GMAT Full Mock Test- 2


86 Questions MCQ Test GMAT Mock Test for Practice | GMAT Full Mock Test- 2


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This mock test of GMAT Full Mock Test- 2 for GMAT helps you for every GMAT entrance exam. This contains 86 Multiple Choice Questions for GMAT GMAT Full Mock Test- 2 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this GMAT Full Mock Test- 2 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. GMAT students definitely take this GMAT Full Mock Test- 2 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other GMAT Full Mock Test- 2 extra questions, long questions & short questions for GMAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

How many bananas did Jerry the monkey eat today?
(1) Today, Jerry ate 30% more than his regular average.
(2) Yesterday, Jerry ate 32 bananas, which is 15% less than his regular average.

Solution:

From both statements together we know the average amount of bananas eaten by Jerry and that today Jerry ate 30% more than his regular average. Therefore, both statements together supply sufficient information to answer the question

QUESTION: 2

A student is studying for a test from 11:00 A.M to 20:00 P.M on weekdays and one third of that time on Saturdays, on Sundays he takes a break from school and goes fishing. For what fractional part of the entire week is the student studying?

Solution:

On weekdays, the student studies for 9 hours, on Saturdays 3 hours.
In one week the student studies for (5 x 9 + 3 = 48).
The total number of hours in one week is (24 x 7 = 168).
48 hours / 168 total hours = 2/7.

QUESTION: 3

An average teenager sleeps from 23:00 P.M till 7:30 in the morning of a schools night and on the weekend, which is Friday and Saturdays he sleeps 50% more each night. For what fraction part of the entire week is the teenager asleep?

Solution:

In one week there are (24 x 7 =168) hours.
The average teenager sleeps 8.5 hours on weekdays and (1.5 x 8.5 = 12.75) hours on the weekend.
Altogether, the total sleeping time per one week is (8.5 x 5 + 12.75 x 2 = 68).
The fractional part of the sleep is (68/168 = 17/42.

QUESTION: 4

The number 12 bus is working from 6:00 in the morning to 10:00 P.M on weekdays only. On Saturdays and Sundays the bus goes to the garage 3 times a day for upgrading, each time for 3 hours. For what fraction part of the entire week is the bus on the road?

Solution:

The best answer is E.
 In one week there are (24 x 7 =168) hours.
The bus is on the road everyday, on weekdays he is 16 hours on the road and on Saturdays and Sundays he drives for 9 hours each day. The total amount of hours is (16 x 5 + 18 = 98). The fraction part of the week is (98/168 = 7/12).

QUESTION: 5

Lilac has three times more Barbie dolls than Orly.  If Lilac gives 6 dolls to Nirit, she would have 21 dolls left. How many dolls does Orly have?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

The easiest way to solve such problems is by back-solving it.

Take answer C: If Orly has 9 dolls then Lilac has 27. If Lilac would give away 6 dolls she would really have 21 dolls left.

QUESTION: 6

"Tires R' us" have 4 times more tires for sale than any regular tire shop. If "Tires R' Us" Sells 122 tires, they will have only three times more tires than the rest.How many more tires do "Tires R' us" have than the regular tire shop?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Let's write the equations that come from the data: define x as the number of tires of "Tires R' us" and y as number of tires of the regular shop.
X = 4Y and X – 122 = 3Y → X= 488, Y=122. X – Y = 366.

QUESTION: 7

If 512 = (A + 48)3, then (A + 53) is equal to

Solution:

The best answer is A.
If 512 = (A + 48)3 → A + 48 = 8 → A = -40.
Therefore, A + 53 = 13.

QUESTION: 8

If 529 = (Y – 7)2, then Y/3 is equal to

Solution:

The best answer is D.

529 = (Y – 7)2, take the root out of both sides to get 23 = Y – 7 → Y = 30.
Therefore Y/3 is equal to 10.

QUESTION: 9

The East-17 pre-school is upgrading all of his classrooms by buying 46 computers, 6 printers and 5 fax machines. If a computer costs 4 times more than a printer and 2 times more than the fax machine, what percent of the cost of the entire purchase was the cost of one computer, 2 printers and 1 fax machine?

Solution:

The best answer is D.

Let's define the price of a printer as X, the computer costs 4X and the fax costs 2X.
The total price of all the merchandise is (46 x 4)X + 6X + 10X = 200X.
The specific group that was asked upon is worth 4X + 2X + 2X = 8X.
The percentage of the price is (8/200) 4%.

QUESTION: 10

A newly wed couple is designing their new house by purchasing 10 chairs, 3 desks, 3 televisions and 4 closets. If the price ratio between the new merchandise is 1 : 3 : 4 : 4, what fraction of the cost of the entire purchase was the cost of a desk and a closet?

Solution:

Let X be the price of a single chair, normalize all the prices to the price of a chair.
The total price of the entire purchase is: 10X + 9X + 12X + 16X = 47X.
The specific purchase costs: 3X + 4X = 7X.
The percent required is 7/47.

QUESTION: 11

A grocery store ordered a delivery of fresh milk products that contained 45 milk bottles, 24 cheese packs and 23 cartons of chocolate milk. If the chocolate milk carton costs like a bottle of milk, which is three times the price of a cheese pack, what fraction of the cost of the entire purchase was the cost of 20 bottles of milk, 1 pack of cheese and 5 chocolate milk cartons?

Solution:

The best answer is D.

Let X be the price of a pack of cheese.
The price of the entire purchase is (45 x 3)X + 24X + (23 x 3)X = 228X.
The specific required purchase is 60X + X + 15X = 76X.
The fraction of the specific purchase and the entire purchase is 76/228 = 1/3.

QUESTION: 12

If A and B are two prime numbers bigger than 2, which of the following can't be true?
(1) A + B is an even number.
(2) A x B is also a prime number.
(3) AB is also a prime number.

Solution:

The best answer is D.

Try to find opposing examples to the statements.

1. Pick A=7, B=13 → A+B = 20, this is an even number.
2. Try A=3, B=7 → AB=21, and 21 is not a prime number.
3. Try A=3, B=5 → AB = 35= 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 = a number which is dividable by 3 and 9 and therefore is not a prime number. Statements 2 and 3 can't be true, the answer is D.

QUESTION: 13

If X and Y are consecutive numbers (Y>X), which of the following statements could be false?
1. The multiplication XY is an even number.
2. (Y/X) > 1.
3. (X + Y) is always an odd number.

Solution:

The best answer is B.

Let's go over each statesman's at a time.
1, the multiplication of two consecutive numbers is always an even number.
2, Try x=2, y=3 → In this case 3/2 is bigger than 1 but if you choose x=-3, y=-2, y/x is 2/3 and that’s smaller than 1. Therefore this statement is not always true.
3, the sum of two consecutive numbers is always odd, try some numbers.
Therefore, only statement 2 is false.

QUESTION: 14

X and Y are integers, X is even and negative, Y is odd and positive. Which of the following could be false?
1. (X + Y) is an odd number.
2. Y(X + Y) is an integer.
3. XY is a positive number

Solution:

The best answer is D.

Find opposing examples for each of the statements.
1: An odd number + an even number are always an odd number.
2: Try the numbers: X=-4, Y=3 → 3(-1) = 1/3 which is not an integer.
3: Try the numbers: X=-2, Y=3 → XY = (-2)3 = -8, which is not positive.

Statements 2 and 3 are not necessarily true.

QUESTION: 15

If W is between (-1) and (0), which of the following is least?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Try a number between –1 and 0, for example –1/2.
–1/2.
¼.
–2.
4.
0.
The smallest number is –2.

QUESTION: 16

If R is between (-2) and (2), which of the following can be the greatest?

Solution:

The best answer is A.

If we can choose any number between (-2) and (2), choose a really small number, for example

(1/100) → plug it in answer (a), (1/1/100) = 100 à none of the other answers can be larger.

QUESTION: 17

If all values of X such as (0 < X < 1), which can be the least?

Solution:

The best answer is E.

Since X is a fraction between 0 and 1, the smallest answer will be that of the highest power, since all the answers are positive. Therefore (e) is the smallest possible.
Pay attention to answer (d), it’s the same as (c); it’s a fraction between 0 and 1 squared.

QUESTION: 18

By what percent did the price of a pound of plum increase?
(1) Each pound of plum costs 28 cents more.
(2) The original price per pound was 52 cents.

Solution:

The best answer is C.
By using both statements together we know what was the original price and by how much it increased.
Each statement alone is not sufficient, but the combination of the two is sufficient.
Remember, you don’t have to solve the problem; you only need to make sure you can.

 

QUESTION: 19

What is the new price for a pound of persimmon?
(1) The old price is 45 cents per pound.
(2) The new price is more than half of the old price.

Solution:

The best answer is E.

We need to find the exact price of the persimmon.
If the old price is 45 cents and the new price is more than half of the old price than the exact price of the new persimmon is not an exact price but a price bigger than 22.5 cents.
There isn’t enough sufficient data to solve the question.

QUESTION: 20

How many days would it take two carpenters, working together, to build 5 desks?
(1) Each carpenter can build 4 desks in two days.
(2) Two carpenters, working together, work twice as fast as one carpenter working alone.

Solution:

The best answer is A.

In order to solve the question, we need to know the output of one carpenter.
From statement (1) we can learn that one carpenter has a certain output, and using the output formula we can calculate the desired time. Statement (2) is not useful; it tells us something that we can already assume by ourselves.

Therefore the answer is A.

QUESTION: 21

How many diamond rings can a goldsmith refine in two weeks?
(1) There are 4 diamonds in each ring.
(2) One goldsmith can refine 2 diamonds in 4 hours

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Both statements combined are sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (1) tells us how many diamonds are there in one ring.
Statement (2) tells us how much time is needed to complete one ring; therefore both data’s are sufficient to answer the question

QUESTION: 22

How long will it take 5 chambermaids to arrange the beds of the entire hotel?
(1) There are 4 floors in the hotel.
(2) Each floor contains 6 rooms.

Solution:

The best answer is E.

In order to answer the question, we need to know how many beds are there in the hotel.
Both statements, taken together, don’t supply that kind of information.
Therefore more sufficient data is required.

QUESTION: 23

How many patients can a group of dermatologists diagnose in one day?
(1) Two dermatologists can diagnose 3 patients in 1.5 hours.
(2) Dermatologists work for 8 hours a day.

Solution:

The best answer is E.
Both statements are not sufficient, you don’t know what the size of the group of dermatologists is; it can be 3 doctors or even 45. Therefore more sufficient data is required.

QUESTION: 24

How long will it take Jimmy to organize his stamp collection?
(1) Jimmy can organize 45 stamps in 2 hours.
(2) In the collection there are 30 regular stamps and 90 special ones.

Solution:

 The best answer is C.

Both statement combined are sufficient.
Statement (1) tells us that what is the “output” of organizing stamps and statement (2) tells us how many apples are there in the collection. Pay attention, it doesn’t matter if the stamps are regular or special ones because statement (1) states that (any) 45 stamps can be arranged in 2 hours.

QUESTION: 25

A train traveled for three hours. In the first hour the train traveled 86 miles, which was 25% farther than it traveled in the first hour. In the third hour the train traveled at a speed of 120 miles per hour for 20 minutes. What is the total distance that the train traveled?

Solution:

The best answer is B.

In the first hour it traveled 86 miles.
In the second hour it traveled x miles, x + 0.25x = 86 → x= 68.8 miles.
In the third hour it traveled (120 x 1/3 = 40) miles.
The total distance is (86 + 68.6 + 40 = 194.8) miles.

QUESTION: 26

A cruise ship traveled for 3 hours. In the first hour, the ship sailed at a speed of 25 Km/h, which was 25% faster than the speed in the third hour. In the middle hour the ship sailed at the average speed of the first and third hours. What was the total istance of the ship during the 3 hours of sailing?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

The distance in the first hour is 25 Km.
The speed in the third hour is (25/1.25 = 20 Km/h) and therefore the distance is 20 Km.
The average speed is 22.2 Km/h and that is also the distance.
The total distance is 25 + 20 + 22.5 = 67.5 Km.

QUESTION: 27

Two cars are driving towards one another. The first car is traveling at a speed of 120 Km/h, which is 28% faster than the second car. If the distance between the cars is 855 Km, how long will it takes the cars to meet (in hours)?

Solution:

The best answer is D.

The speed of the second car is X, (X + 0.28X = 120) à X = 93.75 Km/h.
In order to find the time it will take the cars to meet, you should divide the total distance by the sum of the car's speeds: (855 / (120+93.75) = 4). Therefore the answer is D, four hours.

QUESTION: 28

Three cars are starting to drive from three corners of a huge axi-cimetrical triangle towards the middle. Car A can travel at a speed of 110 miles per hour, car B can travel 10% less and car C can travel the average speed of the first two cars. If all cars leave at the same time and it took car A 30 minutes to get to the middle, how long approximately after car C reached the middle, did car B reached it?

Solution:

Start with the speeds of the cars:

 Car A can travel at 110 mp/h.
Car B can travel at a speed of (110 x 0.9) 99 mp/h.
Car C can travel at a speed of (110 + 99)/2 = 104.5 mp/h.
If it took car A 30 minutes, the length towards the middle of the triangle is 55 miles.
Calculate how long it takes car B and car C travel 55 miles:
Car B → It will take her (55/99) hours which is 33 minutes and a third.
Car C → It will take her (55/104.5) hours which is approximately 31.6 minutes.

Therefore the differences in the time will be approximately 1.5 minutes.

QUESTION: 29

Danny and Steve are running towards each other, each one from his own house. Danny can reach Steve's house in 25 minutes of running, which is half the time it takes Steve to reach Danny's house. If the two started to run at the same time, how much time longer will it take Steve to reach the middle than Danny?

Solution:

The best answer is A.

If it takes Danny 25 minutes to travel the full way, it would take him 12.5 minutes to reach the middle.
If it takes Steve 50 minutes to travel the full way, it would take him 25 minutes to reach the middle.
The difference in the time it takes them to reach the middle is 12.5 minutes

QUESTION: 30

A green lizard can travel from the green cave to the blue cave in 108 minutes; the blue lizard can travel from the blue cave to the green cave in 25% less time. If the green lizard started to travel 7.5 minutes before the blue lizard, how many minutes after the blue lizard, will the green lizard pass the middle line?

Solution:

The best answer is E.

It takes the green lizard (108/2 = 54) minutes to reach the middle.
It takes the blue lizard (108 x 0.75 = 81)/2 = 40.5 minutes to reach the middle.
The green lizard started to travel 7.5 minutes ahead of the blue lizard and therefore the differences in the time they reach the middle is (54 – 7.5 – 40.5 = 6) minutes.

QUESTION: 31

When an integer Q is divided by 6, the remainder is 4.

Which of the following is not a multiple of 6?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Pick a number that fits into the question, for example 10.

The only answer that is not a multiple of 6 is C, 2Q + 6 = 26. And 26 are not divisible by 6.

QUESTION: 32

When the integer Y is divided by 11, the remainder is 3.

Which of the following can't be a multiple of (Y+1)?

Solution:

The best answer is E.

Plug in a number that will give a remainder of 3 when divided by 11, for example 14.
We are looking for a number that is not a factor of (Y+1 = 15).
The only answer that is not a factor of 15 is E. 3Y – 5 = 37.

QUESTION: 33

When the integer X is divided by 5, the remainder is 2.
Which of the following can be a multiple of (X+3)?

Solution:

The best answer is B.

Plug in a number that will give a remainder of 2 when divided by 5, for example 7.
We are looking for a number that is a factor of 10.
The only possible answer is B à 9 x 7 – 3 = 60, and that is a factor of 10.

QUESTION: 34

What is the value of X + Y?
(1) X = 3Z.
(2) Y = 8Z.

Solution:

The best answer is E.

According to the statements, the value of X + Y is 3Z + 8Z = 11Z, but we don’t know what's the value of Z. In other words, more sufficient data is required to answer the question.

QUESTION: 35

What is the value of (Q + W)?
(1) W = 3R.
(2) Q = -3R.

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Combine both statements to get, W + Q = 3R – 3R = 0.
In other words the statements tell us that W = (-Q) or the opposite

QUESTION: 36

What is the value of (XY)?
(1) X = 2/(9Q)
(2) Y = 4.5Q

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Combine both statements to get, XY = 4.5Q x 2/(9Q) = 1.
Therefore both statements taken together are sufficient.

QUESTION: 37

Harris invested $45,000 in two different ventures, a car-cleaning machine and a video mat. The yearly return on the video mat was 12% and the yearly return on the car-cleaning machine was 8%. If the total return was $4,000, how much did Harris invest in the video mat?

Solution:

The best answer is B.

The easiest way is to back solve the question.
Take answer B, if that is the amount Harris invested in the video mat; the annual return was $1,200.
Therefore there are $35,000 left to invest in the car-cleaning machine, 8% of 35,000 is $2,800.

Sum them up; the total return is like the question asked- $4,000.

QUESTION: 38

"I want to criticize the social system, and to show it at work, at its most intense." Virginia Woolf's provocative statement about her intentions in writing Mrs. Dalloway has regularly been ignored by the critics since it highlights an aspect of her literary interests very different from the traditional picture of the "poetic" novelist concerned with examining states of reverie and vision and with following the intricate pathways of individual consciousness. But Virginia Woolf was a realistic as well as a poetic novelist, a satirist and social critic as well as a visionary: literary critics' cavalier dismissal of Woolf's social vision will not withstand scrutiny. In her novels, Woolf is deeply engaged by the questions of how individuals are shaped (or de-formed) by their social environments, how historical forces impinge on people's lives, how class, wealth, and gender help to determine people's fates. Most of her novels are rooted in a realistically rendered social setting and in a precise historical time.

Woolf's focus on society has not been generally recognized because of her intense antipathy to propaganda in art. The pictures of reformers in her novels are usually satiric or sharply critical. Even when Woolf is fundamentally sympathetic to their causes, she portrays people anxious to reform their society and possessed of a message or program as arrogant or dishonest, unaware of how their political ideas serve their own psychological needs. (Her Writer's Diary notes: "the only honest people are the artists," whereas "these social reformers and philanthropists ... harbor ... discreditable desires under the disguise of loving their kind....") Woolf detested what she called "preaching" in fiction, too, and criticized novelist D. H. Lawrence (among others) for working by this method.

Woolf's own social criticism is expressed in the language of observation rather than in direct commentary since for her, fiction is a contemplative, not an active art. She describes phenomena and provides materials for a judgment about society and social issues: it is the reader's work to put the observations together and understand the coherent point of view behind them. As a moralist, Woolf works by indirection, subtly undermining officially accepted mores, mocking, suggesting, calling into question, rather than asserting, advocating, bearing witness: hers is the satirist's art. Woolf's literary models were acute social observers like Chekhov and Chaucer. As she put it in The Common Reader, "It is safe to say that not a single law has been framed or one stone set upon another because of anything Chaucer said or wrote; and yet, as we read him, we are absorbing morality at every pore." Like Chaucer, Woolf chose to understand as well as to judge, to know her society root and branch—a decision crucial in order to produce art rather than polemic.

Q. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?

Solution:

This question asks you to identify the most appropriate title for the passage. You should consider the passage as a self-contained unit, not as part of a larger work. E is the correct answer. The topics of the passage is Woolf’s novels, and the author emphasizes that the novels contain observations concerning “how individuals are shaped (or deformed) by their social environments” 

QUESTION: 39

In the first paragraph of the passage, the author's attitude toward the literary critics mentioned can best be described as

Solution:

The literary critics discussed in the first paragraph ignored Woolf’s intention to criticize society and saw her as a “poetic’ novelist unconcerned with the real world. This question asks you to identify the tone of the remarks made by the author of the passage concerning this assessment of Woolf’s work. A is the correct choice. The author’s characterization of the critics’ assessment as “cavalier”(line 16) can be described as “disparaging”  

QUESTION: 40

It can be inferred from the passage that Woolf chose Chaucer as a literary model because she believed that  

Solution:

The author discusses Woolf’s literary models, emphasizing Chaucer, in the last paragraph. The reason why Woolf chose Chaucer as her model is not directly stated in the passage but must be inferred from the information there. D is the correct answer. Line 61 indicates that Woolf’s work as a moralist is subtle and done ‘ by indirection.” Woolf’s statement that readers absorb morality at every pore despite the fact that no laws were changed because of Chaucer indicates that she believed Chaucer’s influence to be subtle. Therefore, it is likely that it was Chaucer’s subtle effectiveness that led Woolf to choose him as a model.

QUESTION: 41

It can be inferred from the passage that the most probable reason Woolf realistically described the social setting in the majority of her novels was that she ​

Solution:

In lines 25-28, the author states that Woolf’s novels presented social settings realistically. The question asks why Woolf did so. B is the best answer. In lines 19-22, Wooolf’s interest in the effect of social environment on the individual is described. The juxtaposition of these lines with the statement in lines 25-28 strongly suggests that Woolf realistically described social settings because she was interested in their effect on character. 

QUESTION: 42

Which of the following phrases best expresses the sense of the word "contemplative" as it is used in line 51 of the passage?

Solution:

This question refers you to line 54 of the passage so that you can evaluate the context in which the author uses the word “contemplative.” You are to choose the definition of “contemplative” that is closest in meaning to the use of the word in that context. C is the best answer. Lines 51-55 suggest that a contemplative art is expressed indirectly, rather than by “aggressive assertion.” Lines 57-60 point out that Woolf, as a contemplative novelist, encourages readers to make their own judgements. 

QUESTION: 43

The author implies that a major element of the satirist's art is the satirist's

Solution:

This question asks you to identify an element that the author thinks is important in the satirist’s art. The colon in line 65 indicates that the information in lines 61-65 describing Woolf’s work leads to the statement, “hers is the satirist’s art.” This statement indicates that conclusions about Woolf’s work as a satirist can lead you to conclusions about the art of satirists in general. E is the correct answer. Lines 61-65 describe Woolf’s satirical art as providing the materials for judgments about mores in an indirect, subtle, and nonassertive way, that is, in a nonpolemical way.  

QUESTION: 44

The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions?

Solution:

This question asks you to determine which of the questions given can be answered using the information in the passage. To make this determination, you must first attempt to answer each question using only the information presented by the author. B is the correct answer. The answer to the question is “No”. In lines 13-15, the author characterizes Woolf as realistic and satirical as well as introspective and visionary. 

QUESTION: 45

One of the truisms of the advertising industry is that it is rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement in order to boost sales. Instead, one only needs to attract the potential customer’s attention; memory does the rest, for it is more important for sales that people know of a product than that they know something about it. Which of the following is assumed by the argument?

Solution:

The passage discusses how advertising usually need only draw people’s attention to a product and need not provide any substance for people to remember the product. Thus, the passage implies that people can remember a product without having much information about it, and A is the correct answer. B is incorrect. The passage suggests that if advertisements draw people’s attention to a product, the people are more apt to remember the product. The advertisement is not said to improve people’s memories, only to draw people’s attention so they will use their existing memories. C is also incorrect. The passage says that all one usually needs to do is attract a potential customer’s attention. It does not say how easy or difficult that is. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage says that it is rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement but does not suggest that the advertising industry knows little of substance about the product. 

QUESTION: 46

The company announced that its profits declined much less in the second quarter than analysts had expected it to and its business will improve in the second half of the year.

Solution:

B, the best choice, avoids errors of agreement, correctly uses the parallel construction that x and that y, and uses would rather than will to refer to a promised but uncertain future event. In A and C, singular it after expected has no grammatical referent: its antecedent cannot be The company, but rather must be the plural profits. Choices A and C also contain errors of verb form, using will where would is required. Choices A and D fail to maintain parallel structure: properly formed, the construction would have that after expected to parallel that after announced. Furthermore, in D, the addition of them to is unnecessary. Choice E illogically uses the future perfect will have improved to suggest completion of an action that will be continuous in the second half of the year. 
Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning) 

QUESTION: 47

Why save endangered species? For the general public, endangered species appear to be little more than biological oddities. A very different perception is gained from considering the issue of extinction in a wider context. The important point is that many major social advances have been made on the basis of life forms whose worth would never have been perceived in advance. Consider the impact of rubber-producing plants on contemporary life and industry: approximately two-thirds of the world’s rubber supply comes from rubber producing plants and is made into objects as diverse as rubber washers and rubber boots.
The point of the passage is made chiefly by

Solution:

The passage suggests that considering the possibility of extinction with an eye toward the possible utility of a previously unvalued species will lead to a different answer to the question than considering the possibility of extinction from a more general perspective. C describes the author’s procedure of suggesting a new perspective and is thus the correct answer.  The first choice is incorrect. The author argues that it is important to preserve endangered species without endorsing any opposing point of view. The view attributed to the general public is not accepted; rather, an argument is given to show what that view misses. B is incorrect. The author uses an approach that is primarily factual, and does not seek to arouse the emotions of its audience. D is also incorrect. The author tries to undermine an opposing position by presenting an alternative to it. The last answer choice is incorrect. The generalization about the potential value of life forms whose value was not perceived in advance is supported by an example of a similar case, namely that of rubber plants.

QUESTION: 48

The gyrfalcon, an Arctic bird of prey, has survived a close brush with extinction; its numbers are now five times greater than when the use of DDT was sharply restricted in the early 1970's.  

Solution:

A, the best choice, uses a singular pronoun, its, to refer to the singular antecedent The gyrfalcon, and it properly uses the construction its numbers are now ... greater than. In B, the construction its numbers are ... more is not idiomatic: there are more birds, but not more numbers. Choices C and D use a plural pronoun, their or they, to refer to a grammatically singular antecedent, The gyrfalcon. Choices D and E wrongly use a phrase introduced by now with to modify The gyrfalcon. In both choices, the phrase confusingly seems to parallel with extinction; a new clause with a present tense verb is needed to state what the gyrfalcon's numbers are now. 
Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning) 

QUESTION: 49

Only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law that would protect the environment from industrial interests. Ellen cannot be a member of the Regionalist party because she supports the bill. Which of the following statements points out why the conclusion is invalidly drawn?

Solution:

The fact that only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill does not imply that all members of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill. Based on the initial statement, Ellen may or may not be a member of the Regionalist party if she supports the bill. For the conclusion to be valid, the initial statement would have to read, “All members of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law…” Thus, the choice of D makes the relevant logical point.  The first three answer choices are incorrect. Each presents at best a piece of background information without being specifically related to the question of whether all Regionalist party members would oppose the bill. The last answer choice is also incorrect. Ellen’s attending programs and distributing literature prepared by the Regionalist party might appear to make it likely that the conclusion is false. But suggesting that the conclusion might be false does not help show why the conclusion is invalidly drawn

QUESTION: 50

Three out of every four automobile owners in the United States also own a bicycle.

Solution:

A, the best choice, is concise, idiomatic, and maintains subject-verb agreement. In B, Out of every four, three is unidiomatic. The singular verb owns does not agree with its plural subject, three ... owners. The passive construction in C (Bicycles are owned by) is cumbersome and does not contribute meaningfully to the sentence. The shift to plural Bicycles detracts from clarity by suggesting that multiple bicycles are owned by each person in question. In D, the singular owns does not agree with its plural subject three... owners. Furthermore, the plural bicycles detracts from clarity by suggesting that multiple bicycles are owned by each person in question. In E, the phrase beginning Out of every four ... cannot properly modify bicycles, and the passive construction (bicycles are also owned) is awkward and does not contribute meaningfully to the sentence. The plural nouns bicycles and automobiles suggest imprecisely that each person owns more than one of each. 

QUESTION: 51

Analysts blamed May's sluggish retail sales on unexciting merchandise as well as the weather, colder and wetter than was usual in some regions. which slowed sales of barbecue grills and lawn furniture.

Solution:

Choice B is the best answer. It is concise and idiomatic, and which has a clear referent, the weather. In A, the insertion of was is unnecessary, and the referent of which is not clear because regions, not weather, is the nearest noun. In C, the adjective usual is needed in place of the adverb usually, and the referent of which is unclear because regions, not weather, is the nearest noun. In D and E, the verb phrases (being colder ..., having been colder . ..) do not refer as clearly to the noun weather as the pronoun which does. Choice D needs the adjective usual in place of the adverb usually, while choice E fails to maintain parallelism in verb tense (having been... and slowed). 

QUESTION: 52

Questions 15- 18 are based on the following passage.
It is a popular misconception that nuclear fusion power is free of radioactivity; in fact, the deuterium-tritium reaction that nuclear (5) scientists are currently exploring with such zeal produces both alpha particles and neutrons, (The neutrons are used to produce tritium from a lithium blanket surrounding the reactor.) Another common (10) misconception is that nuclear fusion power is a virtually unlimited source of energy because of the enormous quantity of deuterium in the sea. Actually, its limits are set by the amount of (15) available lithium, which is about as plentiful as uranium in the Earth's crust. Research should certainly continue on controlled nuclear fusion,but no energy program should be premised (20) on its existence until it has proven practical. For the immediate future, we must continue to use hydroelectric power, nuclear fission, and fossil fuels to meet our energy needs. The energy (25) sources already in major use are in major use for good reason. 
15. The primary purpose of the passage is to  

Solution:

This question asks you to determine the primary purpose of the passage. In order to do this, you must take into account all of the information in the passage. D is the best answer. The author mentions several reasons why nuclear fusion should not be accepted as a major source of energy at this time and recommends continued critical evaluation of its potential.  

QUESTION: 53

16. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following about the current state of public awareness concerning nuclear fusion power? 

Solution:

This question asks you to use the specific statements made in the passage to determine what the author believes about public awareness of nuclear fusion power. C is the correct answer. The author specifically mentions two misconceptions about nuclear fusion that he believes are generally held, indicating that he believes that people’s knowledge of the scientific facts is incomplete. 

QUESTION: 54

17. The passage provides information that would answer which of the following questions?

Solution:

This question asks you to determine which of the questions given can be answered using the information in the passage. To make this determination, you must first attempt to answer each question using only the information presented by the author. A is the correct answer. The answer to the question posed in this choice is “the sea.” The passage states that it is commonly believed that there is an enormous quantity of deuterium in the sea; the author does not deny this.

QUESTION: 55

18. Which of the following statements concerning nuclear scientists is most directly suggested in the passage?

Solution:

The author mentions nuclear scientists only once, near the beginning of the passage. This question asks you to determine what the passage most directly suggests about them. D is the correct answer. The author’s statement that scientists are studying the deuterium-tritium reaction with “zeal” suggests that he believes that they are not dispassionate.  

QUESTION: 56

Balding is much more common among White males than males of other races.

Solution:

B, the best choice, correctly uses the idiomatic construction more common among x than among y. In A, the comparison is not parallel and not clear; one illogical but available reading is that balding is more  common among White males than are males of other races. To be clear, the sentence should read more common among White males than among .... In C, the phrase is so cannot refer to the process Balding, and more common among ... than is so lacks parallelism. In D and E, the phrases more common... compared to and more common ... in comparison with are redundant and unidiomatic. The correct form is more common than. 

QUESTION: 57

The bank holds $3 billion in loans that are seriously delinquent or in such trouble that they do not expect payments when due.

Solution:

Choice C, the best answer, expresses its meaning clearly and directly, with subject-verb agreement throughout. Choice A is incorrect: although in some dialects of English a bank is treated as a plural entity, in this case The bank holds clearly establishes that bank is grammatically singular, and thus it cannot be referred to with the plural pronoun they. Furthermore, the structure of they do not expect payments when due makes the modification of due unclear. In B, it correctly refers to the singular bank, but payments when it is due introduces an agreement error between plural payments and singular it. In D and E, the use of the passive (payments are not... expected to be paid) does not contribute meaningfully to the sentence and thus is unwarranted, while payments... to be paid is redundant and unidiomatic. Also, are not to be in D and will be in E inappropriately shift action to the future. Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning) 

QUESTION: 58

Roberta was born in 1967, and so in 1976 she was nine years old. It is clear from this example that the last two digits of a person’s birth year will be the same as the last two digits of the year of that person’s ninth birthday, except that the position of the digits will be reversed. Which of the following is the best criticism of the assertions made?

Solution:

The generalization is only true for some birth years. A good criticism of the generalization would show when the generalization is not true. C does just that and thus is the correct answer. A is incorrect. It is false that the generalization holds for all years that do not end in two zeros. For example, 1970 is a birth year that does not end in two zeros. However, 1970 plus nine equals 1979, and hence this is a case for which the generalization is not valid. Since this answer choice is false, it cannot be a good criticism of the assertions. 
The second answer choice is also incorrect. In the example, the last two digits of the person’s birth year-67-are the same as the last two digits of the year of the person’s ninth birthday-76-except reversed. Thus, the example does in fact exhibit the same principle as the generalization. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The difference between 1976 and 1967 is nine. The correctness of the first statement depends only on this fact and the fact that Roberta was born in 1967 and was still alive in 1976. Thus, the truth of the generalization is not presupposed. The last answer choice is also incorrect. Consider birth year 1923. a person born in 1923 would have been nine in 1932 and the generalization holds. So E is false. 

QUESTION: 59

The nephew of Pliny the Elder wrote the only eyewitness account of the great eruption of Vesuvius in two letters to the historian Tacitus.

Solution:

E, the best choice, conveys its meaning clearly, without ambiguity, and uses straightforward syntax. In A, the placement of the phrase in two letters to the historian Tacitus generates ambiguity: the nonsensical suggestion is that the eruption of Vesuvius took place in the letters themselves. In B, the verb phrase that begins being the only eyewitness accounts modifies the subject of the preceding clause, suggesting nonsensically that the nephew of Pliny the Elder himself was the eyewitness accounts. Furthermore, To the historian Tacitus, the nephew... wrote two letters is unnecessarily clumsy. In C, the meaning of the sentence is unclear (The only eyewitness account of what?), the repetition of account is clumsy, and the syntax is highly convoluted (... in two letters by the nephew of Pliny the Elder writing to the historian Tacitus an account...). In D, Writing the only eyewitness account, Pliny the Elder's nephew accounted is redundant, and the placement of in two letters to the historian Tacitus generates ambiguity, suggesting under one available reading that the eruption took place in the letters. 

QUESTION: 60

In A.D. 391. resulting from the destruction of the largest library of the ancient world at Alexandria, later generations lost all but the lliad and Odyssey among Greek epics, most of the poetry of Pindar and Sappho, and dozens of plays by Aeschylus and Euripides.

Solution:

D, the best choice, uses the idiomatic as a result o/and conveys information unambiguously. In A, the phrase that begins resulting from cannot properly modify later generations. The word order of the largest library of the ancient world at Alexandria generates ambiguity: one possible reading is that the ancient world was located at Alexandria. Choice B is incorrect. Although an "-ing" verb such as destroying can sometimes act as a noun, in this case the usage is strained. Again, at Alexandria is ambiguous (as in choice A). Choice B also uses resulted ungrammatically and produces a run-on sentence (In A.D. 391, the destroying... resulted and later generations lost). In C, the phrase because of the result of is unidiomatic as well as redundant. The structure of E illogically suggests that there was more than one largest library of the ancient world and that only Alexandria's was destroyed. Furthermore, the result was should instead be the result was that. 

QUESTION: 61

Scientists believe that unlike the males of most species of moth, the male whistling moths of Nambung, Australia, call female moths to them by the use of acoustical signals, but not olfactory ones, and they attract their mates during the day, rather than at night.

Solution:

Choice D, the best answer, is concise, maintains parallel structure, and clearly conveys the comparisons being made between the two types of moth. In A and E, the comparison between most male moths and the male whistling moth is not clear. The use of but not does not clearly convey that most other moths use olfactory signals; rather than would be preferable, as well as parallel to rather than at night. In A, the phrase by the use of is unnecessarily wordy, and the insertion of they is not required. In E, the final verb should be attract (parallel to call), not attracting (parallel to using). Choice B violates parallelism with by the use of... instead of using, as well as with call... and attracting. Choice C distorts the meaning of the original with its suggestion that male whistling moths call female moths to them both by using acoustical signals and by attracting their mates during the day. The insertion of using in not using olfactory ones is unnecessary. 
Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning) 

QUESTION: 62

The state with the greatest fraction of its population in urban areas, if the urban areas are considered to include the suburbs, is California. The West is highly urbanized, but California is exceptional even in that region: 91 percent of its population lives in urban areas. Geographically, however, California is rural: 96 percent of its land is outside urban areas. If all of the statements are true, which of the following is best supported on the basis of them? 

Solution:

The passage states that of all the states, California has the greatest fraction of its population (91 out of 100) living in urban areas. That means only 9 out of every 100 California residents live in rural areas. The  greatest fraction of any other states’ population living in urban areas, to be smaller than California’s fraction, must be 90 or fewer out of every 100. That means that, in every other state, 10 or more out of every 100 residents live in rural areas. Since 9 out of every 100 is smaller than 10 or more out of every 100, so A is the correct answer. B is incorrect. In order to decide whether this statement is true, it is necessary to know about rates of population growth. No such information is provided in the passage. The third answer choice is also incorrect. Since 96 percent of the land is outside urban areas, 4 percent is inside urban areas. Thus, 91 percent of the population lives on 4 percent of the land. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage does not provide enough information to determine whether this statement is true or false. No comparison is made between the amount of land area in California devoted to urban settlement and the amount of land area in other states devoted to urban settlement. E is incorrect. The passage does not provide sufficient information to determine whether this statement is true or false. Information on the actual size of the population as compared to total land area of California and other states would be necessary to make a judgment about population density in these states.

QUESTION: 63

A ten-year comparison between the countries of Arudia and Cazonia in terms of crop yields per acre revealed that when only planted acreae is compared, Cazonian yields are equal to 68 percent of Arudian yields. When total agricultural acreage (planted acreage plus fallow acreage) is compared, however, Cazonia’s yield is 114 percent of Arudia’s yield.  From the information above, which of the following can be most reliably inferred about Arudian and Cazonian agriculture during the ten-year period? 

Solution:

If crop yield per planted acre was less in Cazonia than it was in Arudia, yet crop yield per total (planted plus fallow) agricultural acreage was greater in Cazonia than it was in Arudia, there must have been a lower percentage of the total acreage that was left fallow in Cazonia than there was in Arudia. Therefore, the correct answer is A.  B is incorrect. From the information in the passage, it is impossible to tell whether Arudia had more or less fallow acreage than planted acreage. C is not correct. Since the comparisons made in the passage are based on crop yields per acre, it is impossible to tell whether there was more or less fallow acreage in Cazonia than in Arudia. D is also incorrect. From the information in the passage, it is impossible to tell whether Cazonia had more or less planted acreage than fallow acreage. The last answer choice is incorrect. Since the comparisons made in the passage are based on crop yields per acre, it is impossible to tell whether Cazonia produced a greater volume of crops than Arudia produced.  

QUESTION: 64

In the United States between 1850 and 1880, the number of farmers continued to increase, but at a rate lower than that of the general population.  Which of the following statements directly contradicts the information presented above?

Solution:

The passage indicates that the proportion of farmers in the general population decreased from 1850 to 1880. the fifth answer choice says exactly the opposite-that this proportion increased; therefore, it contradicts the passage and is the correct response. A is incorrect. The passage also indicates that the number of farmers increased between 1850 and 1880, and thus agrees with this choice. B is also incorrect. The passage does not tell us about the rate of growth of the labor force. It can be inferred from the passage that the general population grew, but this choice agrees with, rather than contradicts, this conclusion. The choice of C is not the correct answer. We cannot draw any conclusions about the proportion of farmers in the labor force from the passage alone. The fourth is also incorrect. We cannot draw any conclusions about the proportion of farmers in the labor force from the passage alone. 

QUESTION: 65

The British sociologist and activist Barbara Wootton once noted as a humorous example of income maldistribution that the elephant that gave rides to children at the Whipsnade Zoo was earning annually exactly what she then earned as director of adult education for London.

Solution:

Choice A, the best answer, uses the idiomatic construction noted... that and clearly focuses on the salient information-- a comparison of annual earnings. In B, the structure of noted... that the elephant, giving rides ..., had been earning falsely implies that the reader already knows about the elephant--that is, that the existence of this particular elephant is not new information. Also, the past perfect had been improperly places the elephant's earning in the past, prior to Wootton's; consistent verb tense is needed to show that the actions are simultaneous. Choice C may be faulted for distortion of meaning and diminished clarity because it suggests that the point of Wootton's example was the elephant's very existence; comparative earnings are presented (after and) as incidental detail. Choice D is awkward and inexact; the whole circumstance that Wootton "noted" is best expressed in a clause that begins with that. Choice E does not use the idiomatic construction noted that x; therefore, and that it earned has no parallel construction to which it can be joined. 

QUESTION: 66

Five fledgling sea eagles left their nests in western Scotland this summer, bringing to 34 the number of wild birds successfully raised since transplants from Norway began in 1975. 
 

Solution:

Choice A is best. The "-ing" (present participle) form introduces action that is simultaneous with the action of the main clause; i.e., bringing indicates that the number of wild birds became 34 when the sea eagles left their nests. In B, there is no subject available for the singular present-tense verb brings. The subject cannot be eagles, since that noun is plural and the action of its verb left is in the past. Neither C nor D contains a grammatical referent for it. In E, the use of and brought implies two discrete actions on the part of the eagles, and thus lacks the clarity of the best answer, where bringing underscores the cause-and-effect nature of the situation.

QUESTION: 67

According to some economists, the July decrease in unemployment so that it was the lowest in two years suggests that the gradual improvement in the job market is continuing.​

Solution:

E, the best choice, employs idiomatic construction and uses the precise decrease ... to the lowest level. Choices A and B are faulty in construction. The adverbial so that can modify verbs (e.g., decreased) but not nouns (e.g., the decrease). The meaning of lowest two-year rate in B is unclear; in any event the phrase distorts the intended meaning of lowest in two years. In A and B, the referent of it is unclear, as the pronoun could refer to either unemployment or decrease. Choice C improperly uses would be to describe a situation that is presented as a current and known fact. Also, there is no noun for lowest to modify; clearly "the lowest decrease" is not intended. In D, the phrase two-year low level is unidiomatic, as well as unclear in its intended meaning. 

QUESTION: 68

The 38 corporations that filed United States income tax returns showing a net income of more than $ 100 million accounted for 53 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources reported on all tax returns. Sixty percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources came from the 200 returns reporting income from 10 or more countries. If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true? 

Solution:

If 38 tax returns in one category account for 53 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources, and if 200 tax returns in another category account for 60 percent of the same amount, then the two categories must overlap to some extent. Only if the two percentages, added together, amounted to 100 percent or less is there not necessarily any overlap. Here, the two percentages add up to 113 percent. The answer choice that expresses an overlap between the category of corporations with a net income of above $ 100 million and that of corporations with income from 10 or more countries is D, which is thus the correct answer.  A is not correct. Whereas corporations with net incomes of above $ 100 million account for more than half of the total taxable income from foreign sources, we cannot tell from the information given what proportion of their own total incomes from all sources is derived from incomes from foreign sources. The second answer choice is incorrect. All we can infer is that 47 percent was reported by taxpayers other than corporations with net incomes above $ 100 million. These taxpayers could be other corporations with somewhat lower incomes. C is not the correct answer choice. The figures of 53 and 60 percent refer to percentages of total taxable income from foreign sources. Neither these nor any other figures in the passage refer to or imply any percentages of all reported taxable income. E, the last choice, is also incorrect. Since there are only 38 corporations with reported net incomes of more than $ 100 million, but 200 taxpayers with income from 10 or more countries, at the very most somewhat less than 20 percent of those 200 taxpayers could report net incomes of more than $ 100 million. 

QUESTION: 69

Questions 32- 34 are based on the following passage.
Tocqueville, apparently, was wrong. Jacksonian America was not a fluid, egalitarian society where individual wealth and poverty were ephemeral (5) conditions. At least to argues E. Pessen in his iconoclastic study of the very rich in the United States between 1825 and 1850. Pessen does present a quantity of (10) examples, together with some refreshingly intelligible statistics, to establish the existence of an inordinately wealthy class. Though active in commerce or the professions, (15) most of the wealthy were not self-made, but had inherited family fortunes. In no sense mercurial, these great fortunes survived the financial panics that destroyed lesser ones. Indeed, in (20) several cities the wealthiest one percent constantly increased its share until by 1850 it owned half of the community's wealth. Although these observations are true, Pessen (25) overestimates their importance by concluding from them that the undoubted progress toward inequality in the late eighteenth century continued in the Jacksonian period and that the United (30) States was a class-ridden, plutocratic society even before industrialization.
32. According to the passage, Pessen indicates that all of the following were true of the very wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850 EXCEPT: 

Solution:

The author of the passage discusses the work of another author, Pessen. This question asks what statements the author of the passage attributes to pessen concerning the very wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850. You are to identify the one statement that CANNOT be correctly attributed to Pessen. Therefore, you must first determine which of the statements given can be attributed to Pessen. D is the correct answer. According to the second paragraph, “most of the wealthy were not self-made, but had inherited family fortunes.” Therefore, they did NOT accumulate their own fortunes.

QUESTION: 70

33.The author's attitude toward Pessen's presentation of statistics can be best described as

Solution:

To answer this question, you must determine the attitude of the author of the passage toward Pessen’s presentation of statistics. The author of the passage discusses Pessen’s statistics near the beginning of the second paragraph. He calls Pessen’s statistics “refreshingly intelligible.” E is the correct answer. The words “refreshingly intelligible” can be taken as praise, so “laudatory” describes the author’s attitude toward Pessen’s presentation of statistics. 

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following best states the author's main point?​

Solution:

This question asks you to identify the main point that the author of the passage makes. To do this, you must separate the author’s description of Pessen’s work and views from the author’s evaluation of Pessen’s work.. E is the correct answer. According to the first paragraph, Pessen challenges Tocqueville’s view. According to the first paragraph, Pessen challenges Tocquevile’s view. According to the second paragraph, Pessen’s conclusions are incorrect.  
Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning) 

QUESTION: 72

The greater the division of labor in an economy, the greater the need for coordination. This is because increased division of labor entails a larger number of specialized producers, which results in a greater burden on managers and, potentially, in a greater number of disruptions of supply and production. There is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies. If all of the statements given are true, the which of the following must also be true?

Solution:

If, as the first statement claims, greater division of labor entails a greater need for coordination and if, as the second statement claims, there is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies, then it must be true that the need for coordination in market economies is greater than in planned economies. The first choice is incorrect. If the statements are true, then it is possible, and even expected, that disruptions of supply and production are NOT more frequent in planned economies than in market economies. The statements suggest that since there is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies, there is potentially a greater number of disruptions in market economies than in planned economies. B is not correct. One would expect there to be fewer, not more, specialized producers in planned economies than in market economies, other things being equal. This is because, according to the statements, there is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies and because increased division of labor entails a larger number of specialized  producers. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The statement lead to the conclusion that a manager’s task would be harder, not easier, in a market economy than in a planned economy. This is because the increased division of labor that exists in a market economy entails a larger number of specialized producers. The last answer choice, E is also incorrect. The statement that division of labor functions more effectively in market economies than in planned economies does not follow from the statements given. The statements imply that such effectiveness is dependent on the amount of coordination available, but no information concerning that amount is given. 

QUESTION: 73

Being a United States citizen since 1988 and born in Calcutta in 1940, author Bharati Mukherjee has lived in England and Canada, and first came to the United States in 1961 to study at the Iowa Writers' Workshop. 

Solution:

The first clause presents its information clearly and in logical sequence. The use of a semicolon to set apart the remaining information further assists the clarity of the sentence. In A, the phrase Being... and born violates parallelism and oddly presents its information in reverse chronological order. Choice B illogically suggests that upon her birth in 1940, Mukherjee had already been a United States citizen since 1988. In D and E, the use of progressive forms (Being born, having been. Having been born, and being) implies continuous action, a notion that is not appropriate to the facts being presented. Also, these forms do not establish a logical time sequence, suggesting, for example, that Mukherjee had been a United States citizen before she lived in England and Canada and first came to the United States. 

QUESTION: 74

Initiated five centuries after Europeans arrived in the New World on Columbus Day 1992. Project SETI pledged a $100 million investment in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence.

Solution:

Choice C, the best answer, is a complete sentence, and its (initial structures correctly modify Project SETI so that there is no ambiguity regarding when events took place. Choice A is faulty because its construction illogically suggests that Europeans arrived in the New World on Columbus Day 1992 and that Project SETI was initiated five centuries thereafter. In B, Initiated on Columbus Day ... illogically modifies a $100 million investment, suggesting that it was the investment itself, not Project SETI, that was initiated. In D and E, the initial phrase beginning with Pledging in both cases illogically modifies the initiation of Project SETI; it is not the project's initiation, but the project itself, that pledged a certain investment. Furthermore, D is a sentence fragment, while E may be faulted for ambiguity. The phrase five centuries after could modify either Pledging or the search, and on Columbus Day 1992 could refer to the date of either the initiation of Project SETI or the arrival of Europeans in the New World. Directions: For each question. select the best of the answer choices given. (Critical Reasoning) 

QUESTION: 75

The greatest chance for the existence of extraterrestrial life is on a planet beyond our solar system. The Milky Way galaxy alone contains 100 billion other suns, many of which could be accompanied by planets similar enough to Earth to make them suitable abodes of life.
The statement presupposes which of the following?​

Solution:

In stating that planets may exist that are similar enough to Earth to make them suitable for supporting life, the author implicitly rules out planets dissimilar to Earth as likely to support life. The assumption underlying the statement is that life on another planet is likely to require conditions similar to those on Earth. Therefore, E is the correct answer. A is not correct. The statement presupposes nothing about the appearance of extraterrestrial life. B is incorrect. The statement implies that it is relatively unlikely that life exists on other planets in our solar system, but it makes no presupposition absolutely ruling out the possibility that such life exists. The answer choice of C is incorrect. Although the statement suggests that there is the greatest chance for life when physical conditions are appropriate, it leaves open the possibility that no life will exist even with appropriate conditions. D is also incorrect. The statement says that it is possible that more than one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied by an Earth-like planet, but it does not presuppose that there are actually any such suns. 

QUESTION: 76

The direction in which the Earth and the other solid planets --Mercury, Venus, and Mars -- spins were determined from collisions with giant celestial bodies in the early history of the Solar System.

Solution:

D, the best choice, is clear and concise, and uses correct subject-verb agreement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they use the singular verb spins for the plural subject Earth and the other solid planets--Mercury, Venus, and Mars. Choices A and B furthermore incorrectly use the plural were, which does not agree with the singular subject The direction. To express cause, determined by is idiomatic; the prepositions from and through in A and C are not idiomatic. The phrase determined because of in B is redundant. In E, the phrase determined as a result of is redundant, awkward, and unidiomatic. 

QUESTION: 77

Thomas Eakins' powerful style and his choices of subject--the advances in modern surgery, the discipline of sport, the strains of individuals in tension with society or even with themselves--was as disturbing to his own time as it is compelling for ours.

Solution:

Choice B, the best answer, exhibits correct subject-verb agreement and uses appropriate verb tenses. Choices A, C, and D contain errors of agreement: the compound subject style and... choices of subject requires a plural verb and should correspond to the plural pronoun they, not it. Furthermore, C wrongly shifts to the present perfect tense (has been) to characterize something that happened in the past, while D uses the past tense was to characterize something that is happening in the present. In E, while the plural have agrees in number with the compound subject, the use of the present perfect tense (have been) is inappropriate for characterizing the effect of Eakins' work in his own time. 

QUESTION: 78

In a recent poll, 86 percent of the public favored a Clean Air Act as strong or stronger than the present act.

Solution:

E, the best choice, is concise, clear, and idiomatic. Choices A, B, C, and D may be faulted for constructions that are cumbersome, unnecessarily wordy, or unidiomatic. Choices A and D require as strong as instead of as strong. Similarly, B is missing than after stronger, and so should be as. In C and D, is should be dropped. Even with revisions, these choices are more wordy and awkward than the best answer.

QUESTION: 79


The graph at the left is a scatter plot with 35 points, each representing the population of a city and the number of auto thefts in that city, per person, per year. All 35 measurements were made in the year 2010, counting the number of auto thefts during the year and the number of residents in each city as of January 1, 2010. The dashed line runs through points (0,0) and (35,1200).

Q. If a city had no more than 20 auto thefts per 1,000 people, it had a population of no more than _______  people..

Solution:

With the 20 thefts per 1,000 gridline as the right-hand border for your search, you can see that the highest data point to the left of that line is just below 1,000,000.

QUESTION: 80


The graph at the left is a scatter plot with 35 points, each representing the population of a city and the number of auto thefts in that city, per person, per year. All 35 measurements were made in the year 2010, counting the number of auto thefts during the year and the number of residents in each city as of January 1, 2010. The dashed line runs through points (0,0) and (35,1200).

Q. The dashed line has a slope that is  _________   the slope of the regression line.

Solution:

The dashed line starts below the regression line and ends above it, proving its steeper (and therefore greater) slope.

QUESTION: 81


The graph at the left is a scatter plot with 35 points, each representing the population of a city and the number of auto thefts in that city, per person, per year. All 35 measurements were made in the year 2010, counting the number of auto thefts during the year and the number of residents in each city as of January 1, 2010. The dashed line runs through points (0,0) and (35,1200).

Q. According to this chart, a city with more than 10 auto thefts per 1,000 people is  ________ to have a population of at least 600,000 people

Solution:

Looking the to the right of the 10 thefts-per-thousand line, you can see that more data points exist above the 600,000 line than below it.

QUESTION: 82

Message 1:
Message sent from a real estate agent to his clients 
10:15 AM - Good news! We have received an offer on your home. The offer is for $300,000. While I know this is quite a bit lower than your asking price, it is common for buyers to make an aggressively low bid to try to bring down the seller's price. Based on my experience, I expect that you can counter at a price of $345,000, and still end up agreeing on a price that is no lower than 10% below your asking price. Just let me know what you would like to do!

Message 2: 
Message sent from clients to their real estate agent, in response to the agent's 10:15 AM message
 
10:52 AM - We are glad to hear that someone has made an offer on our home! You are right, though. Their offer is very low compared to our asking price. While we understand that is the nature of negotiation, we are reluctant to give so much ground that we end up at a price that's too low for us. After giving it some thought, we think that making a counter offer at $350,000 makes sense. That gives us room to negotiate more if the buyer wants to make another counter offer. Also, there are other concessions we would be willing to make besides price, if you think that might help us reach a deal. Please communicate our counter offer to the buyer, and let us know how it goes.

Message 3:
Message sent from a real estate agent to his clients, in response to their 10:52 AM message
 
12:28 PM - I talked to the buyers' agent, and it sounds as though they are willing to negotiate further on price, although the buyers have said that $350,000 is "a lot more' than they can afford. I also mentioned your willingness to negotiate on items other than price, and they have expressed that making this sale happen no later than mid-August appeals to them, they can get settled before the new school year starts for their children. I expect that, if you offer them a price of $330,000 and agree to make the deal happen by early August, they will agree to a deal. Please let me know what you would like to do.

Consider each of the following statement. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Statement : The home sellers' asking price for their home is at least $380,000.

Solution:

No.
While it is true that $345,000 is 10% lower than approximately $383,000, it is unknown whether the "end up agreeing upon" price that the real estate agent suggests will happen is going to be that $345,000. It is more likely, from the rest of the emails, that the $345,000 counteroffer will settle at a price at least substantially lower than that, making the final price equal to more than 10% less than $380,000. Accordingly, we cannot determine whether the asking price is greater than or less than $380,000.

QUESTION: 83

Message 1:
Message sent from a real estate agent to his clients 
10:15 AM - Good news! We have received an offer on your home. The offer is for $300,000. While I know this is quite a bit lower than your asking price, it is common for buyers to make an aggressively low bid to try to bring down the seller's price. Based on my experience, I expect that you can counter at a price of $345,000, and still end up agreeing on a price that is no lower than 10% below your asking price. Just let me know what you would like to do!

Message 2: 
Message sent from clients to their real estate agent, in response to the agent's 10:15 AM message
 
10:52 AM - We are glad to hear that someone has made an offer on our home! You are right, though. Their offer is very low compared to our asking price. While we understand that is the nature of negotiation, we are reluctant to give so much ground that we end up at a price that's too low for us. After giving it some thought, we think that making a counter offer at $350,000 makes sense. That gives us room to negotiate more if the buyer wants to make another counter offer. Also, there are other concessions we would be willing to make besides price, if you think that might help us reach a deal. Please communicate our counter offer to the buyer, and let us know how it goes.

Message 3:
Message sent from a real estate agent to his clients, in response to their 10:52 AM message
 
12:28 PM - I talked to the buyers' agent, and it sounds as though they are willing to negotiate further on price, although the buyers have said that $350,000 is "a lot more' than they can afford. I also mentioned your willingness to negotiate on items other than price, and they have expressed that making this sale happen no later than mid-August appeals to them, they can get settled before the new school year starts for their children. I expect that, if you offer them a price of $330,000 and agree to make the deal happen by early August, they will agree to a deal. Please let me know what you would like to do.

Consider each of the following statement. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Statement : For the buyers, the ability to complete the purchase before mid-August is more important than the final price of the home.

Solution:

No. 
While the third email suggests that a mid-August closing date is important to the buyers, it does not necessarily indicate that such a closing date is more important than price. In fact, that very same email includes a firm rebuke of the $350,000 price point, suggesting that the final price of the home is a primary concern of the buyers.

QUESTION: 84

Message 1:
Message sent from a real estate agent to his clients 
10:15 AM - Good news! We have received an offer on your home. The offer is for $300,000. While I know this is quite a bit lower than your asking price, it is common for buyers to make an aggressively low bid to try to bring down the seller's price. Based on my experience, I expect that you can counter at a price of $345,000, and still end up agreeing on a price that is no lower than 10% below your asking price. Just let me know what you would like to do!

Message 2: 
Message sent from clients to their real estate agent, in response to the agent's 10:15 AM message
 
10:52 AM - We are glad to hear that someone has made an offer on our home! You are right, though. Their offer is very low compared to our asking price. While we understand that is the nature of negotiation, we are reluctant to give so much ground that we end up at a price that's too low for us. After giving it some thought, we think that making a counter offer at $350,000 makes sense. That gives us room to negotiate more if the buyer wants to make another counter offer. Also, there are other concessions we would be willing to make besides price, if you think that might help us reach a deal. Please communicate our counter offer to the buyer, and let us know how it goes.

Message 3:
Message sent from a real estate agent to his clients, in response to their 10:52 AM message
 
12:28 PM - I talked to the buyers' agent, and it sounds as though they are willing to negotiate further on price, although the buyers have said that $350,000 is "a lot more' than they can afford. I also mentioned your willingness to negotiate on items other than price, and they have expressed that making this sale happen no later than mid-August appeals to them, they can get settled before the new school year starts for their children. I expect that, if you offer them a price of $330,000 and agree to make the deal happen by early August, they will agree to a deal. Please let me know what you would like to do.

Consider each of the following statement. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Statement : It is possible for the buyers and sellers to make a deal in which neither side needs to change its opening offer by more than 15%

Solution:

Yes. 
The buyers have initially offered $300,000, so a 15% compromise for them would be $345,000. And the sellers' agent has noted that, at $345,000, the sellers would receive a price that at maximum would reflect a 10% reduction from their opening price. This puts the maximum offer price at $383,000, a price for which 15% off would be less than $326,000. Accordingly, any price between $326,000 and $345,000 would allow both buyer and seller to achieve a price within 15% of their initial offers. Strategically, note that, as $345,000 represents at worst 10% off for the sellers and also represents the full 15% compromise for the buyers, you can answer this without performing any further calculations. A 10% compromise by the sellers and a 15% compromise by the buyers satisfies the statement in this question, so we know that the possibility is true.

QUESTION: 85

Message 1:
Message sent from a real estate agent to his clients 
10:15 AM - Good news! We have received an offer on your home. The offer is for $300,000. While I know this is quite a bit lower than your asking price, it is common for buyers to make an aggressively low bid to try to bring down the seller's price. Based on my experience, I expect that you can counter at a price of $345,000, and still end up agreeing on a price that is no lower than 10% below your asking price. Just let me know what you would like to do!

Message 2: 
Message sent from clients to their real estate agent, in response to the agent's 10:15 AM message
 
10:52 AM - We are glad to hear that someone has made an offer on our home! You are right, though. Their offer is very low compared to our asking price. While we understand that is the nature of negotiation, we are reluctant to give so much ground that we end up at a price that's too low for us. After giving it some thought, we think that making a counter offer at $350,000 makes sense. That gives us room to negotiate more if the buyer wants to make another counter offer. Also, there are other concessions we would be willing to make besides price, if you think that might help us reach a deal. Please communicate our counter offer to the buyer, and let us know how it goes.

Message 3:
Message sent from a real estate agent to his clients, in response to their 10:52 AM message
 
12:28 PM - I talked to the buyers' agent, and it sounds as though they are willing to negotiate further on price, although the buyers have said that $350,000 is "a lot more' than they can afford. I also mentioned your willingness to negotiate on items other than price, and they have expressed that making this sale happen no later than mid-August appeals to them, they can get settled before the new school year starts for their children. I expect that, if you offer them a price of $330,000 and agree to make the deal happen by early August, they will agree to a deal. Please let me know what you would like to do.

Consider each of the following statement. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Statement : The sellers' real estate agent is more likely to accept a lower final price of the home than are the sellers themselves

Solution:

No. 
While the sellers' real estate agent seems more willing to drop prices in negotiation, it is not necessarily true that he will accept a lower price in the end. Email #2 mentions that the sellers are willing to counteroffer at $350,000 in part because that higher price gives them "room to negotiate" underneath, so we do know that the sellers are willing to accept a price lower than $350,000. And the real estate agent explains in Email #3 that he feels that a settling price of $330,000 is possible. Because we do not know whether this price is considered too low by the sellers, we cannot determine whether either party's intent is to sell for lower than the other is willing to accept, and this statement is not necessarily supported by the given information.

QUESTION: 86

Joseph: Health insurance premiums are growing at an alarming rate. This is, in part, because many hospitals and clinics bill for unnecessary diagnostics and tests that inflate the subsequent amount that insurers pay out to them. These expenses are then passed on to consumers in the form of increased insurance premiums. Therefore, reducing the number of unnecessary tests performed by health care providers will be effective in controlling growing health insurance premiums. 

Ronald: Often times, the unnecessary diagnostics that you speak of are the result of decisions made by doctors on behalf of their patients. Doctors will often choose the diagnostics that will allow them to bill insurers for more money, but may not be necessarily benefit the patient in a meaningful way or influence the course of treatment chosen. As a result, in order to succeed in reducing the number of unnecessary tests, we should allow the patient to decide which course of diagnostics they would like to undergo. 

identify the assumptions upon which each person's argument depends. Make only one selection in each column, one for Joseph and one for Ronald.

Solution:

Joseph argues that growing health insurance premiums can be controlled by reducing the number of unnecessary tests performed by doctors. He says this because many tests that are performed, and then billed to insurance providers, are unnecessary. But note the assumption -- while this practice may relate to **some** excess expenditure, the argument assumes that it's enough excess spending that, if it were cut, the health care industry could save quite a bit. Accordingly, the second assumption, that "tests and diagnostic procedures DO NOT make up an insignificant portion of the bills to insurers", is required. Without it -- if we could then say (via the Assumption Negation Technique) that these tests DO represent an insignificant portion of the bill, then their presence or absence does not matter. Accordingly, Joseph's argument requires that fact. 

Ronald argues that, if patients are allowed to make decisions instead of doctors doing so, the number of unnecessary tests will decline. He believes this because of the stated fact that doctors are purposely selecting expensive tests to perform. However, his conclusion is a two-part conclusion -- it's not just that "doctors shouldn't be making these decisions", it's that "patients should, instead". And so his argument assumes that patients will make better decisions. That corresponds with the fourth choice, that "patients are NOT just as likely as doctors to choose the most expensive diagnostics and tests". If that assumption is not true -- if patients ARE just as likely to choose the expensive tests, then Ronald's proposal does not reach his stated aim, to succeed in reducing the number of tests.

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