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RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 1

Consider the given statement and decide which of the given assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement:
The electricity board has started going from home to home to collect bills.
Assumptions:
A. Electricity board considers going home to home an effective way to collect bills.
B. The electricity board has increased its focus on collecting bills.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 1

The logic followed is:
As the statements talk about the electricity board has started going from home to home to collect bills.
Assumption I is implicit because electricity board has started going from home to home to collect bills since people have to face many problems.
B. The electricity board has increased its focus on collecting bills.
From the statement, we can assume that if non - renewable sources of energy go exhausted, the next generation will not be able to use them and will have to think of alternatives as non - renewable energy will extinct if we are not saving it.
Therefore, Assumption II is implicit.
Hence, Both A and B are implicit
Additional Information

  1. Read the statement with an approach that the assumptions would be true about the statement.
  2. Do not go too logical with the statements. Analyze the given information and the assumption must only be made based on the information in the statement. Do not over-complicate it.
  3. Common assumptions can always be followed but other than that do not align the statement with General Knowledge or other facts
  4. Use the elimination method if you are unable to apprehend the answer. Read the statement and then the assumptions given in the options, you shall notice that a few of them will most definitely not follow. Eliminate them and then choosing from lesser options may prove to be more convenient
  5. One thing to note is that the assumption is something that the author believes to be true, so while choosing the correct option, keep this thought in mind. If any option contradicts the statement, then that assumption will not follow.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 2

When is National Panchayati Raj Day observed in India?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 2

The correct answer is 24th April.

Key Points

  • National Panchayati Raj Day
    • The first National Panchayati Raj Day was celebrated in 2010.
    • Since then, the National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated on 24th April every year in India. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
    • The annual celebration is done to commemorate the day on which the 73rd Constitutional Amendment was passed in 1992.
    • The act came into effect on April 24, 1993.
    • Former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh had declared the first National Panchayati Raj Day on 24 April in the year 2010.
    • National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated to mark the inception of decentralized power.
    • The Ministry of Panchayati Raj has been awarding the best performing Panchayats/States/UTs across the country in recognition of their good work.
    • After the Constitution came into force, Article 40 made a mention of panchayats, and Article 246 empowered the state legislature to legislate concerning any subject relating to local self-government.
    • Panchayati Raj Institution (PRI) was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grassroots level and was entrusted with the task of rural development in the country.
    • PRI is a system of rural local self-government in India.
    • Local Self Government is the management of local affairs by such local bodies who have been elected by the local people.
    • To strengthen e-Governance in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) across the country, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) has launched eGramSwaraj, a user-friendly web-based portal.

Important Points

  • Salient Features of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
    • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment added Part IX titled “The Panchayats” to the Constitution.
    • The basic unit of the democratic system-Gram Sabhas (villages) comprising all the adult members registered as voters.
    • The three-tier system of panchayats at the village, intermediate block/taluk/Mandal, and district levels except in States with population is below 20 lakhs (Article 243B).
    • Seats at all levels to be filled by direct elections (Article 243C (2)).

Additional Information

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RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 3

When is World Book and Copyright Day celebrated?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 3

The correct answer is 23rd April.
Key Points

  • World Book and Copyright Day
    • It is organized every year on April 23rd by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) to promote, highlight and expand the power of reading, books, and copyright. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
    • On this day UNESCO aims to make a community so that readers across the world can connect with each other in turn combat isolation.
    • The theme for 2021 is-In the wake of the pandemic, UNESCO has created a theme ‘Bookface Challenge’ to celebrate World Book Day 2021.
    • This year, UNESCO argued everyone to challenge themselves, and explore new topics, books, formats, genres in one’s reading lists.
    • Their goal is to engage people in reading and encourage them to enjoy while doing so.

Important Points

  • UNESCO
    • The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is an international organization that aims to build peace through collaborative efforts in the field of Education, Science, and Culture.
    • It was founded on November 16, 1945.
    • It is based in Paris, France.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 4

Which number from among the given options will come in place of (*) in the given number series ?

1, 1, 2, 8, 3, 27, 4, (*), 5, 125....

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 4

The logic is:

Hence, ‘64’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 5

What was the main reason for calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement by Gandhiji in 1922?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 5

The correct answer is A police station at Chauri Chaura in Uttar Pradesh was set on fire by a mob.
Key Points
The Non-cooperation movement:

  • It was launched on 5th September 1920 by the Indian National Congress (INC) under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • In September 1920, in a Congress session in Calcutta, the party introduced the Non-Cooperation program.
  • Non-Cooperation Movement was a sequel to the Rowlatt Act, the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, and the Khilafat Movement.
  • It was approved by the INC at the Nagpur session in December 1920.
  • Khadi & Charkha became a symbol of NCM.
  • The main aim of the Non- Cooperation movement was:
    • Work for the eradication of untouchability from society.
    • Adopt Swadeshi habits including hand spinning and weaving.
    • Adopt Swadeshi principles.
  • The whole movement was abruptly called off on 11th February 1922 by Gandhi following the Chauri Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district of UP (22 policemen burnt).
  • Thus, we can conclude that the main reason for calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement by Gandhiji in 1922 was that a police station at Chauri Chaura in Uttar Pradesh was set on fire by a mob. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 6

Which country ranked first in the world as per the human development index of 2020?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 6

The correct answer is Norway.
Key Points
Human Development Index:

  • The 2020 Report has introduced the planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index, which adjusts the standard Human Development Index (HDI) by a country’s per capita carbon dioxide emissions and material footprint.
  • It was published by UNDP.
  • HDI emphasizes that people and their capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone.
  • Based on three Basic Dimensions of Human Development:
    • A long and healthy life,
    • Access to knowledge, and
    • A decent standard of living.
  • Norway topped the index, followed by Ireland and Switzerland. Hong Kong and Iceland complete the top five. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • Singapore was ranked 11, Saudi Arabia 40, and Malaysia was at 62 in the global index, representing the top bracket among the Asian countries with “very high human development".
  • Sri Lanka (72), Thailand (79), China (85) and Indonesia and Philippines (both 107), and Vietnam (117), among others, were “high human development" countries.
  • India, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, Cambodia, Kenya, and Pakistan were ranked among countries with “medium human development" with ranks between 120 and 156.
  • India ranked at 131 out of 189 countries and territories.
  • Norway, which tops the HDI, falls 15 places if this metric is used, leaving Ireland at the top of the table.
  • The United States (HDI Rank -17) and Canada (HDI Rank -16) would fall 45 and 40 places respectively, reflecting their disproportionate impact on natural resources.
  • The oil and the gas-rich Gulf States also fell steeply. China would drop 16 places from its current ranking of 85.

Additional Information

  • The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
    • It is the UN's global development network, advocating for change and connecting countries to knowledge, experience, and resources to help people build a better life.
    • Its headquarter is in New York City but works primarily through its offices in about 170 countries and territories.
    • United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), United Nations (UN) organization formed in 1965 to help countries eliminate poverty and achieve sustainable human development, an approach to economic growth that emphasizes improving the quality of life of all citizens while conserving the environment and natural resources for future generations.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 7

Who are the famous Indian women lawyers who led the legal battle to strike Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 7

The correct answer is Menaka Guruswamy and Arundhati Katju.
Key Points

  • Menaka Guruswamy and Arundhati Katju are famous Indian women lawyers who led the legal battle to strike Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • Katju and Guruswamy represented the petitioners against the ban on consensual gay sex in the country.
  • The duo highlighted those who suffered under the law by enlisting more than two dozen gay, lesbian, bisexual, and transgender people as co-petitioners.
  • They contested that people risked arrest for publicly identifying themselves as part of the LGBTQ (lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, queer) community.
  • Katju is the niece of former Supreme Court judge Markandey Katju. She was also a junior under senior advocate Sidharth Luthra in the Supreme Court.
  • Guruswamy is the daughter of Mohan Guruswamy, a well-known political-thinker, and adviser to former Prime Minister late Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
  • In September 2018, a constitutional bench of the Supreme Court partly struck down Section 377 in a unanimous decision.
  • The judgment was considered groundbreaking, as the country's top court finally overturned a colonial-era ban imposed on consensual gay sex.
  • The judgment was regarded as a welcome step in affirmation of human dignity.

Important Points

  • Section 377
    • Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code 1860, a relic of British India, states that whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman or animal shall be punished.
    • This included private consensual sex between adults of same-sex.
    • After the recent SC judgment, provisions of Section 377 remain applicable in cases of non-consensual carnal intercourse with adults, all acts of carnal intercourse with minors, and acts of bestiality.

Additional Information

  • Pinky Anand
    • She is an Indian lawyer and was designated as a senior advocate till May 2020.
    • She served as an Additional Solicitor General of India at the Supreme Court of India.
    • She is also a politician.
  • Karuna Nundy
    • She is an Indian lawyer at the Supreme Court of India and the focus of her work is on constitutional law, commercial litigation and arbitration, media law, and legal policy.
  • Vrinda Grover
    • She is a lawyer, researcher, and human rights and women's rights activist based in New Delhi, India.
  • Maneka Sanjay Gandhi
    • She is an Indian politician, animal rights activist, and environmentalist.
    • She is a member of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian parliament, and a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party.
  • Suzanna Arundhati Roy
    • She is an Indian author best known for her novel The God of Small Things, which won the Man Booker Prize for Fiction in 1997 and became the best-selling book by a non-expatriate Indian author.
    • She is also a political activist involved in human rights and environmental causes.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 8

In an examination, a student scored 65% marks but was 20 marks below the qualifying marks. Another student scored 80% marks and scored 10 marks more than the qualifying marks. Total marks of the examination are:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 8

Given:

Marks scored by one student = 65%

Marks scored by another student = 80%

Let the total marks be = y

Qualifying marks of one student = 65% of y + 20

Qualifying marks of another student = 80% of y - 10

As per the question;

65% of y + 20 = 80% of y - 10

⇒ 65/100 × y + 30 = 80/100 × y

⇒ 30 = 80y/100 - 65y/100

⇒ 15y/100 = 30

⇒ y = 200

∴ The total marks of the examination are 200.

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 9

How many demands did Mahatma Gandhi make in his letter to Lord Irwin some of which were agreed to and came to be known as Gandhi-lrwin Pact?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 9

The correct answer is 11.
Key Points

  • The Gandhi-Irwin Pact
    • It was linked to India's civil disobedience campaign.
    • Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin signed the pact.
    • On March 5, 1931, the pact was signed.
    • Before the second round table conference in London, this was arranged.
    • As per Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji discontinued the Civil Disobedience movement and agreed to attend the second round table conference.
    • The Lahore Congress of 1929 had given the mandate to launch the civil disobedience movement along with the non-payment of taxes.
    • Mahatma Gandhi presented his 11 demands to the Viceroy Lord Irwin and gave him the ultimate of January 31, 1932, to accept these demands. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

Important Points
Mahatma Gandhi 11 point demands were:

  • Abolition of salt tax and Monopoly of the government to manufacture salt.
  • To reduce the expenses on the civil administration and army by 30%.
  • To reform the criminal investigation department CID.
  • Total prohibition of intoxicants and alcohol.
  • Amendments in the arms act to allow licenses of arms to citizens for self-protection.
  • To release all the Political Prisoners.
  • Exception of Postal reservation bill.
  • To change the Rupee Sterling exchange ratio to 1s 4d.
  • To impose a customs duty on the import of foreign clothes.
  • The reservation of coastal shipping for Indians.
  • Reduction of land revenue by 50 percent.

Additional Information
Proposed conditions of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact are:

  • The Indian National Congress took part in the Second Round Table Conference.
  • Salt is no longer taxed.
  • Withdrawal of all ordinances issued by the Indian government restricting the operations of the Indian National Congress.
  • Discontinuation of Salt March.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 10

Which sea route is the busiest in the world?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 10

The correct answer is The North Atlantic sea route.
Key Points

  • The North Atlantic sea route is the busiest sea route in the world.
    • The North Atlantic sea route connects two industrially developed parts of the world.
    • The North Atlantic sea route connects ports of the western coast of Europe with the ports on the east coast of North America.
    • It carries the foreign trade greater than that of the rest of the world combined altogether.
    • One-fourth of the world foreign trade moves through this route.

Additional Information

  • The North Pacific sea route connects North America and East Asia as the main sea lane for vessel traffic.
  • The Panama Canal connects western Europe and North America with Australia, New Zealand, and a smattering of Pacific islands via the South Pacific sea route.
  • The Cape of Good Hope route connects Eastern Asia and Europe to southern parts of Africa
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 11

Which country hosted the Asian Cup Football tournament in 2023 ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 11

The correct answer is Qatar,
Key Points

  • The 2023 AFC Asian Cup was the 18th edition of the tournament, organized by the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).
  • The event featured 24 national teams, continuing the expanded format introduced in 2019.
  • Qatar, the defending champions, replaced China as hosts on 17 October 2022.
  • Due to Qatar's participation in the 2023 CONCACAF Gold Cup and extreme summer temperatures, the tournament was rescheduled to 12 January – 10 February 2024.
  • This tournament was the second of three consecutive Asian Cups hosted in the Middle East, following UAE (2019) and preceding Saudi Arabia (2027).
  • Qatar became the first FIFA World Cup host to also host the AFC Asian Cup and retained their title by defeating Jordan 3–1 in the final.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 12

If P = 2 + √3, Q = 2 - √3, then P/Q = ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 12

Given:
P = 2 + √3, Q = 2 - √3
Formula used:
(a - b)(a + b) = a2 - b2
Calculation:
By rationalization
P/Q = (2 + √3)/(2 - √3) × (2 + √3)/(2 + √3)
⇒ P/Q = (2 + √3)2/(2)2- (√3)2
⇒ P/Q = (4 + 3 + 4√3)/(4 - 3)
∴ P/Q = (7 + 4√3)/1

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 13

A sum of Rs. 12,000.00 deposited at compound interest becomes double at the end of 5 years. At the end of 15 years the sum will be:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 13

Given:

Principal = Rs.12000

Time = 5 years

Formulas used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + r/100)n

Calculation:

Amount = Principal × (1 + r/100)5

⇒ 24000 = 12000 × (1 + r/100)5

⇒ 24000/12000 = (1 + r/100)5

⇒ 2 = (1 + r/100)5 (1)

⇒ At the end of 15 years,

⇒ Amount = 12000 × (1 + r/100)15

⇒ Amount = 12000 × [(1 + r/100)5 ]3 (From 1)

⇒12000 × 23

⇒12000 × 8

⇒ 96000

∴ The amount at the end of 15 years will be Rs.96000

Shortcut Trick

∴ The amount at the end of 15 years will be 8 times of 12000 = Rs.96000

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 14

One root of the equation 2x2 - 8x - m = 0, is 5/2 The other root of the equation and the value of m are respectively:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 14

Concept:

The standard form of a quadratic equation is ax2 + bx + c = 0

Given:

One root of the equation 2x2 - 8x - m = 0, is 5/2 

Calculation:

By substituting 5/2 for x in the equation 2x2 - 8x - m = 0

⇒ 2 × (5/2)2 - 8 × (5/2) - m = 0

⇒ 2 × 25/4 - 40/2 - m = 0

⇒ 25/2 - 40/2 - m = 0

⇒ - 15/2 - m = 0

∴ m = -15/2

Now, by putting the value of m in the equation;

⇒ 2x2 - 8x - (-15/2) = 0

⇒ 2x2 - 8x + 15/2 = 0

⇒ 4x2 - 16x + 15 = 0

⇒ 4x2 - 10x - 6x + 15 = 0

⇒ 2x(2x - 5) - 3(2x - 5) = 0

⇒ (2x - 5)(2x - 3) = 0 n

⇒ x = 5/2, 3/2

∴ The other root, x = 3/2 and m = - 15/2

Mistake Points
One root x = 5/2 is already given in the question, we only need to find the root other than 5/2, so option 3 gets eliminated.

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 15

For which Indian spice did the Indian government challenge the US patenting and force them to revoke it?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 15

The correct answer is Turmeric.
Key Points

  • Indian government challenges the US for patenting turmeric and forces them to revoke it.
  • American researchers of Indian origin, Suman K. Das and Hari Har P. Cohly of the University of Mississippi Medical Center put a claim to the US Patent and Trademark Office, maintaining that they had discovered haldi's healing properties.
  • In March 1995, they received a patent for the Haldi medication.
  • On March 6, 1997, the United States filed its first complaint with the World Trade Organization (WTO) against India's 'patent protection for pharmaceutical and agricultural chemical products.'
  • The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research requested a reexamination from the US Patent Office.
  • This came after Indian experts screamed from the rooftops about how we are losing our traditional knowledge to marauding foreign firms stealing our ancient medicinal practices.
  • The US Patent Office said it made a mistake and revoked the turmeric patent.
  • This is a significant victory because it rarely entirely revokes a patent that it has awarded.
  • This victory will send a strong warning to all those bio-pirates of India's herbal wealth.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 16

Select the letter from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Y, V, Q, J, ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 16

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,
Y - 3 = V;
V - 5 = Q;
Q - 7 = J;
J - 9 = A
Hence, ‘A’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 17
The difference between the mean of first 5 composite numbers and the mean of the first five prime numbers is:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 17

Concept:

First five composite numbers = 4, 6, 8, 9, 10 (Which are obtained by multiplying two positive integers)

First five prime numbers = 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 (Which have only 2 factors, 1 and the number itself)

Formula used:

Mean = Sum of observations/No of observations

Calculation:

Mean of first 5 composite numbers = (4 + 6 + 8 + 9 + 10)/5 = 37/5

Mean of first 5 prime numbers = (2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11)/5 = 28/5

∴ The required difference = 37/5 - 28/5 = 9/5

⇒ 1.8

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 18

The denominator of a fraction is 2 more than the numerator. When the numerator is multiplied by 3 and the denominator is multiplied by 2 the fraction becomes 1/2. The given fraction is:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 18

Given:

Denominator = 2 + Numerator

Calculation:

Let the numerator be = a

⇒The denominator be = 2 + a

As per the question;

a × 3 /(2 + a) × 2 = 1/2

⇒ 3a/(2 + a) = 1

⇒ 3a = 2 + a

⇒ 2a = 2

⇒ a = 1

Numerator = 1

Denominator = 1 + 2 = 3

∴ The required fraction = 1/3

Alternate Method
By Hit & Trial Method
By checking the condition, Denominator = 2 + Numerator
Option A: 5 ≠ 2 + 2
Option B: 4 ≠ 1 + 2
Option C: 3 ≠ 2 + 1
Option D: 3 = 2 + 1

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 19

According to the Census of 2011 ______ is the most populated state of India.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 19

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Census of 2011 was the 7th census after Independence.
  • A population Census is a process of collecting, compiling, analyzing, and disseminating demographic, social, cultural, and economic data relating to all persons in the country, at a particular time in ten years intervals.
  • According to Census 2011:
    • Uttar Pradesh is the most populated state of India.
      • 16.16% of Uttar Pradesh's total population lives in Uttar Pradesh.
    • Sikkim was the least populated State in India.
    • Meghalaya has the highest population growth rate (27.95%) among the states.
    • The population of Andaman and Nicobar is the lowest.
    • Kerala was the most literate state in India.
    • Bihar was the least Literate state in India.
    • C. Chanderamouli was the Census Commissioner of India in 2011.

Additional Information

  • During the British rule in India, the first census was conducted in 1872.
  • The 1872 Census did not include all of the British territories they owned or controlled.
  • W.C.Plowden conducted the 1881 Census on the 17th of February.
  • In 1951, the first census of independent India was held.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 20
When the side of an equilateral triangle is made three times the original side, the area of the new equilateral will become:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 20

Calculation:

Let the side of original triangle be a and area is A1 and the new area of the equilateral triangle be A2

Area of equilateral triangle (A1) = √3/4 × a2

According to the question

On increasing sides by three times

New area of equilateral triangle (A2) = √3/4 × (3a)2

⇒ √3/4 × 9a2

⇒ 9 × √3/4a2

⇒ A2 = 9A1

∴ The area of new equilateral will become 9 times of the original area

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 21
The Rowlatt Act was passed in ______.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 21

The correct answer is 1919.

  • The Rowlatt Satyagraha was a national protest against Rowlatt Act introduced in 1919.
  • The Rowlatt Act was passed on 6th February 1919.
  • Rowlatt Satyagraha was founded in 1919 by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • Gandhiji became a true national leader as a result of the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
  • The Rowlatt Act gave the British government the ability to arrest and imprison anyone for no cause.
  • The Rowlatt Act was officially known as the "anarchical and revolutionary offenses act."
  • Gandhiji referred to the Rowlatt Act as a "black act."
  • On April 6, 1919, Mahatma Gandhi resolved to fight the Rowlatt Act and issued a call for satyagraha.
  • The British viceroy who approved the Rowlatt Act was Lord Chelmsford.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 22
By reducing the selling price of an article by Rs. 50.00, a gain of 5% turns into a loss of 5%. Original selling price is:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 22

Given:

SP = Rs. 50

Gain = 5%

Loss = 5%

Calculation:

Let the original selling price be Rs. x

According to the question

⇒ (x × 100)/105 = (x – 50) × 100/95

19x = 21x 1050

⇒ 2x = 1050

⇒ x = Rs. 525

∴ The original selling price is Rs. 525.00

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 23
when the shadow of a pole of 10 m height is 10√3 m, angular elevation of the Sun is:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 23

Given:

The shadow of a pole of 10 m height = 10√3 m

Calculation:

Let the angular elevation of sun = θ

tanθ = Perpendicular/Base

⇒ tanθ = 10/10√3

⇒ tanθ = 1/√3

⇒ tanθ = tan 30°

⇒ θ = 30°

∴ The angular elevation of the sun is 30°

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 24

Which country was placed first in the Asian Games held in Jakarta in 2018?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 24

The correct answer is China.
Key Points

  • Indonesia hosted the 2018 Asian Games in Jakarta and Palembang.
  • During the opening ceremony, India's flag-bearer was Neeraj Chopra.
  • China came out on top with 132 gold medals.
  • In the end, India came in eighth place.
  • India won 70 medals in total, including 16 gold.
  • During the closing ceremony, Rani Rampal carried the Indian flag.
  • In men's freestyle 65 kg wrestling, Bajrang Punia earned India's first gold medal.
  • Japan placed first in the Asian Games between 1951 and 1978.
  • Hangzhou, China, will host the Asian Games in 2022.
RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 25

Choose the figure that is different from the others.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 25

The pattern follows here is:
All figures except option 2 have 4 symbols - multiplication, division, square and a circle.
Option 2 have symbols - addition, division, square and a circle.
Hence, ‘option 2’ is the odd one out.

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 26

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

4, 14, 60, 248, ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 26

Given: 4, 14, 60, 248, ?

The logic follows here is:

4 = 41 - 0

14 = 42 - 2 = 42 - 21

60 = 43 - 4 = 43 - 22

248 = 44 - 8 = 44 - 23

So the series is of the form

4n - 2n-1 where n = 1, 2, 3, 4, .....

So the next term is obtained by putting n = 5

Similarly,

= 45 - 24

= 1024 - 16

= 1008

Hence, 1008 is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 27

Based on the bar graph given, calculate the approximate percentage increase in sales of mobile phones from 2004 to 2008.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 27

Calculation:

Percentage increase in sales of mobile phones in 2004 = 35

Percentage increase in sales of mobile phones in 2008 = 70

Percentage increase in sales of mobile phones from 2004 to 2008 = (70 – 35)/35 × 100

⇒ 35/35 × 100

⇒ 100%

∴ The required percentage is 100%

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 28
In a certain code language, PAINT is coded as 83527 and SCORE is coded as 49061. How would you code RECENT in the same language?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 28

The logic is:

As PAINT is coded as 83527 and SCORE is coded as 49061.

Drawing the code chart using the above information we get:

Similarly,

Hence, ‘619127’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 29

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term?

Happiness : Sorrow :: Conflict : ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 29

The logic is:

Happiness : Sorrow → Happiness is antonym of Sorrow.

Similarly,

Conflict : ? → Conflict is antonym of Harmony.

Hence, ‘Harmony’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 30

Four brothers Aman, Gaurav, Aakash and Lokesh are at their family function sitting across a circular table. Their occupations are Lawyer, Doctor, Professor and Engineer. Lokesh who is not the Professor, starts a conversation about the on-going IPL and after him the Engineer gives a long discourse about the teams that should reach the play-offs. Aman who is sitting across the Engineer and next to the Professor responds to the Engineer's predictions. Akash speaks only at the end. Who is the Professor?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 1 Question Paper (Held On: 7 Jan 2021 Shift 1) - Question 30

Four brothers: Aman, Gaurav, Aakash and Lokesh.
Occupations: Lawyer, Doctor, Professor and Engineer.
(1) Lokesh who is not the Professor, starts a conversation about the on-going IPL and after him the Engineer gives a long discourse about the teams that should reach the play-offs, implies Lokesh is not the Engineer.
(2) Aman who is sitting across the Engineer and next to the Professor responds to the Engineer's predictions. This gives two possible arrangements, as follows:

(3) Akash speaks only at the end, implies he is not the Engineer. Therefore, the final arrangement is as follows:

Now, we can answer that Akash is the professor
Hence, Akash is the correct answer.

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