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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test RRB NTPC - Previous Year Papers - RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2)

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 is part of RRB NTPC - Previous Year Papers preparation. The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) questions and answers have been prepared according to the RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA exam syllabus.The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) MCQs are made for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) below.
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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 1

In a certain code language,

'speak out your mind' is coded as 'sr tw bl ca',

'your results are out' is coded as 'sr pu en tw',

'mind your results' is coded as 'tw ca pu'.

(Note: All codes are two letter codes only)

What is the code for 'are out' in the given code language?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 1

The logic followed here is-

Thus,
Code for are → en
Code for out → sr
Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 2

In a row of 25 people facing north, Keshav is 7th from the extreme right end. If Teja sits 5th to the left of Keshav, what is Teja's position from the extreme left end of the line?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 2

Given that,

  • Total people in row = 25
  • Keshav is 7th from the extreme right end.
  • Teja sits 5th to the left of Keshav.
  • Therefore, Teja's position from the right end = 7 + 5 = 12th
  • Now, Teja's position from the left end = Total people - Teja's position from the right end + 1
    = 25 - 12 + 1 = 14th

​The diagram is given below-

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 3

In June 2021, Telangana government partnered with which e-commerce firm to develop the 'Medicine from the Sky' project?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 3

The correct answer is Flipkart Internet Pvt. Ltd.

  • In June 2021, the Telangana government partnered with Flipkart Internet Pvt Ltd to develop the 'Medicine from the Sky' project.
  • The Telangana government has selected 16 Primary Healthcare Centres (PHCs) for pilot testing of the ambitious ‘Medicine from the sky’, the first-of-its-kind project.

Key Points

  • E-commerce firm Flipkart has partnered with the Telangana government to lead a consortium tasked with the development and execution of the drone deliveries of medical supplies to remote areas under the ‘Medicines from the Sky’ project.
  • The project was tested out for delivering thousands of Covid-19 vaccines in Hyderabad while keeping in mind all the safety and efficiency parameters.
  • Google-backed delivery and e-commerce firm Dunzo Digital earlier announced similar drone delivery flights under the same project in Telangana.
  • These technologies will be used to conduct ‘Beyond Visual Line of Sight’ (BVLOS) deliveries in remote areas in Telangana where road infrastructure is not conducive to delivering vaccines faster.
  • This project is conceived by World Economic Forum and Healthnet Global Limited which outlines the requirements for drone delivery and assesses proposals.

Important Points
Other Projects involving the Use of Drones:

  • Similar permission was granted to the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) for conducting feasibility study of Covid-19 vaccine delivery using drones, in collaboration with IIT-Kanpur.
  • The International Crops Research Institute (ICRISAT) was permitted to deploy drones for agricultural research activities, apart from some agriculture universities and educational institutions.

Additional Information
Beyond Visual Line of Sight (BVLOS):

  • It is a term relating to the operation of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) and drones at distances outside the normal visible range of the pilot.
  • BVLOS flights typically require additional equipment and extra training and certification and are subject to permission from aviation authorities.
  • Unmanned Aircraft System Rules 2021 states that drones will not be allowed to operate BVLOS, which would limit the use of these gadgets for surveys, photography, security, and various information gathering purposes.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 4
A and B undertake to do a piece of work for Rs. 18,750. A can do it in 20 days and B can do it in 30 days. With the help of C, they finished it in 8 days. How much C should be paid for his work in proportion?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 4

Given:

A and B undertake to do a piece of work for Rs. 18,750

A can do it in 20 days and B can do it in 30 days.

Concept used:

Total work = LCM of the time taken by workers alone

Share of the amount is in the ratio of efficiency

Calculation:

LCM of 20 and 30 is 60 i.e total work

So, efficiency of A and B is 60/20 = 3, 60/30 = 2

Efficiency of A + B + C = 60/8 = 7.5

Efficiency of C = 7.5 - 3 - 2 = 2.5

Share of C = (18750/7.5) × 2.5

⇒ 18750/3

⇒ 6250

∴ C should be paid Rs. 6250 for his work in proportion

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 5

In how much time did Avinash Sable win the men's 3000 m steeplechase in the National Federation Cup Senior Athletics Championships at Netaji Subhas National Institute in 2021?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 5

The correct answer is 8 minutes 20.20 seconds.

Key Points

  • Athlete Avinash Sable set a new national record in the men's 3000m steeplechase event in the Federation Cup in 2021.
  • Avinash recorded a timing of 8:20.20.
  • He broke his own record of 8:21.37 set in 2019.
  • He is from Mandwa village in the Beed district of Maharashtra.

Important Points

  • Avinash is ranked world No. 16 at present.
  • He won silver in his debut international event at the 2019 Asian Athletics Championships in Doha.
  • In 2019, he became the first Indian to qualify for the 3000 meters steeplechase final at the World Championships.

Additional Information
2021 Federation Cup Senior Athletics Championships:

  • It was the 24th edition of the national championship in outdoor track and field for India.
  • It was held on 15–19 March at the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports in Patiala.
  • Three Indian national records were set at the competition:
    • Kamalpreet Kaur won the women's discus throw with a record 65.06 m – the first Indian woman to throw beyond 65 meters.
    • M. Sreeshankar added six centimeters to his own national record to win the men's long jump.
    • In the women's javelin throw, Annu Rani's winning mark of 63.24 m added almost a meter to her previous record.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 6

Who among the following is an Indian tabla virtuoso, composer, percussionist, music producer, and film actor who was awarded the Padma Shri in 1988, and the Padma Bhushan in 2002?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 6

The correct answer is Ustad Zakir Hussain.
Ustad Zakir Hussain is an Indian tabla virtuoso, composer, percussionist, music producer, and film actor who was awarded the Padma Shri in 1988, and the Padma Bhushan in 2002.
Key Points

  • Zakir Hussain is an Indian tabla player, composer, percussionist, music producer, and film actor.
  • He is the eldest son of tabla player Alla Rakha.
  • He was awarded the Padma Shri in 1988, and the Padma Bhushan in 2002.
  • He was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1990.
  • He was named an Old Dominion Fellow by the Humanities Council at Princeton University.
  • He was a visiting professor at Stanford University.

Additional Information
Ustad Allah Rakha:

  • ​He was an Indian tabla player who specialized in Hindustani classical music.
  • He was born in Ghagwal Village Jammu, Jammu, and Kashmir.
  • He was awarded the Padma Shri in 1977 and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1982.

Pandit Kumar Bose:

  • ​He is an Indian tabla maestro and composer of Indian classical music.
  • He was taught by Kishan Maharaj.
  • He was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi award in 2007.

Pandit Anindo Chatterjee:

  • ​He is an Indian tabla player.
  • He performed at Rashtrapati Bhavan when President of US Barack Obama visited India in November 2010.
  • He was awarded the Sangeet Natak Academy Award in 2002.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 7

In a certain code language, 'COULD' is written as 'BNTKC', and 'MARGIN' is written as 'LZQFHM'. How will 'MOULDING' be written in that language?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 7

This question is based on the positional value of alphabets.

The logic followed here is-

 And

Similarly,

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 8

A sum of Rs. 7800 amounts to Rs. 10381.80 at x% p.a. in 2 years when the interest is compounded 8-monthly. What will be the compound interest on the same sum at (x + 5)% p.a. in one year, if the interest is compounded half yearly?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 8

Given:

Principal = Rs. 7800

Amount = 10381.80

Time = 2 years

Rate = x%

Formula used:

A = P(1 + r/100)t

A = Amount

P = Principal

t = time

r = rate

Calculation:

2 years = 24 months

So, for 8 monthly compound interest t will be 3

Let rate % for 8 monthly interest be a

According to the question,

10381.80 = 7800(1 + a/100)3

⇒ 10381.8/7800 = (1 + a/100)3

⇒ 1331/1000 = (1 + a/100)3

⇒ (11/10)3 = (1 + a/100)3

⇒ 11/10 = 1 + a/100

⇒ a = 10

Now, 10% for 8 monthly

So, 15% for yearly

Now, new rate = 15 + 5 = 20

Again for half yearly interest = 20/2 = 10

For half yearly t will be 2

So,

7800(1 + 10/100)2 - 7800

⇒ 9438 - 7800

⇒ 1638

∴ Required answer is Rs. 1638

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 9

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

JOE : GLB :: RDY : OAV :: PGL : ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 9

This question is based on the concept of positional value of alphabets.

The logic followed here is-

 

Similarly,

Thus, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 10
The amount payable on maturity after years on a sum of Rs. 4,750, when invested at a certain rate per cent of simple interest per annum, was Rs. 6,840. What was the per annum per cent rate of simple interest paid?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 10

Given:

Sum = Rs. 4750

Time = years

Amount = Rs. 6840

Concept used:

S.I = PTR/100

P = Principal

T = time

R = rate

Amount = P + S.I

Calculation:

Interest = 6840 - 4750

⇒ 2090

Let the rate be R

According to the question,

2090 = (4750 × 11 × R)/(100 × 2)

⇒ 2090 × 20 = 475 × 11R

⇒ R = 41800/(475 × 11)

⇒ R = 8

The per annum per cent rate of simple interest paid is 8

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 11

Government of India has planned to earmark how much amount for National Research Foundation (NRF) over a period of 5 years on 26 July 2021?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 11

The correct answer is Rs. 50,000 crores.
Key Points
Rs. 50,000 cr. for National Research Foundation:

  • Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman earmarked Rs. 50,000 crore over five years for the creation of a National Research Foundation (NRF) — an umbrella body that is expected to fund research across a range of disciplines, from science and technology to humanities.
  • Sitharaman had first announced such a foundation in her 2019 Budget speech after it was proposed in a draft of India’s New Education Policy (NEP).
  • NRF will ensure that the overall research ecosystem in the country is strengthened with a focus on identified national priority thrust areas.
  • The NRF will also seed and build research capacity at universities and colleges through a formal mechanism of mentoring.
  • It will also catalyse research at universities and colleges that have until now not been big players in research.
  • The NRF will also help build the capacity to do research through an institutionalised mentoring mechanism, involving expert researchers from premier institutions of the country, the NEP document notes.
  • The NRF would be an autonomous body and represented by all major research and education bodies.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 12
The mean of a certain number of observations is 12. If one observation is removed and the mean remains unaltered, then the removed observation is:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 12

Given:

The mean of a certain number of observations is 12

If one observation is removed and the mean remains unaltered

Concept used:

Mean = Sum of observation/No. of observation

Calculation:

Let total observations be a

So, total = 12 × a = 12a

Now, after removing one observation no. of observation = a - 1

New total = (a - 1) × 12 = 12a - 12

Difference = 12a - (12a - 12)

⇒ 12 i.e the removed observation.

∴ Required answer is 12

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 13
The FRBMA was enacted in 2003, which set targets for the government to reduce fiscal deficits. What does FRBMA stand for?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 13

The correct answer is Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act.

Key Points

  • The FRBM Act aims to introduce transparency in India's fiscal management systems.
  • The Act's long-term objective is for India to achieve fiscal stability and give the RBI flexibility to deal with inflation in India.
  • In 2016, the government set up a committee under N K Singh to review the FRBM Act.

In News

  • In 2021-22, the government had not provided a target for the next three years and will amend the FRBM Act to accommodate the higher fiscal deficit.
  • The fiscal deficit is targeted at 6.8% of GDP in 2020-21 (4.6% in 2019-20)
  • In Union Budget 2021 speech, the Finance Minister has announced the government's aim to steadily reduce the fiscal deficit to 4.5% of GDP by 2025-26.

Additional Information

FRBM Act:

  • It was enacted in August 2003.
  • It aims to make the Central government responsible for ensuring inter-generational equity in fiscal management and long-term macro-economic stability.
  • The Act envisages the setting of limits on the Central government’s debt and deficits.
  • It limited the fiscal deficit to 3% of the GDP.
  • To ensure that the States to are financially prudent, the 12th Finance Commission’s recommendations in 2004 linked debt relief to States with their enactment of similar laws.
  • The States have since enacted their own respective Financial Responsibility Legislation, which sets the same 3% of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) cap on their annual budget deficits.
  • It also mandates greater transparency in fiscal operations of the Central government and the conduct of fiscal policy in a medium-term framework.
  • The Budget of the Union government includes a Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement that specifies the annual revenue and fiscal deficit goals over a three-year horizon.
  • The rules for implementing the Act were notified in July 2004. The rules were amended in 2018, and most recently to the setting of a target of 3.1% for March 2023.
  • The NK Singh committee (set up in 2016) recommended that the government should target a fiscal deficit of 3% of the GDP in the years up to March 31, 2020, cut it to 2.8% in 2020-21, and to 2.5% by 2023.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 14

The orbit of which of the following satellites is NOT sun-synchronous?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 14

The correct answer is Meteosat - 11.

  • The orbit of Meteosat - 11 is not sun-synchronous.

Key Points

  • The Meteosat series of satellites are geostationary meteorological satellites operated by EUMETSAT under the Meteosat Transition Programme (MTP) and the Meteosat Second Generation (MSG) program.
  • EUMETSAT currently operates the Meteosat -9, -10, and -11 in geostationary orbit (36,000km) over Europe and Africa, and Meteosat-8 over the Indian Ocean.
  • Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO) is a particular kind of polar orbit.
  • Satellites in SSO, traveling over the polar regions, are synchronous with the Sun.
  • This means they are synchronized to always be in the same 'fixed' position relative to the Sun.

Additional Information
ERS-1:

  • It is a sun-synchronous satellite.
  • It was launched in 1991.
  • ERS stands for European Remote Sensing satellite.

NIMBUS-7:

  • It is the seventh and last satellite in the series of the Nimbus program.
  • It is a sun-synchronous satellite.
  • It was launched on October 24, 1978, by a Delta rocket from Vandenberg Air Force Base, California, United States.

IKONOS:

  • It was a commercial Earth observation satellite.
  • It was the first to collect publicly available high-resolution imagery at 1 and 4-meter resolution.
  • It is also sun-synchronous and was launched in 1999.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 15

On the shores of the Bay of Bengal, the temple at Konark was built in the ______.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 15

The correct answer is 13th century.

  • On the shores of the Bay of Bengal, the temple at Konark was built in the 13th century.

Key Points

  • Konark Sun Temple, located in the East Odisha near the sacred city of Puri.
  • Built in the 13th year by King Narasimha I (AD 1238-1264).
  • Its scale, refinement and concept represent the strength and stability of the Ganga Empire as well as the value systems of the historical environment.
  • The temple is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot.
  • It is dedicated to the god sun.
  • In this sense, it is directly and materially linked to Brahmanism and tantric belief systems.
  • The Konark temple is widely known not only for its architectural grandeur but also for the intricacy and profusion of sculptural work.
  • It marks the highest point of achievement of Kalinga architecture depicting the grace, the joy and the rhythm of life all its wondrous variety.
  • It was declared a UNESCO world heritage site in 1984.
  • There are two rows of 12 wheels on each side of the Konark sun temple.
  • Sailors once called this Sun Temple of Konark, the Black Pagoda because it was supposed to draw ships into the shore and cause shipwrecks.
  • Konârak is the invaluable link in the history of the diffusion of the cult of Surya, which originating in Kashmir during the 8th century, finally reached the shores of Eastern India.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 16

As of January 2022, who among the following is the Chief Justice of India?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 16

The correct answer is Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana.

  • Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana is the Chief Justice of India.

Key Points

  • Justice Ramana is the 48th Chief Justice of India and was born on August 27, 1957.
  • He hails from the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
  • .He will have a tenure as the Chief Justice of India till August 26, 2022.
  • He took charge on April 24, 2021, a day after Sharad Arvind Bobde retired as chief justice.
  • He has practiced in the High Court of Andhra Pradesh, Central and Andhra Pradesh Administrative Tribunals, and the Supreme Court of India in Civil, Criminal, Constitutional, Labour, Service, and Election matters.
  • He was elevated as a Judge in the Supreme Court of India on 17 February 2014.

Additional Information

  • Indira Banerjee
    • ​She was born on 24th September 1957.
    • Elevated as a permanent Judge of Calcutta High Court on 5th February 2002.
    • Appointed Judge of the Delhi High Court on 8th August 2016.
    • Sworn in as Chief Justice of Madras High Court on 5th April 2017.
    • Elevated as Judge of Supreme Court on 7th August 2018.
  • Uday Umesh Lalit
    • Justice Uday Umesh Lalit is the current and 49th Chief Justice of India (CJI).
    • He succeeded Justice N V Ramana, who retired on 26 August 2022.
  • Sanjay Kishan Kaul
    • ​He practiced mainly in the Commercial, Civil, Writ, Original, and Company jurisdictions of the High Court of Delhi and the Supreme Court of India.
    • He remained Advocate-on-Record of the Supreme Court of India from 1987 to 1999 and was designated as a Senior Advocate in December 1999.
    • He was appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India on 17th February 2017.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 17

Benkat's birthday on 01st January 2012 was a Sunday. On what day will his next birthday be?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 17
  • As 2012 is divisible by 4. So, it is a leap year.
  • Number of odd days in a leap year = Remainder of (366 ÷ 7) = 2
  • So, on 01st January 2013, the day would be
    → Day on 01st Jan 2012 + 2
    → Sunday + 2
    Tuesday

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 18

Five products, A, B, C, D and E are priced differently in a general store. 'A' is cheaper than 'C' but costlier than 'B'. 'E' is costlier than 'C' but cheaper than 'D'. Which product is the cheapest?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 18

According to given information,
Arranging products from the costliest to the cheapest.

  • 'A' is cheaper than 'C' but costlier than 'B'.

So, C > A > B

  • 'E' is costlier than 'C' but cheaper than 'D'.

So, D > E > C

  • Combining both sequences: D > E > C > A > B

Thus, clearly B is the cheapest.
Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 19

A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the question.
Question:
On which day does Sujatha's birthday fall?
Statements:
I. Tom correctly remembers that her birthday comes after Tuesday but before Saturday.
II. Anu correctly remembers that her birthday comes before Thursday but after Monday.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 19
  • Statement I: Sujatha's birthday can be on → Wednesday or Thursday or Friday.

Thus, Statement I alone is not sufficient as no definite answer can be given.

  • Statement II: Sujatha's birthday can be on → Tuesday or Wednesday

Thus, Statement II alone is not sufficient as no definite answer can be given.

  • Combining data in Statement I and Statement II:

Sujatha's birthday can be on → Wednesday
Thus, both statements are required.
Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 20

Which of the following is an element of d block in the modern periodic table?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 20

The correct answer is Fe.
Key Points

  • D block elements are the elements that can be found from the third group to the twelfth group of the modern periodic table.
  • The valance electrons of these elements fall under the d orbital.
  • D block elements are also referred to as transition elements or transition metals.
  • The first three rows of the d block elements correspond to the 3d, 4d and 5d orbitals.
    • 3d - Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu, Zn.
    • 4d - Y, Zr, Nb, Mo, Tc, Ru, Rh, Pd, Ag, Cd
    • 5d - La, Hf, Ta, W, Re, Os, Ir, Pt, Au, Hg
  • Fe ( Iron) is in Group - 8 and period -4. Atomic number= 26.

Explanation-

  • The electronic configuration of the iron is [Ar] 3d6 4s2
  • The electronic configuration of the calcium is [Ar] 4s2
  • The electronic configuration of the mg is [Ne] 3s2
  • The electronic configuration of the Na is[Ne] 3s1
  • From the electronic configuration of the various elements, we can understand that the Fe comes under the d block element as its outermost electron falls under the d shell.

Hence due to the Aufbau principle which states that electrons fill lower-energy atomic orbitals before filling higher-energy ones 3d is written before 4s,
Hence the Fe comes under the d block element
Important Points

  • Calcium (Ca) is one of the alkaline-earth metals of Group 2 (IIa) of the periodic table. Atomic number= 20.
  • Magnesium (Mg) is another alkaline-earth metal of Group 2 (IIa) of the periodic table. Atomic number = 12.
  • Sodium (Na) is the most common alkali metal and the sixth most abundant element on earth, Atomic number= 11.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 21
The renowned singer MS Subbulakshmi was an Indian Carnatic singer born in ________.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 21

The correct answer is Madurai.

Key Points

  • Madurai Shanmukhavadivu Subbulakshmi is a name that is synonymous with the world of Carnatic music.
  • She was the first singer to be presented with India's highest civil honor, the Bharat Ratna.
  • When she was honored with the Ramon Magsaysay award, which is considered Asia's Nobel Prize, she became the first Indian musician to do so.

Important Points

  • Carnatic Music
    • It is a form of Indian Classical music with origins in Southern India
    • Lyrics in Carnatic music are largely devotional; most of the songs emphasize love and other social issues or rest on the concept of sublimation of human emotions for union with the divine.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 22

Scandinavia is a cultural region found in which of the following continents?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 22

The correct answer is Europe.
Key Points

  • The name Scandinavia comes from that a region in southern Sweden called Skane or Scania.
  • The terms Norden and Nordic, both meaning "North," have also been used to refer collectively to the five Scandinavian countries i.e., Sweden, Norway, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, and the Faroe Islands.
  • It is a subregion in Northern Europe, with strong historical, cultural, and linguistic ties between its constituent peoples.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 23

If x = , then the value of (x - 7)2 is

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 23

Given:


Calculation:


⇒ x = (2 + √3)2
⇒ x = 22 + √32 + 2 × 2 × √3
⇒ x = 4 + 3 + 4√3 = 7 + 4√3
(x - 7)2
⇒ (7 + 4√3 - 7)2
⇒ (4√3)2
⇒ 48
∴ Required answer is 48

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 24
A purchased an item for Rs. 12,300. He spent Rs. 200 as cartage. He sold it to B at 10% profit, who sold it to C at 6% profit. C marked it at Rs. 2,915 higher than his cost price and allowed 10% discount to a customer. Find the profit earned by C (in Rs.).
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 24

Given:

A purchased an item for Rs. 12,300. He spent Rs. 200 as cartage.

A sold it to B at 10% profit

B sold it C at 6% profit

Discount % of C = 10%

Concept used:

Selling price = Cost price + Cost price × Profit%

Selling price = Marked price - Markes price × Discount%

Calculation:

A's actual cost = 12300 + 200 = Rs. 12500

Here A's selling price = B's cost price

So, A's selling price = 12500 × 11/10

⇒ 13750 = B's cost price

Again B sold it to C at a profit of 6%

So, B's selling price = C's cost price

B's selling price = 13750 × 106/100

⇒ 14575

C's marked price = 14575 + 2915

⇒ 17490

C's selling price = 17490 × 9/10

⇒ 15741

Profit of C = 15741 - 14575

⇒ 1166

∴ Profit of C is Rs. 1166

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 25
Tata Airlines was originally launched in the year ______.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 25

The correct answer is 1932.

Key Points

  • JRD Tata flew the first flight of Tata Airlines on October 15, 1932.
  • The airline came to be known as Air India following its nationalization post-independence.
  • During its initial years, Air India was called Tata Airlines.
  • It was later nationalized and renamed Air India post-independence of India, which meant that the Tatas stayed out of the Business.

In News

  • Life came in a full circle for Maharaja on Thursday, January 27 as India's first commercial carrier Air India returned to the Tata Group on the Day.
  • The Government officially handed over the national carrier to the business conglomerate, after PM Modi met Tata Group Chairperson N, Chandrasekaran.
  • Tata Sons announced the appointment of Campbell Wilson as the MD and CEO of Air India

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 26

The first English factory was set up on the banks of the river Hugli in _______.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 26

The correct answer is 1651 CE.
Key Points

  • In 1651, the first English factory was set up on the banks of river Hugli in Bengal.
  • The East India Company convinced merchants to settle near the factory.
  • By 1696, the company began building a fort around the Hugli settlement.

Additional Information
English East India Company:

  • The East India Company first arrived via sea route at Surat in the year 1608 for the purpose of establishing trade with India.
  • The Battle of Plassey was a decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal Siraj-Ud-Daulah and his French allies on 23 June 1757.
  • The battle consolidated the Company's presence in Bengal, which later expanded to cover much of India over the next hundred years.
  • Fort William was built in 1696 by East India Company by John Goldsborough at Calcutta.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 27

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DOLPHIN (in both the forward and backward directions) which have as many letters between them in the words as there are in the English alphabetical order?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 27

Given word: DOLPHIN
The alphabets are positioned in the following order-

The given word can be represented as follows-

In forward direction: DH, DI, HI
In backward direction: IL
Thus, here are four pairs of such letters.
Hence. 'option 2' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 28

Study the given digit-letter-symbol sequence carefully and answer the question that follows.

(Left)5 Q + S r 8 B @ A 3 ? 6 c < Z % 6 d & G $ 2(Right)

If the given sequence is written in the reverse order, then which element will be 7th to the right of the 10th element from the right end?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 28

  • '3' is the 10th element from the right end.
  • '+' is the 7th element to the right of '3'.

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.
7th to the right of the 10th element from the right end = 10 - 7 = 3rd element from the right end = +

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 29
If the median of a, , , , is 6, then what is the value of a where a is natural number?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 29

Given:

The median of a, , , , is 6

Concept used:

To find the median, first order the numbers from smallest to largest.

Median of set of n observation when n is odd = [(n + 1)/2]th observation

Calculation:

The numbers are a, , , ,

= 0.5a

= 0.67a

= 0.25a

= 0.6a

So, the numbers in ascending order = , , , , a

Now,

Medina = (5 + 1)/2 = 3rd term which is

So, = 6

⇒ a = 10

∴ The value of a is 10

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 30
Article 352 of the Constitution of India deals with the:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-6) Question Paper (Held On: 9 May 2022 Shift 2) - Question 30

The correct answer is national emergency.

Key Points

  • NATIONAL EMERGENCY
    • ​Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
    • It may be noted that the president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
    • The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a proclamation already issued by him and such proclamation is in operation.
    • This provision was added by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975.
    • When a national emergency is declared on the ground of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression’, it is known as an ‘External Emergency’.
    • On the other hand, when it is declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion’, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency’.
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