is an instrument which works based on the propagation of modulated light waves,

It was developed by E. Bergestand of the Swedish Geological Survey in collaboration with the manufacturer M/s AGA of Swedish.

The instrument is more suitable for night time observations and requires a prism system at the end of the line for reflecting the waves.

The standard measurement of the Geodimeter 510 is ±5.1mm

QUESTION: 112

Which one of the following is the CORRECT statement for a station that is affected by local attraction?

Solution:
• Whenever there is any station affected by local attraction, then the difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is not equal to 180°.
• A freely suspended and properly balanced magnetic needle is expected to show magnetic meridian. However, local objects like electric wires and objects of steel attract magnetic needle towards themselves.
• Thus, needle is forced to show slightly different direction. This disturbance is called local attraction.
• For detecting local attraction it is necessary to take both fore bearing and back bearing for each line. If the difference is exactly 180°, the two stations may be considered as not affected by local attraction.
• If difference is not 180°, better to go back to the previous station and check the fore bearing. If that reading is same as earlier, it may be concluded that there is local attraction at one or both stations.
QUESTION: 113

Which of the following instrument is used for centering the theodolite in windy conditions?

Solution:

Optical plummet: A device on some transits and theodolites used to centre the instrument over a point, in place of a plumb bob, which moves in a strong wind.

Optical Square: a small hand instrument used by surveyors for laying off a right angle by means of two mirrors set at an angle of 45 degrees.

Cross staff: The cross-staff is an instrument used to measure angles and altitudes, consisting of a trigonometrically graduated staff and one or more perpendicular vanes moving over it.

QUESTION: 114

Which of the following test is used to make the line of sight perpendicular to the horizontal axis?

Solution:

Azimuth test: Make the line of sight perpendicular to the horizontal axis.

Cross-hair ring test: Make the vertical cross-hair lie in a plane perpendicular to the horizontal axis.

Spire test: Make the horizontal axis perpendicular to the vertical axis.

Vertical arc test: Make the vertical circle indicate zero when the line of sight is perpendicular to the vertical axis.

QUESTION: 115

What will be the shift of transition curve, if the length of transition curve is 80 m and radius of the curve is 300 m?

Solution:

What will be the shift of transition curve, if the length of transition curve is 80 m and radius of the curve is 300 m? R = radius of the curve

Ls = Length of the curve QUESTION: 116

Tacheometric formula for horizontal distances using horizontal sights can also suitably employed for inclined sights through θ by multiplying the constants by:

Solution:

Horizontal distance is given by:

D = ks + c

Where,

k = Multiplying constant

For inclined sights:

D = ks cos2θ + c cos θ

By comparing the above two equations it is clear that tacheometric formula for horizontal distances using horizontal sights can also suitably employed for inclined sights through θ by multiplying the multiplying constant by cos2 θ and additive constant by cos θ.

QUESTION: 117

How high should a helicopter pilot rise at a point A just to see the horizon at point B, if the distance AB is 40 km?

Solution:

Height of rise should be:

H = 0.0673 D2

D = Distance in kms

H = 0.0673 × 402

H = 107.68 m

QUESTION: 118

The radius of gyration of rectangular section (depth D, width B) from a centroidal axis parallel to the width is

Solution:

Radius of gyration is given by: I = Moment of inertia about C.G

A = Area of the x-section A = BD QUESTION: 119

A rubber band is elongated to double its initial length. True strain will be:

Solution:

Let the length of rubber band be “L”

Length of rubber band after elongation is “2L”

Change in length of the rubber band = 2L – L = L

True strain (Δ) = Change in length / Original Length

Δ = L/L = 1.

QUESTION: 120

Choose the INCORRECT conditions for the thermal stress in a body.

Solution:

Ordinary materials expand when heated and contract when cooled, hence , an increase in temperature produce a positive thermal strain.

Change in Length, δL = α L ΔT

Strain = δ/L = αLΔT/L = αΔT

Stress =  strain x E = α.ΔT.E

Where a = coefficient of linear expansion for the material,  L = original Length, ΔT = temp. change

QUESTION: 121

Calculate the value of modulus of elasticity (N/mm2), if the Poisson’s ratio is 0.25 and modulus of rigidity of the material is 80 N/mm2?

Solution:

E = 2G (1 + μ) = 2 × 80 (1 + 0.25) = 200 N/mm= 200 MPa

QUESTION: 122

The bending moment diagram of a simply supported beam with a point load at centre is:

Solution: QUESTION: 123

For which type of column the buckling load will be maximum?

Solution:

The maximum load at which the column tends to have lateral displacement or tends to buckle is known as buckling or crippling load. Load columns can be analysed with the Euler’s column formulas can be given as • For both end hinged, n=1
• For one end fixed and other free, n=1/2
• For both end fixed, n=2
• For one end fixed and other hinged, n=√2

Effective length: So, buckling load will be maximum for both end fixed/clamped.

QUESTION: 124

Which of the following is NOT considered as a basic type of strain?

Solution:

There are two types of strains.

1. Normal strain (Tensile, compressive)

2. Shear strain

3. Volumetric strain

QUESTION: 125

Use of strain rosette is to:

Solution:

Strain rosette can be defined as the arrangement strain gauge oriented at different angles. It only measures strain in one direction, to get principal strains, it is necessary to use a strain rosette.

Depending on the arrangement of strain gauges, strain rosettes are classified in to:-

1. Rectangular strain gauge rosette

2. Delta strain gauge rosette

3. Star strain gauge rosette

QUESTION: 126

In a overhanging beam ABC, AB = L and BC = a, C being free end. If it is subjected to a vertical load W at free end, maixmum moment occurs at-

Solution: As the support A is simply supported, the moment at A will be zero

As the nature of moment produced by W and Rb is different, the maximum moment could be possible at B only.

Bm at B, MB = Wa

BM at A, MA = W (L + a) – Rb × L = 0

∴ the bending moment diagram will be. From the BM diagram if is clear that the maximum moment will be at B.

QUESTION: 127

Beam ABC has hinged end at A, simple support at B and free end at C. Its conjugate beam has ______

Solution: In conjugate beam – hinged at A, internal hinge at B and fixed at C.

QUESTION: 128

In structure, Muller Breslau Principle is used for:

Solution:

The Muller-Breslau principle states: The influence line for a function (reaction, shear, moment) is to the same scale as the deflected shape of the beam when the beam is acted on by the function. To draw the deflected shape properly, the ability of the beam to resist the applied function must be removed.

QUESTION: 129

The following item of earthwork is not measured separately:

Solution:

The following items of earthwork is not measured separately:

• Clearance of site
• Setting out of work
• Steps in deep excavations
QUESTION: 130

Consider the following statements:

A. Verandahs and balconies are included in Circulation area

B. Entrance halls are not included in Circulation area

C. Sills of doors and windows are included in the floor area.

The correct statements are:

Solution:

Floor area: Floor area of a building is the total area of the floor in between walls and consists of floor of all rooms, verandahs, passages, corridors, staircase room, entrance halls, kitchen, stores, bath and latrine etc.

Sills of doors and windows are not included in the floor area.

Circulation area: Circulation area is the floor area of verandahs, passages, corridors, balconies, entrance hall, porches, stair case etc which are used for movements of persons using the building.

It shall comprise of:

• Verandahs and balconies
• Passages and corridors
• Entrance halls
• Stair case and mumties
• Shafts for lift
QUESTION: 131

Culverts are usually included in the road estimate on the basis of:

Solution:
• Culverts are usually included in the road estimate on the basis of cost per running meter of span.
• Total length of all culverts in the kilometre length should be added and cost may be worked out at suitable rate per running meter of the span.
QUESTION: 132

Which one of the following is relatively more accurate estimating method for building?

Solution:

Elemental bill method: This estimate requires more information other than floor areas. To use this method, drawings with enough information are required i.e. wall elevations, structural frame, roof structure, ceilings, foundation cross sections, floor construction, external works, wall and floor finishes.

The document contains detailed information broken down into Building Elements.

Cubic method of Estimating: The cube method estimating is a single rate method of estimating based on the cubic content of a building.

Cost per cubic metre method is specific for building projects and aims to overcome the current criticism floor area method that does not take into account possible variations of the storey height.

The building volume method became very popular in some European countries like in Germany and Switzerland, where building costs are often expressed in cubic meter prices. The total cost of the project will be given by:

Estimate = Volume X Unit Cost (Cost/m3)

Square meter method of estimation: The superficial floor area also known as the square metre method of estimating is one of the quickest methods of calculating the cost of a building/construction project.

It is the first estimate that will be prepared by a Quantity Surveyor when initial sketch drawings are produced by the architect.

The square metre method involves measuring the internal gross floor area of a building and multiplying by the cost per m2, to get the total cost of building.

Service unit method: The unit method estimating consists of choosing a standard unit of accommodation and multiplying an approximate cost per unit. Estimate the building cost depends on the population unit.

The unit cost method of estimation is used for project design estimates and bid estimates.

Unit Method Estimate = Standard units of accommodation x Cost/Unit

QUESTION: 133

What is the estimate (Rs.) for a building with a plinth area of 2000 sq. m with rate of Rs. 3800 per sq. m? (Consider the adds of 15% of electric installation and 7% of miscellaneous)

Solution:

Plinth area = 2000 m2

Rate per m2 = Rs. 3800

Total cost of plinth area = 3800 × 2000 = Rs. 7600000

15% Electric installation = Rs. 1140000

7% Miscellaneous = Rs. 532000

Final cost of the building = Rs. 7600000 + Rs. 1140000 + Rs. 532000

= Rs. 9272000

QUESTION: 134

The length, width and height of a wall are given as 800 cm, 500 cm and 50 cm respectively. What will be the total cost (Rs.) of brickwork, if the rate of brickwork is Rs. 320 per cubic metre?

Solution:

Length of the wall = 800 cm = 8 m

Breadth of the wall = 500 cm = 5 m

Height of the wall = 50 cm = 0.5 m

Volume of brickwork = L × B × H

V = 8 × 5 × 0.5 = 20 m3

Rate of Brickwork = Rs. 320 per m3

Total cost of brickwork = 320 × 20 = Rs. 6400

QUESTION: 135

An estimate is:

Solution:

An estimate is the probable coast of a work and is usually prepared before the construction.

QUESTION: 136

Which of the following represents the CORRECT relationship between the Chezy’s coefficient, C and coefficient of roughness of channel, f?

Solution:

Chezy’s constant is given by: f = friction factor

So,

Chezy’s constant is inversely proportional to the square root of friction factor.

QUESTION: 137

Inclined manometer is used for precise measurement of small pressure in:

Solution:

For accurate measurement of small pressure differences by an ordinary u-tube manometer, it is essential that the ratio ρmw should be close to unity.

This is not possible if the working fluid is a gas, also having a manometric liquid of density very close to that of the working liquid and giving at the same time a well-defined meniscus at the interface is not always possible. So, for this purpose, an inclined tube manometer is used.

For low velocity gas flow, inclined manometers are best suitable for precise measurement of small pressure.

QUESTION: 138

Separation of flow occurs when pressure gradient:

Solution:

Flow separation occurs when the boundary layer travels far enough against an adverse pressure gradient that the speed of the boundary layer relative to the object falls almost to zero.

It has been observed that the flow is reversed at the vicinity of the wall under certain conditions. favourable pressure gradient is one in which the pressure decreases in the flow direction (i.e., dp/dx < 0). It tends to overcome the slowing of fluid particles caused by friction in the boundary layer.

This pressure gradient arises when the freestream velocity U is increasing with x, for example, in the converging flow field in a nozzle.

On the other hand, an adverse pressure gradient is one in which pressure increases in the flow direction (i.e., dp/dx > 0). It will cause fluid particles in the boundary-layer to slow down at a greater rate than that due to boundary-layer friction alone.

If the adverse pressure gradient is severe enough, the fluid particles in the boundary layer will actually be brought to rest. When this occurs, the particles will be forced away from the body surface (a phenomenon called flow separation) as they make room for following particles, ultimately leading to a wake in which flow is turbulent.

QUESTION: 139

The coefficient of discharge, Cd in terms of Cand Cc is given by (Notations have their usual meaning)-

Solution:

Coefficient of discharge (Cd) is given by:

Cd = Cc × Cv

Where,

Cc = Coefficient of contraction

Cv = Coefficient of velocity

QUESTION: 140

At a sudden contraction in a horizontal pipe

Solution:

Total Energy at any section in a flow is given by: Where, Due to sudden contraction, the loss of head occurs due to sudden contraction of pipe, therefore total energy decreases.

As due to contraction, area of pipe decreases due to which velocity increases, thereby velocity head increases.

QUESTION: 141

In a triangular channel section, the most economical section is achieved when slopping sides make an angle of____ with vertical.

Solution:

Most economical section is the one whose wetted perimeter is minimum for the given value of discharge.

For Traingular section, m = tanθ

For most economical section, θ = 45o

m = tan 45o

m = 1

Hydraullic mean depth = QUESTION: 142

A channel section has been shown in figure given below. What shall be the area of the section if it has to be most economical? Solution:

For economical section, its perimeter should be minimum.

A=b×y+1/2×y×y   A = 1.914 y2

QUESTION: 143

Classification of Centrifugal pump is done normally on the basis of its:

Solution:

Centrifugal Pumps are classified into many types as:

1. Based on number of impellers in the pump:

• Single stage pump
• Two stage pump
• Multi-stage pump

2. Based on type of impeller design

• Single suction pump
• Double suction pump

3. Based on type of volute

• Single volute pump
• Double volute pump

4. Based on shaft orientation

• Horizontal Pump
• Vertical Pump
QUESTION: 144

The Reynold number for the flow through smooth pipe is given by 105. The value of friction factor for smooth pipe is______.

Solution:

As the Reynold’s number is greater than 2000, it implies flow is turbulent.

Friction factor for the smooth pipe is given by: Re = 100000 f = 0.0178

f = 0.018

QUESTION: 145

For crops like potato and sugar-beets, the commonly adopted method of surface irrigation is:

Solution:

Furrow Irrigation: In this type of irrigation, only one-fifth to one-half of the land surface is wetted by water. It therefore results in less evaporation, less pudding of soil and permits cultivation sooner after irrigation.

When crops like potatoes, corn, sorghum and sugar beets are grown, it is usually best to irrigate by the furrow method.

Check flooding: Check flooding is similar to ordinary flooding except that the water is controlled by surrounding the check area with low and flat leeves.

Drip irrigation: Drip irrigation is the latest field irrigation technique which is meant for adoption at places where there exists acute scarcity of irrigation water and other salt problems. Water is slowly and directly applied to the root zone of the plants, thereby minimising the losses by evaporation and percolation.

QUESTION: 146

The quantity of sulphates (PPM) contained in good quality irrigation water is:

Solution:

For Good Quality irrigation water: QUESTION: 147

If critical velocity ratio C.V.R is 2.0, one of the following will occur?

Solution:

The ratio of mean velocity 'V' to the critical velocity 'Vo' is known as critical velocity ratio (m) i.e V > Vo

Therefore, scouring will occur.

QUESTION: 148

A channel is designed by Lacey’s theory has a mean velocity of 2 m/sec. The silt factor is taken to be unity. The hydraulic mean radius will be?

Solution:

Hydraullic mean radius as per Lacey’s theory is given by: Where,

V = mean velocity = 2 m/sec

f = silt factor = 1 QUESTION: 149

There will be no tension in the dam if the resultant passes through the:

Solution:

For no tension in the dam,

The resultant must pass through the middle third of the dam section.

QUESTION: 150

The capacity inflow ratio for a reservoir:

Solution:

The ratio of the reservoir capacity to the total inflow of water in it is known as capacity inflow ratio. The percentage of sediment deposited in the reservoir even inspite of taking precautions and measures to control its deposition (trap efficiency η) is a function of capacity inflow ratio.

For a reservoir, the capacity inflow ratio decreases with time as more sediment is deposited in the reservoir with time.

QUESTION: 151

By using Bligh’s theory for the design of floor if residual head at any section is 0.42 m and specific gravity of material is 2.4, what will be the thickness of floor?

Solution:

Thickness of floor is given by: h = residual head at any section = 0.42 m

G = specific gravity of the material = 2.4 QUESTION: 152

The spacing of tile drains to relieve water logged land is inversely proportional to the:

Solution:

Spacing of the drains is given by: Where,

K = Coefficient of permeability

q = discharge per unit length in the drain

a = depth of the impervious strata below the drain

b = maximum height of the drained water table above the impervious layer

Therefore,

Spacing of drain is inversely proportional to the discharge per unit length in the drain.

QUESTION: 153

It is better to provide separate system of sewerage if?

Solution:

In separate system, the sanitary sewage and storm water are carried separately in two sets of sewers. The sewage is conveyed to waste water treatment plant (WWTP) and the storm water is discharges into rivers without treatment.

The separated system is suitable when separate outlet for storm water is available and the topography is such that storm water can be disposed of in natural drains.

The separate sewer system is favoured under the following condition:

1. If the area is flat.
2. When the rainfall is uneven or it is heavy for a short duration.
3. When it is necessary to pump the sanitary sewage.
4. If the area possesses steep slope.
5. If sewer are to be laid through hard rocky soil
6. If sewers are to be laid before the area is developed.
7. If it is not possible to lay sewers at suitable gradients.

Note: In rocky areas, it is very difficult to provide one combined large sewer, therefore separate system is generally adopted in rocky areas.

QUESTION: 154

BOD- 5 represents 5 days biochemical oxygen demand at a temperature of?

Solution:

BOD)5 is generally reported at 20oC.

(BOD)5 at 20C is given by:

BOD5=Lo(1−10−kdt)

Lo = ultimate BOD

KD = Deoxygenation constant

QUESTION: 155

The probable width of septic tank is____

Solution:

A septic tank can be defined as primary sedimentation tank with large detention time (12 to 36hrs).

A septic tank is usually provided with brick wall in which cement mortar [not less than 20cm (9 inch)] thick and the foundation floor is of cement concrete 1:2:4.

Dimensions of Septic Tank:

1. Width = 650 mm

2. Length = 2 to 4 times the width

3. Depth = 1 to 1.3 m

4. Capacity = 1 cubic meter

Detention Period:

The detention period is taken to be 24 hrs.

QUESTION: 156

Tests usually employed to determine chlorine residuals in water -

(i) orthotolidine test

(ii) starch-iodide test

Solution:

tests to find residual chlorine tests –

1. Orthotolidine test
2. Orthotolidine Arsenate test
3. Starch Iodide test
QUESTION: 157

The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in Water treatment

Solution:

The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in Water treatment reduces if pH goes above 8. Generally pH slightly less than 7 is recommended for effective treatment.

QUESTION: 158

What are leaping weirs?

Solution:

Leaping weir, overflow weir and siphon spillway are storm water regulators.

QUESTION: 159

The leachate is an effluent from which of the following?

Solution:

The generation of leachate is caused by precipitation percolating through waste deposited in a landfill. It is highly toxic and is prevented to meet ground water by clay liners of very low permeability.

QUESTION: 160

Allowable stress in axial tension for plates, angles etc when thickness is more than 40 mm is:

Solution:

IS 226 stipulates the following permissible stress in axial tension for steel: QUESTION: 161

For an Industrial building, Permissible vertical deflection for purlins and girts supported on Elastic cladding subjected to live load as per IS 800:2007 should not be more than span upon:

Solution:

Vertical Deflection limits for industrial buildings as per IS 800:2007 are:

a) For Purlins and Girts subjected to live load/wind load supported on elastic cladding, maximum deflection is limited to span / 150.

b) For Purlins and Girts subjected to live load/wind load supported on Brittle cladding, maximum deflection is limited to span / 150.

QUESTION: 162

If the strength of rivets in bearing and shearing is 30 kN and 45 kN respectively. If 90 kN load is acting at a joint two steel plates, then Number of rivets required at a joint is:

Solution:

Number of rivets required at the joint: Rivet value will be the minimum of shearing value and bearing value.

Rv = 30 kN

Force acting at a joint = 90 kN QUESTION: 163

For unstiffened flange of a beam in flexural compression, the maximum allowable outstand is equal to (Where t is thickness of flange)

Solution:

Maximum allowable outstand is 12t for unstiffened flange.

QUESTION: 164

Tubular sections form the most economical compression members because tubes:

Solution:

Tubes are most suitable for small loads and lengths. These sections are usually provided for roof truss and bracings. They have high local buckling strength and torsional resistance. In case of wind forces, the tubes are subjected to less force than a flat member.

QUESTION: 165

A steel plate is 40 cm wide and 10 mm thick. If the diameter of the bolt hole is 20 mm, the net section area of the plate is:

Solution:

Net area of the Plate is given by:

Anet= (B-d)t

Where,

B = width of the plate

d = gross diameter of rivet

t = thickness of plate

= (40-2)x1= 38 cm2

QUESTION: 166

Plastic analysis of structures is applicable to the structures made of which one of the following?

Solution:

Only ductile material can undergo large deformation without failure and they are applicable to plastic analysis of structure.

QUESTION: 167