GMAT Full Mock Test- 4


86 Questions MCQ Test GMAT Mock Test for Practice | GMAT Full Mock Test- 4


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This mock test of GMAT Full Mock Test- 4 for GMAT helps you for every GMAT entrance exam. This contains 86 Multiple Choice Questions for GMAT GMAT Full Mock Test- 4 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this GMAT Full Mock Test- 4 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. GMAT students definitely take this GMAT Full Mock Test- 4 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other GMAT Full Mock Test- 4 extra questions, long questions & short questions for GMAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Though without understanding a word of what is being said, savvy communicators can follow a conversation in a foreign language by interpreting tone of voice and body language.

Solution:

C and D unnecessarily add ‘the person’. It is unclear to whom ‘the person’ refers.
A incorrectly adds ‘though’. B is shorter and simpler than E. Choice B is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 2

Wretched and increasing mendicants are requesting money on the streets, money that seems to be hard to come by in the deteriorating economy.

Solution:

This question involves determining whether words are modifying adjectives or nouns. What does wretched describe? The mendicants. The word ‘mendicants’ is a noun, so wretched stays as an adjective. That eliminates choices D and E. What does increasing refer to? It refers to the word ‘prevalent’, an adjective. Therefore you need an adverb to modify the adjective. Eliminate A and B. Choice C is the correct answer. In addition, the relative pronoun ‘that’ is correctly placed in C, next to the word to which it refers, ‘money’.

QUESTION: 3

The new Xerox machine does more than simply copying documents; it can resize,lighten, and collate.

Solution:

This is a question of parallel structure. It can resize documents, lighten documents, collate documents and copy (or copying) documents. The form copy needs to be used, because this form is consistent with the rest of the sentence. That eliminates choices A, B and C. Choice D is incorrect as it changes the subject of the sentence to the functions of the machine, rather than the machine itself. The word ‘simply’ is in the wrong place in the sentence. The tense is also incorrect.Choice E is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 4

Because both parents worked full-time, they had a nanny who not only watchedthe children and also cleaned the house should it be messy.

Solution:

This question once again deals with idioms. In this case, the idiom you want is ‘not only x but also y’. The ‘not only’ adds a degree of emphasis that the simple conjunction ‘and’ cannot transmit. That leaves us with choices B and D as possible answers. D is shorter and simpler than B. ‘Was’ rather than ‘were’ should be used.Choice D is clearly the correct answer.

QUESTION: 5

Surprisingly obedient, the Smiths have a cat that follows simple instructions like“come” or “sit”, words to which usually only dogs respond.

Solution:

​This question involves a dangling modifier. Who or what is obedient? The cat or the Smiths? The cat. Therefore the word ‘cat’ should come after the word ‘the’.That leaves us with choices C, D and E. The clause containing ‘dogs respond’ uses the simple present tense. Therefore we want a similar form for the cat. Dogs respond, and the cat follows. Choice C is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 6

Actors on Broadway have the difficult task of being singers who must also performas dancers.

Solution:

Choices B, C, D and E incorrectly use the singular ‘dancer’. Choices D and E also incorrectly uses the singular ‘a singer’ to refer to the plural ‘actors’. Choice A is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 7

Regardless of the amount of dairy food they consume in adulthood, people whoconsumed little dairy food in childhood seem to be prone to bone fractures, adisadvantage that suggests a need for higher calcium consumption in childhood.

Solution:

'And have’, ‘and to have’ and ‘and they have’ in B, C, D, and E are unnecessary.Choice A is, therefore, the correct answer.

QUESTION: 8

The defending attorney weakened the prosecution’s arguments so much that, atthe end of the trial, the jury doubted that the victim had even existed.

Solution:

This question involves parallel structure. The attorney weakened something and the jury doubted something. A has this structure. B uses the wrong tense. C is too wordy. D and E are not parallel. Choice A can be the only possible answer.

QUESTION: 9

If the draft is not re-instated, less people will join the army in the coming 10 years than did in any other 10-year period in our nation’s history.

Solution:

The first thing you have to determine is whether you have less people or fewer people. People are countable. Fewer is correct. The next thing you have to examine is whether to use ‘as’ or ‘than’. This sentence is comparative. Fewer people did this than did that. As implies similarity. Choice E is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 10

Germany’s most infamous leader, Hitler’s policies were responsible for the slaughterof 6 million Jews.

Solution:

This question involves a dangling modifier. Were the policies Germany’s most infamous leader? No. Then they should not go first in the second part of the sentence. That eliminates choices A, B and C. Choice E is not as efficient as D.Choice D is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 11

No school policies forbid a teacher from scolding a student or to call the student’sparents based only on another child’s accusations.

Solution:

You forbid something or someone to do something. ‘Forbid from’ and ‘forbid that’ are idiomatically incorrect. Choices D and E use the passive voice and are wordy. Choice B is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 12

The miners were reluctant to embrace the company’s new unionization policybecause they thought it was merely meant to be a publicity stunt with no commitment to contract negotiation and eventually salary increases.

Solution:

Should it be ‘eventual’ or ‘eventually’? The word modifies a noun, ‘salary increases’. Therefore you need an adjective. Eliminate A and B. D changes the meaning and implies that there was a commitment. The ‘one’ in E is not correct. It implies that a commitment would also be a publicity stunt. ‘Was’ in E is incorrect as the subject of the verb is plural. ‘A commitment’ would therefore also have to be changed to ‘commitments’. Choice C is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 13

The fall of the Berlin Wall represented a political victory of the free market against a centrally planned economy.
Though highly interventionist and dependent on international defense and industrial subsidy, West Germany was a model of economic expansion in the post-war era.
East Germany, while relatively successful in comparison with other Eastern Bloc nations, was far behind West Germany with regard to the buying power of its people. It was hard to avoid obvious comparisons such as the fact that 1 in 4 East Germans did not even have an indoor toilet. Western German authorities were therefore committed to rapid integration of the two Germanys without resorting to massive controls on internal migration, external capital controls, or continuation of a large state-owned industrial sector.
Other nations were already wary of a united Germany.
France, a perpetual competitor, saw Germany’s size advantage increase overnight. In Gross Domestic Product (“GDP”) alone, an historical size advantage of 23% jumped to nearly 30%, with stronger growth promised when East Germany was fully integrated.
Within Germany, there should have been no doubt that integration would be costly. The question was whether the government was up to the task. In Italy, for example, the central government has invested tremendous resources in promoting the economy of its underperforming Southern region. In contrast, in the United States, the local population bears the burden of varying economic performance. For example, the American South is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and lower education than the rest of the nation.
Rather than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair, with millions fleeing to the West and a long-term negative impact on national GDP growth, West German authorities decided to try to spend their way out of the crisis, creating almost overnight an infrastructure in East Germany to provide a standard of living comparable to that in West Germany. The goal was to take an under-performing country and raise it to “first world” standards in only a few years. This goal would have been preposterous had not West Germany possessed the resources to accomplish the task.

Q.The author mentions the United States most probably in order to

Solution:

The question asks us to identify the reason that the author mentions the United States in the passage. In the third paragraph, the author asks whether West Germany was "up to the task" of re-unification. This is followed by the example of Italy as a government that does spend the necessary resources to help its underperforming regions. Then, the author mentions the United States as a counterexample with negative overtones: "In contrast, in the United States, the local population bears the burden of varying economic performance. For example, the American South is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and lower education than the rest of the nation." [Emphasis added.] The use of the word "allowed" suggests that the author does not approve of the situation in the United States. Further, the very next paragraph begins . . ."Rather than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair . . . " as if to further contrast the German government with that of the United States.
(A) The passage in general does not argue against any commonly held beliefs, including the specific example about the United States. 
(B) CORRECT.  This choice echoes our above analysis: the author views the situation cited as "undesirable."
(C) The author disapproves of the cited example, so he would not offer it as a possible advantageous solution to Germany's reunification.
(D) The passage does not call the principle into question; rather, the author indicates disapproval of this particular approach.
(E) The author disapproves of the cited example; he would not offer it as a positive lesson. 

QUESTION: 14

The fall of the Berlin Wall represented a political victory of the free market against a centrally planned economy.
Though highly interventionist and dependent on international defense and industrial subsidy, West Germany was a model of economic expansion in the post-war era.
East Germany, while relatively successful in comparison with other Eastern Bloc nations, was far behind West Germany with regard to the buying power of its people. It was hard to avoid obvious comparisons such as the fact that 1 in 4 East Germans did not even have an indoor toilet. Western German authorities were therefore committed to rapid integration of the two Germanys without resorting to massive controls on internal migration, external capital controls, or continuation of a large state-owned industrial sector.
Other nations were already wary of a united Germany.
France, a perpetual competitor, saw Germany’s size advantage increase overnight. In Gross Domestic Product (“GDP”) alone, an historical size advantage of 23% jumped to nearly 30%, with stronger growth promised when East Germany was fully integrated.
Within Germany, there should have been no doubt that integration would be costly. The question was whether the government was up to the task. In Italy, for example, the central government has invested tremendous resources in promoting the economy of its underperforming Southern region. In contrast, in the United States, the local population bears the burden of varying economic performance. For example, the American South is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and lower education than the rest of the nation.
Rather than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair, with millions fleeing to the West and a long-term negative impact on national GDP growth, West German authorities decided to try to spend their way out of the crisis, creating almost overnight an infrastructure in East Germany to provide a standard of living comparable to that in West Germany. The goal was to take an under-performing country and raise it to “first world” standards in only a few years. This goal would have been preposterous had not West Germany possessed the resources to accomplish the task.

Q.Which of the following best describes the way the first paragraph functions in the context of the passage?

Solution:

The question asks us to identify the purpose of the first paragraph: what role does it play in the context of the passage as a whole? The first paragraph presents historical information about the relationship between East and West Germany. This information is given as background to the subsequent paragraphs. We need to find an answer choice that is consistent with this analysis.  
(A) The relationship between East and West Germany is not merely one example of a much larger general theory; the passage is about this specific circumstance.
(B) The passage does not seek to alter or revise a commonly held view, either in the first paragraph or elsewhere.
(C) CORRECT.  The first paragraph presents the background information necessary to understand the claims made in the rest of the passage.
(D) The first paragraph does not raise questions; it provides facts as to the relationship between East and West Germany at a specific point in time.
(E) The first paragraph does not provide two opposing points of view.

QUESTION: 15

The fall of the Berlin Wall represented a political victory of the free market against a centrally planned economy.
Though highly interventionist and dependent on international defense and industrial subsidy, West Germany was a model of economic expansion in the post-war era.
East Germany, while relatively successful in comparison with other Eastern Bloc nations, was far behind West Germany with regard to the buying power of its people. It was hard to avoid obvious comparisons such as the fact that 1 in 4 East Germans did not even have an indoor toilet. Western German authorities were therefore committed to rapid integration of the two Germanys without resorting to massive controls on internal migration, external capital controls, or continuation of a large state-owned industrial sector.
Other nations were already wary of a united Germany.
France, a perpetual competitor, saw Germany’s size advantage increase overnight. In Gross Domestic Product (“GDP”) alone, an historical size advantage of 23% jumped to nearly 30%, with stronger growth promised when East Germany was fully integrated.
Within Germany, there should have been no doubt that integration would be costly. The question was whether the government was up to the task. In Italy, for example, the central government has invested tremendous resources in promoting the economy of its underperforming Southern region. In contrast, in the United States, the local population bears the burden of varying economic performance. For example, the American South is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and lower education than the rest of the nation.
Rather than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair, with millions fleeing to the West and a long-term negative impact on national GDP growth, West German authorities decided to try to spend their way out of the crisis, creating almost overnight an infrastructure in East Germany to provide a standard of living comparable to that in West Germany. The goal was to take an under-performing country and raise it to “first world” standards in only a few years. This goal would have been preposterous had not West Germany possessed the resources to accomplish the task.

Q.The passage suggests which of the following about the relationship between West Germany and France?

Solution:

The question asks us to infer something from the passage regarding the relationship between West Germany and France.  The passage notes that countries were "wary of a united Germany" and next mentions that France, "a perpetual competitor, saw Germany’s size advantage increase overnight." We need to find an answer choice that can be deduced from this information alone; we cannot conclude too much.   If France is wary of Germany's impending larger size, then France must also be worried that it will be negatively impacted by the change.
(A) The above information tells us nothing about the relative stabilities of the two economies.
(B) The above information does not tell us the entire history of the relative GDPs of the two countries.  "Always" is too extreme.
(C) The above information does not mention either population or international trade with respect to the two countries' economies.
(D) CORRECT.  If France does not view its relative economic position as immutable, or unable to be changed, then it is sensible for the country to worry that it might be negatively impacted by the changes in Germany. 
(E) The passage does not state or imply that West Germany specifically planned to bolster its position over that of France.

QUESTION: 16

In April 1841, medical missionary Reverend Peter Parker, M.D., addressed an enthusiastic audience gathered at a special meeting of the Boston Medical Association. His subject was “the condition and prospects of the hospitals of China.” He described his own work at the hospital he had established in the foreign factory district outside the city walls of Canton where he offered free treatment for both rich and poor. At P’u Ai I Yuan (Hospital of Universal Love, as it was known in Chinese) Parker and his colleagues used western surgical techniques as a means to facilitate religious conversion. Medicine, Parker believed, could be the “handmaid of religious truth,” and he held regular religious services for his patients.
While he had, at best, modest success attracting converts to Christianity, the hospital had fostered tremendous goodwill among the Chinese. It was a bright spot amid the gloomy period of Western-Chinese tension that led to the outbreak of the Opium Wars between Great Britain and China. Forced to flee Canton because of these rising hostilities, Parker returned to the United States to raise money and interest in his operations. In the spring of 1841, he spoke to many religious societies, a few medical bodies, and even the United States Congress, where he preached to members of the House and Senate and lobbied legislators on the need for diplomatic relations with China.
In his talks, Parker described the state of medical and surgical knowledge—or, rather, scientific ignorance—in China. Despite the surgical feats of legendary ancient doctors such as Hua T’o of the third century A.D., surgery did not develop to any great extent in China. Some accounts attribute this to Confucian precepts about the integrity of the body and proscriptions against any form of mutilation or dismemberment; others emphasize the pharmacological tendencies within traditional Chinese medicine and a preference for moxas and other caustic plasters.
Whatever the cause, it was undoubtedly the case that Parker’s surgical practice tapped into a huge unmet need.
Almost as soon as he opened his Ophthalmic Hospital in Canton, as it was known in English, he acquired a reputation as a surgeon of such skill that the hospital quickly became a general hospital. Parker and his small staff handled thousands of cases each year, treating more than fifty thousand cases by the 1850s. His hospital became the model for other medical missions, and Parker and his British colleagues formed the Medical Missionary Society of China to coordinate the efforts of all the western hospitals springing up in the trading ports of Asia. Parker earned his reputation performing operations to remove tumors and cataracts—forms of surgery with relatively good odds of success and ones that could be accomplished quickly, important in an era without anesthetics. Because of the absence of surgery in China, a large number of patients were afflicted with mature tumors (typically five to thirty-five years old) of a size seldom seen in Europe or the United States. Parker was able to help these patients in ways previously thought impossible in China. He has thus been credited with bringing Western medicine to the most populous country on Earth.

Q. The author mentions Hua T’o in the third paragraph most probably in order to

Solution:

Hua T'o is mentioned in the following context: "In his talks, Parker described the state of medical and surgical knowledge--or, rather, scientific ignorance--in China. Despite the surgical feats of legendary ancient doctors such as Hua T'o of the third century A.D., surgery did not develop to any great extent in China."
(A) CORRECT. The fact that, by the nineteenth century, Chinese surgical knowledge had not developed beyond that of an "ancient" doctor underscores the need to modernize nineteenth century Chinese medicine.
(B) Hua T’o is the only Chinese medical figure mentioned in the passage, so the author does not mention him to trace the history of such figures.
(C) The topic sentence of the second paragraph concerns the lack of medical and surgical knowledge, not the lack of leading physicians in nineteenth century China.
(D) While the author recognizes Hua T’o’s achievements, citing “the surgical feats of legendary ancient doctors,” the overall context reveals that the point was not to celebrate such achievements, but to indicate how little had been achieved since.
(E) The author does not defend Chinese medicine against criticism; in fact, the author uses the example of Hua T’o to support Parker’s opinion about the state of scientific ignorance in China in the nineteenth century.  

QUESTION: 17

In April 1841, medical missionary Reverend Peter Parker, M.D., addressed an enthusiastic audience gathered at a special meeting of the Boston Medical Association. His subject was “the condition and prospects of the hospitals of China.” He described his own work at the hospital he had established in the foreign factory district outside the city walls of Canton where he offered free treatment for both rich and poor. At P’u Ai I Yuan (Hospital of Universal Love, as it was known in Chinese) Parker and his colleagues used western surgical techniques as a means to facilitate religious conversion. Medicine, Parker believed, could be the “handmaid of religious truth,” and he held regular religious services for his patients.
While he had, at best, modest success attracting converts to Christianity, the hospital had fostered tremendous goodwill among the Chinese. It was a bright spot amid the gloomy period of Western-Chinese tension that led to the outbreak of the Opium Wars between Great Britain and China. Forced to flee Canton because of these rising hostilities, Parker returned to the United States to raise money and interest in his operations. In the spring of 1841, he spoke to many religious societies, a few medical bodies, and even the United States Congress, where he preached to members of the House and Senate and lobbied legislators on the need for diplomatic relations with China.
In his talks, Parker described the state of medical and surgical knowledge—or, rather, scientific ignorance—in China. Despite the surgical feats of legendary ancient doctors such as Hua T’o of the third century A.D., surgery did not develop to any great extent in China. Some accounts attribute this to Confucian precepts about the integrity of the body and proscriptions against any form of mutilation or dismemberment; others emphasize the pharmacological tendencies within traditional Chinese medicine and a preference for moxas and other caustic plasters.
Whatever the cause, it was undoubtedly the case that Parker’s surgical practice tapped into a huge unmet need.
Almost as soon as he opened his Ophthalmic Hospital in Canton, as it was known in English, he acquired a reputation as a surgeon of such skill that the hospital quickly became a general hospital. Parker and his small staff handled thousands of cases each year, treating more than fifty thousand cases by the 1850s. His hospital became the model for other medical missions, and Parker and his British colleagues formed the Medical Missionary Society of China to coordinate the efforts of all the western hospitals springing up in the trading ports of Asia. Parker earned his reputation performing operations to remove tumors and cataracts—forms of surgery with relatively good odds of success and ones that could be accomplished quickly, important in an era without anesthetics. Because of the absence of surgery in China, a large number of patients were afflicted with mature tumors (typically five to thirty-five years old) of a size seldom seen in Europe or the United States. Parker was able to help these patients in ways previously thought impossible in China. He has thus been credited with bringing Western medicine to the most populous country on Earth.

Q. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Peter Parker EXCEPT

Solution:

his question asks which of the statements about Peter Parker is not true. Four of the statement can be verified in the text, allowing us to select the correct answer by process of elimination. 
(A) In the last paragraph, the passage states that Parker "acquired a reputation as a surgeon of such skill that the hospital quickly became a general hospital."
(B) In the first paragraph, the passage states that Parker "offered free treatment for both rich and poor,” so he must have believe that all deserved quality medical treatment. 
(C) CORRECT. While Parker did not feel that that nineteenth century Chinese medical practices were advanced, the passage never mentions an emotion similar to "disdain" in describing Parker's feelings towards these practices.
(D) In the second paragraph, the passage states that Parker "returned to the United States to raise money and interest in his operations." Additionally, Parker "and his British colleagues formed the Medical Missionary Society of China to coordinate the efforts of all the western hospitals springing up in the trading ports of Asia." 
(E) The second paragraph opens with the statement that Parker “had, at best, modest success attracting converts to Christianity," suggesting that he did not completely achieve his missionary goals.  

QUESTION: 18

In April 1841, medical missionary Reverend Peter Parker, M.D., addressed an enthusiastic audience gathered at a special meeting of the Boston Medical Association. His subject was “the condition and prospects of the hospitals of China.” He described his own work at the hospital he had established in the foreign factory district outside the city walls of Canton where he offered free treatment for both rich and poor. At P’u Ai I Yuan (Hospital of Universal Love, as it was known in Chinese) Parker and his colleagues used western surgical techniques as a means to facilitate religious conversion. Medicine, Parker believed, could be the “handmaid of religious truth,” and he held regular religious services for his patients.
While he had, at best, modest success attracting converts to Christianity, the hospital had fostered tremendous goodwill among the Chinese. It was a bright spot amid the gloomy period of Western-Chinese tension that led to the outbreak of the Opium Wars between Great Britain and China. Forced to flee Canton because of these rising hostilities, Parker returned to the United States to raise money and interest in his operations. In the spring of 1841, he spoke to many religious societies, a few medical bodies, and even the United States Congress, where he preached to members of the House and Senate and lobbied legislators on the need for diplomatic relations with China.
In his talks, Parker described the state of medical and surgical knowledge—or, rather, scientific ignorance—in China. Despite the surgical feats of legendary ancient doctors such as Hua T’o of the third century A.D., surgery did not develop to any great extent in China. Some accounts attribute this to Confucian precepts about the integrity of the body and proscriptions against any form of mutilation or dismemberment; others emphasize the pharmacological tendencies within traditional Chinese medicine and a preference for moxas and other caustic plasters.
Whatever the cause, it was undoubtedly the case that Parker’s surgical practice tapped into a huge unmet need.
Almost as soon as he opened his Ophthalmic Hospital in Canton, as it was known in English, he acquired a reputation as a surgeon of such skill that the hospital quickly became a general hospital. Parker and his small staff handled thousands of cases each year, treating more than fifty thousand cases by the 1850s. His hospital became the model for other medical missions, and Parker and his British colleagues formed the Medical Missionary Society of China to coordinate the efforts of all the western hospitals springing up in the trading ports of Asia. Parker earned his reputation performing operations to remove tumors and cataracts—forms of surgery with relatively good odds of success and ones that could be accomplished quickly, important in an era without anesthetics. Because of the absence of surgery in China, a large number of patients were afflicted with mature tumors (typically five to thirty-five years old) of a size seldom seen in Europe or the United States. Parker was able to help these patients in ways previously thought impossible in China. He has thus been credited with bringing Western medicine to the most populous country on Earth.

Q. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Solution:

The question asks for the primary purpose of the passage. In other words, what was the author's agenda in writing the passage? The correct answer must take the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting the author's intent. Typically, the opening paragraph and the topic sentences of each paragraph will reveal the focus of the passage.  (A) The passage focuses primarily on the medical activities of Peter Parker in China and on behalf of China, not on the status of the medical profession in China before his arrival in the country.  
(B) The author summarizes the contributions of Peter Parker, ending the passage with the statement that Parker “has thus been credited with bringing Western medicine to” China, but does not argue that China could not have gained modern medical knowledge without the influence of Peter Parker.
(C) The passage focuses on the introduction of Western medicine into China, not the state of medicine in China before the nineteenth century.(D) The only view of nineteenth century Chinese medicine presented in the passage is that of Peter Parker, who spoke on the subject in his talks once back in the West. The passage does not challenge Parker’s view.
(E) CORRECT. The passage as a whole concerns the activities of Peter Parker and his influence in bringing Western medicine to China in the nineteenth century. 

QUESTION: 19

A clone is a genetically identical copy of a living organism.
Human clones are nothing new; they occur naturally in the recognizable form of identical twins. Not until the successful cloning of a sheep called Dolly, however, has the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy of a human been considered seriously.
Production of a human clone would most likely utilize the same basic methodology that resulted in Dolly. A human egg would be retrieved from an individual, and its genetic material (DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA derived from any adult human cell type. This would bypass the need for fertilization of the egg by the sperm in order to obtain a full complement of DNA. In a laboratory dish, the egg would then undergo several cell divisions. Placed into a uterus, the resulting embryo would grow and, with luck, develop until birth.
Although this cloning technique is conceptually and procedurally simple, its success rate has been extremely low. The birth of one Dolly, for instance, required the preparation of 277 re-nucleated eggs, followed by the implantation of 29 resulting best embryos. The low success rate can be attributed to the difference between the young DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the genetic material of the re-nucleated egg, which is mature and of defined destiny – it has already committed itself to a particular physiological role. In order for proper fetal development to occur, mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to its youthful state, a complex process that will be difficult to achieve for the human species.
Beyond the practical difficulties of intentional human cloning, scientists, politicians, and others have raised serious ethical concerns about this practice. For example, there is a chance that the cloning procedure would adversely affect the developing embryo. There also might be deleterious effects on the long-term health of the clone.
Proponents of human cloning counter that human sexual reproduction is not a risk-free affair either. Even if human cloning could be made safe, the motivations behind producing human clones do not fall clearly on one side of the ethical divide. While proponents stress potentially appealing motivations – a man and a woman who are both carriers of a genetic disease can use cloning to assure that their child will not be afflicted with the disorder – critics argue that the practice could and likely would be used for unethical ends, such as to select for certain traits, such as hair/eye color or sexual orientation, for example.

Q. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Solution:

The question asks for the primary purpose of the passage. The correct answer must take the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting its focus. The passage focuses on the process by which cloning occurs and gives a brief discussion of the debate surrounding the ethics of the practice; in this debate, the author presents both sides from the points of view of others (critics and proponents)
(A) The passage does not dismiss cloning as entirely unethical, it merely raises the issue of ethics. 
(B) Cloning is not a medical procedure, and furthermore the passage does not defend cloning. It gives a more neutral presentation of the topic.
(C) CORRECT. This passage explains cloning and discusses its ramifications
(D) Cloning is not a hypothesis, as the passage states – it has been successfully accomplished with sheep. Furthermore the passage does not focus only on the negative consequences.
(E) Cloning is not a new medical approach. Also the passage doesn't analyze possible outcomes, or results, of cloning; it discusses the positive and negative ramifications of cloning.  

QUESTION: 20

A clone is a genetically identical copy of a living organism.
Human clones are nothing new; they occur naturally in the recognizable form of identical twins. Not until the successful cloning of a sheep called Dolly, however, has the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy of a human been considered seriously.
Production of a human clone would most likely utilize the same basic methodology that resulted in Dolly. A human egg would be retrieved from an individual, and its genetic material (DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA derived from any adult human cell type. This would bypass the need for fertilization of the egg by the sperm in order to obtain a full complement of DNA. In a laboratory dish, the egg would then undergo several cell divisions. Placed into a uterus, the resulting embryo would grow and, with luck, develop until birth.
Although this cloning technique is conceptually and procedurally simple, its success rate has been extremely low. The birth of one Dolly, for instance, required the preparation of 277 re-nucleated eggs, followed by the implantation of 29 resulting best embryos. The low success rate can be attributed to the difference between the young DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the genetic material of the re-nucleated egg, which is mature and of defined destiny – it has already committed itself to a particular physiological role. In order for proper fetal development to occur, mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to its youthful state, a complex process that will be difficult to achieve for the human species.
Beyond the practical difficulties of intentional human cloning, scientists, politicians, and others have raised serious ethical concerns about this practice. For example, there is a chance that the cloning procedure would adversely affect the developing embryo. There also might be deleterious effects on the long-term health of the clone.
Proponents of human cloning counter that human sexual reproduction is not a risk-free affair either. Even if human cloning could be made safe, the motivations behind producing human clones do not fall clearly on one side of the ethical divide. While proponents stress potentially appealing motivations – a man and a woman who are both carriers of a genetic disease can use cloning to assure that their child will not be afflicted with the disorder – critics argue that the practice could and likely would be used for unethical ends, such as to select for certain traits, such as hair/eye color or sexual orientation, for example.

Q. The author of the passage mentions Dolly most probably in order to

Solution:

In the first paragraph, the author states "Not until the successful cloning of a sheep called Dolly, however, has the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy of a human been considered seriously."  This indicates that the author believes Dolly's success has encouraged researchers to pursue human cloning.
(A) CORRECT.  If researchers have been encouraged by Dolly's success to pursue human cloning, it must be because they believe there is a chance of success.
(B) Dolly is mentioned in the first paragraph; the ethical concerns are discussed in the fourth paragraph.  In addition, the author does not show that ethical concerns are misguided; he merely presents both sides of the argument.
(C) The author does not argue, or even discuss, anywhere in the passage the idea that one type of cloning is less efficient than another type.
(D) The author does not argue for (or against) human cloning anywhere in the passage.
(E) The author does not refute anything in the passage.  In the fourth paragraph, the author does present the viewpoints of proponents and critics, but the author does not weigh in on the debate.

QUESTION: 21

A clone is a genetically identical copy of a living organism.
Human clones are nothing new; they occur naturally in the recognizable form of identical twins. Not until the successful cloning of a sheep called Dolly, however, has the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy of a human been considered seriously.
Production of a human clone would most likely utilize the same basic methodology that resulted in Dolly. A human egg would be retrieved from an individual, and its genetic material (DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA derived from any adult human cell type. This would bypass the need for fertilization of the egg by the sperm in order to obtain a full complement of DNA. In a laboratory dish, the egg would then undergo several cell divisions. Placed into a uterus, the resulting embryo would grow and, with luck, develop until birth.
Although this cloning technique is conceptually and procedurally simple, its success rate has been extremely low. The birth of one Dolly, for instance, required the preparation of 277 re-nucleated eggs, followed by the implantation of 29 resulting best embryos. The low success rate can be attributed to the difference between the young DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the genetic material of the re-nucleated egg, which is mature and of defined destiny – it has already committed itself to a particular physiological role. In order for proper fetal development to occur, mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to its youthful state, a complex process that will be difficult to achieve for the human species.
Beyond the practical difficulties of intentional human cloning, scientists, politicians, and others have raised serious ethical concerns about this practice. For example, there is a chance that the cloning procedure would adversely affect the developing embryo. There also might be deleterious effects on the long-term health of the clone.
Proponents of human cloning counter that human sexual reproduction is not a risk-free affair either. Even if human cloning could be made safe, the motivations behind producing human clones do not fall clearly on one side of the ethical divide. While proponents stress potentially appealing motivations – a man and a woman who are both carriers of a genetic disease can use cloning to assure that their child will not be afflicted with the disorder – critics argue that the practice could and likely would be used for unethical ends, such as to select for certain traits, such as hair/eye color or sexual orientation, for example.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following is a potential obstacle to human cloning?

Solution:

The third paragraph states "The low success rate can be attributed to the difference between the young DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the genetic material of the re-nucleated egg, which is mature and of defined destiny – it has already committed itself to a particular physiological role." This means that human cloning faces difficulties in overcoming the fixed roles of mature DNA.
(A) The difficulty lies in overcoming the fixed roles of mature DNA; this choice does not address the issue.
(B) CORRECT.  "Predetermination" reflects the fixed rolls of DNA found with "mature" or adult cells.
(C) The passage does not mention funding issues.
(D) The passage does not mention a need to determine "biological relationships within an egg" or the equivalent.  The issue revolves around the different between young DNA and mature DNA.
(E) The passage does not mention any issues surrounding chemical reactions in the uterus.  The issue revolves around the different between young DNA and mature DNA. 

QUESTION: 22

A clone is a genetically identical copy of a living organism.
Human clones are nothing new; they occur naturally in the recognizable form of identical twins. Not until the successful cloning of a sheep called Dolly, however, has the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy of a human been considered seriously.
Production of a human clone would most likely utilize the same basic methodology that resulted in Dolly. A human egg would be retrieved from an individual, and its genetic material (DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA derived from any adult human cell type. This would bypass the need for fertilization of the egg by the sperm in order to obtain a full complement of DNA. In a laboratory dish, the egg would then undergo several cell divisions. Placed into a uterus, the resulting embryo would grow and, with luck, develop until birth.
Although this cloning technique is conceptually and procedurally simple, its success rate has been extremely low. The birth of one Dolly, for instance, required the preparation of 277 re-nucleated eggs, followed by the implantation of 29 resulting best embryos. The low success rate can be attributed to the difference between the young DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the genetic material of the re-nucleated egg, which is mature and of defined destiny – it has already committed itself to a particular physiological role. In order for proper fetal development to occur, mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to its youthful state, a complex process that will be difficult to achieve for the human species.
Beyond the practical difficulties of intentional human cloning, scientists, politicians, and others have raised serious ethical concerns about this practice. For example, there is a chance that the cloning procedure would adversely affect the developing embryo. There also might be deleterious effects on the long-term health of the clone.
Proponents of human cloning counter that human sexual reproduction is not a risk-free affair either. Even if human cloning could be made safe, the motivations behind producing human clones do not fall clearly on one side of the ethical divide. While proponents stress potentially appealing motivations – a man and a woman who are both carriers of a genetic disease can use cloning to assure that their child will not be afflicted with the disorder – critics argue that the practice could and likely would be used for unethical ends, such as to select for certain traits, such as hair/eye color or sexual orientation, for example.

Q. The passage suggests which of the following?

Solution:

The second paragraph states "A human egg would be retrieved from an individual, and its genetic material (DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA derived from any adult human cell type.  This would bypass the need for fertilization of the egg by the sperm in order to obtain a full complement of DNA." This implies that the DNA from the adult cell already contains DNA from the egg (mother) and the sperm (father).
(A) The passage does not address anything about the time table for success with human cloning.
(B) The passage directly contradicts this statement by noting, in paragraph three, how difficult it was to clone Dolly.  In addition, the word "always" is extreme.
(C) The passage does not imply this; if anything, it implies that the similarity between the two types of egg is part of the reason why the success of cloning Dolly may translate into success with human cloning.
(D) CORRECT.  As noted above, the passage implies that an adult cell contains DNA from both parents.
(E) The passage does not imply this; if anything, it implies that the similarity between the two types of DNA is part of the reason why the success of cloning Dolly may translate into success with human cloning. 

QUESTION: 23

A clone is a genetically identical copy of a living organism.
Human clones are nothing new; they occur naturally in the recognizable form of identical twins. Not until the successful cloning of a sheep called Dolly, however, has the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy of a human been considered seriously.
Production of a human clone would most likely utilize the same basic methodology that resulted in Dolly. A human egg would be retrieved from an individual, and its genetic material (DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA derived from any adult human cell type. This would bypass the need for fertilization of the egg by the sperm in order to obtain a full complement of DNA. In a laboratory dish, the egg would then undergo several cell divisions. Placed into a uterus, the resulting embryo would grow and, with luck, develop until birth.
Although this cloning technique is conceptually and procedurally simple, its success rate has been extremely low. The birth of one Dolly, for instance, required the preparation of 277 re-nucleated eggs, followed by the implantation of 29 resulting best embryos. The low success rate can be attributed to the difference between the young DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the genetic material of the re-nucleated egg, which is mature and of defined destiny – it has already committed itself to a particular physiological role. In order for proper fetal development to occur, mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to its youthful state, a complex process that will be difficult to achieve for the human species.
Beyond the practical difficulties of intentional human cloning, scientists, politicians, and others have raised serious ethical concerns about this practice. For example, there is a chance that the cloning procedure would adversely affect the developing embryo. There also might be deleterious effects on the long-term health of the clone.
Proponents of human cloning counter that human sexual reproduction is not a risk-free affair either. Even if human cloning could be made safe, the motivations behind producing human clones do not fall clearly on one side of the ethical divide. While proponents stress potentially appealing motivations – a man and a woman who are both carriers of a genetic disease can use cloning to assure that their child will not be afflicted with the disorder – critics argue that the practice could and likely would be used for unethical ends, such as to select for certain traits, such as hair/eye color or sexual orientation, for example.

Q. Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as a reason not to pursue human cloning?

Solution:

In this "double-negative" question, we have to be very careful to make sure that we don't get confused or turned around.  The "true-false" technique will be useful here: answer choices get a True if they are mentioned as a reason not to pursue human cloning and a False if they are not mentioned for this reason.  The correct answer will be labeled False.
(A) True.  Paragraph four states that there "might be deleterious effects on the longterm health of the clone."  This translates into unknown effects on adult human clones.
(B) True.  Paragraph four states "there is a chance that the cloning procedure would adversely affect the developing embryo."
(C) True.  Paragraph four states that cloning could be used to "select for certain traits, such as hair/eye color..." (D) True.  Paragraph three states that "mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to its youthful state, a complex process that will be difficult to achieve for the human species."
(E) CORRECT.  False.  While it may be true that cloning is exorbitantly expensive, these costs are not mentioned anywhere in the passage.

QUESTION: 24

In recent years, a class of drugs known as COX-2 inhibitors has gotten much publicity for the drugs’ power to relieve inflammation and pain. These drugs are relatively new to the pharmaceutical industry, their mechanisms of action having been discovered only in 1971. That year, John Vane discovered the relationship between nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, such as aspirin, and a group of molecules, called prostaglandins, responsible for producing the sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.
Prostaglandins were first discovered in the 1930s and are now known to be generated by most mammalian tissues in response to external stimuli. Unlike classical hormones that are synthesized in one tissue but act on a distant one, prostaglandins act on the cells that produce them or on cells located close to the prostaglandins’ cells of origin.
Aspirin alleviates pain by inhibiting the function of an enzyme called cyclooxygenase or COX; this inhibition prevents the production of prostaglandins. The three forms of this enzyme, COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3, all stimulate the production of prostaglandins, but each serves a different purpose. COX-1 functions to protect the stomach from irritating gastric acids. COX-2 functions to induce inflammation in injured tissue and COX-3 functions to control the sensation of pain. Aspirin and other similar drugs, such as naproxen, inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2, sometimes producing or aggravating stomach ulcers in patients who take them.
In order to eliminate the side effects of aspirin and related drugs, several pharmaceutical companies in the 1990s developed drugs that inhibited only COX-2. However, side effects almost always cropped up, even after clinical trials that seemed to indicate none. This often occurs because trials are conducted within very limited parameters; once the drug has been approved for mass distribution, however, the number of people taking it and the length of time that it is taken increase dramatically. Several COX-2 drugs that have been popular in recent years fit this pattern: initially successful in clinical trials, subsequent studies showed them to have serious, potentially lethal side effects.
Though prostaglandin chemistry and enzymology have been studied for half a century, pinpointing the exact role of the molecules in physiological processes still remains a challenge for researchers. Hence it is not surprising that recent therapeutic attempts to interfere with the formation of certain prostaglandins have produced unexpected side effects. It now seems that the hype surrounding COX-2 drugs may have been premature.

Q. The passage suggest which the following about COX2 inhibitors?

Solution:

The word "suggests" in the question indicates that this is an inference question.  The correct answer, therefore, will not be directly stated in the passage, but it will be based only on information found within the passage, with no outside speculation or assumptions necessary.
(A) Paragraph 2 states that COX-1 enzymes stimulate production of prostaglandins that "protect the stomach from irritating gastric acids.” As stated in paragraph 3, however, COX-2 inhibitors were designed to affect only COX-2; the specific impetus was not to interrupt the beneficial effects of COX-1.
(B) The author never describes the side effects caused by COX-2 and furthermore he states in paragraph 3 that the COX-2 drugs were designed “in order to eliminate the side effects of aspirin and related drugs.” Paragraph 2 states that Naproxen is one of those related drug.
(C) CORRECT. Paragraph 3 states that the drug class known as COX-2 inhibitors was introduced by “several pharmaceutical companies in the 1990s."  Paragraph 1 states “their mechanisms of action having been discovered only in 1971."  This suggests that approximately 20 years passed between the initial discovery and the introduction of COX-2 inhibitors.
(D) This choice is incorrect as it describes COX-2 enzymes, not COX-2 inhibitors; in addition, the information is directly stated in the passage rather than suggested.  Paragraph 2 states that COX-2 appears to stimulate production of prostaglandins that "induce inflammation in injured tissues.”  (E) This choice is incorrect as it describes prostaglandins, not the drug class COX-2 inhibitors.  Paragraph 2 states that prostaglandins are "generated by most mammalian tissues in response to external stimuli" and "prostaglandins act on the cells that produce them." 

QUESTION: 25

In recent years, a class of drugs known as COX-2 inhibitors has gotten much publicity for the drugs’ power to relieve inflammation and pain. These drugs are relatively new to the pharmaceutical industry, their mechanisms of action having been discovered only in 1971. That year, John Vane discovered the relationship between nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, such as aspirin, and a group of molecules, called prostaglandins, responsible for producing the sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.
Prostaglandins were first discovered in the 1930s and are now known to be generated by most mammalian tissues in response to external stimuli. Unlike classical hormones that are synthesized in one tissue but act on a distant one, prostaglandins act on the cells that produce them or on cells located close to the prostaglandins’ cells of origin.
Aspirin alleviates pain by inhibiting the function of an enzyme called cyclooxygenase or COX; this inhibition prevents the production of prostaglandins. The three forms of this enzyme, COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3, all stimulate the production of prostaglandins, but each serves a different purpose. COX-1 functions to protect the stomach from irritating gastric acids. COX-2 functions to induce inflammation in injured tissue and COX-3 functions to control the sensation of pain. Aspirin and other similar drugs, such as naproxen, inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2, sometimes producing or aggravating stomach ulcers in patients who take them.
In order to eliminate the side effects of aspirin and related drugs, several pharmaceutical companies in the 1990s developed drugs that inhibited only COX-2. However, side effects almost always cropped up, even after clinical trials that seemed to indicate none. This often occurs because trials are conducted within very limited parameters; once the drug has been approved for mass distribution, however, the number of people taking it and the length of time that it is taken increase dramatically. Several COX-2 drugs that have been popular in recent years fit this pattern: initially successful in clinical trials, subsequent studies showed them to have serious, potentially lethal side effects.
Though prostaglandin chemistry and enzymology have been studied for half a century, pinpointing the exact role of the molecules in physiological processes still remains a challenge for researchers. Hence it is not surprising that recent therapeutic attempts to interfere with the formation of certain prostaglandins have produced unexpected side effects. It now seems that the hype surrounding COX-2 drugs may have been premature.

Q. According to the passage, all of the following are true of prostaglandins EXCEPT:

Solution:

The "True/False" technique is useful for EXCEPT questions.  Four of the answer choices will contain information found in the passage; these will be labeled True.  One answer choice will contain information not found in the passage; it will be labeled False.
(A) True. Paragraph 2 states “prostaglandins were first discovered in the 1930s."
(B) True. Paragraph 2 states prostaglandins are "generated by most mammalian tissues.”  
(C) True. Paragraph 1 states that prostaglandins are "responsible for producing the sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.”
(D) CORRECT. False. The author never claims that prostaglandins cause side effects. According to paragraph 4, the COX inhibitor drugs, not prostaglandins, caused side effects that went undetected during clinical trials.
(E) True. Paragraph 2 states that “aspirin alleviates pain by inhibiting... COX; this inhibition prevents the production of prostaglandins" and goes on to list the three forms of the enzyme, COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3.

QUESTION: 26

In recent years, a class of drugs known as COX-2 inhibitors has gotten much publicity for the drugs’ power to relieve inflammation and pain. These drugs are relatively new to the pharmaceutical industry, their mechanisms of action having been discovered only in 1971. That year, John Vane discovered the relationship between nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, such as aspirin, and a group of molecules, called prostaglandins, responsible for producing the sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.
Prostaglandins were first discovered in the 1930s and are now known to be generated by most mammalian tissues in response to external stimuli. Unlike classical hormones that are synthesized in one tissue but act on a distant one, prostaglandins act on the cells that produce them or on cells located close to the prostaglandins’ cells of origin.
Aspirin alleviates pain by inhibiting the function of an enzyme called cyclooxygenase or COX; this inhibition prevents the production of prostaglandins. The three forms of this enzyme, COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3, all stimulate the production of prostaglandins, but each serves a different purpose. COX-1 functions to protect the stomach from irritating gastric acids. COX-2 functions to induce inflammation in injured tissue and COX-3 functions to control the sensation of pain. Aspirin and other similar drugs, such as naproxen, inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2, sometimes producing or aggravating stomach ulcers in patients who take them.
In order to eliminate the side effects of aspirin and related drugs, several pharmaceutical companies in the 1990s developed drugs that inhibited only COX-2. However, side effects almost always cropped up, even after clinical trials that seemed to indicate none. This often occurs because trials are conducted within very limited parameters; once the drug has been approved for mass distribution, however, the number of people taking it and the length of time that it is taken increase dramatically. Several COX-2 drugs that have been popular in recent years fit this pattern: initially successful in clinical trials, subsequent studies showed them to have serious, potentially lethal side effects.
Though prostaglandin chemistry and enzymology have been studied for half a century, pinpointing the exact role of the molecules in physiological processes still remains a challenge for researchers. Hence it is not surprising that recent therapeutic attempts to interfere with the formation of certain prostaglandins have produced unexpected side effects. It now seems that the hype surrounding COX-2 drugs may have been premature.

Q. The author mentions that prostaglandins a re generated in response to external stimuli primarily in order to support the contention that

Solution:

If prostaglandins are a response to external stimuli, or stimuli outside of the body, then that external stimuli must be closely linked to at least one of the major functions of prostaglandin. (A) Stomach ulcers are produced or aggravated by aspirin and similar drugs, not prostaglandins (and, in fact, these drugs inhibit prostaglandins).
(B) It is mentioned in the passage that “prostaglandins act on the cells that produce them,” but the author does not draw a connection between where prostaglandins act and what (i.e. external stimuli) generates their production.  
(C) Paragraph 2 states that aspirin, not prostaglandin, prevents cyclooxygenase from functioning.  
(D) Paragraph 2 states that most mammalian hormones "are synthesized in one tissue but act on a distant one" and contrasts prostaglandins, which "act on the cells that produce them" or on other nearby cells.  This difference is based upon where the hormones act, not on what the hormones are responding to (whether external stimuli or something else). 
(E) CORRECT. Paragraph 1 states that prostaglandins are "responsible for producing the sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.” In the second paragraph the author mentions that aspirin alleviates pain by preventing the production of prostaglandins. To bridge the two assertions, the author provides evidence that prostaglandins are indeed responsible for the sensation of pain, an external stimuli.

QUESTION: 27

In recent years, a class of drugs known as COX-2 inhibitors has gotten much publicity for the drugs’ power to relieve inflammation and pain. These drugs are relatively new to the pharmaceutical industry, their mechanisms of action having been discovered only in 1971. That year, John Vane discovered the relationship between nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, such as aspirin, and a group of molecules, called prostaglandins, responsible for producing the sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.
Prostaglandins were first discovered in the 1930s and are now known to be generated by most mammalian tissues in response to external stimuli. Unlike classical hormones that are synthesized in one tissue but act on a distant one, prostaglandins act on the cells that produce them or on cells located close to the prostaglandins’ cells of origin.
Aspirin alleviates pain by inhibiting the function of an enzyme called cyclooxygenase or COX; this inhibition prevents the production of prostaglandins. The three forms of this enzyme, COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3, all stimulate the production of prostaglandins, but each serves a different purpose. COX-1 functions to protect the stomach from irritating gastric acids. COX-2 functions to induce inflammation in injured tissue and COX-3 functions to control the sensation of pain. Aspirin and other similar drugs, such as naproxen, inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2, sometimes producing or aggravating stomach ulcers in patients who take them.
In order to eliminate the side effects of aspirin and related drugs, several pharmaceutical companies in the 1990s developed drugs that inhibited only COX-2. However, side effects almost always cropped up, even after clinical trials that seemed to indicate none. This often occurs because trials are conducted within very limited parameters; once the drug has been approved for mass distribution, however, the number of people taking it and the length of time that it is taken increase dramatically. Several COX-2 drugs that have been popular in recent years fit this pattern: initially successful in clinical trials, subsequent studies showed them to have serious, potentially lethal side effects.
Though prostaglandin chemistry and enzymology have been studied for half a century, pinpointing the exact role of the molecules in physiological processes still remains a challenge for researchers. Hence it is not surprising that recent therapeutic attempts to interfere with the formation of certain prostaglandins have produced unexpected side effects. It now seems that the hype surrounding COX-2 drugs may have been premature.

Q. The primary purpose of this passage is to

Solution:

The first paragraph introduces COX-2 inhibitors and talks briefly about a 1971 discovery linking aspirin to prostaglandins.  
Paragraph 2 elaborates on the connections among aspirin, prostaglandins, and the three types of COX enzymes.  Paragraph 3 discusses COX-2 inhibitors specifically, both the impetus for creating them and some negative effects.  The final paragraph provides caution about the promise of COX-2 inhibitors.
(A) The passage explains the intended benefits behind the development of COX-2 inhibitors, but this is much too narrow to be the main purpose of the passage, particularly when a large part of the passage addresses the negative consequences.
(B) The author does not initiate a “debate.” For a debate, the author must introduce two clear opposing sides. The COX-2 inhibitors were developed to replace the earlier drugs that inhibited both COX-1 and COX-2, but then they were also found to have side effects. 
(C) While paragraph 4 states that “Side effects almost always cropped up, even after clinical trials that seemed to indicate none," the author notes this only in the context of explaining the result of COX-2 inhibitors. This is too narrow to be the main purpose of the passage.  
(D) CORRECT. This choice reflects the summary above: why COX-2 inhibitors were developed and the result of the drugs' introduction into the marketplace.
(E) This is incorrect because the passage never mentions a drug class of “COX-1 inhibitors.” COX-1 is introduced as an enzyme; it is not a class of drug. 

QUESTION: 28

Ciara distrusts modern medicine. She says that the drugs prescribed by doctors are just synthetic poisons that they dispense to make money. She uses only herbs and essential oils to treat her health problems, declaring that they are much safer than prescription drugs because they come directly from nature.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens Ciara's argument?

Solution:

Explanation: C is correct because Ciara claims that herbs and natural remedies are safe, while some plants and natural substances are in fact poisonous.

A is not correct because Ciara's argument is about the safety of natural remedies, rather than the cost.

B is not correct because the drugs may be derived from natural substances but do not come "directly from nature" as Ciara argues about natural remedies.

D is not correct because Ciara's argument is about the safety of the remedies, rather than that they are 100% effective.

E is not correct because Ciara's argument is about the safety of the remedies, not the cost.

QUESTION: 29

Recent DNA analysis shows that the majority of modern humans alive today have at least some genetic material in common with Neanderthal humans. Archaeologists believe that the first evidence of religious behavior has been found in excavations of Neanderthal dwellings in France. The presence of Neanderthal DNA in modern Europeans has led some scholars to assert that Europeans are genetically programmed for religious behavior in ways that people from other areas of the world are not.

Which of the following, if true, more seriously weakens this argument?

Solution:

Explanation: C is correct because, if Europeans are genetically programmed for religious behavior, then we should not find evidence of religious behavior among all human groups.

A is incorrect because, while this may mean that artifacts are better preserved and there is thus more evidence for Neanderthal religion, we cannot tell from this if there is (or would be) evidence of religion in other cultures.

B is incorrect because the debate over the meaning of the artifacts may mean that there is disagreement over whether Neanderthals had religion, it does not challenge the notion that there is a genetic link to religious behavior.

D is incorrect because modern Europeans not practicing religion does not tell us anything about a genetic motivation for religion.

E is incorrect because the argument does not rely on figuring out who does and does not have Neanderthal DNA.

QUESTION: 30

It has long been supposed that Neanderthal humans were replaced by modern humans. Most anthropologists thought that the two groups did not have contact or interbreed. However, a recent archaeological dig found Neanderthal artifacts and modern human artifacts mixed together, indicating that there was some contact between the two. The archaeologists leading this dig have published a new article asserting that, in fact, Neanderthals and modern humans did live side by side and interbreed.

Which of the following evidence would provide the strongest support for the archaeologists' claim?

Solution:

Explanation: C is correct because a key part of the archaeologists' claim is that the two groups interbred. The only way to show this definitively would be to find the remains of an individual with DNA from both groups.

A is incorrect because such dating will only show that the groups may have been contemporary. It does not speak to them living side by side (artifacts could be found or traded for over distances) or that they interbred.

B is incorrect because such burials may show that the two groups lived together, but not that they interbred.

D is incorrect because such paintings might show that the two groups lived together, but not that they interbred.

E is incorrect because such villages may have been built on abandoned sites – they do not prove contact between the groups.

QUESTION: 31

A recent sociological study found that more than 40% of the members of a large conservative Christian church were the adult children of divorce. This led the researchers to conclude that growing up in a family where there is divorce leads people to become more religious.

Which of the following would be the best way to test the researchers' conclusions?

Solution:

Explanation: B is correct because the researchers assert that growing up in a family of divorce leads to greater religiosity. It is therefore important to know if people began practicing a religion after the divorce, or if they have continued the same religious practice they had as children before the divorce.

A is incorrect because while it tells us about current behavior, it does not tell us about whether or not the divorce of one's parents leads a person to become religious.

C is incorrect because it only tells us that some adult children of divorce become atheists. The group is unlikely to be as large as the church, and therefore it is difficult to compare the samples.

D is incorrect because it only tells us how common divorce is and perhaps how many children experience the divorce of their parents each year. It tells us nothing about religious behavior.

E is incorrect because facilitating such a group might lead to discussions of religious behavior, but it is not systematic or focused. The sample is also likely to be quite small and nonrandom since people choose to go into such groups.

QUESTION: 32

 

1. Women who have had miscarriages are also often taking birth control pills, which have a known connection to breast cancer.
2. Women who have not had breast cancer also have a high rate of miscarriage after age 35.
3. Women who have had previous miscarriages sometimes use fertility treatments that are thought to have connections with uterine cancer.
4. In the general population, roughly 6 out of 10 women will have a miscarriage at some point in their lifetime.
5. Most of the women in the study had also had at least one living child.

Solution:

Explanation: D is correct because it indicates that the rate of miscarriage in the study sample is no larger than that for the general population. This indicates that women who have not had breast cancer are just as likely to have had miscarriages as women who have been treated for the disease, demonstrating that there is no causal link between miscarriage and breast cancer.

A is incorrect because the birth control pills are a confounding factor; it is just as likely they, not the miscarriages, contributed to breast cancer in the study sample.

B is incorrect because it implies that breast cancer may cause a higher risk of miscarriage, while the researchers are asserting that miscarriage may cause breast cancer.

C is incorrect because the treatments in question are known to have a connection with uterine cancer, but this cannot necessarily be extrapolated to breast cancer.

E is incorrect because the researchers are not asserting that infertility or not having children causes cancer, only that miscarriage does

QUESTION: 33

Central State College has a very progressive program for preventing sexual assault on its campus. Every incoming student has to take a 1 hour course on sexual and dating violence, and there are monthly programs about prevention and intervention. The college recently opened a 24-hour hotline for victims and survivors of sexual assault. To their dismay, in the first year of the hotline operating, reports of sexual assaults on campus went up by 10%. Administrators are confused as to why their efforts to prevent violence seem to have led to more violence on campus.

Which of the following might explain the rise in reports of sexual assault at Central State?

Solution:

Explanation:  B is correct because it accounts for a higher level of reporting, which is what the administrators observed. While it is tempting to conclude that actual assaults went up, it is also known that most sexual assaults go unreported. Having an avenue to report assaults on campus may have led students who would otherwise not have reported to speak up.

A is incorrect because it relies on the false logic that prevention education presents the undesirable behavior as an option. Also, an increase in reporting of assaults does not necessarily mean that more assaults are being committed.

C is incorrect because while it might lead more students to recognize troubling interactions as assault, it does not account for the fact that more students reported those interactions.

D is incorrect because the higher reporting of assaults could just as easily mean that facilitators are quite effective in teaching students about what assault is and how to report it.

E is incorrect because the higher reporting rate through the hotline could just as easily indicate that the programs are very effective in raising awareness of assault.

QUESTION: 34

According to Dr. Sean, people who consume broccoli everyday are half as likely to be diagnosed with heart diseases as compared to others. Dr. Sean stated this after he had monitored diet of 100 patients for 12 months.

Which of the following options weakens the argument stated above?

Solution:

Explanation: We chose option C as correct because it weakens Dr. Sean's argument the most. According to Dr. Sean, it was broccoli which decreased the heart problems, but at the same time, it's equally possible that it was because of the half hour daily jogging practice which prevented heart complications in the test subjects.

QUESTION: 35

Mesa College has a long reputation of progressive arts education. It relies heavily on donations from its alumni for scholarships and campus improvements. Mesa College has never had an athletic program, and many current students and alumni say that they think this had led the college to put more focus and financial resources into developing first-class arts programs. This year, Mesa College instituted a football program, over the objections of many students and alumni.

Based on this passage, which of the following is likely to occur?

Solution:

Explanation: C is correct because, since alumni consider the fact that Mesa College did not have football to be an asset and objected strongly to the program being established, some alumni are likely to decrease or even stop donations to the college.

A is incorrect because the passage states that alumni objected to the football program. They are unlikely to increase donations as a result of the program.

B is incorrect because the passage states that alumni objected to the program. They are unlikely to become involved in promoting it.

D is incorrect because the passage says nothing about how funds will be allocated for football scholarships.

E is incorrect because it is impossible to tell how the program will fare from the information given.

QUESTION: 36

Educational research shows that students who attend schools with low faculty/student ratios perform better on standardized tests than students who attend schools with high ratios. Therefore, homeschooling is the best option because the student and parent can work one on one.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?

Solution:

Explanation: A is correct because it indicates that homeschooled students' success is dependent on the competence of the parent-teacher, not just the small class size.

B is incorrect because it speaks to teacher qualification and preparedness, not to faculty/student ratios.

C is incorrect because it speaks to social outcomes, not academic outcomes, of homeschooling.

D is incorrect because it shows that homeschooled students' performance compares to that of students at large schools, but large schools do not necessarily equate to large faculty/student ratios.

E is incorrect because, while it may be a motivation for homeschooling, the information given does not indicate that the small schools are private.

QUESTION: 37

Sharla is a better chess player than Marcus.
Marcus is a better chess player than Evelyn.
Olivia routinely beats Evelyn at chess.

What is the likely outcome if Sharla and Olivia play a game of chess?

Solution:

Explanation: B is correct because, while Olivia routinely beats Evelyn at chess, Evelyn is still not as good a player as Marcus, who is in turn not as good as Sharla. Sharla is the superior player.

A is incorrect because Olivia routinely beats Evelyn, but Evelyn is considered a worse player than players who are themselves not as good as Sharla.

C is incorrect because they two players do not seem to be evenly matched.

D is incorrect because there is no indication that Olivia will withdraw from the game.

E is incorrect because there is no indication that either woman will decline to play.

QUESTION: 38

Jennifer bought two apartments in order to rent them to other people with $300,000. The monthly return on the first apartment is 1.5% of its value and on the second apartment the return is 2% of its value. If the total returns of the entire year were $61,200, how much did Jennifer spent on the second apartment?

Solution:

The best answer is B.

The easiest way is to back solve the question.

Take answer B, if that is the amount Jennifer invested in the second apartment; the annual return from that apartment was (120,000 x 0.24 = 28,800). Therefore there are $180,000 left to invest in the first apartment, 18% of $180,000 is $32,400.

Sum them up; the total return is like the question asked- $61,200.

QUESTION: 39

Two cars are traveling on the same road towards each other.  If car A is traveling at a speed of 120 Km/h and car B is traveling 15% slower, how much time will it take the cars to meet if the initial distance between the two is 668.4 Km and car A started to drive one hour and a half before car B started?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Car B is traveling at a speed of 0.85 x 120 = 102 Km/h.
Car A travels alone a distance of 120 x 1.5 = 180 Km. The remaining distance should be divided among the sum of the cars speeds: (668.4 – 180 = 488.4 Km) / (102 + 120) = 2.2 = Two hours and 12 minutes

QUESTION: 40

Water has been poured into an empty rectangular tank at the rate of 8 cubic feet per minute for 2.5 minutes. The length of the tank is 3 feet and the width is one half of the length. Approximately how deep is the water in the tank?

Solution:

The best answer is E.

 First calculate the volume of water that has been poured into the tank.  If it has been poured at a rate of 8 cubic feet per minute for 2.5 minutes, 8 × 2.5 = 20 cubic feet. The tank is rectangular, so its volume is length × width × height (or depth), with the answer in cubic units. We are given the length, and can calculate the width, since we are told that the width is 1/2 the length, or 1/2 of 3 feet, or 1.5 feet. The volume we have already calculated to be 20 cubic feet.  Therefore, 20 = length × width × height, or 20 = 3 feet × 1.5 feet × the height. Solving for the height, we get 40/9 , or approximately 4.44 feet. 

QUESTION: 41

Roy is now 4 years older than Erik and half of that amount older than Iris. If in 2 years, Roy will be twice as old as Erik, then in 2 years what would be Erik’s age multiplied by Iris’s age?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Translate piece by piece into numbers. R (Roy) = Erik (E) + 4.
The second equation: R = I (Iris)+ 2.

The third equation: R +7 = 2(E + 7). We have three equations with three variables.
→ Roy is 6, Iris is 4 and Erik is 2. In four years Erik would be 6 and Iris 8, the answer is 48.

QUESTION: 42

An investment yields an interest payment of $228 each month. If the simple annual interest rate is 9%, what is the amount of the investment?

Solution:

The best answer is B.

Principal × percent interest = interest earned
Principle × (0.09)× 1/12 = $228.
Solve for the principal (228 × 12)/.09= $30,400.

QUESTION: 43

x, y, z, and w are integers. The expression x-y-z is even and the
Expression y-z-w is odd. If x is even what must be true?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

The first expression is even and the second is odd, the differences between the two expressions is x instead of w. (remember, there is no difference in odd/even numbers if the number is positive or negative so y-z is like z-y). Therefore if x is even w must be odd.

QUESTION: 44

X is a prime number bigger than 10. Also, Y = X+X3+X5+X7 .
What is definitely true about Y?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Because X is a prime number bigger than 10, he must be odd. Ignoring the powers of X in the expression of Y, you’ll see that Y is a sum of 4 odd numbers therefore it must be even.

QUESTION: 45

In Tukitu village, one forth of the people are raising flowers, one ninth are growing wheat and one eleventh are going bankrupt. What could be the number of people in the village?

Solution:

The answer must be a number that is divisible equally by 4, 9 and 11.

The only possible answer is A.

QUESTION: 46

Q is a prime number bigger than 10. What is the smallest positive number (except 1) that 3Q can be divided by equally?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

3Q is a prime number so it can be divide equally by 3Q, by 1 and by the components 3 and Q. The smallest number therefore is 3.

QUESTION: 47

352 - 342 =?

Solution:

The best answer is B.

352 - 342 = (35 – 34)(35 +34) = 1(35 + 34). B is the answer

QUESTION: 48

Kelly used to get a 30% discount on movie tickets. When the price of the movie ticket increased by 50%, the amount of discount in dollars remained the same. What is Kelly's discount with the new Ticket price in percent terms?

Solution:

The best answer is B.The price of the ticket is unknown. Take 100 as an exapmle.30% discount of 100 is $30, that amount stayed the same after the price of a ticket grew by 50%.The new price of a ticket is $150, so 30/150 is 20%.

QUESTION: 49

Tom divided his cards between Tim and Din so each one received an odd amount of cards. The number of cards that Tim received multiplied by the number of cards that Din received is a number larger than 49 and smaller than 121. How many cards did Tom have in the first place?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Answers A and E are disqualified immediately because those are even numbers that cannot be divided into two odd numbers. 22 is 11 + 11 but 11 x 11 is bigger than 121, the same idea with 14, therefore the answer is 18.  18 = 9 + 9.  9 x 9 = 81.

QUESTION: 50

In the beginning of the season, the owner of a football team bought T players for the price of 4R each. At the end of the season the owner sold the players in a total profit of X. How much did the owner get for all the players?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

The owner bought T player that cost him altogether 4TR.
He had a profit of X so he sold them for 4TR + X

QUESTION: 51

A bird is flying from an oak tree to a pine tree in a speed of 6 Km/h.

On her way back, she flew at a speed of 4 Km/h, thus, the trip lasted 4 hours more. What is the distance between the trees? (In Km)

Solution:

The best answer is D.

The distance to the pine tree is 6 x X, where X represents the time of the trip. The distance back to the oak tree is 4(X+4), assuming the trip back is equal in length.
Therefore 6X = 4(X+4) à X = 8. The length of the trip is 8 x 6 = 48 Km

QUESTION: 52

In a chocolate store, there are vanilla and chocolate flavor bon-bons only.10% of the bon-bons are chocolate flavored, 90% of the rest are squashed.What percentage of the bon-bons is vanilla flavored that are not squashed?

Solution:

The best answer is C.
Pick a number of bon-bons, like 100 for example.
10 are chocolate, 90% of the rest (0.9 x 90 = 81) are squashed. That means that only 9 are vanilla and are not squashed.

QUESTION: 53

A credit card number has 6 digits (between 1 to 9). The first two digits are 12 in that order, the third digit is bigger than 6, the forth one can be equally divided by 3 and the fifth digit is 3 times bigger than the sixth one. How many credit cards can be made?

Solution:

The best answer is B.
First digit is 1, the second is 2, the third can be (7,8,9), the forth can be (0,3,6,9), the fifth and the sixth are dependent with one another. The fifth one is 3 times bigger than the sixth one, therefore there are only 3 options there: (1,3), (2,6), (3,9).All together there are: 1 x 1 x 3 x 4 x 3 = 36 options.

QUESTION: 54

Out of a box that contains 4 black mice and 6 white ones, three are picked up. What is the probability that all three will be black mice?

Solution:

The best answer is B.
The probability for the first one to be black is: 4/(4+6) = 2/5.
The probability for the second one to be black is: 3/(3+6) = 1/3.
The probability for the third one to be black is: 2/(2+6) = 1/4.
The probability for all three events is (2/5) x (1/3) x (1/4) = 1/30.

QUESTION: 55

A car is driving at 60 Km/h for 20 minutes, and then drives at 90Km/h for another 40 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?

Solution:

The best answer is A.
The average speed is equal to: (Total distance)/(Total time) = (60 x 1/3 + 90 x 2/3)/1 = 80 Km/h.

QUESTION: 56

Two grandfathers can nit a sweater in 6 days. Two grandfathers and one grandmother can nit a sweater in 3 days. How many days will it take the grandmother to nit a sweater all by her self?

Solution:

The best answer is D.
Two grandfathers and a grandmother can nit a sweater in 3 days, therefore they can nit 2 sweaters in 6 days. Because two grandfathers can nit 1 in 6 days then the other sweater is done by the grandmother, she can nit 1 sweater in 6 days.

QUESTION: 57

In a psychology school the grade of the students is determined by the following method: At the end of the first year the grade equals to twice the age of the student. From then on, the grade is determined by twice the age of the student plus half of his grade from the previous year. If Joey’s grade at the end of the first year is 40, what will be his grade at the end of the third year?

Solution:

The best answer is A.
From the grade 40 at the end of the first year we learn that his age is 20.At the end of the second year, he will be 21 and his grade will be (21 x 2 + ½ x 40 = 62).
At the end of the third year, he will be 22 and his grade will be (22 x 2 + ½ x 62 = 75).

QUESTION: 58

In a triangle, one side is 6 Cm and another side is 9 Cm. which of the following can be the perimeter of the triangle?

Solution:

The best answer is B.
The third side of the triangle is larger than 3 (The difference between the other two) and smaller than 15 ( The sum of the other two).
The perimeter is between (6+9+3 = 18) and (6+9+15 = 30). The only answer that is in this range is B.

QUESTION: 59

A long rope was divided to three different parts. What is the length of the smallest piece?
(1) The sum of the two smaller pieces is 14 inch.
(2) The sum of the two larger pieces is 22 inch.

Solution:

The best answer is E.

Translate the statements into variables: Let X, Y and Z be the thee pieces of the rope, X<Y<Z.
Statement (1) can be written as: X + Y = 14.
Statement (2) can be written as: Y + Z = 22.
In order to find the length of the smallest piece, we need another equation or data. More data is required.

QUESTION: 60

Fuel tanker A can fill the underground reservoir in 12 minutes. How long will it take fuel tanker A and fuel tanker B to fill up the same reservoir together?
(1) The reservoir contains 3000 liters of fuel.
(2) Fuel tanker A alone will require the same number of hours to fill the same reservoir.

Solution:

The best answer is B.

Statement (1) is insufficient since the size of the reservoir is irrelevant.

Statement (2) is sufficient since it tells us that the second tanker has the same output as the first one and so it will take them both half of the time it took the first tanker alone.

QUESTION: 61

What is the ratio between A and B?
(1) A is the sum of X, Y and Z.
(2) B is the average (arithmetic mean) of X, Y and Z

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Statement (1) tells us that A = X + Y + Z.
Statement (2) tells us that B = (X + Y + Z)/3.
Using both statements together: A/B is 3.
Both statements together are sufficient.

QUESTION: 62

If X and Y are both integers different from zero, what is the value of (X + 2Y)?
(1) X4 = Y4.
(2) X = 5.

Solution:

The best answer is E.

Don’t rush the answer, pay attention to the question carefully.
Statement (1) tells us that X and Y are equal? No, they could have different signs.
Statement (2) gives us X, which is not sufficient.
Both statements together are also insufficient since Y can be –5 or 5.

More sufficient data is required.

QUESTION: 63

Is the square root of A an integer?
(1) The last digit of A is 8.
(2) A is divisible by 6

Solution:

The best answer is A.

If you square each digit {0, 1, 2,..., 8, 9}, you will see that the only possible last digits for a square are 0, 1, 4, 5, 6 and 9. Thus, if the last digit of A is 8, A cannot be a square. So the square root of A is not an integer. So statement (1) by itself is sufficient. Since 36 is divisible by 6 and its square is an integer, this statement is insufficient by itself.

QUESTION: 64

Is the average of X consecutive numbers odd?
(1) The first number in the series is odd.
(2) The sum of the numbers is odd

Solution:

The best answer is B.

Statement (1) is insufficient by itself, take X as 2: if the first number is odd, the sum of the two numbers is odd. Take X as 3: if the first number is odd, the sum of the three numbers is even.

Statement (2) tells us that the sum of the numbers is odd and therefore the median must be odd.

If the median is odd the average of these numbers is also odd because that means that there is an even amount of even numbers and an odd amount of odd numbers.

This statement is sufficient by itself.

QUESTION: 65

If X and Y are integers, what is the value of XY?
(1) X3 – 3X2 – 2X – 8 = 0.
(2) 4 + 3Y = 2Y + 8.

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Statement (1) can be written as (X – 4)(X2 + X + 2) = 0.

The roots of this equation are one integer and two complex numbers, which you should pay no attention to since you were told that X is an integer.

Statement (2) is a simple equation, Y = 4.
The value of the expression XY is 16.
Both statements, taken together, are sufficient to answer the question.

QUESTION: 66

Each of the 850 local villagers in Lucia owns either a Golden Retriever or a Bernard. How many people own both?
(1) The number of villagers who own a Golden Retriever only is 300.
(2) The number of villagers who own a Bernard only is 280.

Solution:

The best answer is C.

Each one of the villagers, according to the question, has to own at least one of the two dogs.

Statement (1) is insufficient because it says nothing about the Bernard owners.
Statement (2) is insufficient because it says nothing about the Golden Retriever owners.
Combine the statements, all the information we need is present,(800 – 300 – 280) is equal to the number of people who own both races of dogs.

QUESTION: 67

How much is Y percent of X?
(1) 400% of Y is 90.
(2) X percent of Y is 25.

Solution:

The best answer is B.

Statement (1) gives us data on Y only regardless to X and therefore it’s insufficient.

Statement (2) tells us how much is X percent of Y. Make up numbers, X = 25 and Y = 100.

X percent of Y is 25 but we also know how much is Y percent of X, 100 is 400% of 25 and therefore this statement is sufficient by itself.

QUESTION: 68

What is the sum of 11 consecutive integers?
(1) The median of the 11 integers is 6.
(2) The average of the 11 integers is 6.

Solution:

The best answer is D.

Statement (1) provides us with the numbers themselves- 5 on each side of 6.

From Statement (2) we know that average = sum / amount → sum = 66.

Therefore either statement is sufficient to answer the question.

QUESTION: 69

X, Y and Z are three positive integers. If Z = 2, what is their sum?
(1) X – Y = 5.
(2) 3Y + 15 = 3X

Solution:

The best answer is E.

We need to find the value of X + Y since Z is already given to us.

Statement (1) is insufficient since we need the sum of X and Y.

Statement (2) can be written as: 3X – 3Y = 15 → X – Y = 5, you can see that both statements are the same and therefore more sufficient data is required.

QUESTION: 70

Two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are in the ratio of 1:3.  What is the smaller angle of the two?

Solution:

The best answer is B.The sum of two adjacent angles in a parallelogram is 180. 180 divided by 4(1+3) is 45 and that is the size of the smallest among the angles.

QUESTION: 71

Two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are in the ratio of 2:3. What is their average size?

Solution:

The best answer is D.
The ratio doesn’t give us anything, two adjacent angles of a parallelogram always sum up to 180 degrees. And 180/2 is always 90 degrees

QUESTION: 72

The angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 3: 2: 1. The largest angle in the triangle is:

Solution:

The best answer is E.
The sum of all the angles is 180. Divide 180 by 6 (3+2+1) and we’ll get 36; this is the size of the smallest angle. The largest angle is three times bigger, thus 36 x 3 = 108 degrees.

QUESTION: 73

The perimeter of a circle is approximately 6.3 centimeters.  The area of the same circle is A. which of the following is true?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

The perimeter of a circle is 2.π.R, 2.π.R ≌6.3⇒R≌ 1 cm.

A = π.R2 Therefore A is approximately pie (3.14).

QUESTION: 74

John bought grocery products for 10 dollars using 55 coins.  If John used quarters and dimes, what is the difference between the numbers of dimes to the number of quarters that he used? 

Solution:

The best answer is A.
Define X as the number of dimes that John used. Just a reminder, dimes are 10 cents coins.The number of quarters that he used is (55 – X). We can write the following equation:10X + 25(55 – X) = 1000. Notice that 1000 is the money he spent in cents.Therefore  (–15X = -375) ⇒ X = 25.The number of dimes is 25 and the number of quarters is (55 – 25 = 30).
The difference between the amounts is 5 coins.

QUESTION: 75

Rick deposited $850 to his bank account using $5 and $15 dollar bills only. If Rick came to the bank with 70 bills and left with 10 bills only, how many $15 dollar bills did he deposit?

Solution:

The best answer is D.
Rick came to the bank with 70 bills and left with 10 and therefore he deposited 60 bills.Define X as the number of $5 dollar bills that he deposited and so (60 – X) is the number of $15 bills that he deposited.We can write the following equation: 5X + 15(60 – X) = 850 ⇒ -10X = -50 ⇒ X = 5.The number of $15 dollar bills is (60 – 5) 55.

QUESTION: 76

The average (arithmetic mean) of four numbers is equal to three times the largest number. If the largest number is equal to 3, what is the sum of the other three numbers?

Solution:

The best answer is B.
Let’s say the four numbers are: X, Y, Z and W.The average of all four numbers is equal to 3 times the value of the largest number:(X+Y+Z+W)/4 = 3W. W is equal to 3 and therefore (X+Y+Z+3) = 3 x 9 ⇒ X+Y+Z = 36-3 = 33.

QUESTION: 77

. What is the reciprocal of (AB)/(A + B)2 ?

Solution:

The best answer is C.

The reciprocal of X is 1/X and therefore the reciprocal of (AB)/(A + B)2 is (A + B)2/AB.

Simplify the expression: (A + B)2/AB = (A2 + 2AB + B2)/AB = A/B + B/A + 2.

QUESTION: 78

Naomi drives to the beauty parlor in 60 minutes. On the way back, her average speed is half the average speed as it was to the way to the parlor. How much time will it take Naomi to travel two round trips to the beauty parlor?

Solution:

The best answer is E.

If the average speed from the beauty parlor is half of the average speed to the parlor then the time back from the parlor is twice the time it takes her to get to the parlor, thus 120 minutes.

The total round trip will take Naomi (60 + 120 = 180) minutes, which is 3 hours.

Two round trips will take her 6 hours.

QUESTION: 79


The above graph gives the values for 4 items measured by the police department. One represents the number of crimes reported, one represents the number of arrests made, one represents the number of police officers on staff, and one represents the budget surplus for the department (in $1000s).

Q. Given that each new police officer hired will make multiple arrests, and each new hire will immediately cut into the budget, ____ represents the department’s budget surplus.

Solution:

If each new police officer makes multiple arrests, then the relationship between police officers on staff and arrests will be positive, and the total number of arrests will be greater than the total number of police officers. Looking at our graph, that could only mean that A is # of police officers and B is # of arrests. Every new police officer hired lowers the budget surplus, so there will be a negative relationship between A and the variable representing the surplus. Since C and A both decrease between April and May, this can only be D. Select the final option, D.

QUESTION: 80


The above pie chart gives the number of course offerings in the business school in the four subject areas: Management, Marketing, Accounting, and Finances, and some of their subareas.

Q. In a geometric progression, each term in the list is obtained by multiplying the previous term by a constant factor. If there are 12 Organizational Development courses, and _______ courses offered in the other subareas of Management, then the course offerings in the subareas of Management could be ordered into a geometric progression.

Solution:

We can see from the chart that there are four subareas in Management, so you can immediately eliminate the options with only 2 other items on the list. A geometric progression means that the next item in the list can be calculated by multiplying the current term by a constant factor. 

2, 4, 8, 12 do not form a geometric progression, since 2*2=4, 4*2=8, but 8*2 does not equal 12. 10, 11, 12, 13 are an arithmetic progression, not a geometric progression. In addition, neither of those 2 options sum to 45, as the chart indicates is the total # of courses in Management. However, 3, 6, 12, 24 is a geometric progression (with factor 2), and it correctly sums to 45 total courses. 12, 15, 18 does sum to 45, but it has the wrong number of subareas and it is an arithmetic progression, not a geometric one. 4, 12, 36 is a geometric progression, but it doesn’t sum to 45 and it has the wrong number of subareas.

QUESTION: 81


The above pie chart gives the number of course offerings in the business school in the four subject areas: Management, Marketing, Accounting, and Finances, and some of their subareas.

Q. A student, randomly selecting two courses, has an approximately ______ chance of selecting one management and one tax accounting course.

Solution:

Remember that you can use a basic calculator for the IR section of the test. In order to randomly select one management and one tax accounting course, there are two possibilities: first selecting a management course and then selecting a tax accounting course, or first selecting a tax accounting course and then selecting a management course. 

The overall probability is the sum of these two possible scenarios: 
45/200 * 26/199 + 26/200 * 45/199 = 2*45*26/200*199 = 5.9% 

If you chose 2.9%, don’t forget to consider both possible orders for selecting the two courses, not just one of them (45/200 * 26/199). If you chose 12.6%, you can’t just square the possibility of selecting either a management or a tax accounting course, because that leaves open the possibility of selecting two of one and neither of the other. If you chose 23.6%, remember that there are 200 total courses, not 100.

QUESTION: 82

Article 1

News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article 2

Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”
 

Article 3

Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statement. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q.  
The actions of the oil companies have led some voters to reject measures they consider costly.

Solution:

The answer is No. We cannot infer any direct links between the actions of the oil companies and the votes cast by the public.

QUESTION: 83

Article 1

News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article 2

Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”
 

Article 3

Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statement. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q. 
An increase in demand for a product could incentivize companies to cut corners.

Solution:

The answer is No. In article 3, we are told that an increase in demand for crude oil “has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem.” We cannot infer a cause/effect relationship between two things just because they happened at about the same time. At about the same time that demand for crude oil increased, companies began to cut corners. Although it is likely that the two are related, we cannot infer causality based on mere correlation.

*Multiple options can be correct
QUESTION: 84

Team Legato is competing against Team Forte in a musical duets competition where two members from each team play a song together. Prizes are awarded for first, second, and third place to the three winning duets overall, and not for the three best duets on each individual team. Team Legato has 1/4 as many members as Team Forte.

From the choices below, identify the number of members on each Team if there are 15 duos competing in total.

Solution:

The answer is 6 and 24. This question allows us to set up two linear equations, and solve for each variable. It there are 15 pairs total, then there are 30 members combined on Teams Legato and Forte: 
30 = L + F 
We also know that Legato has ¼ as many members as Forte: 
4L = F 
Let’s substitute and solve: 
30 = L + 4L 
30 = 5L 
6 = L 
So there are 6 members on Team Legato, and 24 members on Team Forte.

*Multiple options can be correct
QUESTION: 85

Team Legato is competing against Team Forte in a musical duets competition where two members from each team play a song together. Prizes are awarded for first, second, and third place to the three winning duets overall, and not for the three best duets on each individual team. Team Legato has 1/4 as many members as Team Forte.

Identify the number of possible duos on each team if there are 60 members of Team Forte.

Solution:

The answer is 1770 and 105. If there are 60 members on Forte, then there are 15 members of Legato. We’re choosing 2 from 60, and 2 from 15, so we’d need to use the Combination formula: 
60! / (60-2)! 2! = 60 x 59 / 2 = 30 x 59 = 1770 
15! / (15-2)! 2! = 15 x 14 / 2 = 15 x 7 = 105

*Multiple options can be correct
QUESTION: 86

Team Legato is competing against Team Forte in a musical duets competition where two members from each team play a song together. Prizes are awarded for first, second, and third place to the three winning duets overall, and not for the three best duets on each individual team. Team Legato has 1/4 as many members as Team Forte.

Q.  If there are 20 duos competing, identify the closest approximate number of possible different arrangements of medal winners if it is not possible for one team to “sweep” the awards and Team Legato must come in first, and the number of possible different arrangements of medal winners if there are half as many participants.

Solution:

The answer is 3 million and 10,000. This is a permutation question. The first thing we must find is the number of members on each team. 20 pairs total means we have 40 individuals. Team Legato has 1/4 as many members as Team Forte, so 1/4y + y = 40. 
5/4y = 40 
y = 32 
Team Legato will have 8 members, and Team Forte will have 32 members. 

We have three places, with six slots each, and we know that one team cannot “sweep,” and also that Team Legato must come in first place. The possible arrangements for team-placement are two: 
Team L, Team F, Team L 
Team L, Team L, Team F 

Now we must consider how many ways we can order people within each placing team. In Outcome 1, we’d have 8 * 7 arrangements for Team Legato in first place, 32 * 31 arrangements for Team Forte in second place, and 6 *5 arrangements for Team Legato in third place. 

8 * 7 * 32 * 31 * 6 * 5 = 1,666,560 possible placements for the individual team members. We must double this number to account for either possible team-placement, so the answer is approximately 3 million. 

If there were half as many participants, there would be 20 individuals, so 16 on Team Forte and 4 on Team Legato. In Outcome 1, we’d have 4*3 for 1st place, 16*15 for 2nd place, and 2*1 for 3rd place. The possible arrangements would be 5760 for each outcome, or 11,520 total.

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